Phoenix Fire Paramedic Test Study Guide

26. You are dispatched to a skilled nursing care facility for an 80-year-old female with abnormal behavior. The patient is clearly confused and asks you if you are her husband. As your partner administers oxygen to the patient, you should: A. determine the patient's baseline mental status. B. inquire about a history of Alzheimer's disease. C. obtain a complete list of the patient's medications. D. ask an attendant for the patient's medical records.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1005, 1016

14. The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following organs, EXCEPT the: A. brain. B. kidneys. C. pancreas. D. intestines.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 404

5. When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Motrin, and Digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)? A. Lasix B. Motrin C. Isordil D. Digoxin

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 345

6. Which of the following is the MOST rapidly acting medication administration route? A. Sublingual B. Intravenous C. Subcutaneous D. Intramuscular

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 345

13. The ______ of medication determines the route by which it will be administered. A. type B. form C. class D. name

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 346

18. In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than ___ seconds is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 684

32. When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval in between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: A. slow. B. fast. C. irregular. D. thready.

B. fast.

25. Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. acute cyanosis. B. inability to speak. C. grasping the throat. D. forceful coughing.

Ans: D forceful coughing Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-11

25. Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. An amputated extremity B. Bilateral femur fractures C. Nondisplaced long bone fractures D. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 829

30. You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male with abdominal pain. Your priority upon arriving at the scene should be to: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. notify the dispatcher of your arrival. C. assess the scene for potential hazards. D. place a paramedic ambulance on standby.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 471

10. What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. Rotational and rollover B. Rear-end and rotational C. Frontal and rotational D. Lateral and rollover

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 634

9. Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A. falls and motor-vehicle collisions. B. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. C. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections. D. motor-vehicle collisions and stabbings.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 634

7. Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: A. distention. B. referred pain. C. diffuse bruising. D. nausea or vomiting.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 800

17. A sign of kidney damage following blunt trauma is: A. hematuria. B. hemolysis. C. hemoptysis. D. hematemesis.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 809

44. The MOST common cause of traumatic death in infants and children is: A. spinal injury. B. head trauma. C. chest trauma. D. abdominal trauma.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 971

50. The LEAST reliable assessment parameter to evaluate when determining the presence of shock in infants and children is: A. heart rate. B. blood pressure. C. skin condition. D. capillary refill.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 977

9. Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A. Motor B. Central C. Somatic D. Sensory

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 874

45. Compared to full-term infants, premature infants are at a higher risk for: A. infection. B. breech births. C. hyperthermia. D. explosive deliveries.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 621

3. Force acting over distance defines the concept of: A. work. B. latent energy. C. kinetic energy. D. potential energy.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 632

25. In addition to ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT-B's responsibility when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: A. defuse and control the situation and safely transport the patient. B. diagnose the patient's problem and provide definitive treatment. C. transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility. D. determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 589

30. Which of the following sets of vital signs MOST accurately depicts Cushing's triad? A. BP, 190/110: pulse, 55: respirations, 30 B. BP, 90/50: pulse, 120: respirations, 10 C. BP, 200/100: pulse 140: respirations, 28 D. BP, 80/40: pulse, 30: respirations, 32

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 880

56. If you do not have the appropriate size cervical collar, you should: A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head. B. place sandbags on either side of the patient's head. C. ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position. D. defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 898

57. A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: A. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. B. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. C. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. D. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 900-901

24. Which of the following statements regarding the use of nasopharyngeal airways in children is correct? A. They are rarely used in infants younger than 1 year of age. B. It is the recommended adjunct for children with head trauma. C. They are usually not well tolerated in children with a gag reflex. D. Blanching of the nares after insertion indicates correct placement.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 952

29. When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to: A. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup. B. tightly secure the oxygen mask straps to the face. C. have a parent restrain the child as you give oxygen. D. use a nasal cannula instead of a nonrebreathing mask.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 955

36. Which of the following individuals would be the LEAST likely victim of elder abuse? A. A self-sufficient 78-year-old male B. An 81-year-old incontinent female C. A 77-year-old male with dementia D. A bed-ridden 82-year-old female

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 996

37. Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indications of ____________ elder abuse. A. physical B. financial C. emotional D. psychological

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 997

4. Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? A. "What seems to be the matter?" B. "When did the chest pain begin?" C. "Are you having trouble breathing?" D. "Do you have a history of diabetes?"

A. "What seems to be the matter?"

34. In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient? A. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain B. A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall C. A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car D. An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke

A. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain

3. An EMT-B may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: A. back is bent forward at the hips. B. hands are held close to the legs. C. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. D. force is exerted straight down the spine.

A. back is bent forward at the hips

16. An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: A. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. B. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. C. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths per minute.

A. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

67. You are caring for a 35-year-old female with pregnancy-related complications. She is clearly experiencing significant stress and is crying uncontrollably. Your MOST appropriate action would be to: A. demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice. B. discourage her from expressing fears until a counselor is available. C. explain to her that "everything will be all right" to calm her down. D. restrain her if she is extremely emotional and will not calm down.

A. demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice

47. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should FIRST: A. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. B. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag. C. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. D. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.

A. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.

9. A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: A. distal humerus fracture. B. proximal elbow fracture. C. distal forearm fracture. D. proximal humerus fracture.

A. distal humerus fracture

36. You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert, but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 9-1-1, a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should: A. ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care. B. err in the best interest of the patient and transport him at once. C. have him sign a refusal of care form and then return to service. D. tell him that he is having a heart attack and needs medical care.

A. ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care.

48. The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for compressed gas cylinders is to: A. ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder. B. help you determine what type of oxygen regulator to use. C. prevent destroying or stripping the threads on the cylinder. D. reduce the cylinder pressure to a safe and more useful range.

A. ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder.

4. The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: A. epiglottis. B. vallecula. C. cricoid ring. D. thyroid cartilage.

A. epiglottis.

23. The most superior portion of the sternum is called the: A. manubrium. B. costal arch. C. angle of Louis. D. xiphoid process.

A. manubrium.

32. Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of left upper quadrant abdominal pain with referred pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. pancreas. D. gallbladder.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 668-669

34. During transport of a 40-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note that she has stopped talking to you and has become extremely diaphoretic. You should: A. assess the quality of her pulse. B. repeat the initial assessment. C. perform a rapid trauma exam. D. begin assisting her ventilations.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 670

18. Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they: A. have minor abrasions to the head area. B. are taking blood-thinning medications. C. do not have deformities to the skull. D. have a history of Alzheimer's disease.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1012

15. Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries would be categorized as ________ priority at a mass-casualty incident. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1083

21. Which of the following is the LEAST reliable method of identifying the type of hazardous material involved in an incident? A. Labels that are found on boxes or barrels B. Emission of green smoke from a tanker truck C. Placards that are on the side of a tanker vehicle D. Warning signs that are affixed to a container

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1086

26. Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. body aches. B. skin blisters. C. high fever. D. headaches.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1114

27. Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: A. become thick and spontaneously clot. B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. C. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells. D. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1114

36. The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is: A. beta. B. alpha. C. gamma. D. neutron.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1120-1121

12. In the presence of ileus, the only way the stomach can empty itself is by: A. diarrhea. B. vomiting. C. muscular contraction. D. spontaneous rupture.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 470

deep, rapid respirations.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 485-486

112. Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? A. Thyroid B. Pituitary C. Adrenal D. Parathyroid

B. Pituitary

24. You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: A. limit your initial assessment to airway and breathing only. B. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. C. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. D. perform a rapid trauma assessment and move him to a safe area.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1067

5. After forming a general impression of a sick or injured child, you should: A. evaluate the child's baseline vital signs. B. obtain a SAMPLE history from the parents. C. perform a hands-on assessment of the ABCs. D. assess the child's heart rate and skin condition.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 944

22. Which of the following information is NOT considered confidential? A. Patient history B. Treatment rendered C. Location of the call D. Assessment findings

C. Location of the call

107. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A. Sensory reception B. Temperature regulation C. Metabolic coordination D. Pressure and pain perception

C. Metabolic coordination

39. The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: A. ilium. B. ischium. C. acetabulum. D. femoral condyle.

C. acetabulum.

39. A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: A. flushed. B. plethoric. C. diaphoretic. D. edematous.

C. diaphoretic.

28. A pulse with a consistent pattern to it is considered to be: A. weak. B. strong. C. regular. D. irregular.

C. regular.

13. Relative to the kidneys, the liver is: A. medial. B. dorsal. C. unilateral. D. posterior.

C. unilateral

26. A 66-year-old male presents with dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain. He is conscious and alert: however, his skin is cool and clammy and his heart rate is elevated. Further assessment reveals that his blood pressure is 112/60 mm Hg. Which of the following questions would be MOST pertinent to ask him? A. What does your blood pressure normally run? B. Do you take any over-the-counter medications? C. Has blood soaked through your undergarments? D. Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 811

70. A football player experienced a possible spinal injury when he was tackled. He is conscious and alert, but tells you that he is having trouble breathing. His respirations are 28 breaths/min and labored. He is still wearing his helmet. You should: A. leave the helmet on, secure him to a long backboard, and give oxygen. B. ask him to carefully remove the helmet as you support his head and neck. C. leave the helmet on but be prepared to remove it quickly if he deteriorates. D. carefully remove the helmet, immobilize his spine, and administer oxygen.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 900-901

59. A 2-year-old female fell from a second-story window and landed on her head. She is unconscious, has slow and shallow respirations, and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. In addition to spinal immobilization, you should: A. assist ventilations, begin chest compressions, and transport. B. insert a nasal airway, assist ventilations, and transport rapidly. C. apply a nonrebreathing mask and transport to a trauma center. D. insert an oral airway, assist ventilations, and transport rapidly.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 952, 956

15. For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: A. nature of the call. B. caller's phone number. C. location of the patient(s). D. patient's medical history.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1035

23. The MOST appropriate location to park your ambulance at a hazardous materials incident is: A. downwind at least 200' from the scene. B. downhill at least 100' from the incident. C. uphill at least 25' from the incident site. D. upwind at least 100' from the incident.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1087

24. When parking your ambulance in the appropriate location at the scene of a hazardous materials incident, it is MOST important to: A. use binoculars to identify the type of chemical. B. remain in this location, regardless of the chemical. C. get close enough to see the numbers on the placard. D. remember that wind direction can change quickly.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1087

30. Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection? A. Level A protection B. Level B protection C. Level C protection D. Level D protection

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1092

37. ______ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require several inches of lead or concrete to prevent penetration. A. Beta B. Alpha C. Neutron D. Gamma

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1120-1121

40. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining how to protect yourself against the effects of radiation? A. Time B. Distance C. Shielding D. Radiation type

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1122

3. In the prehospital setting, gastric tubes are used primarily to: A. remove gastric toxins. B. administer medications. C. provide gastric nutrition. D. decompress the stomach.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1134-1135

17. The proper size ET tube for the average size adult female ranges from: A. 5.0-6.0 mm. B. 5.5-6.5 mm. C. 6.0-7.5 mm. D. 6.5-8.0 mm.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1141

18. The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: A. on the dorsum of the foot. B. above the lateral malleolus. C. in the fossa behind the knee. D. behind the medial malleolus.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 407

50. Nitroglycerin should NOT be administered to a patient who: A. has chest discomfort that is unrelieved by rest. B. took a maximum of two doses prior to EMS arrival. C. has a history of medication-controlled hypertension. D. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mm Hg.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 415

42. The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: A. tightness in the chest. B. difficulty with vision. C. dizziness and nausea. D. abdominal or joint pain.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 564-565

47. The venom of a brown recluse spider is cytotoxic, meaning that it: A. suppresses the respiratory drive. B. destroys the body's red blood cells. C. weakens the structure of the bones. D. causes severe local tissue damage.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 570

11. A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating, in question form, what the patient has said, is called: A. active listening. B. passive listening. C. intuitive listening. D. reflective listening.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 588-589

18. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: A. preeclampsia. B. a placenta previa. C. gestational diabetes. D. an ectopic pregnancy.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 603

34. Which of the following is NOT a component of the APGAR score? A. Pulse B. Activity C. Grimace D. Body size

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 614

18. Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT-B to: A. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. B. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. C. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact. D. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 638-639

7. Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for up to 2 hours? A. Brain B. Heart C. Kidneys D. Muscles

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 653-654

22. Almost all cases of external bleeding to an extremity can be controlled by: A. elevating the injured extremity. B. packing the wound with gauze. C. compressing a pressure point. D. applying local direct pressure.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 659

41. The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. B. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex. C. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. D. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.

D. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.

84. The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: A. venules. B. arteries. C. arterioles. D. capillaries.

D. capillaries.

38. The bony prominence on the lateral aspect of the thigh, commonly referred to as the "hip bone," is called the: A. iliac crest. B. sacroiliac joint. C. sacral symphysis. D. greater trochanter.

D. greater trochanter.

64. All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a BVM device, EXCEPT: A. ensuring the appropriate airway position. B. applying pressure to the cricoid cartilage. C. ventilating the patient at the appropriate rate. D. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.

D. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.

20. The __________________ is a prominent bony mass that is located at the base of the skull and posterior to the ear. A. orbital socket B. sphenoid fossa C. zygomatic arch D. mastoid process

D. mastoid process

70. While on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should: A. tell your partner to quit kidding around and focus on his or her job. B. warn your partner that you will report him or her if it happens again. C. notify law enforcement personnel and have your partner arrested. D. tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.

D. tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.

20. Your BEST protection against legal liability when a competent patient refuses EMS care and transport is to: A. advise medical control of the situation. B. err on the side of caution and transport. C. ensure the family is aware of the risks. D. thoroughly document the entire event.

D. thoroughly document the entire event.

48. The carpal bones form the: A. foot. B. ankle. C. hand. D. wrist.

D. wrist.

60. The MOST effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: A. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat. B. avoid outer clothing with zippers. C. wear at least three layers of clothing. D. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton.

wear at least three layers of clothing.

69. The back-up system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: A. hypoxic drive. B. pneumotaxic drive. C. hypocarbic drive. D. oxyhemoglobin drive.

A. hypoxic drive.

36. Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: A. pink, warm, and dry. B. pale, cool, and moist. C. pink, warm, and moist. D. flushed, cool, and dry.

A. pink, warm, and dry.

23. In responsive patients that are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery: A. radial B. carotid C. brachial D. femoral

A. radial

21. If used, the EMT-B should inflate the PASG: A. until the Velcro begins to crackle. B. until the patient's heart rate decreases. C. to maintain a systolic BP of 120 mm Hg. D. starting with the abdominal compartment.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 662-663

28. The ________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis. A. sacrum B. coccyx C. lumbar D. thoracic

A. sacrum

15. Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. shallow chest movement. B. use of accessory muscles. C. supraclavicular retractions. D. gasping attempts to breathe.

A. shallow chest movement.

9. The diaphragm does NOT function as a voluntary muscle when a person: A. sleeps. B. coughs. C. takes a deep breath. D. holds his or her breath.

A. sleeps.

3. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A. state office of EMS. B. regional trauma center. C. American Heart Association. D. National Registry of EMTs.

A. state office of EMS.

42. Which of the following body organs is affected by the hepatitis B and C viruses? A. Brain B. Liver C. Spleen D. Kidney

Ans: B Liver Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 51

12. CPR should be initiated when: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. a valid living will is unavailable. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. signs of putrefaction are present.

Ans: B a valid living will is unavailable. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-7

58. Common hazards associated with fire include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. smoke and toxic gases. B. carbon dioxide deficiency. C. high ambient temperatures. D. the risk of building collapse.

Ans: B carbon dioxide deficiency Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 59-60

37. The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to: A. excessive blood splashing. B. careless handling of sharps. C. lack of proper immunizations. D. failure to follow BSI precautions.

Ans: B careless handling of sharps. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 47

15. What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT-B is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years? A. Acute stress reaction B. Cumulative stress reaction C. Posttraumatic stress reaction D. Critical incident stress reaction

Ans: B Cumulative stress reaction Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 33

13. Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started? A. Pulse and respirations return. B. You are physically exhausted. C. A physician directs you to do so. D. Care is transferred to a bystander.

Ans: D Care is transferred to a bystander Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-8

6. You should routinely inspect a bag of IV fluid for all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the solution type. B. the manufacturer. C. the clarity of the fluid. D. the expiration date.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1168

19. Vasovagal reactions associated with IV therapy are caused by: A. hypersensitivity to the IV fluid. B. a sudden drop in blood pressure. C. shearing off of the IV catheter. D. inflammation of the catheter site.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1174

41. Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. dysphasia. B. pale skin. C. dizziness. D. joint pain.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 564

17. Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when: A. the aorta is kinked secondary to a supine position. B. the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. C. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus. D. blood pressure falls as a result of hypovolemia.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 603

23. Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth? A. Rupture of the amniotic sac B. Crowning of the baby's head C. Irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes D. Expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 607

28. A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: A. has separated from the placenta. B. is wrapped around the baby's neck. C. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. D. has abnormally developed blood vessels.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 611

29. The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: A. an expected finding in full-term infants. B. that the baby's airway may be obstructed. C. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks' premature. D. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 611

2. When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: A. index of suspicion. B. mechanism of injury. C. amount of kinetic energy. D. amount of potential energy.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 632

23. Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. swelling. B. deformity. C. ecchymosis. D. point tenderness.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 828

32. When splinting a suspected fracture of the radius and ulna, the EMT-B should immobilize the: A. wrist and hand. B. elbow and wrist. C. wrist and shoulder. D. elbow and shoulder.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 837

1. The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the: A. cerebellum and brain. B. brain and spinal cord. C. cerebrum and meninges. D. meninges and spinal cord.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 872

43. The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: A. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. B. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. C. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions. D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway.

B. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts.

35. Each pelvic bone is formed by the fusion of the: A. sacrum and ischium. B. ilium, ischium, and pubis. C. pubis and acetabulum. D. ilium, pubis, and sacrum.

B. ilium, ischium, and pubis.

3. The topographic term used to describe the part of the body that is nearer to the feet is: A. dorsal. B. inferior. C. internal. D. superior.

B. inferior

96. The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: A. respiration. B. perfusion. C. metabolism. D. cardiac output.

B. perfusion.

65. Relative to the adult's airway, the child's: A. tongue takes up less space in the pharynx. B. pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved. C. trachea is smaller, softer, and less flexible. D. mouth and nose are proportionately larger.

B. pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved.

33. The MOST common cause of sudden death following an acute myocardial infarction is: A. cardiogenic shock. B. severe bradycardia. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. congestive heart failure.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 409

47. How many nitroglycerin doses is a patient generally told to take before calling EMS? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 415

19. All of the following terms are used to describe a cold body part that is not frozen, EXCEPT: A. frostnip. B. frostbite. C. chilblains. D. trench foot.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 551

13. With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. C. area of soft tissue damage surrounding the injury. D. part of the body that sustained secondary injury.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 823-824

8. All of the following are signs of a significant abdominal injury, EXCEPT: A. tachycardia. B. hypotension. C. localized pain. D. diffuse bruising.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 800

32. Distraction injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: A. falls. B. diving. B. hanging. D. compression.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 880

18. Of the 21% room air oxygen that a person inhales, approximately ___% is exhaled. A. 5 B. 12 C. 16 D. 18

C. 16

55. At a flow rate of 6 liters per minute (L/min), a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of ___%. A. 24 B. 35 C. 44 D. 52

C. 44

6. A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A. medial. B. proximal. C. bilateral. D. unilateral.

C. bilateral.

76. Contraction of the right ventricle causes: A. closure of the mitral and aortic valves. B. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins. C. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation. D. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation.

C. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

99. The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following functions, EXCEPT: A. digestion. B. breathing. C. breath-holding. D. vessel dilation.

C. breath-holding.

34. The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: A. mandibular fractures. B. upper airway swelling. C. cervical spine injuries. D. copious oral secretions.

C. cervical spine injuries.

19. The MOST reliable indicator of a fracture is: A. guarding. B. severe swelling. C. obvious bruising. D. point tenderness.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 825

39. The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with head trauma is: A. fracturing the septum. B. damaging the turbinates. C. penetrating the cranium. D. causing severe bleeding.

C. penetrating the cranium.

53. You should quickly obtain a SAMPLE history from a conscious trauma patient with severe injuries because: A. this is critical patient information that must be included in the patient care report. B. definitive care cannot be provided at the hospital without this critical information. C. the history will provide conclusive information regarding the mechanism of injury. D. he or she may become unresponsive and will be unable to provide the information.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 293

33. What is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to the wheeled stretcher? A. Log roll B. Direct carry C. Extremity carry D. Draw sheet method

D. Draw sheet method

110. Which of the following chemicals is released by the adrenal glands and increases the heart rate and blood pressure? A. Insulin B. Estrogen C. Thyroxin D. Epinephrine

D. Epinephrine

8. Which of the following structures is/are contained within the mediastinum? A. Lungs B. Larynx C. Bronchioles D. Esophagus

D. Esophagus

11. What type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? A. Formal B. Implied C. Informed D. Expressed

D. Expressed

36. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in severe hypoxia? A. Penetrating chest injury B. Obstructive lung disease C. Acute narcotic overdose D. High blood sugar levels

D. High blood sugar levels

68. The normal stimulus to breathe in a healthy patient is based on: A. low levels of oxygen. B. high levels of oxygen. C. low levels of carbon dioxide. D. high levels of carbon dioxide.

D. high levels of carbon dioxide

21. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. State Bureau of EMS. B. EMS training director. C. EMS medical director. D. individual EMT-B.

D. individual EMT-B.

3. From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least: A. 1 week. B. 2 weeks. C. 3 weeks. D. 4 weeks.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 585

8. General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include: A. firmly identifying yourself as an EMS provider. B. placing the patient between yourself and an exit. C. allowing the patient to be alone if he or she wishes. D. being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 586

13. During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: A. a decreased ability to cough. B. baseline respiratory distress. C. an increased risk of COPD. D. air-trapping within the alveoli.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 989

45. High fever, headache, and a stiff neck are common signs of: A. meningitis. B. pertussis. C. hepatitis A. D. tuberculosis.

Ans: A . meningitis Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 52

31. A 68-year-old female presents with an acute onset of lower back pain after sitting down in a chair. Your assessment reveals point tenderness and deformity to the lumbar region of her spine. The patient's medical history consists of hypertension, osteoporosis, and glaucoma. What mechanism has MOST likely caused this patient's spinal injury? A. Distraction B. Compression C. Hyperflexion D. Hyperextension

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1010

45. It is 10:30 p.m. and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. As you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should: A. mark the proposed landing area with road flares. B. survey the area for power lines or other hazards. C. provide the flight crew with a patient status update. D. mark the landing site with personnel with flashlights.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1049

32. When immobilizing the spine of an injured 79-year-old male with severe kyphosis, you should first: A. assess distal functions. B. apply a cervical collar. C. pad underneath his head. D. manually stabilize his head.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1010¬-1012

42. You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should: A. use your PA system to alert the driver. B. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side. C. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder. D. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1042

36. While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: A. pass the bus only after all children have exited. B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. C. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1046

62. Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of a person's potential for violence? A. Overly friendly B. Jerky movements C. History of violence D. Large physical size

Large physical size

11. A microdrip administration set delivers 1 mL of fluid after every ___ drops. A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1168

17. Vesicant agents include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. sarin. B. lewisite. C. sulfur mustard. D. phosgene oxime.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1107

18. In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of: A. 5:1 B. 5:2 C. 15:2 D. 30:2

Ans: D 30:2 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-26

2. After ___ minutes without oxygen, some brain damage is almost certain. A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Ans: D 6 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-3

34. Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? A. Spleen B. Kidneys C. Gallbladder D. Abdominal aorta

B. Kidneys

2. In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? A. Alveoli B. Trachea C. Bronchi D. Capillaries

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 366

8. Hypoperfusion is another name for: A. shock. B. cyanosis. C. hypoxemia. D. cellular death.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 653

12. The _______ is the most superior portion of the lung. A. apex B. base C. dorsum D. septum

A. apex

50. The elbow is an example of a _________ joint. A. hinge B. saddle C. gliding D. ball-and-socket

A. hinge

20. Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent? A. Phosgene B. Soman (GD) C. Lewisite (L) D. Chlorine (CL)

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109, 1111

7. Bone marrow produces: A. platelets. B. lymphocytes. C. red blood cells. D. white blood cells.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 821-822

25. Twelve pairs of ribs attach to what section of the spinal column? A. Sacral B. Lumbar C. Thoracic D. Coccyx

C. Thoracic

8. Bones are connected to other bones by tough fibrous tissues called: A. bursa. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 822

24. The cervical spine is composed of ____ vertebrae. A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

D. 7

31. Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? A. Poisoning B. Head trauma C. Brain tumor D. Massive stroke

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 451

7. Urticaria is the medical term for: A. hives. B. burning. C. swelling. D. a wheal.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 500

45. Padding underneath the torso when immobilizing an injured child is generally not necessary if he or she is: A. older than 8 to 10 years of age. B. complaining of severe back pain. C. immobilized on a long backboard. D. experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 971

66. Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? A. Seesaw respirations B. Unequal breath sounds C. Unequal chest expansion D. Irregular breathing pattern

A. Seesaw respirations

14. Which of the following factors will MOST likely cause a decreased minute volume in the adult? A. Shallow breathing B. Increased tidal volume C. Respirations of 20 breaths/min D. Slight decrease in respiratory rate

A. Shallow breathing

19. Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? A. Mastoid B. Maxilla C. Mandible D. Zygoma

A. Mastoid

5. The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures. A. midline B. proximal C. superior D. midaxillary

A. midline

56. The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: A. uvula. B. epiglottis. C. vallecula. D. pharynx.

B. epiglottis.

12. The general adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery B. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

Ans: A Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 32

11. Which of the following is considered to be an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR? A. Dependent blood pooling B. Pulselessness and apnea C. Agonal respiratory effort D. Severe cyanosis to the face

Ans: A Dependent blood pooling Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-6, A-7

27. During the initial assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: A. skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill. B. pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition. C. blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding. D. external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 277

1. A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it: A. is used to treat a multitude of conditions. B. may cause harm or have no positive effect. C. produces actions other than the desired ones. D. is used to treat a specific medical condition.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 344

41. You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is in disarray and you are in need of equipment and supplies. You should: A. proceed to the call but function only in the capacity of a first responder. B. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. C. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. D. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1039

24. A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: A. transport him in a supine position. B. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock. C. assess his BP to determine perfusion adequacy. D. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 474

however, you are unfamiliar with the address and cannot find the location in your map book. A nearby police officer radios you and tells you that he knows how to get to the scene. You should: A. ask the dispatcher to call the residence and obtain driving directions. B. turn off your lights and carefully follow the police officer to the scene. C. follow the police officer in emergency mode until you get near the scene. D. keep your lights on and ask the police officer to guide you to the scene.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1047

12. Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? A. Rectal B. Ingestion C. Inhalation D. Sublingual

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 345

19. What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma? A. Tongue-jaw lift B. Jaw-thrust maneuver C. Head-tilt chin-lift D. Head-tilt neck-lift

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 275

21. You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: A. break the window and unlock the door. B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. C. request the rescue team to extricate him. D. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1062

44. The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: A. blood pressure. B. systolic pressure. C. diastolic pressure. D. pulse pressure.

