Nursehub A&P practice test questions
Which of the following muscles pulls a body part away from the midline of the body?
Abductors.
The anterior lobe of pituitary glands is called which of the following?
Adenohypophysis The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is known as the neurohypophysis.
Which of the following gets absorbed directly into the blood?
Amino acids.
Which of the following structures functions in directing sound waves into the ear?
Auricle (Pinna)
The shoulder is an example of which type of synovial joint?
Ball and socket. Six types of synovial joints: Ball and socket joints are made up of a rounded, ball-like end of one bone fitting into a cup like socket of another bone. They allow the greatest ROM, as all movement types are possible in all directions. Hinge joints are formed between two or more bones where the bones can only move along one axis to flew or extend. The movement is similar to a door opening and closing. The elbows are hinge joints. Pivot joints allow only rotary movement around a single axis. The moving bone rotates within a ring that is formed from a second bone and adjoining ligament. The neck, specifically between C1 and C2 vertebrae, is an example of a pivot joint. Condyloid joints consist of a shallow depression of one bone that receives a rounded end of another bone. They're found at the base of the fingers and at the wrist. Planar joints are bones with articulating surfaces that are flat or slightly curved faces. The tarsal bones in the foot and the carpal bones in the wrist are examples of planar joints. Saddle joints are so named because the ends of each bone look like a saddle, with concave and convex portions that fit together. Saddle joints allow angular movements similar to condyloid joints but with a greater ROM. An example of a saddle joint is the thumb joint, which can move back and forth and up and down but more freely than the wrist or fingers.
Where is the popliteal artery located?
Behind the knee
In which part of the body would you find aqueous humor?
Between the lens and cornea in the eye.
A tissue sample studied under a microscope exhibits the following characteristics: an extracellular matrix providing rigidity to the tissue, and the presence of lacunae. Which type of tissue is this?
Bone
Which type of connection do ligaments create?
Bone to bone A ligament is a fibrous connective tissue which attaches bone to bone, and usually serves to hold structures together and keep them stable.
Which important minerals are stored within the skeletal system?
Calcium and phosphorous. Bones store 99% of the body's calcium and 85% of the body's phosphorus.
What, in addition to adenosine triphosphate, must be present for a muscle to contract?
Calcium. Nervous stimulation from efferent (motor) neurons cause the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle. The calcium ions then attach to inhibitory proteins of the actin filaments within the cell, moving them aside so that cross-bridges can form between actin and myosin filaments. Then, using energy supplied by ATP, the filaments slide together to contract the sarcomere.
The pulse point located on the neck is palpated over which artery?
Carotid
Which of the following best describes the primary function of hemoglobin?
Carries oxygen to tissues and organs.
A patient who is on a plant-based diet complains that their skin is appearing to take a yellowish color. Which of the following food would you expect the patient to have eaten a large amount of?
Carrots. When you consume too many carrots, sweet potatoes, pumpkins, or any other food high in carotene, excess beta-carotene will enter the bloodstream and be stored under the skin giving it a yellow tint.
Which organelle is responsible for regulating the transport of substances in and out of the cell?
Cell membrane. - Cell membrane: protects the cell, aids in communication with other cells, and regulates the passage of substances into and out of the cell. It is also sometimes called the plasma membrane. - Mitochondria: the "powerhouse" of the cell; the cite of cellular respiration and energy production. - Nucleus: contains the DNA of the cell in organized masses called chromosomes. The nucleus is the brain of the cell. - Ribosomes: synthesize proteins. They are found in the cytoplasm on the rough ER. - Rough endoplasmic reticulum: covered in ribosomes and assists in protein synthesis and membrane production. - Smooth endoplasmic reticulum: the part of the ER not covered in ribosomes, it functions in the detoxification and metabolism of molecules in the cell. Synthesis of lipids and steroids. - Golgi apparatus: packages and transports proteins and lipids throughout the cell. This is the cells post office. - Lysosomes: full of hydrolytic enzymes that digest and breakdown cell waste. - Vacuoles: membrane-enclosed structures that take in food (through phagocytosis) and store it in the cell.
Which of the following glands secrete earwax?
Ceruminous. - Eccrine sweat glands (also called merocrine glands) are the most widely distributed. They help regulate body temperature by secreting a watery substance on the surface of skin that cools you down as it evaporates. This process is called evaporative cooling. As heat from your body causes the sweat of the surface of your skin to evaporate, it cools your body down because the evaporating sweat takes the heat with it. - Apocrine sweat glands are located mainly in the armpits and groin. Their secretions include bits of cell debris that attracts bacteria, leading to body odor. Ceruminous glands are a type of apocrine gland, located in the external auditory canal and secretes ear wax.
