NCLEX Urinary Questions
The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client about the types of fluids that assist in the prevention and treatment of urinary tract infections (UTIs). The nurse instructs the client to consume which fluids? Select all that apply. A.Prune juice B. Coffee C. Apple juice D.Cranberry juice E. Iced Tea
A, C, D: Prune, cranberry, and apple juice Prune, Cranberry and Apple juice will help get rid of the bacteria within the urinary tract and help restore the pH balance without causing irritation, as the coffee and iced tea would cause.
The nurse is caring for the client with epididymitis. Which treatment modalities should be implemented? Select all that apply. A. Bed rest B. Sitz bath C. Antibiotics D. Heating pad E. Scrotal elevation
A,B,C,E: Bedrest, Sitz Bath, Antibiotics and Scrotal Elevation Common interventions used in the treatment of epididymitis include bed rest, elevation of the scrotum, ice packs, sitz baths, analgesics, and antibiotics. A heating pad should not be used because direct application of heat could increase blood flow to the area and increase the swelling.
The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has chronic renal failure. Which of the following nursing diagnoses are most appropriate for this client? (Select all that apply.) A.Excess Fluid Volume B.Imbalanced Nutrition; Less than Body Requirements C.Activity Intolerance D.Impaired Gas Exchange E.Pain
A,B,C: Excess Fluid Volume, Imbalanced Nutrition; Less than Body Requirements, Activity Intolerance Appropriate nursing diagnoses for clients with chronic renal failure include excess fluid volume related to fluid and sodium retention; imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting; and activity intolerance related to fatigue. The nursing diagnoses of impaired gas exchange and pain are not commonly related to chronic renal failure
What are the symptoms of Glomerulonephritis? Select all that Apply. A.Oliguria B. Hypertension C. Hypotension D. Electrolyte imbalances E. Edema
A,B,D,E Symptoms of glomerulonephritis include oliguria, hypertension, electrolyte imbalances, and edema. Edema may begin around the eyes and face and progress to the abdomen, lungs, and extremities. Flank pain may also be a symptom.
What are some uses for indwelling urinary catheters? A.Burns B. Urinary tract obstruction C. incontinence D. Shock E. Heart failure
A,B,D,E incontinence is not a justifiable reason to put a catheter in someone. The JC recommends only using them for a short period of time to prevent UTIs.
A client receiving hemodialysis treatment arrives at the hospital with a blood pressure of 190/100, a heart rate of 110, and a respiratory rate of 36. Oxygen saturation in room air is 89%. He complains of shortness of breath, and +2 pedal edema is noted. His last hemodialysis treatment was yesterday. Which of the following interventions should be done first? A. Administer oxygen. B. Elevate the foot of the bed. C. Restrict the client's fluids. D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
A. Administer oxygen. Airway and oxygenation are always the first priority. Because the client is complaining of shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation is only 89%, the nurse needs to try to increase his levels by administering oxygen.
A woman who reports painful urination during or after voiding might have a problem in which location? A. Bladder B. Kidneys C. Ureter D. Urethra
A. Bladder Pain during or after voiding indicates a bladder issue, usually an infection.
What are the frontal sections of the kidney? Select all that Apply. A.Cortex B. Medulla C. Frontal Atriole D. Pelvis
A. Cortex, B. Medulla and D. Frontal Atriole. The frontal section of the kidney shows 3 distinct areas: cortex, medulla, pelvis
The nurse notes documentation in a client's medical record that the client is experiencing anuria. The nurse plans care base on which interpretation? A. The client is unable to produce urine. B. The client has a diminished capacity to form urine. C. The client has difficulty having a bowel movement. D. The client has episodes of alternating constipation and diarrhea.