B. systolic pressure.

16. A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: A. use the rapid extrication technique. B. immobilize him with a vest-style device. C. maintain slight traction to his neck area. D. adequately secure him to a long backboard.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1064

46. The carpometacarpal joint, a modified ball-and-socket joint, allows for a wide range of motion of the: A. wrist. B. thumb. C. ankle. D. elbow.

B. thumb.

16. Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. cool and clammy skin. B. absent peripheral pulses. C. restlessness or anxiety. D. rapid, shallow breathing.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 684

24. Glutose is a trade name for: A. glucotrol. B. oral glucose. C. micronase. D. glucophage.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 490

4. The energy of a moving object is called: A. latent energy. B. kinetic energy. C. potential energy. D. converted energy.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 632

58. When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pressure, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: A. apply a cardiac monitor and observe her cardiac rhythm. B. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. C. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment. D. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.

B. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

3. Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are brand (trade) names for: A. aspirin. B. nitrostat. C. ibuprofen. D. acetaminophen.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 345

7. Which of the following drugs is NOT a sedative-hypnotic? A. Seconal B. Valium C. Cocaine D. Rohypnol

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 519, 530

45. While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: A. atria relaxing. B. atria contracting. C. ventricles relaxing. D. ventricles contracting.

C. ventricles relaxing.

94. A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" represents: A. atrial contraction. B. ventricular filling. C. ventricular contraction. D. ventricular relaxation.

C. ventricular contraction.

51. Skeletal muscle is also called: A. smooth muscle. B. autonomic muscle. C. voluntary muscle. D. involuntary muscle.

C. voluntary muscle

36. While at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio, but are unsuccessful. You should: A. reattempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain. B. place both patients in the ambulance and transport at once. C. ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio. D. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 317

42. You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote location that you are in, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do? A. Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport. B. Make continuous attempts to contact medical control. C. Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation. D. Follow locally established protocols or standing orders.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 326

5. The tough, outer meningeal layer is called the: A. pia mater. B. arachnoid. C. gray mater. D. dura mater.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 872

43. As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 326

45. When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to: A. a nerve agent. B. sarin or soman. C. a vesicant agent. D. phosgene or chlorine.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1108

61. When treating a patient who is trapped in a vehicle and covered with broken glass, it is BEST to wear: A. a single thick pair of puncture-proof leather gloves. B. puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves. C. firefighter gloves only, to preserve manual dexterity. D. thick firefighter gloves over two pairs of latex gloves.

a single thick pair of puncture-proof leather gloves.

19. The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: A. spinal canal. B. vertebral body. C. vertebral arch. D. intervertebral disc.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 877-878

12. Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. a decreased ability to shiver. B. a relatively small surface area. C. a smaller amount of body fat. D. a smaller overall muscle mass.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 546

4. Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: A. 98°F. B. 95°F. C. 90°F. D. 88°F.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 546

24. A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing: A. retrograde amnesia. B. antegrade amnesia. C. perigrade amnesia. D. posttraumatic amnesia.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 879

10. A high-pitched inspiratory sound that indicates a partial upper airway obstruction is called: A. stridor. B. rhonchi. C. grunting. D. wheezing.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 945

10. A patient with a core body temperature of 92°F will MOST likely experience: A. bradycardia. B. rapid breathing. C. muscle stiffness. D. loss of consciousness.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 546

15. After squeezing the end of a child's finger or toe for a few seconds, blood should return to the area within: A. 2 seconds. B. 3 seconds. C. 4 seconds. D. 5 seconds.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 946, 948

18. Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than ___ years of age. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 948

19. Which of the following inquiries should you make in private when obtaining a SAMPLE history from an adolescent patient? A. Sexual activity B. Bladder habits C. Frequency of urination D. Duration of symptoms

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 949

31. When ventilating a pediatric patient with a bag-valve mask device, the EMT-B should: A. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise. B. squeeze the bag 40 times per minute when ventilating an infant. C. ensure that you use a neonatal BVM for children under 12 months. D. ventilate the child with sharp, quick breaths at the appropriate rate.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 956-957

33. A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: A. croup. B. asthma. C. bronchitis. D. epiglottitis.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 958

35. Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. wheezing. B. a weak cough. C. a seal bark cough. D. stridorous breathing.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 959

40. Vigorous suctioning of a newborn's airway is indicated if: A. there is meconium in the amniotic fluid. B. positive-pressure ventilations are indicated. C. the newborn presents with labored breathing. D. his or her heart rate is less than 60 beats/min.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 964

53. Children younger than ____ year(s) of age should always be in a rear-facing car seat when being transported. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 971

46. An infant or child with respiratory distress will attempt to keep his or her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by: A. grunting. B. wheezing. C. assuming a tripod position. D. retracting the intercostal muscles.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 975

52. Most seizures in children: A. are due to fever alone. B. last less than 30 minutes. C. are caused by hypoglycemia. D. require lengthy hospitalization.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 978

2. When explaining the need for a particular procedure to an elderly patient, you should: A. use plain English and simple terms. B. use the appropriate medical terminology. C. be complex so the patient fully understands. D. realize that he or she will not understand you.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 986-987

6. The purpose of the GEMS Diamond is to: A. help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients. B. provide the EMT-B with a standard format for assessing elderly patients. C. replace the typical ABC approach to patient care when caring for the elderly. D. provide clues about an elderly patient's problem by observing his or her home.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 987

9. After the age of 30, organ systems begin to deteriorate at a rate of approximately: A. 1% per year. B. 3% per year. C. 5% per year. D. 10% per year.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 988

15. Elderly patients experience a decreased ability to compensate for hypoperfusion for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. uncontrolled hypertension. B. arteriosclerotic blood vessels. C. decreased myocardial contractility. D. lessened ability to increase heart rate.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 989

18. Flexion at the neck and a forward curling of the shoulders produces a condition called: A. kyphosis. B. arthritis. C. scoliosis. D. miosis.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 990

23. Syncope in the elderly patient is: A. caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain. B. generally of no concern unless the patient was injured. C. most commonly caused by a silent myocardial infarction. D. rarely life-threatening but should be evaluated by a physician.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 992

29. In contrast to delirium, dementia: A. is usually considered irreversible. B. is the result of an acute condition. C. is reversible with certain treatment. D. often develops over a period of days.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 994

87. What is the function of the platelet? A. Initial formation of a blood clot B. Transport of oxygen and nutrients C. Defense against invading organisms D. Transport of cellular waste materials

A. Initial formation of a blood clot

4. Which of the following is NOT a skill that is provided by the EMT-Basic? A. Initiation of an intravenous line B. Automated external defibrillation C. Administering supplemental oxygen D. Assisting patients with certain medications

A. Initiation of an intravenous line

15. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? A. Long backboard B. Scoop stretcher C. Portable stretcher D. Wheeled stretcher

A. Long backboard

42. You are attempting to resuscitate a 50-year-old male in cardiac arrest. He is on the second floor of his home. What is the MOST appropriate device to use when carrying him to the first floor? A. Long backboard B. Wheeled stretcher C. Folding stair chair D. Portable stretcher

A. Long backboard

9. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? A. Paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT-B B. EMT-I transfers patient care to a paramedic C. Physician assumes patient care from an EMT-B D. EMT-B gives a verbal report to an ER nurse

A. Paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT-B

86. Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? A. Plasma transports the formed components of the blood. B. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma. C. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. D. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins.

A. Plasma transports the formed components of the blood.

80. The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: A. SA node. B. AV node. C. bundle of HIS. D. Purkinje system.

A. SA node.

22. What normally occurs when the level of carbon dioxide in the blood becomes too high? A. The brain stem sends messages to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles and respirations increase. B. Respirations decrease due to decreased sensitivity of the brain stem to carbon dioxide levels in the blood. C. The central nervous system fails to sense the increase in carbon dioxide and hypoxia begins to develop. D. The brain stem sends messages to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, causing a marked decrease in tidal volume.

A. The brain stem sends messages to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles and respirations increase. Page: 219

8. Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? A. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. B. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot half of the stretcher. C. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. D. The EMT-B at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight.

A. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.

37. You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle versus pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? A. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. B. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. D. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.

A. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.

20. Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: A. adequate amounts of surfactant. B. water or blood within the alveoli. C. surfactant-destroying organisms. D. pulmonary capillary constriction.

A. adequate amounts of surfactant.

67. A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 24 breaths/min and regular. You should: A. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. C. perform a detailed examination and then begin treatment. D. begin ventilatory assistance with a BVM and 100% oxygen.

A. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

4. As an EMT-B, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: A. another EMT-B. B. the general public. C. the medical director. D. a paramedic supervisor.

A. another EMT-B.

81. The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the: A. aorta. B. carotid. C. brachial. D. femoral.

A. aorta.

72. You are transporting a 40-year-old male with respiratory distress. The patient tells you that he recently had a positive TB skin test and is currently being evaluated for possible tuberculosis. You should: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a HEPA respirator on yourself. B. remain at least 3 feet away from the patient and apply a surgical mask on him. C. apply a sterile surgical mask on yourself and a HEPA respirator on the patient. D. apply a nasal cannula on the patient and a sterile surgical mask on yourself.

A. apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a HEPA respirator on yourself.

10. Baseline vital signs are referred to as such because they: A. are the initial vital signs that will allow you to trend the patient's condition by comparing them to future vital signs. B. represent a continuous evaluation of the status of the patient's cardiovascular, respiratory, and nervous systems. C. can be obtained as frequently as needed in order to determine if the patient's condition is improving or worsening. D. are the most recent set of vital signs that you report to the attending physician or charge nurse at the receiving hospital.

A. are the initial vital signs that will allow you to trend the patient's condition by comparing them to future vital signs.

14. When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: A. flexing your body at the knees. B. the use of more than two EMT-Bs. C. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. D. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

C. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.

4. Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be heard by the party being called? A. Multiplex base station B. Land-base repeater station C. Mobile repeater station D. Hand-held portable radio

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 317

1. The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the: A. womb. B. cervix. C. fundus. D. birth canal.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 600

13. The third stage of labor begins when the: A. placenta is fully delivered. B. cervix is completely dilated. C. umbilical cord has been clamped. D. baby is expelled from the vagina.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 602

7. A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: A. 4 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 10 hours. D. 16 hours.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 602

8. The onset of labor begins with: A. thinning of the uterus. B. full dilation of the cervix. C. increased fetal movement. D. contractions of the uterus.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 602

55. Jugular venous distention should be considered significant if the patient is: A. in a supine position. B. in a full Fowler's position. C. in a recumbent position. D. sitting up at a 45° angle.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 289

61. The presence of subcutaneous emphysema could indicate all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: A. pneumothorax. B. crushed trachea. C. laryngeal fracture. D. myocardial rupture.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 300

1. Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a: A. repeater. B. multiplex. C. mobile radio. D. base station.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 316-317

17. Rough handling of a hypothermic patient with a pulse may cause: A. profound bradycardia. B. ventricular fibrillation. C. ventricular tachycardia. D. pulseless electrical activity.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 549

15. Which of the following open soft tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? A. Avulsion B. Abrasion C. Incision D. Laceration

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 705

28. Common causes of delirium in the elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. acute hypovolemia. B. Alzheimer's disease. C. low blood sugar level. D. decreased cerebral perfusion.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 994

33. In contrast to a living will, a do not resuscitate (DNR) order becomes valid when: A. the patient has a terminal illness. B. the patient develops cardiac arrest. C. the patient is in a healthcare setting. D. it is signed by three or more physicians.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 995

19. When transporting a stable stroke patient with unilateral hemiparalysis, it is best to place the patient in a: A. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up. B. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down. C. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle. D. supine position with the legs elevated 6" to 12".

