Networking Mid Term (Multiple Choice)

d. 1, 2, 3, 6

A Fast Ethernet connection utilizes what pins on an RJ-45 plug? a. 1, 2, 4, 5 b. 1, 2, 3, 5 c. 1, 2, 7, 8 d. 1, 2, 3, 6

ipconfig /flushdns

A Windows computer on your network is having issues resolving queries for a specific domain, but not other domains. Other computers on the same network resolve the name just fine. What command can you issue that might fix the problem? a. ipconfig /renew b. ipconfig /release c. ipconfig /flushdns d. ipconfig /refresh

Project manager

A change coordinator functions as what type of manager? a. project manager b. inventory manager c. human resources manager d. time manager

c. VoIP PBX (private branch exchange)

A dedicated telephone switch or virtual switching device that connects and manages calls within a private organization, and manages call connections that exit the network through a VoIP gateway, is known by what term? a. VoIP ATB (analog telephone branch) b. VoIP router c. VoIP PBX (private branch exchange) d. VoIP LEC (local exchange carrier)

a. The cable must be a rollover cable.

A junior administrator is having issues connecting to a router's console port using a TIA/EIA 568B standard cable and a USB serial to RJ-45 adapter, despite verifying terminal settings. What is the issue? a. The cable must be a rollover cable. b. The router console port is providing an Ethernet connection, instead of a serial connection. c. The USB standard is incompatible with the serial connection used by the console port. d. Router console ports are only used when connected to other routers.

c. It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports.

A network TAP serves what purpose on a network? a. It monitors network throughput at a specific point in the network. b. It provides wireless monitoring capabilities, as well as spectrum analysis. c. It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports. d. It serves as a miniature firewall that can be placed in front of any connection.

Fail Open

A policy in which all exit doors for a building stay unlocked during a fire is an example of what type of policy? a. fail-oriented b. fail-open c. fail-close d. fail-tolerant

d. incremental backup

A snapshot is most similar to which type of backup scheme? a. full backup b. versioned backup c. differential backup d. incremental backup

c. fail-close

An open electrical circuit as a result of a failed circuit breaker is considered to be what type of failure system? a. fail-dynamic b. fail-tolerant c. fail-close d. fail-open

domain names

At the Transport layer of the OSI, what is used to find and communicate with a particular application running on a host? a. port numbers b. MAC addresses c. IP addresses d. domain names

d. Physical layer

At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary? a. Network layer b. Data link layer c. Transport layer d. Physical layer

Network

At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate?

d. Layer 2

At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate? a. Layer 4 b. Layer 3 c. Layer 5 d. Layer 2

d. RADIUS

By far the most popular AAA service, what open-source service runs in the Application layer and can use UDP or TCP in the Transport layer? a. TACACS+ b. Kerberos c. Google Authenticator d. RADIUS

c. The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.

Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation? a. The signal is completely absorbed by the diffracting material. b. The signal is returned back towards the source of the original signal. c. The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split. d. The signal is redirected into multiple directions

No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced? a. Each pair should be twisted around another pair to reduce cross talk. b. Each pair should be stripped of insulation so that it doesn't get caught in the jack. c. No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. d. No less than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed.

The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.

In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate? a. The hosts that share the same MAC addresses will be completely unable to communicate with any other devices. b. The hosts will generate new MAC addresses until the conflict is resolved. c. The network switch will eventually crash due to being unable to properly forward traffic. d. The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.

d. decibels

Noise that can degrade or distort a signal on a network is measured with what unit? a. volts b. joules c. farads d. decibels

ifconfig -a

On a Linux-based system, what command can be used to display TCP/IP information associated with every interface on the system? a. ipconfig /all b. if status c. ip show d. ifconfig -a

c. mean time to repair (MTTR)

Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair? a. mean field replacement time (MFRT) b. mean time to restore (MTTR) c. mean time to repair (MTTR) d. mean restoration time (MRT)

d. runts

Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below? a. giants b. jabbers c. ghosts d. runts