A. The Client is unable to produce urine anuria is the term used to describe an inability to produce urine.
Peritoneal Dialysis takes place in multiple processes. Select all the processes that occur: A: Draining B: Filling C: Exchanging D: Dwell E: Refilling
A: Draining,B: Filling,D: Dwelling. Draining- solution is drained out of the body and discarded. Process is repeated three or four times a day. Filling- involves instilling a bag of sterile dialyzing solution in the patients peritoneal cavity. Dwell- solution left in the abdomen for several hours, allows time for the waste products from the blood to pass through the membrane.
Which intervention would be inappropriate to help a client with postoperative urine retention? A. Give a diuretic. B. Pour warm water over the perineum. C. Consider inserting a bladder catheter. D. Place the client in a sitting or semi-Fowler position.
A: Give a diuretic. Urine retention reflects bladder distension from urine.
Acute renal failure classifications include all which of the following: (Select all that apply) A: Prerenal failure B: Intrarenal failure C: Chronic renal failure D: Postrenal failure E: Inter renal failure
A: Prerenal Failure,B: Intrarenal Failure,D: Postrenal Failure. A prerenal state is a condition in which kidney dysfunction has occurred because of inadequate blood flow to the kidney tissue. Intra renal state is a condition in which kidney damage has occurred but not due to lack of adequate kidney blood flow or obstruction of urine outflow. A postrenal state is a condition in which kidney dysfunction or damage has occurred because of either an incomplete or complete blockage of the outflow of urine from either one or both kidneys.
Which drug is indicated for pain related to acute renal calculi? A. Narcotic analgesics B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) C. Muscle relaxants D. Salicylates
A:Narcotic analgesics Narcotic analgesics are usually needed to relieve the severe pain of renal calculi.
The nurse is monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis and nurse notes that a client's outflow is less than the inflow. Select actions the nurse should take. (Select all the apply) A.Place the client in good body alignment B.Check the level of the drainage bag C.Contact the physician D.Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks E.Reposition the client to his or her side
Answers: A,B,D,E: Place the client in good body alignment, Check the level of the drainage bag, Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks, Reposition the client to his or her side If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the other side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and the peritoneal dialysis system is also checked for kinks or twisting and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the physician.
The nurse is conducting a postoperative assessment of a client on the first day after renal surgery. Which of the following findings would be most important for the nurse to report to the physician? A.Temperature, 99.8 B.Urine output, 20 ml/hour C.Absence of bowel sounds D. A 2×2 inch area of serous sanguineous drainage on the flank dressing.
B Urine output, 20 ml/hour The decrease in urinary output may indicate inadequate renal perfusion and should be reported immediately. Urine output of 30 ml/hour or greater is considered acceptable. A slight elevation in temperature is expected after surgery. Peristalsis returns gradually, usually the second or third day after surgery. Bowel sounds will be absent until then. A small amount of serous sanguineous drainage is to be expected.
A client is diagnosed with cystitis. Client teaching aimed at preventing a recurrence should include which instruction? A. Bathe in a tub B. Wear cotton underpants. C. Use a feminine hygiene spray. D. Limit your intake of cranberry juice.
B Wear cotton underpants. Cotton underpants prevent infection because they allow air to flow to the perineum. Women should shower instead of taking a tub bath to prevent infection. Feminine hygiene spray can act as an irritant. Cranberry juice helps prevent cystitis because it increases urine acidity; alkaline urine supports bacterial growth.
The nurse is reviewing the client's record and notes that the health care provider has documented that the client has a renal disorder. Which laboratory results would indicate a decrease in renal function? Select all that apply. A.Increased red blood cell (RBC) count B. Elevated serum creatinine level C. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count D. Decreased red blood cell (RBC) count E. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
B, D, E: Elevated Serum Cr, Decreased RBC, Elevated BUN A patient with decreased renal function, their lab results would show a decrease in their red blood cell (RBC) count, and an elevated BUN and serum creatinine level.