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 446

5. Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: A. fascia. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 821

5. Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? A. A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen B. A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee C. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin D. A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 500-502

10. What part of the scene size-up would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? A. General activities occurring at the scene B. The patient's general physical appearance C. The environment in which the patient is found D. The time of season in which the exposure occurred

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 503

22. Risk factors for a myocardial infarction that CANNOT be controlled include: A. excess stress. B. hyperglycemia. C. family history. D. lack of exercise.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408

26. When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) because: A. angina usually occurs after a myocardial infarction. B. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI. C. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field. D. angina and a myocardial infarction present identically.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408

32. Which of the following signs or symptoms of acute myocardial infarction is especially common in older women? A. Pain B. Nausea C. Fatigue D. Dyspnea

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 409

39. Which of the following signs indicates the onset of decompensated cardiogenic shock? A. Restlessness B. Pale, clammy skin C. Low blood pressure D. Significant tachycardia

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 411

45. When would it be MOST appropriate for a patient to take nitroglycerin? A. Chest pressure that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes B. An acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion C. Chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest D. Difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 415

52. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate method of assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin tablet or spray? A. Encourage the patient to chew the tablet to increase its effectiveness. B. Place the medication under the tongue and have the patient swallow it. C. Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb. D. Wait 15 minutes and reassess the BP prior to administering another dose.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 416-417

57. The EMT-B should use an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a child over 1 year of age if: A. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. C. pediatric pads and an energy reducing device are available. D. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 420

63. The main legal risk in using the AED is: A. negligence of the part of the manufacturer. B. failure of the AED's internal computer chip. C. failing to deliver a shock when one was needed. D. not assessing for a pulse after a shock is delivered.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 423

5. The left cerebral hemisphere controls: A. the right side of the face. B. heart rate and pupil reaction. C. the right side of the body. D. breathing and blood pressure.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 440-441

8. Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a thrombus. B. an embolism. C. cerebral vasodilation. D. an acute arterial rupture.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 442

13. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. B. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. C. the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery. D. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 443-444

14. A patient who is experiencing receptive aphasia is: A. unable to speak clearly or understand questions. B. most likely experiencing a right-hemispheric stroke. C. able to speak clearly but has difficulty understanding. D. able to understand questions but cannot speak clearly.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 444

20. Which of the following is NOT an assessment parameter included in the Cincinnati Stroke Scale? A. Speech B. Arm drift C. Memory D. Facial droop

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 448

21. When assessing arm movement of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: A. observe for arm movement for approximately 5 minutes. B. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. C. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. D. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 448

26. Which of the following MOST accurately describes the postictal state that follows a seizure? A. Hyperventilation and hypersalivation B. Rapidly improving level of consciousness C. Dazed, confused, or combative appearance D. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 451-452

30. Febrile seizures: A. often result in permanent brain damage. B. are also referred to as petit mal seizures. C. are usually benign but should be evaluated. D. occur when a child's fever progressively rises.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 451-452

38. Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: A. brain. B. kidneys. C. liver. D. pancreas.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 457

39. The mental status of a patient who has experienced a typical seizure: A. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours. B. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia. C. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes. D. typically does not improve, even after several minutes.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 457

3. The parietal peritoneum lines the: A. retroperitoneal space. B. lungs and chest cavity. C. walls of the abdominal cavity. D. surface of the abdominal organs.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 466

5. Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is MOST correct? A. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 467

8. Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Pancreas C. Gallbladder

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 468

13. Which of the following is a nonspecific complaint that is commonly associated with an acute abdomen? A. High fever B. Hematemesis C. Loss of appetite D. Lower quadrant pain

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 470

18. Patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything by mouth because: A. it will create referred pain and obscure the diagnosis. B. food will rapidly travel through the digestive system. C. a full stomach may make emergency surgery dangerous. D. digestion prevents accurate auscultation of bowel sounds.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 472

5. Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? A. Most cells will function normally without glucose. B. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 483

10. Ketone production is the result of: A. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low. B. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL. C. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable. D. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 483-484

16. The signs and symptoms of insulin shock are the result of: A. increased blood glucose levels. B. fat metabolism within the cells. C. decreased blood glucose levels. D. prolonged and severe dehydration.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 485

21. In contrast to insulin shock, diabetic coma: A. is rapidly reversible if oral glucose is given. B. commonly results in excess water retention. C. can only be corrected in the hospital setting. D. is a rapidly developing metabolic disturbance.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 486-487

114. The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the: A. pancreas. B. gallbladder. C. small intestine. D. large intestine.

C. small intestine

3. The manner in which the EMT-B must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the: A. EMT-B oath. B. code of ethics. C. standard of care. D. scope of practice.

C. standard of care.

18. Although transport time to a specialty center may be slightly longer than to a local emergency department: A. specialty center physicians are more highly trained. B. patients must always be taken to the closest hospital. C. the patient will receive definitive care more quickly. D. all patients should be transported to a specialty center.

C. the patient will receive definitive care more quickly.

3. _______ is defined as the ability to reach the patient. A. Access B. Rescue C. Extricate D. Disentangle

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1060

31. Which of the following statements regarding suicide in the elderly is MOST correct? A. Elderly patients tend to use more lethal means than younger patients. B. Older females have a higher rate of suicide than any other group. C. Depression and hopeless feelings are often not predisposing factors. D. Most suicidal patients readily seek care and do not deny the problem.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 995

65. During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should perform an ongoing assessment ___ times. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 307

51. When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT-B at the patient's ________ is in charge of all patient movements. A. head. B. chest. C. waist. D. lower extremities.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 891

29. Bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _____ beats per minute and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _____ beats per minute. A. 60, 100 B. 50, 110 C. 40, 120 D. 30, 130

A. 60, 100

14. Which of the following general statements regarding consent is MOST correct? A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. B. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. C. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. D. All patients over 18 years of age can legally refuse treatment or transport.

A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.

53. Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct? A. A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle. B. Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels. C. The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle. D. Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary nervous system.

A. A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle.

48. When taking a patient's blood pressure in an upper extremity, the diaphragm of the stethoscope is normally placed over which artery? A. Brachial B. Femoral C. Popliteal D. Radial

A. Brachial

16. Which of the following will MOST likely occur if the body is deprived of oxygen for less than 2 minutes? A. Cardiac irritability B. Renal insufficiency C. Minimal brain damage D. Irreversible brain damage

A. Cardiac irritability

42. What three bones make up the shoulder girdle? A. Clavicle, scapula, humerus B. Acromion, clavicle, scapula C. Acromion, scapula, humerus D. Acromion, humerus, clavicle

A. Clavicle, scapula, humerus

92. Which of the following are central pulses? A. Femoral, carotid B. Brachial, radial C. Temporal, pedal D. Popliteal, ulnar

A. Femoral, carotid

74. Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct? A. It is under control of the autonomic nervous system. B. It can tolerate an interruption of oxygen for 5 minutes. C. It receives its blood supply from the pulmonary arteries. D. It relies on an external electrical source to correctly function.

A. It is under control of the autonomic nervous system.

111. Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive system? A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Stomach D. Gallbladder

A. Kidney

113. Poisonous substances produced during digestion are brought to what organ and converted to harmless substances? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidneys D. Pancreas

A. Liver

7. A patient has sustained a stab wound to the left lateral chest just below the armpit. What anatomic term MOST accurately describes the location of this injury? A. Midaxillary B. Anteromedial C. Midclavicular D. Inferoposterior

A. Midaxillary

46. Which of the following body systems can survive the longest period of time without oxygen? A. Musculoskeletal B. Cardiovascular C. Respiratory D. Renal

A. Musculoskeletal

27. Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. B. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient. C. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. D. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital.

A. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.

70. Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a reduction in tidal volume. B. respirations of 20 breaths/min. C. bilaterally clear breath sounds. D. rhythmic inhalation and exhalation.

A. a reduction in tidal volume.

40. A folding or portable stretcher is MOST beneficial when: A. a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance. B. an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain. C. a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs. D. a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected.

A. a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.

41. You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious, has slow, shallow breathing, and a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a do not resuscitate (DNR) order for this patient however, they are unable to locate it. You should: A. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. B. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. C. transport the patient without providing any treatment. D. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced.

A. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.

72. You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a BVM. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should: A. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique. B. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations. C. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately. D. suction his airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.

A. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique.

98. The central nervous system is composed of the: A. brain and spinal cord. B. brain and sensory nerves. C. motor and sensory nerves. D. spinal cord and sensory nerves.

A. brain and spinal cord.

100. The largest portion of the brain, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter," is called the: A. cerebrum. B. cerebellum. C. brain stem. D. diencephalon.

A. cerebrum

52. When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: A. constricting. B. enlarging. C. dilating. D. fluttering.

A. constricting.

19. EMTs who follow a coordinated continuum of care do so because: A. it maximizes survival and reduces patient suffering. B. tradition demands doing what we have always done. C. the medical community requires progressive phases of care. D. definitive care is most easily provided in a prehospital setting.

A. it maximizes survival and reduces patient suffering.

25. If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report: A. it was not performed in the eyes of the law. B. it can be qualified by the EMT-B in charge. C. it cannot be used in establishing negligence. D. it was performed haphazardly by the EMT-B.

A. it was not performed in the eyes of the law.

20. When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should: A. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over. B. extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible. C. bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power. D. avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than 5 minutes.

A. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.

59. The vocal cords are located in the: A. larynx. B. pharynx. C. oropharynx. D. nasopharynx

A. larynx.

9. The proper technique for using the power grip is to: A. lift with your palms up. B. rotate your palms down. C. hold the handle with your fingers. D. position your hands about 6" apart.

A. lift with your palms up.

33. The _________ fills the entire anteroposterior depth of the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen. A. liver B. spleen C. pancreas D. stomach

A. liver

16. The person who provides the ongoing working liaison among the medical community, hospitals, and the EMT is the: A. medical director. B. agency manager. C. district supervisor. D. EMS administrator.

A. medical director

9. First responders, such as firefighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because: A. the presence of a person trained to initiate BLS care cannot be ensured. B. they are often trained to assist the advanced-level EMT with procedures. C. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes. D. they can initiate certain advanced life support procedures before EMS arrival.

A. the presence of a person trained to initiate BLS care cannot be ensured.

6. When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting: A. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae. B. the hands can be held further apart from the body. C. the muscles of the back experience increased strain. D. the risk of back injuries is significantly increased.

A. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.

56. The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting: A. when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask. B. if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions. C. if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required. D. when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth.

A. when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask.

40. A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare. B. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum. C. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare. D. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose.

A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.

30. Body substance isolation (BSI) precautions differ from universal precautions in that: A. BSI is designed to approach all bodily fluids as being potentially infectious. B. BSI precautions are necessary only when visible blood is present on a patient. C. BSI reminds you to apply precautions in all direct patient contact situations. D. BSI is a concept in which it is assumed that all diseases are transmitted via blood.

Ans: A BSI is designed to approach all bodily fluids as being potentially infectious Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 44

35. Which of the following situations would dictate the use of a mask and gown in addition to gloves? A. Emergency delivery of an infant B. Closed tibia fracture with no bleeding C. Contact with an HIV-infected patient D. Open humerus fracture with minimal bleeding

Ans: A Emergency delivery of an infant Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 45-46

21. Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a cervical spine injury is suspected? A. Jaw-thrust B. Tongue-jaw lift C. Head-tilt neck-lift D. Head-tilt chin-lift

Ans: A Jaw-thrust Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-10, A-11

54. Which of the following statements about communicable diseases is correct? A. Not all people who are infected with a communicable disease show signs or symptoms of illness. B. Anyone who has been exposed to a communicable disease always is a carrier of that disease. C. Anyone who is infected with a communicable disease shows signs or symptoms of that disease. D. Any time you take the temperature of a patient who has a communicable disease, you need to wear gloves or you will become infected.

Ans: A Not all people who are infected with a communicable disease show signs or symptoms of illness. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 48

7. Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib) is MOST correct? A. It is an uncommon dysrhythmia in patients with sudden cardiac arrest. B. AEDs should not be used to defibrillate patients in ventricular fibrillation. C. The only indication for immediate defibrillation is ventricular fibrillation. D. Survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-Fib persists.