Listening to music stimulates which of the following organs?
Cochlea The cochlea is the part of the ear that functions in hearing. The utricle, saccule, and semicircular canals on the other hand play roles in balance and equilibrium.
What form of tissue provides support and structure for the organs?
Connective
Which of the types of tissue is responsible for providing the matrix that supports and connects other tissues of the body?
Connective tissue
Which type of tissue is most widely distributed throughout the body?
Connective tissue. Connective tissue includes fibrous tissues, fat, cartilage, bone, bone marrow, and blood.
What is secreted by the adrenal glands?
Cortisol and aldosterone The adrenal glands are small glands located on top of each kidney. Cortisol is a hormone that regulates a wide range of processes throughout the body, but is best known as being the body's "stress hormone." Aldosterone affects the body's ability to regulate blood pressure.
Which of the following anatomical terms is correctly matched with its meaning?
Cranial/skull
Which of the following is a molecule carrying genetic instructions for the development, functioning, growth, and reproduction for all organisms?
DNA
Which structure lies between the thoracic and abdominal cavities?
Diaphragm. When you inhale, the diaphragm contracts, which enlarges the chest cavity and draws air into the lungs. When you exhale, the diaphragm relaxes and the air is pushed out of the lungs.
The malleus, incus, and stapes (ossicles) are bones found in the:
Ear
Which exocrine gland produces sweat on the epidermal surface?
Eccrine
Which structure in the epidermis is responsible for cooling the body to maintain temperature homeostasis?
Eccrine glands
Which system coordinates and regulates processes within the body through the use of hormones?
Endocrine system
Which of the following organ systems is correctly paired with its function?
Endocrine/regulation of homeostasis through hormone signaling.
Which of the following types of tissues functions in the covering, lining, and protection of surfaces and body cavities?
Epithelial tissue.
Which of the following terms describes the process of forming new red blood cells?
Erythropoiesis
Eccrine glands secrete a watery substance into the surface of the skin to maintain temperature homeostasis through which process?
Evaporation.
A patient with lower than normal amount of thrombocytes could be at risk of:
Extensive bleeding
In which of the following reproductive structures does the fertilization of an ovum occur?
Fallopian tube. An ovum is a mature female reproductive cell - it is an unfertilized egg. When an ovum is fertilized it means that the ovum has united with a male reproductive cell (sperm) and becomes a zygote. This happens in the Fallopian tube (also called oviduct). The endometrium is the innermost lining of the uterus. It's function is to provide structure to the uterus and maintain patency (openness). If the ovum is fertilized in the Fallopian tubes, the fertilized ovum (zygote) travels down and implants itself in the endometrium. If the ovum does not become fertilized, the endometrium is shed during menstruation. The corpus luteum is a yellowish mass of endocrine tissue that forms in the ovaries immediately after ovulation. It secretes progesterone and estrogen, which help develop and maintain the endometrium. The uterus is a pear-shaped, hollow muscular organ located centrally in the female pelvis. Functions of the uterus include nurturing the fertilized ovum that develops into the fetus and holding it until the baby is mature enough for birth.
Which bones form via intramembranous ossification?
Flat bones of the skull, the mandible, and clavicle. Intramembranous ossification: in this process, bone is formed in sheet-like layers that resemble a membrane. Endochondral ossification: in this process, cartilage forms first and then is replaced by bone. This process forms most bones in the body.
Which of the following occurs when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated?
Heart rate increases, pupils dilate, digestion slows down. Sympathetic - fight or flight Parasympathetic - rest and digest
In what area of the body would you expect to find especially thick stratum corneum?
Heel of the foot.
The elbow is what type of joint?
Hinge.
The diaphragm is _________ to the lungs.
Inferior
How does serotonin affect the body?
It helps to regulate mood, anxiety, sleep, memory, and appetite. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter. Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers within the brain that allow communication between nerve cells. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is involved in regulating motivation, euphoria, and fine motor function.
Which of the following describes cellular respiration?
It is an oxidative catabolic activity. An anabolic reaction is a reaction that uses energy to build molecules the organism needs. A catabolic reaction breaks down complex molecules into smaller molecules to create energy for the organism to use. Oxidation is when an element loses one or more electrons to oxygen. Reduction is when an element gains one or more electrons. Cellular respiration is the process in which a cell takes in oxygen and uses it to break down glucose to create energy in the form of ATP. In the final stage of cellular respiration (called electron transport chain), oxygen accepts electrons and picks up protons to form water. So, because elements lose electrons to oxygen and it is a reaction in which energy is created, cellular respiration is both an oxidative and catabolic activity.