Link State

Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols? A) distance vector B) link state C) exterior gateway D) map extension

d. simplex

Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal? a. duplex b. full-duplex c. half-duplex d. simplex

Transport

The TCP and UDP protocols both exist at what layer of the OSI model? a. Application b. Presentation c. Transport d. Network

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

The Windows Remote Desktop application utilizes what protocol to provide secure, encrypted transmissions? a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) b. Secure Shell (SSH) c. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) d. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

a. captive portal

Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of? a. captive portal b. WPA2-Enterprise c. guest network profile d. browser hijacking

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

What Application layer protocol can be used to monitor and gather information about network traffic and can alert network administrators about adverse conditions that need attention?

a. 802.11i

What IEEE standard includes an encryption key generation and management scheme known as TKIP? a. 802.11i b. 802.1X c. 802.11j d. 802.11h

a. authorization

What aspect of AAA is responsible for determining what a user can and cannot do with network resources? a. authorization b. accessibility c. accounting d. authentication

c. ipconfig /all

What command can you utilize to display TCP/IP configuration information for each network adapter installed? a. ipconfig /show b. ipconfig /list c. ipconfig /all d. ipconfig /full

netstat -n

What command will list only current connections, including IP addresses and port numbers? a. netstat -s b. portstat c. show ip stats d. netstat -n

b. vertical cross connect

What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs? a. patch cable b. vertical cross connect c. horizontal cross connect d. diagonal cabling

a. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

What descendant of the Spanning Tree Protocol is defined by the IEEE 802.1W standard, and can detect as well as correct for link failures in milliseconds? a. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) b. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) c. Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) d. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links (TRILL)

b. 802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch.

Which of the following statements regarding the 802.11ac standard is NOT accurate? a. 802.11ac access points can handle multiple transmissions at one time over the same frequency. b. 802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch. c. 802.11ac operates on the 5-GHz band. d. The standard was officially approved in early 2014.

b. Protected EAP (PEAP)

Which adaptation of EAP utilizes EAP-MSCHAPv2 inside of an encrypted TLS tunnel? a. EAP-TLS b. Protected EAP (PEAP) c. EAP-FAST d. LEAP

netstat -s

Which command will produce statistics about each message transmitted by a host, separated according to protocol type? a. ipconfig -s b. netstat -s c. netstat -an d. ipstat -a

127.0.0.1

Which of the following IP addresses would be a loopback IP address?

2000::/3

Which of the following IPv6 addresses represents a global unicast address? a. FC00::/7 b. FD00::/8 c. 2000::/3 d. FE80::10

Cable ties should be pulled tightly to keep cables from moving around in a bundle.

Which of the following is NOT a best practice when performing cable management?

a. 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255

Which of the following is NOT a range of IP addresses recommended for use in private networks? a. 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 b. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 c. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255 d. 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255

a. request for proposal

Which of the following is a document that is sent as a request to vendors to submit a proposal for a product or service that your company wants to purchase? a. request for proposal b. request for quote c. statement of work d. memorandum of understanding

The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.

Which of the following is an example of encapsulation? a. The addition of a trailer to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model. b. The modification of headers from a higher layer in the OSI model. c. The subtraction of a header from data inherited from the layer below in the OSI model. d. The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.

b. Squid

Which of the following is an example of proxy server software? a. Apache b. Squid c. Snort d. BIND

A router forwards broadcasts over the network.

Which of the following is not a task handled by a router? a. A router forwards broadcasts over the network. b. A router can connect dissimilar networks. c. A router can interpret Layer 3 and often Layer 4 addressing. d. A router can reroute traffic if the path of first choice is down but a second path is available.

They centralize user account logins.

Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks? a. They are not necessarily secure. b. They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers. c. They lack scalability. d. They centralize user account logins

SIP

Which of the following protocols is used as a signaling protocol for the initial connection between hosts, but does not participate in data transfer during the session? a. LDAP b. TFTP c. SIP d. NTP

d. Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass.

Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling is accurate? a. The maximum length for a fiber segment is 20km. b. Fiber-optic cabling has a low resistance to signal noise. c. Fiber-optic cable is cheaper than shielded twisted pair cabling. d. Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass.

c. In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance.

Which of the following statements describes a RAID 0 configuration? a. In a RAID 0, data is striped across three or more drives, with parity information added to the data. b. In a RAID 0, four or more disks are used to mirror data within each pair of disks, and then striped to multiple pairs of disks. c. In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance. d. In a RAID 0, data is mirrored on multiple disks to provide fault tolerance.

TCP 3389

Encrypted control of remote computers using the RDP protocol is accomplished using what port number? a. TCP 3389 b. UDP 10000 c. UDP 161 d. TCP 22

b. geofencing

Enforcing a virtual security perimeter using a client's geographic location is known by what term? a. geolocking b. geofencing c. geohashing d. geolocating

19 inches

Equipment data racks most commonly are a standard width of what measurement? a. 19 inches b. 25 inches c. 20 inches d. 30 inches

Layer 7

HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 4 b. Layer 6 c. Layer 7 d. Layer 5

d. The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.

How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address? a. The last 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer. b. The middle 24 bits, known as the Organization Universal Identifier, identify the manufacturer. c. The first 12 bits and last 12 bits combined are known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier. d. The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer

a. It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium.

How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission? a. It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium. b. It splits the signal into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split. c. It causes the signal to be absorbed by the refracting material. d. It causes the signal to be returned back towards the source of the origin.

b. 4 data streams

How many data streams are used in 802.11ac Wave 2 devices? a. 3 data streams b. 4 data streams c. 2 data streams d. 8 data streams

Application

In the TCP/IP model, what layer combines the responsibilities of the Application, Presentation, and Session layers from the OSI model? a. Application b. Link c. Transport d. Internet

d. Physical

In the TCP/IP model, what layer is considered so simple that it is ignored entirely? a. Network b. Application c. Data Link d. Physical

a. Wi-Fi analyzer

If you need to evaluate Wi-Fi network availability as well as optimize Wi-Fi signal settings and identify security threats, what tool should you use? a. Wi-Fi analyzer b. air scanner c. spectrum analyzer d. protocol analyzer

c. 8 seconds

If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day? a. 1 minute, 26 seconds b. .4 seconds c. 8 seconds d. 14 minutes, 23 seconds

Star Topology

If your network consists of all connected devices connecting to one central device, such as a switch, what type of topology is being used? a. mesh topology b. star bus topology c. bus topology d. star topology

d. 255.255.255.255

In ACL statements, using the "any" keyword is equivalent to using a wildcard mask of what value? a. 255.255.0.0 b. 0.0.0.0 c. 0.0.255.255 d. 255.255.255.255

flow label

In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to? a. group ID b. traffic exchange c. flow label d. traffic class

AAAA record

In a DNS zone, what type of record holds the name-to-address mapping for IPv6 addresses? a. AAAA record b. PTR record c. TXT record d. A record

sliding-window

In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver before acknowledgment is received?

Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

In a domain, the process of allowing a user to sign on to the network from any computer on the network and get access to resources is managed by what service? a. Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) b. Windows Named Resource Services (WN RS) c. Active Directory Federated Users (AD FU) d. Automated Directory Network Services (AD NS)

fire suppression agent

In a fire suppression system, what term is used to describe what is typically a foaming chemical, gas, or water that is sprayed everywhere to put out a fire? a. extinguishing medium b. fire extinction agent c. eliminating factor d. fire suppression agent

VoIP gateway

In a voice over IP setup (VoIP), what kind of device converts signals from a campus's analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over a phone company's analog telephone lines?

The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read.