A client with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) undergoes a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) and is receiving continuous bladder irrigations postoperatively. Which are the signs/symptoms of transurethral resection (TUR) syndrome? A. Tachycardia and diarrhea B. Bradycardia and confusion C. Increased urinary output and anemia D. Decreased urinary output and bladder spasms
B. Bradycardia and confusion TUR syndrome is caused by increased absorption of nonelectrolyte irrigating fluid used during surgery. The client may show signs of cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure, such as increased blood pressure, bradycardia, confusion, disorientation, muscle twitching, visual disturbances, and nausea and vomiting.
The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the prescribed dwell time for the dialysis because of the risk of which complication? A. Peritonitis B. Hyperglycemia C. Hyperphosphatemia D. Disequilibrium syndrome
B. Hyperglycemia Rationale: An extended dwell time increases the risk of hyperglycemia in the client with diabetes mellitus as a result of absorption of glucose from the dialysate and electrolyte changes. Diabetic clients may require extra insulin when receiving peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a risk associated with breaks in aseptic technique. Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte imbalance that occurs with renal dysfunction. Disequilibrium syndrome is a complication associated with hemodialysis
Which of the following assessment data would most likely be related to a client's current complaint of stress incontinence? A. The client's intake of 2 to 3 L of fluid per day. B. The client's history of three full-term pregnancies. C. The client's age of 45 years. D. The client's history of competitive swimming.
B. The client's history of three full-term pregnancies. The history of three pregnancies is most likely the cause of the client's current episodes of stress incontinence.
Where are the bilateral kidneys located? A.The anterior wall of the abdominal cavity B. The posterior wall of the abdominal cavity C. The anterior pelvis D. The posterior pelvis
B. The posterior wall of the abdominal cavity The bilateral kidneys are located against the posterior wall of the abd. Cavity. They are retroperitoneal and superior portions of both kidneys rest on the inferior surface of the diaphragm, protected by the lower rib cage.
You have a patient that might have a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which statement by the patient suggests that a UTI is likely? A. "I pee a lot." B. "It burns when I pee." C. "I go hours without the urge to pee." D. "My pee smells sweet."
B: "It burns when I pee" A common symptom of a UTI is dysuria. A patient with a UTI often reports frequent voiding of small amounts and the urgency to void.
You expect a patient in the oliguric phase of renal failure to have a 24-hour urine output less than: A. 200ml B. 400ml C. 800ml D. 1000ml
B: 400 mL Oliguria is defined as urine output of less than 400ml/24hours
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with stress incontinence. Which of the following instructions should be included? A. Avoid activities that are stressful and upsetting B. Avoid caffeine and alcohol C. Do not wear a girdle D. Limit physical exertion
B: Avoid Caffeine and alcohol Client's with stress incontinence are encouraged to avoid substances such as caffeine and alcohol which are bladder irritants.
The nurse provides instructions to a female client regarding the procedure for collecting a midstream urine sample. The nurse should tell the client to perform which action? A. Douche before collecting the specimen. B. Cleanse the perineum from front to back. C. Collect the urine in the cup as soon as the urine flow begins. D. Collect the specimen before bedtime, and bring it to the laboratory the next morning.
B: Cleanse the perineum from front to back As part of correct procedure, the client should cleanse the perineum from front to back with the antiseptic wipes that are packaged with the specimen kit.
What is the most important nursing diagnosis for a patient in end-stage renal disease? A. Risk for injury B. Fluid volume excess C. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements D. Activity intolerance
B: Fluid Volume Excess Kidneys are unable to rid the body of excess fluids which results in fluid volume excess during ESRD.
The nurse is caring for a client following a kidney transplant. The client develops oliguria. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed as the treatment of oliguria? A.Encourage Fluid Intake B.Administration of Diuretics C.Irrigation of Foley Cath D.Restricting Fluids
C Administration of Diuretics To increase urinary output, diuretics and osmotic agents are considered. The client should be monitored closely because fluid overload can cause hypertension, congestive heart failure, and pulmonary edema. Fluid intake would not be encouraged or restricted. Irrigation of the foley catheter will not assist in alleviating this oliguria.