Which of the following about the hyoid bone is correct?
It is the only bone that does not articulate with any other bone. The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located at the root of the tongue in the anterior of the neck and between the mandible and the largest cartilage of the larynx. The primary function of the hyoid bone is to serve as an anchoring structure for the tongue.
Which of the following is a byproduct of anaerobic respiration that can lead to muscular fatigue, muscle cramps, muscle pain, or a burning sensation in the muscles?
Lactic acid. The body makes lactic acid when it does not have enough oxygen to convert glucose into energy. Lactic acid buildup can result in muscle pain, cramps, and muscular fatigue. Folic acid is a type of B vitamin natural found in many foods. It is recommended for pregnant women to take in order to prevent birth defects. Citric acid is commonly found in citrus fruits and is an important component of the Krebs cycle (a step in aerobic cellular respiration). Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid that is present in the stomach. Although it is highly corrosive it doesn't hurt your stomach because of a protective mucous lining on the inside of your stomach.
Which of the following lists the correct pathway of blood through the circulatory system?
Left ventricle, aorta, systemic circuit, vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium
Which of the four chambers of the heart has the thickest muscular wall?
Left ventricle.
Which of the following best describes the function of the mitral valve?
Let's blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle.
A sprain occurs when which of the following structures is stretched or torn?
Ligament.
Which of the following organelles is responsible for digesting damaged cellular structures, as well as macromolecules and bacteria ingested by the cell?
Lysosomes
White blood cells contain many _____ because they need to dispose of harmful intruders such as bacteria and viruses. Which of the following options correctly complete the statement above?
Lysosomes
Which of the following organelles would you expect to find an abundance of in leukocytes?
Lysosomes - organelles that contain digestive enzymes. They digest excess or worn-out organelles, food particles, and engulfed viruses or bacteria.
Which of the following is located in the thoracic cavity?
Mediastinum. The mediastinum is the area in the chest between the lungs and contains the heart, part of the trachea, the esophagus, the ascending aorta, and right & left pulmonary arteries.
Which of the following types of cancer would present warning signs that are identified using the ABCDE method?
Melanoma. Melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma are the three main types of skin cancer. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common and most easily identifiable form of skin cancer. It appears as red patches, or growths with slightly elevated, rolled edges and a central indentation. Squamous cell carcinoma may appear as flat, reddish or brownish patches in the skin, often with a rough, scaly, or crusted surface. Melanoma, the most dangerous of the three, presents warning signs that can be identified using the ABCDE method to examine moles: A - asymmetry B - border (the outer edges are uneven) C - color (dark black or multiple colors) D - diameter (greater than 6mm) E - evolution
The Fahrenx is a conduit for air and food. It is divided into three segments which contain lymphoid structures that play significant roles in protection and defense. Which segment of the fair contains the pharyngal tonsils?
Nasopharynx. The nasopharynx contains the pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids), it is exclusive for air passage. The oropharynx contains the palatine tonsils, it is the middle portion that serves as passageway for both food and air. The laryngopharynx (hypopharynx) is the most inferior portion that serves passageway for both food and air.
Which organelle is responsible for storing DNA?
Nucleus.
Where does digestion begin in the alimentary canal?
Oral cavity. The alimentary canal is the digestive tube and consists of primary organs of the digestive system. Those organs, in order, are: 1. Mouth (oral cavity) 2. Pharynx 3. Esophagus 4. Stomach 5. Small intestine 6. Large intestine 7. Rectum 8. Anus Mechanical digestion begins in the mouth as the food is chewed. Chemical digestion also begins in the mouth when food mixes with saliva. Saliva contains the enzyme amylase, which begins the breakdown of carbohydrates.
The respiratory system is composed of organs that facilitate gas exchange between the blood and the external environment. Which of the following describes the group of organs that function during gas exchange?
Organ system. Cells-tissues-organ-organ systems-organism
Which of the following causes bone matrix resorption in response to a decrease of calcium levels in the blood?
Osteoclasts. The body needs calcium to build and fix bones, help nerves work, make muscles squeeze together, help blood clot, and help the heart work. When calcium-sensing membrane receptors in the parathyroid gland detect that there are low levels of calcium in the blood, it releases parathyroid hormone. Parathyroid hormone increases the number and activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down the tissue and bones and release the minerals, resulting in a transfer of calcium from bone tissue to the blood (bone resorption). Osteoprogenitor cells (also called osteogenic cells) are the stem cells of bone. They form osteoblasts. Osteoblasts are the cells that secrete the matrix for bone formation. Osteocytes are matured bone cells, formed when an osteoblast becomes embedded in the matrix it has secreted. They continue to maintain the bone tissue.