Ans: D Survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-Fib persists Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-5

4. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ____ breaths per minute. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 917

34. When faced with a situation in which an elderly patient with a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient's wishes cannot be located, the EMT-B should: A. try to locate the documentation. B. attempt to resuscitate the patient. C. allow the patient to die in peace. D. contact medical control for advice.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 996

39. When assessing an elderly patient who has multiple bruises in various stages of healing, the EMT-B should do all of the following, EXCEPT: A. factually document all findings. B. accuse a caregiver of physical abuse. C. ask the patient how the bruises occurred. D. review the patient's activities of daily living.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 998

3. The anterior aspect of the cerebrum controls: A. touch. B. emotion. C. movement. D. vision.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 441

48. A common cause of shock in an infant is: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. vomiting and diarrhea. C. excessive tachycardia. D. cardiovascular disease.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 752 (ECTSI)

31. Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? A. Anxiety or severe stress B. Beta-blocker medications C. Internal bleeding from trauma D. Lack of a regular exercise routine

B. Beta-blocker medications

13. Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? A. Actual B. Implied C. Informed D. Expressed

B. Implied

22. In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? A. Patients with an altered mental status or shock B. Inability to protect the patient from scene hazards C. To gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle D. When a significant mechanism of injury is involved

B. Inability to protect the patient from scene hazards

10. A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. What aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury? A. Palmar B. Plantar C. Dorsal D. Ventral

B. Plantar

33. You have been tasked by your medical director to assist in the development of your EMS agency's institutional standards. When developing these standards, it is important to: A. require personnel to transport all patients to the closest hospital. B. be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening your personnel. C. demand that all personnel consistently exceed the standard of care. D. expect personnel to function beyond their scope of practice if needed.

B. be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening your personnel.

7. Safe lifting of a patient on a cot involves all of the following, EXCEPT: A. using the power-lift if possible. B. bending or flexing at the waist. C. keeping your hands about 10" apart. D. grasping the cot with your palms up.

B. bending or flexing at the waist.

22. The areas of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, coccyx. B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx. C. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, sacral. D. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccyx.

B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx.

18. In order for a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: A. be dated within the previous 24 months. B. clearly state the patient's medical problem. C. be updated a minimum of every 6 months. D. be signed by the local justice of the peace.

B. clearly state the patient's medical problem.

27. The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: A. ilium. B. coccyx. C. sacrum. D. ischium.

B. coccyx.

21. The firm cartilaginous ring that forms the inferior portion of the larynx is called the: A. costal cartilage. B. cricoid cartilage. C. thyroid cartilage. D. laryngo cartilage.

B. cricoid cartilage

30. The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the chest from the abdomen. A. costal arch B. diaphragm C. mediastinum D. costovertebral angle

B. diaphragm

93. The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles are filling with blood is called: A. systole. B. diastole. C. asystole. D. stroke volume.

B. diastole.

47. The styloid processes are located at the: A. distal humerus. B. distal radius and ulna. C. proximal radius and ulna. D. proximal humeral condyle.

B. distal radius and ulna.

59. A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: A. acute pancreatitis. B. liver dysfunction. C. gallbladder disease. D. renal insufficiency.

B. liver dysfunction.

his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: A. palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse. B. log roll him as a unit to a supine position. C. assess the rate and quality of his breathing. D. open his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.

B. log roll him as a unit to a supine position.

23. The hypoxic drive, the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases, is influenced by: A. high blood oxygen levels. B. low blood oxygen levels. C. low blood carbon dioxide levels. D. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

B. low blood oxygen levels.

1. To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT-B should always: A. transport patients to the hospital of their choice. B. provide competent care that meets current standards. C. use universal precautions with every patient encounter. D. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient.

B. provide competent care that meets current standards.

28. You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to: A. notify medical control for advice. B. provide immediate patient care. C. wait for law enforcement to arrive. D. determine why the patient was injured.

B. provide immediate patient care.

36. In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by: A. pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head. B. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot. C. slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement. D. retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance.

B. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot.

1. The ________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. A. coccyx B. sacrum C. thorax D. ischium

B. sacrum

20. A patient breathing with reduced tidal volume will have respirations that are: A. deep. B. shallow. C. regular. D. normal.

B. shallow

38. You suspect that a 6-year-old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child's mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should: A. use your authority under the implied consent law. B. try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed. C. ask the mother to sign a refusal form and then leave. D. tell the mother that her refusal is a form of child abuse.

B. try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed.

115. Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: A. prostate. B. ureters. C. urethra. D. renal duct.

B. ureters.

116. What is the function of the fallopian tubes? A. Connect both ovaries together B. Supply blood to the uterine lining C. Produce progesterone and estrogen D. Transport a mature egg to the uterus

B. ureters.

12. In order to facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: A. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. B. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. C. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. D. never become involved in the move, just direct the move.

B. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

1. The exchange of air between the lungs and the environment is called: A. diffusion. B. ventilation. C. respiration. D. oxygenation.

B. ventilation.

29. The posterior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: A. sternal notch. B. xiphoid process. C. angle of Louis. D. jugular notch.

B. xiphoid process.

28. A 69-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She is semiconscious with a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 74 beats/min and weak. Her daughter, who was uninjured in the crash, tells you that her mother has a history of hypertension and takes Inderal. Considering the fact that this patient is probably in shock, what is the MOST likely explanation for the absence of tachycardia? A. Deterioration of the cardiac conduction system B. Intrathoracic bleeding and cardiac compression C. The effects of her antihypertensive medication D. Failure of the parasympathetic nervous system

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1008

45. Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? A. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations B. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume C. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing D. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations

C. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing

38. Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT correct? A. The scoop stretcher is a concave device that is also referred to as a split litter. B. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. C. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. D. Both sides of the patient must be accessible in order for a scoop stretcher to be used.

C. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column.

19. Which of the following statements regarding stridor is MOST correct? A. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. B. Stridor is caused by incorrect airway positioning. C. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound. D. Stridor suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs.

C. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.

5. Which of the following statements regarding the power lift is correct? A. It involves using your lower back instead of your legs to lift. B. The leg muscles should remain relaxed during the power lift. C. It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient. D. It is not recommended for people with weak knees or thighs.

C. It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient.

15. What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. Radio B. Online C. Offline D. Direct

C. Offline

36. Which of the following organs does NOT lie within the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen? A. Liver B. Colon C. Spleen D. Gallbladder

C. Spleen

10. Inhalation occurs when the: A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. D. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

10. The EMT-B would MOST likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: A. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife. B. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report. C. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient. D. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request.

C. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

67. Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: A. osmosis. B. breathing. C. diffusion. D. ventilation.

C. diffusion.

30. The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: A. with multiple long bone injuries. B. with a possible cervical spine injury. C. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher. D. who cannot be placed on a backboard.

C. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

63. During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you can conclude that his: A. respiratory status is adequate. B. systolic blood pressure is normal. C. peripheral perfusion is decreased. D. skin temperature is abnormally cold.

C. peripheral perfusion is decreased.

3. Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. larynx. B. trachea. C. pharynx. D. alveoli.

C. pharynx.

25. A palpable pulse is created by: A. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries. B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart. C. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. D. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.

C. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.

54. Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient, you must ensure that the: A. one-way valve is sealed. B. flow rate is set at 6 L/min. C. reservoir bag is fully inflated. D. patient has reduced tidal volume.

C. reservoir bag is fully inflated.

17. Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries that you are aware of. Upon arriving at the scene, you should: A. contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation. B. park your ambulance behind the incident commander's vehicle. C. set up a staging area where fire fighters can be treated if necessary. D. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be parked.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1068

27. An 82-year-old male is found unconscious in bed by his wife. The patient is unresponsive and has snoring respirations. You should: A. assess the patient's respiratory quality. B. quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. suction his airway for up to 15 seconds. D. perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1005

22. A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unconscious, has slow and shallow respirations, and bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: A. stabilize her legs with the antishock garment. B. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. D. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1063

14. The EMT-B's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: A. accompany search team members and provide care. B. reassure the family members of the missing person. C. report to a location where the patient will be carried. D. stand by at the search base until the person is located.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1066

2. The upper jaw bone is called the: A. mandible. B. mastoid. C. zygoma. D. maxillae.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 758

3. Which of the following statements regarding communications with the elderly is MOST correct? A. The majority of elderly patients are hearing or visually impaired. B. Attempt to calm the elderly patient by using his or her first name. C. Explain the justification for a procedure after it has been completed. D. Older patients have difficulty understanding when they are stressed.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 987

10. The chief component of connective tissues and bones that deteriorates as people age is called: A. fibrin. B. elastin. C. sebum. D. collagen.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 988

12. When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing-impaired, you should: A. speak directly into their ear with an elevated tone of voice. B. remember that most hearing-impaired patients can read lips. C. request that they communicate with you by writing on paper. D. recall that they have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 989

17. A 10% reduction in brain weight would MOST likely increase an elderly individual's risk for: A. stroke. B. delirium. C. dementia. D. head trauma.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 989-990

21. With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of: A. severe kyphosis. B. distracting injuries. C. spinal cord tearing. D. compression fractures.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 992

27. A 40-year-old male was stung by a bee and is having obvious signs of a severe allergic reaction. He tells you that he has an AnaKit in his car, but has never used it before. As your partner applies oxygen to the patient, you contact medical control. The physician will MOST likely advise you to: A. administer two antihistamine tablets. B. inject 1.0 mg of epinephrine 1:1,000 SC. C. transport at once with close monitoring. D. inject 0.3 mL of epinephrine 1:1,000 SC.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 512

7. The __________ nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves. A. central B. somatic C. autonomic D. peripheral

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 874

17. Irreversible brain damage and death are almost assured if the body's cells are deprived of oxygen for greater than: A. 2 minutes. B. 4 minutes. C. 6 minutes. D. 10 minutes.

D. 10 minutes.

79. At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: A. 70 beats/min. B. 80 beats/min. C. 90 beats/min. D. 100 beats/min.

D. 100 beats/min.

47. The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately ______ pounds per square inch (psi). A. 500 B. 1,000 C. 1,500 D. 2,000

D. 2,000

17. With proper technique, you and your partner should be able to safely lift a patient who weighs up to ______ pounds. A. 150 B. 175 C. 190 D. 210

D. 210

18. Normal respiratory rates should not exceed ___ breaths per minute in children and ___ breaths per minute in infants. A. 18, 28 B. 20, 30 C. 24, 45 D. 30, 50

D. 30, 50

95. The average adult has approximately ____ L of blood in his or her body. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

D. 6

13. What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 350 mL and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min? A. 6,750 mL B. 6,900 mL C. 7,450 mL D. 7,700 mL

D. 7,700 mL

2. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? A. A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness B. A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears C. A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea D. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

D. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

12. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of advanced life support (ALS)? A. A 48-year-old apneic patient who is intubated by the nasal route B. A 53-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is manually defibrillated C. A 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle D. A 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an AED

D. A 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an AE

35. Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT-B when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? A. Joint flexibility B. Patient disorientation C. Naturally deformed bones D. Abnormal spinal curvature

D. Abnormal spinal curvature

65. Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed BVM ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? A. 20 breaths/min being delivered to the adult B. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag C. An adult's heart rate that is consistently increasing D. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

D. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

70. What is the MOST appropriate management for an uninjured semiconscious 40-year-old male with respirations of 20 breaths/min and adequate tidal volume? A. Place him in a supine position and assist ventilations with a BVM device. B. Position him in a semi-sitting position and give oxygen via nasal cannula. C. Place him in Fowler's position and give him 100% oxygen as needed. D. Place him on his left side and administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

D. Place him on his left side and administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

13. Which of the following is a unique function of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD)? A. Relaying relevant information to the EMTs B. Directing the ambulance to the correct address C. Obtaining patient information from the caller D. Providing callers with life-saving instructions

D. Providing callers with life-saving instructions

89. Which of the following arteries does NOT carry highly-oxygenated blood? A. Aorta B. Renal C. Femoral D. Pulmonary

D. Pulmonary

39. A patient partially regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. Although somewhat confused, the patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: A. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. B. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. C. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. D. assess whether or not the patient's mental condition is impaired.

D. assess whether or not the patient's mental condition is impaired.

39. The MOST appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the: A. stair chair. B. wheeled stretcher. C. scoop stretcher. D. basket stretcher.

D. basket stretcher.

53. When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: A. dilate. B. not react. C. become larger. D. become smaller.

D. become smaller.

51. When administering supplemental oxygen to a patient over a prolonged period of time, you should: A. routinely use a nasal cannula. B. place the patient in a supine position. C. set the flow rate to no more than 4 L/min. D. consider attaching an oxygen humidifier.

D. consider attaching an oxygen humidifier.

37. Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A. increased blood oxygen. B. peripheral vasodilation. C. venous vasoconstriction. D. decreased blood oxygen.

D. decreased blood oxygen.

15. In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: A. possesses a valid driver's license. B. is mentally competent and able to refuse. C. has a poor relationship with his or her parents. D. is married and lives independent of his or her parents.

D. is married and lives independent of his or her parent

18. To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: A. flex at the waist instead of the hips. B. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. C. use a direct carry whenever it is possible. D. keep the weight as close to you as possible.

D. keep the weight as close to you as possible.

4. The FIRST rule of safe lifting is to: A. always lift with your palms facing down. B. spread your legs approximately 20" apart. C. keep your back in a slightly curved position. D. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.

D. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.

a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: A. depart the scene and allow her to die with dignity. B. start CPR if she experiences cardiopulmonary arrest. C. provide no interventions and transport to the hospital. D. make her comfortable and provide emotional support.

D. make her comfortable and provide emotional suppor

43. The clavicle attaches to the __________ of the sternum to form the sternoclavicular joint. A. body B. sternal notch C. jugular notch D. manubrium

D. manubrium

76. At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: A. proceed with normal extrication procedures. B. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. C. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. D. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.

D. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.

58. As the single EMT-B managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: A. mouth-to-mouth technique. B. one-person bag-valve mask device. C. manually triggered ventilation device. D. mouth-to-mask with one-way valve.

D. mouth-to-mask with one-way valve.

42. In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: A. anterior chest wall. B. forehead and face. C. dorsum of the hand. D. mucous membranes.

D. mucous membranes.

45. You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 300 pounds. Your FIRST action should be to: A. request the fire department if one attempt to move him fails. B. encourage the patient to walk himself to the awaiting ambulance. C. assess him and then move him to the stretcher with a direct carry. D. request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.

D. request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.

77. You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. continue into the apartment using extreme caution. B. proceed into the apartment and apprehend the gunman. C. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately. D. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance.

D. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance.

33. A normal pulse should feel: A. strong and slow. B. bounding and rapid. C. thready and regular. D. strong and regular.

D. strong and regular.

29. You are dispatched to a residence for an elderly female who fell. When you arrive, you find the patient conscious, lying in a recumbent position on the floor in her living room. In addition to providing the appropriate treatment, you should ask the patient if: A. she became dizzy or fainted before falling. B. she attempted to catch herself before falling. C. a family member regularly checks up on her. D. she takes medications for Alzheimer's disease.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1008

35. A 73-year-old female had a syncopal episode while watching TV. She is now conscious, but is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. Your assessment reveals abdominal tenderness and a pulsating mass to the left of her umbilicus. You should be MOST suspicious for a/an: A. aortic aneurysm. B. acute appendicitis. C. strangulated bowel. D. myocardial infarction.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1015

38. Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: A. turn your headlights off. B. quickly access the patient. C. place a flare near the crash. D. turn all warning lights off.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1042

43. After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should: A. turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws. B. keep you emergency lights on but avoid using the siren. C. use your lights and siren but drive slowly and defensively. D. drive slowly and remain in the far left-hand lane if possible.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1044

19. The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. B. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. C. ask law enforcement to move her away from the scene. D. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1060-1061

20. A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and that her radial pulse is absent. You should: A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated. B. secure her with a short backboard or vest device. C. stabilize her condition before extrication begins. D. begin CPR as the rescue team begins extrication.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1062-1063

25. A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20 feet from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to: A. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher. B. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him. C. apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device. D. immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1065-1066

32. During a mass-casualty incident, the incident commander assigns you to the triage area. You should: A. report to the area and perform only the duties that you have been assigned. B. perform the requested duties or tasks and then report to the staging officer. C. report to the triage area but leave if there are no patients that require triage. D. complete the assigned task and then go to another area and assist as needed.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1076

34. While working in the treatment area during a mass-casualty incident, a yellow-tagged patient states that he is feeling better. His vital signs are stable. You should: A. keep him in the treatment area and monitor him. B. downgrade his condition to a lower priority level. C. allow him to leave the treatment area on his own. D. ensure that he is one of the first to be transported.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1081

39. During a hazardous materials incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patients are removed from the danger zone, you should: A. remain where you are and have the patients brought to you. B. quickly decontaminate the patients and begin assessing them. C. perform a rapid assessment and then have them decontaminated. D. retrieve patients from the decontamination area and begin treatment.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1089

40. Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: A. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. B. ask a fire fighter what the patient was exposed to. C. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. perform a rapid trauma assessment to locate injuries.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1090

42. You are dispatched to the scene of a building explosion. Upon arrival, you see people frantically fleeing the building, screaming, "Everyone is passing out!" You should: A. carefully assess the situation and ensure your own safety. B. assist with the evacuation and begin triaging the patients. C. notify dispatch and state that a terrorist attack has occurred. D. contact the FBI immediately and report the current situation.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1103-1104

47. You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to cyanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The MOST appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to: A. use a bag-valve mask device. B. perform mouth-to-mask ventilations. C. request a paramedic unit to intubate. D. perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1112

48. A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. smallpox. B. sarin toxicity. C. yellow fever virus. D. cutaneous anthrax.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1113-1114

43. After successfully intubating a 56-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest, you should: A. perform asynchronous CPR. B. defibrillate him with the AED. C. ventilate at a rate of 30 breaths/min. D. insert a PtL to occlude the esophagus.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1144

48. You have attempted to intubate a 66-year-old male twice without success. Medical control is unable to be contacted. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. insert an oral airway, ventilate with a BVM, and transport. B. have your partner attempt to successfully intubate the patient. C. preoxygenate with a BVM and insert a multilumen airway device. D. continue intubation attempts until medical control has been contacted.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1151

49. A 50-year-old female is found semiconscious by her son. Your assessment reveals that her respirations are slow and shallow and there is vomitus draining from her mouth. When you attempt to suction her oropharynx, she begins to gag. You should: A. ensure that her airway is patent, attempt to insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and assist her ventilations with a BVM device. B. abort the suction attempt at once, preoxygenate her with a BVM device, and prepare to perform endotracheal intubation. C. continue to suction her airway until the secretions are clear, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and ventilate with a BVM device. D. remove the suction catheter immediately, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1151

21. An IV line is not running as fast as it should be. There are no signs of infiltration. You should: A. ensure that the tourniquet has been released. B. lower the IV bag as low as you possibly can. C. assess the clarity and expiration date of the IV fluid. D. suspect that the patient has circulatory overload.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1175

68. You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your initial assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic. You should: A. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. B. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. C. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately. D. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 277

74. You respond to the scene of a motor-vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find a young female sitting on the curb. Other than a small abrasion to her forehead, she does not appear to be seriously injured. As you are performing your initial assessment on the patient, a police officer advises you that her husband, the driver of the vehicle, was killed in the accident. What is your MOST appropriate next action? A. Complete the initial assessment and perform a rapid trauma assessment. B. Obtain the patient's vital signs and ask her if she wants to be transported. C. Fully immobilize the patient's spine and transport her to a trauma center. D. Perform a focused exam on the patient with emphasis on her forehead.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 293

37. Immediately after being dispatched to a residence at 1455 Mason Ave. for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: A. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. B. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. C. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious. D. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 321, 325

45. After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the patient care report. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70—the patient's actual blood pressure. To correct this mistake, you should: A. draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. B. attempt to erase the error, initial it, and then write the correct data on a separate addendum. C. cover the error with correction fluid and simply write the patient's actual blood pressure over it. D. leave the error on your patient care report but inform the staff of the patient's actual blood pressure.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 335

40. You are administering epinephrine via the subcutaneous route to a patient experiencing an acute allergic reaction. As you insert the needle and pull back on the plunger, you do not see any blood in the syringe. You should: A. push the plunger on the syringe and administer the drug. B. abort the attempt and select another site for the injection. C. withdraw the needle and pull back on the plunger again. D. conclude that you have inadvertently entered a small vein.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 351-352

34. A 37-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named "Alupent," which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: A. asthma. B. heart disease. C. hypertension. D. allergic reactions.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 354

27. Prior to attempting endotracheal intubation, the EMT-B should: A. obtain authorization from medical control. B. ventilate the patient for at least 30 seconds. C. contact a paramedic and obtain permission. D. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1144

however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should: A. begin assisting her ventilations with a BVM. B. apply a pulse oximeter and obtain vital signs. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. obtain a complete list of all of her medications.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 378, 383-384

26. Your patient is a 55-year-old female with a history of emphysema and congestive heart failure. As you assess her, you notice that she is cyanotic and has severely labored respirations. In between her broken sentences, she states that she has a prescribed inhaler. You should: A. begin ventilatory assistance and contact medical control. B. administer the medication and obtain a set of vital signs. C. apply a nonrebreathing mask and administer her inhaler. D. ask the patient when she last used her prescribed inhaler.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 378-379

33. You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the hand-held inhaler, you should: A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. B. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. C. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. D. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 386-388

70. A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, and respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: A. administer oxygen, perform a focused exam, and transport at once. B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. C. give her 100% oxygen, attach the AED, and transport immediately. D. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 413-416

74. You respond to an office building to find a middle-aged male in cardiac arrest. Coworkers are performing CPR and state that the patient has been down for approximately 10 minutes. You attach the AED, push the analyze button, and receive a "shock advised" message. You should A. ensure that nobody is touching the patient and then defibrillate. B. continue CPR for 1 minute and reanalyze the patient's rhythm. C. transport immediately and request a paramedic unit rendezvous. D. call medical control and request permission to stop resuscitation.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 426-427

45. You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, and is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth. You should: A. suction her oropharynx and apply 100% oxygen. B. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport. C. assist ventilations with a BVM and 100% oxygen. D. place her on her side and prepare for rapid transport.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 445-446

43. You are caring for a conscious, confused patient with left-sided hemiparalysis. His airway is patent and his respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. Treatment for this patient should include: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, left lateral recumbent position, and transport. B. assisted ventilation with a BVM, right lateral recumbent position, and transport. C. an oral airway, assisted ventilation with a BVM, Fowler's position, and transport. D. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, supine position with legs elevated 6" to 12", and transport.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 446

50. You are transporting a semiconscious patient to the hospital. En route, you note that the patient's mental status is not improving, despite 100% supplemental oxygen. You should suspect that this patient: A. is hypoglycemic. B. has a brain tumor. C. is in a postictal state. D. has experienced trauma.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 457

26. A 66-year-old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and nausea. She has a history of hypertension and occasional depression. When caring for this patient, you should be MOST concerned with: A. the possibility that she may vomit. B. determining the origin of her pain. C. the emotional effects caused by the pain. D. an acute rise in her systolic blood pressure.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 472

25. An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to: A. provide emotional support en route to the hospital. B. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain. C. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position. D. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 473

33. A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type I diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she: A. is significantly hyperglycemic. B. is experiencing insulin shock. C. has a urinary tract infection. D. has overdosed on her insulin.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 485-486

28. A 19-year-old male complains of "not feeling right." His insulin and a syringe are on a nearby table. The patient says he thinks he took his insulin and can't remember whether or not he ate. He is also unable to tell you the time or what day it is. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: A. contact medical control and administer oral glucose. B. assist him with his insulin injection and reassess him. C. request a paramedic ambulance to administer IV glucose. D. transport only with close, continuous monitoring en route.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 489-491

35. You respond to the residence of a 55-year-old female with a possible allergic reaction to peanuts that she ate approximately 30 minutes ago. The patient is conscious and alert, but has diffuse urticaria and the feeling that she has a lump in her throat. As your partner applies oxygen to the patient, you should: A. ask her if she has prescribed epinephrine. B. obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs. C. ascertain if she has a family history of allergies. D. ask her when her last allergic reaction occurred.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 505

29. The heart rate for an adult at rest typically ranges between: A. 60 and 80 beats/min. B. 70 and 90 beats/min. C. 80 and 100 beats/min. D. 90 and 110 beats/min.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 278

30. You have just administered subcutaneous epinephrine to a 22-year-old male from his AnaKit. After properly disposing of the syringe, you should: A. have him chew and swallow the antihistamine tablets. B. transport at once and carefully monitor his condition. C. prepare another dose of epinephrine in case it is needed. D. apply a chemical cold pack to the site of the sting or bite.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 509-510

35. You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unconscious on the couch. The patient is unresponsive, has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min with reduced tidal volume, and a heart rate of 40 beats/min and weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of Vicodin, which was refilled the day before. You should: A. initiate ventilatory assistance. B. contact the poison control center. C. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 529

36. During your assessment of a 50-year-old male who was found unconscious in an alley, you note that he has slow, shallow respirations: significant bradycardia: perioral cyanosis: and pinpoint pupils. As your partner begins assisting the patient's ventilations, he directs your attention to the patient's arms, which have multiple needle tracks on them. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. a heroin overdose. B. alcohol intoxication. C. a closed head injury. D. an overdose of Valium.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 529

54. You and your partner are standing by at a large social event at a river resort when a frantic woman tells you that she found a young male floating face-down in the water. Nobody claims to have witnessed the event. After you and your partner enter the water and reach the patient, you should: A. move him as a unit to a supine position. B. begin ventilations with a barrier device. C. immediately secure him to a longboard. D. perform a jaw-thrust to open his airway.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 562-563

55. You are assessing a 33-year-old male who complains of severe abdominal pain, weakness, and nausea. He tells you that he was gathering wood to build a fire when he felt a sudden, sharp pain on the back of his hand. Your assessment reveals that the patient's abdomen is rigid and painful to palpation. You should suspect: A. a black widow spider bite. B. envenomation from a pit viper. C. a brown recluse spider bite. D. Rocky mountain spotted fever.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 569