What is Cystitis? A.Inflammation of the kidneys B. Irritation of the ureters C. Inflammation of the bladder D. Irritation of the urethra
C Inflammation of the bladder Cystitis is inflammation of the bladder usually caused by a bacteria. Cys-bladder, -itis- inflammation
The nurse suspects that a client with polyuria is experiencing water diuresis. Which laboratory value suggests water diuresis? A.High Urine Specific Gravity B.High Urine Osmolarity C.Normal to low Urine Specific Gravity D.Elevated Urine PH
C Normal to Low Urine Specific Gravity Water diuresis causes low urine specific gravity, low urine osmolarity, and a normal to elevated serum sodium level. High specific gravity indicates dehydration. Hypernatremia signals acidosis and shock. Elevated urine pH can result from potassium deficiency, a high-protein diet, or uncontrolled diabetes.
Which of the following symptoms is the most common clinical finding associated with bladder cancer? A.Suprapubic pain B.Dysuria C.Painless hematuria D.Urinary retention
C Painless Hematuria Painless hematuria is the most common clinical finding in bladder cancer. Other symptoms include frequency, dysuria, and urgency, but these are not as common as the hematuria. Suprapubic pain and urinary retention do not occur in bladder cancer.
A client is diagnosed with prostate cancer. Which test is used to monitor progression of this disease? A.Serum Creatinine B. Complete Blood Cell Count (CBC) C.Protein Specific Antigen (PSA) D.Serum Potassium
C Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) The PSA test is used to monitor prostate cancer progression; higher PSA levels indicate a greater tumor burden. Serum creatinine levels may suggest blockage from an enlarged prostate. CBC is used to diagnose anemia and polycythemia. Serum potassium levels identify hypokalemia and hyperkalemia.
The nurse is evaluating the discharge teaching for a client who has an ileal conduit. Which of the following statements indicates that the client has correctly understood the teaching? Select all that apply. A:"If I limit my fluid intake I will not have to empty my ostomy pouch as often." B:"I can place an aspirin tablet in my pouch to decrease odor." C:"I can usually keep my ostomy pouch on for 3 to 7 days before changing it." D:"I must use a skin barrier to protect my skin from urine." E:"I should empty my ostomy pouch of urine when it is full."
C,D: "I can usually keep my ostomy pouch on for 3 to 7 days before changing it.", "I must use a skin barrier to protect my skin from urine." The client with an ileal conduit must learn self-care activities related to care of the stoma and ostomy appliances. The client should be taught to increase fluid intake to about 3,000 ml per day and should not limit intake. Adequate fluid intake helps to flush mucus from the ileal conduit. The ostomy appliance should be changed approximately every 3 to 7 days and whenever a leak develops. A skin barrier is essential to protecting the skin from the irritation of the urine. An aspirin should not be used as a method of odor control because it can be an irritant to the stoma and lead to ulceration. The ostomy pouch should be emptied when it is one-third to one-half full to prevent the weight from pulling the appliance away from the skin.
Increasing pressure on the kidneys is called what? A.Hyperemesis B. Hydrocephalus C. Hydronephrosis D. Hyperkalemia
C. Hydronephrosis Urine will back up from the point of blockage eventually distending the kidney, (hydronephrosis) and increasing pressure on the structures of the kidney. Pressure can cause kidney damage and lead to CKD
Care for an indwelling urinary catheter should include which intervention? A. Insert the catheter using clean technique B. Keep the drainage bag on the bed with the client. C. Clean around the catheter at the meatus with soap and water. D. Lay the drainage bag on the floor to enable maximum drainage through gravity.
C. Clean around the catheter at the meatus with soap and water. it's important to clean the catheter at the meatus to decrease the chance of infection.