In considering the responsibilities of each layer of the OSI model, what statement accurately reflects those of the Presentation layer? a. The Presentation layer is responsible for describing how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application. b. The Presentation layer describes the interface between two applications, each on separate computers. c. The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read. d. The Presentation layer is responsible for transporting Application layer payloads from one application to another.

a. No more than four times the diameter of the cable

In general, how much can a twisted-pair's cable be bent before data transmission may be impeded? a. No more than four times the diameter of the cable. b. Twisted pair cable has a near infinite bend radius. c. No more than two times the diameter of the cable. d. No more than ten times the diameter of the cable.

at least 3 feet

In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting?

c. The continuation of business.

In planning for disaster recovery, what is the ultimate goal? a. The preservation of critical data. b. The management of damage. c. The continuation of business. d. The protection of infrastructure

On the DNS root servers.

In the DNS hierarchy, where is information about how to find the top-level domain servers held? a. On the DNS root servers. b. In the organization's forward lookup zone. c. In the hosts file on the local machine. d. On DNS caching-only servers.

d. 13.56 MHz

Near-field communication devices send data at what fixed frequency? a. 8.65 MHz b. 21.39 MHz c. 47.1 MHz d. 13.56 MHz

a. registered jack 11 (RJ-11)

Telephone connections follow what registered jack standard? a. registered jack 11 (RJ-11) b. registered jack 45 (RJ-45) c. registered jack 12 (RJ-12) d. registered jack 100 (RJ-100)

Frame

The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)? a. bit b. frame c. packet d. data

TCP

The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data? a. ARP b. TCP c. ICMP d. UDP

c. IEEE 802.3ad

The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard? a. IEEE 802.1cd b. IEEE 802.3af c. IEEE 802.3ad d. IEEE 802.3bd

a. It used a shared encryption key for all clients, and the key might never change.

The Wired Equivalent Privacy standard had what significant disadvantage? a. It used a shared encryption key for all clients, and the key might never change. b. It only encrypted the initial connection authentication, but did not encrypt subsequent traffic. c. It provided no encryption for traffic sent over the air. d. It did not allow the use of a password for access to the network.

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents is typically outlined in which of the following options? a. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) b. Toxic Chemical Safety Procedure (TCSP) c. Dangerous and Hazardous Waste Disposal Sheet (DHWDS) d. Environmental Chemical Hazard Sheet (ECHS)

a. multiple input-multiple output (MIMO)

The use of multiple antennas on an access point to issue a signal to one or more receivers is enabled by what 802.11 innovation? a. multiple input-multiple output (MIMO) b. frame aggregation c. channel bonding d. spread spectrum frequency hopping

The cables or wireless links that provide interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF, and between the MDF and IDFs.

What does backbone cabling consist of? a. The cables or wireless links that provide interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF, and between the MDF and IDFs. b. It is cabling that connects workstations to the closest data room and to switches housed in the room. c. The shielded cables that are used for high data transmission rates between an organization and an ISP. d. Short length cables with connectors at both ends.

b. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address.

What does the Common Address Redundancy Protocol do? a. It allows multiple devices to share the same fully qualified domain name. b. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address. c. It allows multiple devices to share hardware resources. d. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same MAC address.

The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host

What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0? a. The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host. b. The router attempts to forward the traffic on a local network. c. The router resets the TTL to 128. d. The router marks the packet as corrupted and forwards it to the next hop.

d. The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database.

What happens when an NMS uses the SNMP walk command? a. The NMS sends a request for data to the agent on a managed device. b. The NMS walks through a list of given SNMP hosts. c. The NMS requests a list of all active SNMP traps on the system. d. The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database.

Framing

What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol? a. Framing b. Flow Control c. Sequencing and checksums d. Connection-oriented Protocol

a. It is a system used to evaluate data from security devices and generate alerts.

What is a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system utilized for? a. It is a system used to evaluate data from security devices and generate alerts. b. It is an advanced intrusion protection system with a GUI-frontend. c. It is a system that monitors security device hardware availability. d. It is an intellectual property protection software that prevents data links, and generates alerts.

Devices are daisy-chained together in a single line.