59. You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is "sick." The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient's vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip 2 days ago. On the basis of this patient's presentation, you should suspect: A. Lyme disease. B. an allergic reaction. C. exposure to poison ivy. D. Rocky mountain spotted fever.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 574

60. A 48-year-old male was stung on the leg by a jellyfish while swimming in the ocean. He is conscious and alert, but complains of intense pain at the wound site. Specific treatment for this patient includes: A. irrigating the wound with vinegar and immersing his leg in hot water. B. pulling the nematocysts out with tweezers and bandaging the wound. C. immersing his leg in fresh cold water and scraping away the stingers. D. applying a chemical ice pack to the wound and encouraging movement.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 574-575

19. A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unconscious, cyanotic, and has snoring respirations. An empty bottle of Dilaudid is found on an adjacent table. You should: A. open the patient's airway and assess his respirations. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety purposes. C. provide care after determining what Dilaudid is used for. D. wait for the police to assess him before providing care.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 587

20. You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation? A. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan. B. Leave the scene and have a neighbor check in on her. C. Have law enforcement place her in protective custody. D. Encourage the patient to remain quiet during transport.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 587, 590-591

47. A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks' pregnant is experiencing scant vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. place her in a left lateral recumbent position. B. position her supine and elevate her legs 12". C. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina. D. begin assisting her ventilations with a BVM.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 603-604

58. During your visual inspection of a 19-year-old patient in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? A. apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. B. tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. C. place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. D. maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 609-610

60. You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately: however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should: A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance. B. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds. C. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm. D. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 615, 621

53. Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: A. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated. B. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery. C. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. D. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 618

3. The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: A. diaphragm. B. anterior rib cage. C. intercostal margin. D. costovertebral angle.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 779

37. A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition? A. Compression of the head against the roof B. Lateral bending of the neck during the crash C. Impact of the head against the steering wheel D. Whiplash injury to the neck during the rollover

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 641

32. A 40-year-old unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when she hit a tree while traveling at 45 MPH. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries has this patient LEAST likely experienced? A. Head injury B. Cardiac contusion C. Pulmonary contusion D. Multiple rib fractures

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 644

30. A 22-year-old male was kicked in the abdomen multiple times during an attack by a gang. He is conscious but restless and his pulse is rapid. Your assessment reveals a large area of bruising to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. preparing for immediate transport. B. applying oxygen via nasal cannula. C. performing a focused physical exam. D. a detailed assessment of his abdomen.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 667

22. A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with an altered mental status, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is warm and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A. septic shock. B. pump failure. C. a local infection. D. decompensated shock.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 682-684, 689

28. You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: A. determine if she was injured when she fainted. B. provide emotional support regarding her sister. C. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. D. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 691

51. A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet and landed in a pile of steel rods. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic and has a steel rod impaled in his left leg. You should: A. control the bleeding, begin CPR, stabilize the steel rod, immobilize his spine, and transport immediately. B. remove the steel rod, control the bleeding, apply an AED, begin CPR, and transport to a trauma center. C. stabilize the steel rod, control the bleeding, begin CPR, and rapidly transport to a trauma center. D. control the bleeding, carefully remove the steel rod, begin CPR, and transport as soon as possible.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 713-714

47. A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover ____ of his body surface area. A. 18% B. 27% C. 36% D. 45%

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 718

the power line is lying across his chest. You should: A. rapidly assess the patient after ensuring the power line is not live. B. apply insulated gloves and assume manual control of his c-spine. C. quickly but carefully move the patient away from the power line. D. manually stabilize his head as your partner assesses for breathing.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 723

56. A 38-year-old male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should: A. initiate CPR and attach the AED. B. begin CPR and transport at once. C. assess for entry and exit wounds. D. fully immobilize his spinal column.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 725

18. A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include: A. irrigating his right eye laterally. B. flushing his eye starting laterally. C. irrigating both eyes simultaneously. D. covering both eyes and transporting.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 741-742

her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: A. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing. B. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. C. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. D. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 748-749

20. A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes: A. leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together. B. packing the nasopharynx with moist, sterile dressings. C. immobilizing his spine and applying ice to his nose. D. placing him supine and pinching his nostrils together.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 766

25. A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her facial area and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: A. apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. B. assist ventilations with a BVM, provide spinal immobilization, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, tilt the backboard to the left side, and transport. D. apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 767

30. External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled by a combination of: A. direct pressure and elevation. B. direct pressure and a tourniquet. C. elevation and chemical ice packs. D. elevation and pressure point control.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 278

26. While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your focused exam, you note that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. B. immediately perform a rapid trauma assessment. C. recognize that he needs a needle decompression. D. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 786

25. A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: A. aggressively manage his airway. B. request a paramedic ambulance. C. perform a rapid trauma assessment. D. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 788-789

23. A 30-year-old male has a large laceration to his right lower abdominal quadrant with a loop of bowel protruding through the wound. When treating this patient, the EMT-B should recall that the: A. protruding bowel should be kept warm and moist. B. open abdomen rapidly draws heat into the wound. C. wound should be covered with a dry, sterile dressing. D. bowel should be replaced in order to avoid infection.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 802-803

29. You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: A. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. B. begin documenting the call on the patient care form. C. perform a detailed head-to-toe physical examination. D. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 806-807

30. A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. B. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. C. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication. D. administering 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 810

52. You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: A. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. B. gently attempt to move his arm toward his body. C. place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe. D. flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 850-851

57. A 49-year-old male fell approximately 20 feet and landed on his feet. He complains of severe pain to both of his heels and to his lower back. Your assessment reveals that bilateral pedal pulses are present and that the patient can feel and move his toes. Prior to transporting this patient, it is MOST important to: A. fully immobilize his spinal column. B. splint both of his feet with pillows. C. assess his pelvis with a rocking motion. D. reassess distal circulation at least two times.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 862-863

66. A young male was assaulted and is found unconscious. Your assessment reveals bruising around his eyes and blood-tinged fluid draining from his nose. You should be MOST suspicious for a/an: A. skull fracture. B. cerebral contusion. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracerebral hemorrhage.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 878

62. You arrive at the scene shortly after a 50-year-old male fell and struck his head on an end table. The patient is conscious and alert, complains of a mild headache, and can recall the events before and after the fall. This patient's presentation is MOST consistent with a/an: A. cerebral concussion. B. cerebral contusion. C. subdural hematoma. D. epidural hematoma.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 879

62. A 5-year-old male presents with respiratory distress, a low-grade fever, and a cough that resembles a barking seal. The child's mother tells you that he has had a runny nose for the past few days and then developed a cough that worsened at night. On the basis of this child's presentation, you should suspect: A. croup. B. asthma. C. bronchitis. D. epiglottitis.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 958-959

56. A child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing with a small toy. You should: A. perform abdominal thrusts. B. visualize the child's airway. C. perform a blind finger sweep. D. give oxygen and transport at once.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 960, 962

64. A 9-year-old male was electrocuted when he stuck a pin into an electrical socket. Your initial assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic. A second ambulance is dispatched to the scene for backup. As your partner begins CPR, you should: A. immediately prepare to attach the AED. B. perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment. C. assess the effectiveness of his compressions. D. obtain a SAMPLE history from the mother.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 969

40. Your unit and another ambulance are responding to the scene of a major motor vehicle crash involving at least three patients, the conditions of which are unknown. In order to facilitate access to definitive care for all of the patients, you should: A. notify the hospital while en route to the scene. B. contact the medical director and ask for advice. C. call dispatch and request air-medical transport. D. request a paramedic unit to respond to the scene.

A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 324

2. Which of the following statements regarding a decreased level of consciousness (LOC) in the elderly patient is MOST correct? A. A decreased level of consciousness is not a normal part of the aging process. B. Most elderly patients have some deterioration in their level of consciousness. C. A decreased level of consciousness is most often the result of chronic dementia. D. The AVPU scale is an ineffective tool when assessing an elderly patient's LOC.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1005

8. Irritation or damage to the pleural surfaces that causes sharp chest pain during inhalation is called: A. pleurisy. B. dyspnea. C. pneumonitis. D. pneumothorax.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 780-781

8. When an elderly patient presents you with multiple medications that he or she is taking, it is MOST important to: A. recall that the patient is at risk for negative medication interactions. B. ask the patient to explain what each of the medications is used for. C. look up all of the medications before providing care to the patient. D. contact each of the physicians whose names are on the medications.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1007

13. The leading cause of trauma, death, and disability in the elderly is: A. falls. B. burns. C. abuse. D. suicide.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1008

14. Which of the following would you MOST likely encounter during your assessment of an uninjured elderly patient's neck and back? A. Severe kyphosis B. Point tenderness C. Spinal instability D. Vertebral deformity

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1009

19. Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: A. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma. B. increased bone density and car crashes. C. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma. D. acetabular separation and severe falls.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1012

20. Hip fractures in the elderly commonly involve injury to all of the following structures, EXCEPT the: A. acetabulum. B. femoral neck. C. femoral head. D. proximal femur.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1013

25. Common signs and symptoms of an infection in the elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. slow, weak pulse. B. cough or chills. C. hot, flushed skin. D. burning with urination.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1015

2. Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A. emergency care provided at the scene. B. transport of the patient to the hospital. C. checking equipment on the ambulance. D. transferring the patient to the ambulance.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1026-1027

9. Which of the following items would MOST likely require medical director approval before it can be carried on the ambulance? A. Pneumatic antishock garment B. Pediatric nonrebreathing masks C. Automated external defibrillator D. Devices for restraining a patient

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1029, 1031

8. A disposable oxygen humidifier should be a considered item in an ambulance that often transports patients for longer than: A. 1 hour. B. 2 hours. C. 3 hours. D. 4 hours.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1030

13. When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use: A. road flares. B. reflective vests. C. portable floodlights. D. intermittent flashing devices.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1033

14. Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes: A. at least one EMT-B. B. two first responders. C. at least two EMT-Bs. D. an EMT-B and an EMT-I.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1034

19. The purpose of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to: A. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash. B. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene. C. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene. D. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1037

24. As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher: A. whether or not you are back in service. B. that you are prepared for another call. C. of the name of the accepting physician. D. regarding the patient's clinical condition.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1039-1040

30. When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: A. slow down and allow the driver pass you. B. increase your speed to create more distance. C. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. D. stop the ambulance and confront the driver.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1042-1043

32. The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: A. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. B. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. C. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. D. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1044

6. The scene size-up at a car crash or other incident: A. is a continual process until the incident is terminated. B. should be performed by the most experienced EMT-B. C. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. D. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1059, 1061

4. Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. keeping bystanders at a safe distance. B. assigning all patients a triage category. C. preparing all patients for transportation. D. continual assessment of critical patients.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1060

11. Disentanglement involves: A. removal of the vehicle from around the patient. B. the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar. C. extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in. D. gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1063

13. Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? A. A patient who is trapped in a cave or confined space B. A patient who is not entrapped in a badly damaged car C. An obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance D. A patient found floating facedown in a swimming pool

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1065

2. If the safety officer issues a command or directive to the EMT-B, the EMT-B should: A. immediately carry out the order or directive. B. disregard the order and follow local protocols. C. notify medical control for proper authorization. D. confirm the order with the incident commander.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1074-1075

7. If a decontamination area is required at the scene, it will be situated: A. after the extrication area and before the triage area. B. after the treatment area and before the transport area. C. after the staging area and before the extrication area. D. before the extrication area and after the staging area.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1076

8. The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: A. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. B. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. C. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack launched against the United States. D. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1078

14. After an ambulance has delivered victims of a mass-casualty situation to the hospital, it should: A. return to the staging area of the incident. B. undergo a thorough decontamination process. C. return to quarters and be restocked with supplies. D. return to the transportation area of the incident.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1083

19. Unlike a mass-casualty incident, a natural disaster: A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. B. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. C. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. D. usually does not require the incident command system process.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1084

25. If you can read the UN numbers on a placard with the naked eye, you: A. are probably too close to the incident. B. should notify the hazardous materials team at once. C. should determine the type of chemical. D. must quickly evacuate all bystanders.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1087

2. The chemical and biological attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by: A. a violent religious group. B. an extremist political group. C. a single-issue terrorist group. D. a group of domestic terrorists.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1100

4. The bombing of the Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building in 1995 is an example of: A. domestic terrorism. B. apocalyptic violence. C. an ecoterrorist attack. D. international terrorism.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1100

8. Most terrorist attacks are: A. covert. B. impulsive. C. unplanned. D. nuclear attacks.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1102

11. A severe risk of terrorist attacks is indicated by the color ____ on the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Security Advisory System. A. red B. blue C. green D. orange

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1103

13. If the incident command system (ICS) is already established at the scene of a WMD or terrorist attack, the EMT-B should: A. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. B. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical patients. C. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task. D. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1105