The internal reproductive organs are located in which of the following anatomical regions?
Pelvic.
Which of the following structures is a part of the upper respiratory system?
Pharynx. The major passages and structures of the upper respiratory system include the nose, nasal cavity, oral cavity, throat (pharynx), and voice box (larynx).
Which of the following makes up the largest component of whole blood?
Plasma. Plasma makes up roughly 55% of total blood volume with the remaining 45% coming mostly from formed elements (mostly erythrocytes).
If the femoral artery was cut, which of the following blood vessels would not receive blown as a result?
Popliteal artery
The hormone __________ assists estrogen in stimulating the formation of the endometrium.
Progesterone Progesterone is a hormone produced by the ovaries and is responsible for maintaining the uterine lining (endometrium)
Which of the following is the correct sequence of transport of filtrate from the nephron to the renal pelvis?
Proximal convoluted tubule - loop of Henle - distal convoluted tubule - collecting duct - minor calyx - major calyx - renal pelvis
Which blood vessel returns blood from the lungs back to the heart?
Pulmonary vein
The carpals articulate with the distal ends of which two bones?
Radius and ulna.
Which of the following could result from a damaged olfactory nerve?
Reduced sense of smell. The olfactory nerves is located deep in the nasal cavity and is associated with the sense of smell.
What is one of the functions of the hypothalamus?
Regulating body temperature.
Which part of the eye allows us to see color?
Retina (cones) The retina is a thin layer of tissue that lines the back of the inside of the eye, near the optic nerve. The purpose of the retina is to receive light that the lens has focused, convert the light into neural signals, and send those signals to the brain for visual recognition. There are two types of photo receptor cells found in the retina: rods and cones. - Rod cells can function in low levels of light but do not pick up on colors. This is why we can see at night but things tend to look more gray and fuzzy. Rods also help with our peripheral vision, as they are concentrated on the outer edges of the retina. - Cone cells need more intense light to function and are the receptors that allow us to see colors. Most cone cells are found in the fovea, at the back of the retina. The fovea helps us see details in objects we are looking at. The human eye contains three different types of conch cells: blue, red, and green. Different types of color blindness arise from one, two, or all three types of cone cells not working properly. - The iris is the pigmented (color) part of the eye. The iris dilates and constricts to change the diameter and size of the pupil and thus the amount of light reaching the retina. - The pupil is the black opening in the center of the Iris. The purpose of the pupil is to allow light to enter the eye so it can be focused on the retina to begin the process of site. - Aqueous humor is the clear liquid found between the cornea and the lens of the eye. The aqueous humor helps maintain intraocular pressure and nourishes the lens and cornea.
Which of the following cell organelles is correctly paired with its function?
Ribosomes/protein synthesis
Which plane divides the body into left and right sides?
Saggital. - Frontal/coronal plane: a vertical plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions - Saggital plane: a vertical plane that divides the body into left and right sides. - Median plane: a Saggital plane that specifically goes through the midline of the body, dividing it into equal left and right halves. - Transverse plane: a horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts.
Which of the following is the name of the imaginary vertical plane that equally divides the body into left and right?
Sagittal
Which glands release an oily secretion through the hair follicles that lubricates the skin and prevents drying?
Sebaceous glands
Which organ is responsible for most of the nutrient absorption in the body?
Small intestine. The small intestine is part of the digestive system where 90% of the digestion and absorption of food occurs. The other 10% taking place in the stomach and large intestine. The gallbladder is a hollow organ that is part of the digestive system. It is involved with the production, storage and transportation of bile. Bile is a yellowish-brown fluid produced by the liver that is used to break up and digest fatty foods in the small intestine.
Which of the following best describes anatomical position?
Standing upright, facing the observer, upper extremities at the body's sides, feet flat and directed forward, and the palms facing anteriorly.
Which of the following options correctly lists the layers of the epidermis from most superficial to the deepest layer?
Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum germinativum (made up of stratum spinosum and stratum basale).
What is the outer most layer of the epidermis?
Stratum corneum. "Come (Let's) Get Sun Burnt"
Mitosis occurs in which layer of the skin?
Stratum germinativum (stratum spinosum and stratum basale)
Which of the following salivary glands primarily contributes to the production and secretion of saliva?
Submandibular glands. The submandibular glands produce 2/3 of saliva. The parotid gland is exclusively an enzyme-producing salivary gland. The sublingual gland is the smallest of the three major salivary glands and only produces about 3-5% of saliva. The lingual glands are the minor salivary glands found in the tongue.