What is a defining characteristic of a bus topology based network? a. Devices are connected to two adjacent devices, and communication priority is granted by a token. b. Devices are connected directly to a centralized networking device, known as a network switch. c. Devices are directly attached to a network router, which forwards data to intended destinations. d. Devices are daisy-chained together in a single line.

b. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts.

What is distributed switching? a. It is a single physical switch that is partitioned in software to perform as multiple switches. b. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts. c. It is multiple switches that provide redundancy switching for all switches in the group. d. It is when multiple physical switches are configured to act as a single switch.

a. 10 Gbps

What is the maximum supported throughput of a CAT6 cable? a. 10 Gbps b. 100 Gbps c. 100 Mbps d. 1 Gbps

c. Cat 5e

What is the minimum category of UTP cable required in order to support Gigabit speeds? a. Cat 6 b. Cat 3 c. Cat 5e d. Cat 5

It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission.

What is the purpose of the checksum TCP field? a. It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission. b. It specifies special options, such as the maximum segment size a network can handle. c. It confirms receipt of data via a return message to the sender. d. It identifies the data segment's position in the stream of data segments being sent.

a. multimeter

What kind of tool can you use to measure voltage on a cable length? a. multimeter b. light meter c. time domain reflectometer d. continuity tester

Session Layer

What layer of the OSI model describes how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application? a. Transport Layer b. Application Layer c. Session Layer d. Presentation Laye

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

What mail protocol is used to send mail messages to a server?

NOT D

What makes up the first 6 bits of the 8-bit DiffServ field? a. Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) b. Forward Error Correction (FEC) c. Class of Service (CoS) d. Priority Code Point (PCP)

Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.

What occurs when a collision happens on a network? a. The collision will create an error in the network switch, but otherwise, no issues will occur as a result. b. Each node on the network stops transmitting, until manually told to reconnect and transmit. c. The collision goes undetected, and data transmission continues. d. Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.

d. RTS/CTS (Request to Send/Clear to Send)

What optional protocol can be used in 802.11 to reserve the medium for one node's use? a. HA/RA (Hold Airtime/Reserved Airtime) b. RT/FT (Request Time/Fair Time) c. RAR/CTU (Reserve Airtime Request/Clear to Use) d. RTS/CTS (Request to Send/Clear to Send)

The last 24 bits of the MAC address.

What part of a MAC address serves as the extension identifier, or device ID? a. The last 24 bits of the MAC address. b. The first 24 bits of the MAC address. c. The first 12 bits of the MAC address. d. The last 12 bits of the MAC address.

latency

What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay?

a. A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point.

What scenario describes an evil twin attack? a. A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point. b. An attacker is actively attempting to brute force the PIN of a WPS enabled access point. c. A hacker is actively sending wireless probes to discover available wireless networks. d. A hacker is utilizing a protocol analyzer on a public Wi-Fi network to discover packet contents.

a. You wish to prevent switches beyond a certain port from becoming the root bridge, but still wish to use STP.

What scenario might be ideal for the use of root guard in configuring a switch? a. You wish to prevent switches beyond a certain port from becoming the root bridge, but still wish to use STP. b. You wish to disable STP on a port connected to a partnered company's switch. c. You wish to prevent a rogue switch or computer from hijacking the network's STP paths. d. You wish to block BPDUs on an access port serving network hosts.

TIA/EIA 568A

What standard describes uniform, enterprise-wide cabling systems, regardless of who manufactures or sells the various parts used in the system?

c. A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data

What statement accurately describes what a cable bend radius determines? a. A cable bend radius is the radius of the minimum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data. b. A cable bend radius determines the total number of bends that can exist in an overall cable before data is impaired. c. A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data. d. A cable bend radius defines the twist rate of the cable inside of the insulation.

The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP).

What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network? a. The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP). b. The message is discarded and must be sent again. c. An ICMP error is generated, and the application must reformat the data for transmission. d. The message is sent anyway, and is received by the destination as garbage data.

c. Jitter is what happens when packets experience varying amounts of delay and arrive out of order.