A client has passed a renal calculus. The nurse sends the specimen to the laboratory so it can be analyzed for which of the following factors? A. Antibodies B. Type of infection C. Composition of calculus D. Size and number of calculi
C. Composition of calculus. The calculus should be analyzed for the composition to determine appropriate interventions such as dietary restrictions. Development of the stones is related to decreased urine volume or increased excretion of stone-forming components.
The nurse is monitoring an older client suspected of having a urinary tract infection (UTI) for signs of infection. Which sign/symptom is likely to present first? A. Fever B. Urgency C. Confusion D. Frequency
C. Confusion Rationale: In an older client, the only symptom of a UTI may be something as vague as increasing mental confusion or frequent unexplained falls. Frequency and urgency may commonly occur in an older client, and fever can be associated with a variety of conditions
A client has epididymitis as a complication of a urinary tract infection (UTI). The nurse is giving the client instructions to prevent recurrence. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states the intention to do which action? A Drink an increased amount of fluids. B Limit the force of the stream during voiding. C. Continue to take antibiotics until all symptoms are gone. D. Use condoms to eliminate risk associated with chlamydia and gonorrhea.
C. Continue to take antibiotics until all symptoms are gone Rationale: The client who experiences epididymitis from UTI should increase intake of fluids to flush the urinary system. Because organisms can be forced into the vas deferens and epididymis from strain or pressure during voiding, the client should limit the force of the stream. Condom use can help prevent urethritis and epididymitis from STIs. Antibiotics are always taken until the full course of therapy is completed.
A client who has been diagnosed with bladder cancer is scheduled for an ileal conduit. Preoperatively, the nurse reinforces the client's understanding of the surgical procedure by explaining that an ileal conduit: A. Is a temporary procedure that can be reversed later. B. Diverts urine into the sigmoid colon, where it is expelled through the rectum. C. Conveys urine from the ureters to a stoma opening in the abdomen. D. Creates an opening in the bladder that allows urine to drain into an external pouch.
C. Conveys urine from the ureters to a stoma opening in the abdomen. An ileal conduit is a permanent urinary diversion in which a portion of the ileum is surgically resected and one end of the segment is closed. The ureters are surgically attached to this segment of the ileum, and the open end of the ileum is brought to the skin surface on the abdomen to form the stoma. The client must wear a pouch to collect the urine that continually flows through the conduit. The bladder is removed during the surgical procedure and the ileal conduit is not reversible.
A client has urge incontinence. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find in this client? A. Inability to empty the bladder. B. Loss of urine when coughing. C. Involuntary urination with minimal warning. D. Frequent dribbling of urine.
C. Involuntary urination with minimal warning. A characteristic of urge incontinence is involuntary urination with little or no warning. Urge incontinence is a type of urinary incontinence in adults, which involves sudden compelling urges to void and results in involuntary leakage of urine.
What is the procedure done to eliminate kidney stones? A.Cystoscope B. Nephroscopy C. Lithotripsy D. Nephrostomy
C. Lithotripsy lithotripsy is the use of sound shock waves or laser energy to break the stone into small fragments.
During a client's urinary bladder catheterization, the bladder is emptied gradually. The best rationale for the nurse's action is that completely emptying an overdistended bladder at one time tends to cause: A. Renal failure B. Abdominal cramping C. Possible shock D. Atrophy of bladder musculature
C. Possible shock. Rapid emptying of an overdistended bladder may cause hypotension and shock due to the sudden change of pressure within the abdominal viscera. Previously, removing no more than 1,000 ml at one time was the standard of practice, but this is no longer thought to be necessary as long as the over distended bladder is emptied slowly.
What is the surgery to remove renal calculi? A. Nephrostomy B. Lithography C. Nephrolithotomy D. Urostomy
C.Nephrostomy some patients may need surgery with local or general anesthesia for stone removal. For kidney stones that are large and cannot be removed a percutaneous nephrolithotomy is performed.
Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)? A. A 35 y.o. woman with a fractured wrist B. A 20 y.o. woman with asthma C. A 50 y.o. postmenopausal woman D. A 28 y.o. with angina
C: A 50 year old postmenopausal woman. Women are more prone to UTI's after menopause due to reduced estrogen levels. Reduced estrogen levels lead to reduced levels of vaginal Lactobacilli bacteria, which protect against infection.
A client is scheduled for intravenous pyelography (IVP). Which priority nursing action should the nurse take? A. Restrict fluids. B Administer a sedative. C. Determine if there is a history of allergies. D Administer an oral preparation of radiopaque dye
C: Determine if there is a history of allergies Rationale: An iodine-based dye may be used during the IVP and can cause allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, tight feeling in the throat, shortness of breath, and bronchospasm. Checking for allergies is the priority. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unnecessary
Which of the following causes the majority of UTI's in hospitalized patients? A. Lack of fluid intake B. Inadequate perineal care C. Invasive procedures D. Immunosuppression
C: Invasive Procedures Invasive procedures such as catheterization can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract. A lack of fluid intake could cause a concentration of urine, but wouldn't necessarily cause infection.
Which type of catheter is generally used for the client with urine retention? A. Coude B. Indwelling urinary C. Straight D. Three-way
C: Straight. Urine retention is usually a temporary problem therefore the only one that is for a temporary problem is the straight cath. The other catheters are used for longer bladder problems.
A client with prostatitis resulting from kidney infection has received instructions on management of the condition at home and prevention of recurrence. Which statement indicates that the client understood the instructions? A. Stop antibiotic therapy when pain subsides. B. Exercise as much as possible to stimulate circulation. C Use warm sitz baths and analgesics to increase comfort. D Keep fluid intake to a minimum to decrease the need to void.
C: Use warm sitz baths and analgesics to increase comfort. Treatment of prostatitis includes medication with antibiotics, analgesics, and stool softeners. The client is also taught to rest, increase fluid intake, and use sitz baths for comfort. Antimicrobial therapy is always continued until the prescription is completely finished.
A client underwent a TURP, and a large three-way catheter was inserted into the bladder with continuous bladder irrigation. In which of the following circumstances would the nurse increase the flow rate of the continuous bladder irrigation? A. When the drainage is continuous but slow B. When the drainage appears cloudy and dark yellow C. When the drainage becomes bright red D. When there is no drainage of urine and irrigating solution
C: When the drainage becomes bright red. The decision made by the surgeon to insert a catheter after a TURP or prostatectomy depends on the amount of bleeding that is expected after the procedure. During continuous bladder irrigation after a TURP or prostatectomy, the rate at which the solution enters the bladder should be increased when the drainage becomes brighter red. The color indicates the presence of blood. Increasing the flow of irrigating solution helps flush the catheter well so clots do not plug it
A client with chronic kidney disease has been on dialysis for 3 years. The client is receiving the usual combination of medications for the disease, including aluminum hydroxide as a phosphate-binding agent. The client now has mental cloudiness, dementia, and complaints of bone pain. Which does this data indicate? A Advancing uremia B. Phosphate overdose C. Folic acid deficiency D.. Aluminum intoxication
D Aluminum intoxication Rationale: Aluminum intoxication may occur when there is accumulation of aluminum, an ingredient in many phosphate-binding antacids. It results in mental cloudiness, dementia, and bone pain from infiltration of the bone with aluminum. This condition was formerly known as dialysis dementia. It may be treated with aluminum-chelating agents, which make aluminum available to be dialyzed from the body. It can be prevented by avoiding or limiting the use of phosphate-binding agents that contain aluminum
The nurse is collecting data from a client who has had benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) in the past. To determine whether the client is currently experiencing exacerbation of BPH, the nurse should ask the client about the presence of which early symptom? A Nocturia B. Urinary retention C. Urge incontinence D. Decreased force in the stream of urine
D. Decreased force in the stream of urine Rationale: Decreased force in the stream of urine is an early sign of BPH. The stream later becomes weak and dribbling. The client may then develop hematuria, frequency, urgency, urge incontinence, and nocturia. If untreated, complete obstruction and urinary retention can occur
A client received a kidney transplant 2 months ago. He's admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of acute rejection. Which of the following assessment findings would be expected? A. Hypotension B. Normal body temperature C. Decreased WBC count D. Elevated BUN and creatinine levels
D. Elevated BUN and creatinine levels. In a client with acute renal graft rejection, evidence of deteriorating renal function is expected.