Which part of the brain is involved in auditory functioning?
Temporal lobe. The temporal lobe contains the primary auditory context which receives direct sound input from the ears. The frontal lobe is important for cognitive functions (knowledge) and control of voluntary movements. The parietal lobe processes information about temperature, taste, touch, and movement. The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for vision.
Which of the following describes the distal region of the humerus?
The epiphysis that articulates with the radius and ulna.
Cerumen is secreted by apocrine glands located in which of the following structures?
The external auditory canal. Cerumen is earwax. If there is an excess of earwax, it would accumulate in the auditory canal. The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, which consists of the upper throat and the back of the nasal cavity. It controls the pressure within the middle ear, making it equal to the air pressure outside of the body. The cochlea is an internal structure of the inner ear that looks like a snail shell. It is the structure that turns sound pressure waves into nerve impulses, allowing us to hear. The organ of corti is considered "the true organ of hearing." It is a spiral structure inside the cochlea containing hair cells that are stimulated by sound vibrations.
What is erythropoiesis and where does it occur?
The formation of red blood cells; red bone marrow. In the early development of a fetus, erythropoiesis takes place in the yolk sac, spleen, and liver. After birth, all erythropoiesis takes occurs in red bone marrow.
Where is the tibialis anterior located?
The front of the lower extremities.
Which of the following statements about the endocrine system is false?
The hypothalamus is commonly known as the "master gland." The hypothalamus plays a role in regulating body temperature, releasing hormones, and maintaining homeostasis. The pituitary gland is a small, pea-sized endocrine gland in the brain that is commonly known as the "master gland" because it produces hormones that control other endocrine glands and several body functions including growth.
What is the function of endocrine glands?
They secrete hormones directly into the blood. A gland is an organ that produces and releases substances that perform specific functions in the body. - Endocrine glands produce hormones and secrete them directly into the blood. - Exocrine glands secrete their products into a duct that carries the products to the target tissue. (Sweat glands)
The components found in blood that carry out blood clotting are:
Thrombocytes (platelets)
T-lymphocytes are developed by which of the following glands?
Thymus - located directly posterior to the mediastinum.
Which of the following is defined as "a group of similar cells and their intracellular matrix that carry out a specific function together?"
Tissues. Histology is the study of tissues. There are four fundamental types of tissues in the body: - Epithelial: these cells cover, line and protect the body and it's internal organs. - Connective: these cell groups are the framework for the body, providing structure and support for the organs. This is the most abundant type of tissue in the body. - Muscle: tissues that have the ability to contract. - Nervous: the tissues of the nervous system, composed of neurons and connective tissue called neuroglia.
What is the purpose of gastric mucous?
To protect the stomach lining from acid and digestive enzymes.
What is the function of sebaceous glands?
To secrete oil (sebum) that lubricates the skin and hair, and prevents drying.
Which of the following is not a bone of the lower extremities?
Ulna.
A patient complains of decreased sensation in the distal part of their arm and an inability to adduct and abduct their fingers. Based on these symptoms, which nerve is most likely compromised?
Ulnar
Urine travels from the kidney to the urinary bladder through which structure?
Ureter
Which of the following male reproductive organs is also a part of the urinary system?
Urethra. In males, the urethra is the tube through which urine is voided. It is also the tube that semen flows through during sexual activity. The ureter is the duct by which urine passes from the kidney to the bladder in both males and females. The vas deferens is part of the male reproductive system. It is the duct that conveys sperm from the testicle to the urethra in males. The epididymis is part of the male reproductive system. It is a duct behind the testis, that passes sperm to the vas deferens.
Which of the following muscles is located towards the outer side of the leg?
Vastus lateralis.
Which of the following features of veins results in the venous system operating and lower pressures than the arterial side?
Veins have thinner, more compliant vessel walls than arteries.
Which blood vessel delivers blood directly into the right atrium?
Vena cava
A patient reveals to you that they were recently involved in a car accident that they believe resulted in a deviated septum. Which of the following bones may have been injured in the accident, resulting in the deviated septum?
Vomer. The vomer is a thin, vertical bone in the nose. Specifically, the vomer forms the inferior part of the nasal septum.
What does the presence of antidiuretic hormone stimulate?
Water reabsorption from the urinary filtrate. The most important job of ADH is to conserve water in the body by reducing the loss of water in urine. It is also called vasopressin. ADH - Ain't Dumping H2O
A patient complaining of pain in their sternum reveals that they were recently in a mild car accident. Which of the following structures may have been injured in the accident?
Xiphoid process. The xiphoid process is the most inferior part of the sternum.