What statement correctly describes "jitter"? a. Jitter is the fluctuation of a signal's strength as it travels away from its source. b. Jitter is the loss of 50% or more packets in a given data stream, causing a connection to falter. c. Jitter is what happens when packets experience varying amounts of delay and arrive out of order. d. Jitter is the transmission of signal onto unintended pairs in a copper cable.

Not C

What statement correctly describes a stateless firewall? a. A stateless firewall filters packets based on source and destination IP addresses. b. A stateless firewall blocks designated types of traffic based on application data contained within packets. c. A stateless firewall inspects each incoming packet to determine whether it belongs to a currently active connection. d. A stateless firewall manages each incoming packet as a stand-alone entity, without regard to currently active connections.

d. A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.

What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation? a. A customer's video conferencing application is experiencing delay in audio and video that comes and goes. b. A network switch interface is dropping due to a powerful radio transmitter in the adjacent room. c. Two network interfaces are experiencing problems at the same time due to the cables having adjacent runs. d. A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.

b. RBAC allows a network administrator to base privileges and permissions around a detailed description of a user's roles or jobs.

What statement regarding role-based access control is accurate? a. RBAC organizes resources into hierarchical classifications, such as "confidential" or "top secret". b. RBAC allows a network administrator to base privileges and permissions around a detailed description of a user's roles or jobs. c. RBAC is the most restrictive method of access control. d. RBAC allows users to decide for themselves who has access to that user's resources.

It is used by Windows and UNIX-based operating systems to share files.

What statement regarding the Server Message Block protocol is accurate?

b. tcpdump port 22

What tcpdump command can be used to filter out all traffic except SSH traffic? a. tcpdump -p 22 b. tcpdump port 22 c. tcpdump -f +ssh d. tcpdump only ssh

c. mean time between failures (MTBF)

What term is used to describe the average amount of time that will pass for a device before a failure is expected to occur? a. maximum time available (MTA) b. product cycle lifetime (PCL) c. mean time between failures (MTBF) d. estimated time to failure (ETTF)

vim

What text editor can be used on Linux to view and edit the contents of a configuration file?

b. link local address

What type of IPv6 address is fe80::8cf1:2c42:ffde:da1c? a. multicast address b. link local address c. anycast address d. global addres

c. spectrum analyzer

What type of device can be used to assess the quality of a wireless signal? a. frequency hopper b. Wi-Fi analyzer c. spectrum analyzer d. channel scanner

wiring schematic

What type of diagram is a graphical representation of a network's wired infrastructure? a. topology map b. wiring schematic c. network diagram d. system diagram

ping

What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network?

An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router? a. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front. b. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. c. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. d. An icon that resembles a brick wall.

An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions

When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch? a. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. b. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front. c. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. d. An icon that resembles a brick wall.

Upset Failure

When dealing with static electricity, what kind of failure caused by static discharge shortens the life of a component, and can cause intermittent errors? a. temporary failure b. interrupting failure c. catastrophic failure d. upset failure

100 meters

When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used? a. 300 meters b. 100 meters c. 100 feet d. 1,000 feet

c. 3/8 inch

When terminating an Ethernet cable, about how far should the cable sheath extend into the plug? a. 4/5 inch b. 1/5 inch c. 3/8 inch d. 1/2 inch

a. Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close.

When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate? a. Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close. b. Simultaneous wired and wireless network connections do not affect the ability to communicate on the network. c. Access point power levels should always be configured to output as much power as possible. d. A WPA key can be used to associate with a WEP configured access point.

a. port 546

When using DHCP for IPv6 (i.e. DHCPv6), what port do clients receive responses on? a. port 546 b. port 67 c. port 68 d. port 547

b. expedited forwarding

When using DiffServ, what type of forwarding utilizes a minimum departure rate from a given node, which is then assigned to each data stream? a. assured forwarding b. expedited forwarding c. prioritized forwarding d. scaled forwarding

a. It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission.