Which method should be used to collect a specimen for urine culture? A. Have the client void in a clean container. B. Clean the foreskin of the penis of uncircumcised men before specimen collection. C. Have the client void into a urinal and then pour the urine into a urinal and then pour the urine into the specimen container. D. Have the client begin the stream of urine in the toilet and catch the urine in a sterile container midstream.
D. Have the client begin the stream of urine in the toilet and catch the urine in a sterile container midstream. Catching urine midstream reduces the amount of contamination by microorganisms at the meatus.
When providing discharge teaching for a client with uric acid calculi, the nurse should make an instruction to avoid which type of diet? A. Low-calcium B. Low-oxalate C. High-oxalate D. High-purine
D. High-purine. To control uric acid calculi, the client should follow a low-purine diet, which excludes high-purine foods such as organ meats. To prevent uric acid stones, cut down on high-purine foods such as red meat, organ meats, and shellfish, and follow a healthy diet that contains mostly vegetables and fruits, whole grains, and low-fat dairy products.
A client is receiving a radiation implant for the treatment of bladder cancer. Which intervention is appropriate? A. Flush all urine down the toilet. B. Restrict the client's fluid intake. C. Place the client in a semiprivate room. D. Monitor the client for signs and symptoms of cystitis.
D. Monitor the client for signs and symptoms of cystitis.
A client is receiving a radiation implant for the treatment of bladder cancer. Which of the following interventions is appropriate? A. Flush all urine down the toilet. B. Restrict the client's fluid intake. C. Place the client in a semi-private room. D. Monitor the client for signs and symptoms of cystitis.
D. Monitor the client for signs and symptoms of cystitis. Cystitis is the most common adverse reaction of clients undergoing radiation therapy; symptoms include dysuria, frequency, urgency, and nocturia.
Adverse reactions of prednisone therapy include which of the following conditions? A.Acne and Bleeding Gums B.Sodium Retention and Constipation C.Mood Swings and increased Temperature D.Increased Blood Glucose Levels and Decreased Healing
D: Increased Blood Glucose Levels and decreased healing Steroid use tends to increase blood glucose levels, particularly in clients with diabetes and borderline diabetes. Steroids also contribute to poor wound healing and may cause acne, mood swings, and sodium and water retention. Steroids don't affect thermoregulation, bleeding tendencies, or constipation.
The nurse is preparing to care for the client following a renal scan. Which of the following would the nurse include in the plan of care? A.Place the client on radiation precautions for 18 hours B.Save all urine in a radiation safe container for 18 hours C.Limit contact with the patient to 20 minutes per hours D.No special precautions except to wear gloves if in contact with the client's urine
D: No special precautions except to wear gloves if in contact with the client's urine No specific precautions are necessary following a renal scan. Urination into a commode is acceptable without risk from the small amount of radioactive material to be excreted. The nurse wears gloves to maintain body secretion precautions.
T/F. Blood has nothing to do with the production of urine.
False Blood enters the kidney to begin micro circulation at the nephron to form urine from blood plasma.
Fill in the blank. ____________ is septic shock that can lead to death.
Urosepsis. Urosepsis is sepsis caused by a UTI. Septic shock can be a result which can then lead to death if not treated immediately. Older adults are more at risk for developing.