When using RFID, what is an ARPT (Active Reader Passive Tag)? a. It is a tag that is activated by an active reader, and uses power from the reader's radio to power its transmission. b. It is a battery-powered tag actively transmits its credentials at regular time intervals, which can be read remotely. c. It is a tag that can be read remotely up to a distance of 50 m, but requires a powerful active reader. d. It is a tag that requires an active reader, but still contains a battery in the tag.

d. file integrity monitoring (FIM)

When using a host-based intrusion detection system, what additional feature might be available to alert the system of any changes made to files that shouldn't change? a. file access auditing (FAA) b. file change management (FCM) c. file checksum watching (FCW) d. file integrity monitoring (FIM)

in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment? a. at the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) b. between the MDF and the IDF c. in the work area d. in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

b. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal

Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is? a. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs near the opposite end of a signal source. b. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal. c. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs when an EMI source is near the data signal source. d. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs only when a cable segment exceeds the bend radius.

OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.

Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol? a. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources. b. OSPF provides low network overhead. c. OSPF maintains a database of other routers' links. d. OSPF has no hop limits on a transmission path.

BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates.

Which statement regarding the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is accurate? a. BGP is a more advanced version of OSPF. b. BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates. c. BGP is exclusively a distance-vector protocol. d. BGP is limited to a single autonomous system.

c. traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com

Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com? a. traceroute -o ICMP srv1.mycompany.com b. traceroute -i srv1.mycompany.com c. traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com d. traceroute -w srv1.mycompany.com

a. online UPS

Which type of uninterruptible power supply uses AC power to continuously charge its battery, while also providing power to devices through the battery? a. online UPS b. standby UPS c. line conditioning UPS d. surge UPS

The exposure of the cable can cause transmission interference between wires.

Why should you not leave more than 1 inch of exposed cable before a twisted-pair termination?

b. A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors

Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type? a. A mismatched connector will destroy the equipment it is connected to. b. A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors. c. A mismatched connector will not fit the coaxial cable for termination. d. A mismatched connector will work fine, but breaks cabling standards.

b. A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors.

Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type? a. A mismatched connector will not fit the coaxial cable for termination. b. A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors. c. A mismatched connector will destroy the equipment it is connected to. d. A mismatched connector will work fine, but breaks cabling standards

dig query 8.8.8.8 domain mycompany.com type mx

You are troubleshooting a DNS issue on a Linux system, and need to test the resolution of your domain mycompany.com MX record using Google's DNS server with the IP address of 8.8.8.8. What dig command will accomplish this?

a. The client has a wireless profile configured for the "campus" SSID, but the access point is broadcasting the "CAMPUS" SSID.

You are troubleshooting a client's wireless networking issue. Which of the following will prevent the client from connecting to the network? a. The client has a wireless profile configured for the "campus" SSID, but the access point is broadcasting the "CAMPUS" SSID. b. The client is only able to get line of sight with an omnidirectional antenna. c. The client is using a network adapter with outdated firmware. d. The client is using an 802.11n wireless adapter, but the access point only supports up to 802.11g

d. Use the switchport port-security command to enable MAC filtering.

You have been asked by your superior to configure all Cisco network switches to allow only acceptable MAC addresses through switch access ports. How is this accomplished? a. Use the secure port mac-address command to limit the port to learned addresses only. b. Use the mac-limit command to prevent more than one MAC from being accepted. c. Use the allowed-mac command to filter by MAC address. d. Use the switchport port-security command to enable MAC filtering.

c. TIA/EIA 568A

You have been awarded a contract for wiring a new federal building. What twisted-pair wiring standard must you use? a. TIA/EIA 568B b. TIA/EIA 568F c. TIA/EIA 568A d. TIA/EIA rollover

Master License Agreement

Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company? a. service-level agreement b. master license agreement c. master service agreement d. memorandum of understanding

Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network.

Your supervisor has asked you to configure a new prototype network with a dual stack configuration. What does this mean? a. The router serving the network will have a redundant spare. b. Two different IPv4 address spaces will exist on the same network segment. c. Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network. d. The network will exist on two separate segments, separated by a proxy.