16. The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: A. skin surface. B. nervous system. C. vascular system. D. respiratory tract.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1107

22. Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? A. Hydrogen cyanide B. Phosgene oxime C. Organophosphates D. Carbon monoxide

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

28. Signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include: A. headache and sore throat. B. acute onset of double vision. C. joint pain and unequal pupils. D. severe abdominal muscle spasms.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1115

33. Both inhaled and ingested ricin cause: A. fever and headache. B. joint pain and dyspnea. C. liver necrosis and diarrhea. D. dehydration and convulsions.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1118

34. All of the following biological agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT: A. ricin. B. smallpox. C. pneumonic plague. D. inhalation anthrax.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

39. At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. B. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. C. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. D. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1120

4. Nasogastric (NG) tube insertion is contraindicated in all of the following situations, EXCEPT: A. an intact gag reflex. B. major head trauma. C. severe facial trauma. D. spinal cord injury.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1135

7. The purpose of the Sellick maneuver is to prevent: A. vomiting and aspiration. B. spasm of the vocal cords. C. collapsing of the trachea. D. airway blockage by the tongue.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1135-1136

12. Visualized endotracheal intubation requires all of the following equipment, EXCEPT a: A. lighted stylet. B. laryngoscope. C. 10-mL syringe. D. straight or curved blade.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1138

14. In contrast to the curved blade, the straight (Miller) blade: A. directly lifts the epiglottis and exposes the vocal cords. B. indirectly lifts the epiglottis by fitting into the vallecula. C. is contraindicated in infants and children less than 5 years of age. D. has a broad flange and provides better tongue displacement.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1139-1140

19. Regardless of the size ET tube that you will use to intubate your patient with, you should: A. have one tube smaller and one tube larger. B. have several ET tubes of the identical size. C. only use a stylet for tubes larger than 7.0 mm. D. always have a 9.0 mm tube in case it is needed.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1141

21. The distal cuff on an ET tube should be inflated with ___ mL of air after it is placed into the trachea. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1141, 1143

23. Uncuffed ET tubes should be used in children less than ___ years of age. A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 15

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1142

29. To avoid obscuring your view of the vocal cords during intubation, you should: A. not pass the ET tube down the center of the laryngoscope blade. B. gently pry against the patient's teeth to achieve adequate leverage. C. direct your assistant to apply firm pressure to the thyroid cartilage. D. ensure that the straight blade is in the vallecular space before lifting.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1145

32. Confirmation techniques and devices used to determine correct ET tube placement include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. pulse oximetry monitoring. B. esophageal detector devices. C. auscultation of breath sounds. D. end-tidal carbon dioxide detectors.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1146-1147

34. Complications associated with endotracheal intubation include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. left mainstem bronchus intubation. B. hypoxia due to prolonged attempts. C. a marked decrease in the heart rate. D. trauma to the soft tissues in the mouth.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1150

37. You should NOT attempt to insert an Esophageal Tracheal Combitube (ETC) in patients who: A. have ingested a caustic substance. B. are in full cardiopulmonary arrest. C. are unconscious without a gag reflex. D. have experienced a severe spinal injury.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1153

38. On a pharyngeotracheal lumen airway (PtL), the large balloon cuff on the No. 2 tube is designed to: A. seal the oropharynx. B. occlude the esophagus. C. be inflated with 10 mL of air. D. secure the tube in the trachea.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1154

2. IV solutions used in the prehospital setting include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. 5% albumin solution. B. normal saline solution. C. lactated ringers solution. D. 5% dextrose in water (D5W).

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1166-1167

5. Which of the following statements regarding the IV administration set is MOST correct? A. It moves fluid from the IV bag into the patient's vascular system. B. Microdrip administration sets are used for rapid fluid replacement. C. The administration set remains sterile up to 24 hours after it's opened. D. Macrodrip administration sets are used to "keep the vein open" (KVO).

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1167-1168

9. Which of the following over-the-needle IV catheters has the largest diameter? A. 14 gauge B. 18 gauge C. 20 gauge D. 22 gauge

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170

14. An intraosseous (IO) needle is inserted into: A. the tibial bone. B. a jugular vein. C. veins of the neck. D. the distal femur.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1171

16. Signs and symptoms of an infiltrated IV include: A. edema at the catheter site. B. acute shortness of breath. C. redness at the catheter site. D. an extremely fast IV flow.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1172

1. The heart's primary pacemaker is the: A. sinoatrial node. B. internodal pathway. C. atrioventricular node. D. ventricular bundle of His.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

7. If each small box on the ECG graph paper represents 0.04 seconds, and there are 5 small boxes in one large box, how many large boxes represents 1 second? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185

8. A normal sinus rhythm (NSR) is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. an irregular heart rate. B. a rate of 80 beats/min. C. consistent P-R intervals. D. P waves of the same shape.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185

13. When the heart rate becomes exceedingly high: A. ventricular filling time decreases. B. cardiac output markedly increases. C. stroke volume remains unaffected. D. the patient's blood pressure rises.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187

19. Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias is characterized by a complete absence of myocardial electrical and mechanical activity? A. Asystole B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Pulseless electrical activity

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1189-1190

24. Obtaining an accurate ECG tracing can be difficult in patients experiencing a cardiac emergency because: A. the patient is often diaphoretic. B. the rhythm is typically chaotic. C. their pulse is often very weak. D. severe bradycardia is common.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192

4. The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to: A. perform a careful and thorough assessment. B. establish the patient's medical history early. C. take note of the patient's general appearance. D. ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 268

10. Which of the following would be the MOST significant observation when approaching a patient and forming a general impression? A. Major bleeding B. Smell of alcohol C. Obvious pain D. Clammy skin

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 271

9. When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: A. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. B. approach him from behind and ask him not to move. C. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. D. assess his mental status by having him move his head.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 271

22. When you pinch the neck muscles of a patient who is responsive to painful stimuli only, you should expect him or her to: A. try to push your hand away. B. flex both upper extremities. C. take a series of deep breaths. D. experience a slow heart rate.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 274

16. Which of the following patients does NOT have an altered mental status? A. A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness B. A diabetic who opens his eyes when you ask questions C. A head-injured patient who is slow to answer questions D. A patient who overdosed and moans when he is touched

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 274-275

23. Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients? A. Nasal flaring B. Rapid respirations C. Pursed-lip breathing D. Accessory muscle use

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 276

35. The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs and ends when: A. the patient receives definitive care. B. the patient is admitted to the ICU. C. you depart the scene for the hospital. D. you arrive at the emergency department.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 279-280

37. Which of the following statements regarding the focused history and physical exam is correct? A. It will allow you to identify specific problems based on the patient's chief complaint. B. It should be performed en route to the hospital. C. It will help you determine whether an initial assessment should be performed. D. It should only be performed on critical patients.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 283

45. An unstable patient should be reassessed every: A. 5 minutes. B. 10 minutes. C. 15 minutes. D. 20 minutes.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 283

42. When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will typically evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: A. subcutaneous emphysema. B. open wounds or eviscerations. C. gross bleeding and tenderness. D. rigidity and obvious bleeding.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 284

43. As you assess the head of an unconscious trauma patient, your partner should: A. maintain stabilization of the head. B. look in the ears for gross bleeding. C. prepare the immobilization equipment. D. assess the rest of the body for bleeding.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 285

50. When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: A. wiggle his or her toes on command. B. feel you touching the extremity. C. note any changes in temperature. D. identify different types of stimuli.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 290

52. On which of the following patients should you perform a rapid trauma assessment? A. A 29-year-old male involved in a motor-vehicle crash in which the driver of the same car was killed B. A 34-year-old female who fell approximately 10 feet from a ladder and landed on her left side C. A 40-year-old male who amputated his index and middle fingers while working with a table saw D. A 51-year-old restrained female who struck a utility pole while traveling approximately 20 MPH

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 293

57. When assessing a conscious medical patient, the main purpose of the focused history is to: A. obtain information regarding the patient's present illness. B. determine if the patient's medications caused the illness. C. arrive at a definitive diagnosis of the patient's condition. D. systematically rule out causes of the patient's complaint.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 295

58. In order to facilitate the emergency department physician's diagnosis of a patient's illness, you should: A. document the patient's complaint in his or her own words. B. record your own findings using quotation marks as needed. C. forgo the medical history until the patient is at the hospital. D. document your perception of what is wrong with the patient.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 295

63. The ongoing assessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the reason why the patient called EMS. B. the patient's response to your treatment. C. whether or not the patient is deteriorating. D. the nature of any newly identified problems.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 307

3. What type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? A. Scanner B. Duplex station C. Simplex station D. Mobile repeater

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 318-319

8. During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives. B. selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel. C. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols. D. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 320

10. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: A. brief and organized. B. coded and scripted. C. spoken in a loud voice. D. lengthy and complete.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 322

15. When obtaining patient care orders from a physician via two-way radio, it is MOST important to remember that: A. his or her instructions are based on the information you provide. B. the use of "10 codes" is an effective method of communication. C. all orders should be carried out immediately and without question. D. the physician may or may not be located within your service area.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 324

16. When you begin a verbal report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and: A. chief complaint. B. any known allergies. C. past medical history. D. emergency care given.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 326

23. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. C. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. D. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 327-328

27. When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: A. determine the degree of the patient's impairment. B. expect him or her to have difficulty understanding. C. recall that all visually impaired patients are blind. D. possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 331

29. Which of the following data is typically NOT included in a prehospital care report? A. Blood pressure for patients older than 1 year of age B. The time that the EMS unit arrived at the incident scene C. Capillary refill for patients younger than 6 years of age D. The time that patient care was transferred to the physician

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 332

33. A patient's refusal for EMS treatment and/or transport must be: A. an informed refusal. B. ignored by the EMT. C. reported to the police. D. witnessed by a notary.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 336

25. Before giving activated charcoal, you should: A. obtain approval from medical control. B. have the patient drink a glass of milk. C. mix it with an equal amount of water. D. mix the suspension by shaking the bottle.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 527

9. Shortly after administering epinephrine to a 29-year-old male with an allergic reaction, the patient complains of a "fluttering" feeling in his chest. This finding is an example of a/an: A. side effect. B. atypical effect. C. therapeutic effect. D. unpredictable effect.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 344

2. Which of the following is an example of a brand (trade) name of a drug? A. Tylenol B. Ibuprofen C. Furosemide D. Nitroglycerin

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 344-345

7. What medication route is commonly used to deliver emergency drugs to children when intravenous access cannot be obtained? A. Intraosseous B. Intramuscular C. Subcutaneous D. Transcutaneous

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 345

15. Activated charcoal is an example of a/an: A. suspension. B. solution. C. elixir. D. gel.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 347

17. What medication form does oral glucose come in? A. Gel B. Liquid C. Suspension D. Fine powder

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 348

23. The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: A. adsorption. B. absorption. C. suspension. D. digestion.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 350

29. A subcutaneous injection is given by pinching the skin and inserting a ___ needle at a ___ degree angle. A. ½", 45 B. 1", 90 C. ½", 90 D. 1", 45

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 351

28. When given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain, nitroglycerin: A. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. B. increases myocardial contraction force. C. increases blood return to the right atrium. D. constricts the veins throughout the body.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 354-355

7. Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of inadequate breathing? A. Pink, warm, dry skin B. Shallow respirations C. Cyanotic or pale skin D. Unequal chest expansion

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 367

12. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. D. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 368

8. Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct? A. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. B. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive. C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. D. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 368

17. Weakening of the airway in patients with chronic bronchitis is the result of: A. destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles. B. loss of the lubricating substance that facilitates alveolar expansion. C. airway irritation caused by a marked decrease in mucus production. D. acute constriction of the bronchioles caused by an external irritant.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 373

19. Asthma is caused by a response of the: A. immune system. B. endocrine system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 373

23. Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a narcotic overdose. B. a respiratory infection. C. an overdose of aspirin. D. high blood glucose levels.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 376-377

2. Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: A. right atrium. B. right ventricle. C. left atrium. D. left ventricle.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 402

8. The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: A. sinus node. B. aortic walls. C. coronary sinus. D. atrioventricular node.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 403

13. The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: A. femoral arteries. B. peroneal arteries. C. anterior tibial arteries. D. posterior tibial arteries.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 404

20. An acute myocardial infarction occurs when: A. myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen. B. the heart muscle progressively weakens and dysfunctions. C. coronary artery dilation decreases blood flow to the heart. D. the entire left ventricle is damaged and cannot pump blood.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 407-408

21. Major risk factors for a myocardial infarction include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypertension. C. diabetes mellitus. D. elevated cholesterol.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408

27. Immediate transport of a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction is MOST important because: A. the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy. B. 90% of the cardiac cells will die within the first 30 minutes. C. nitroglycerin can only be given in the emergency department. D. many patients with a myocardial infarction die within 6 hours.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408

31. Which of the following statements regarding unstable angina is MOST correct? A. Unstable angina typically follows an unpredictable or unexpected pattern. B. The pain associated with unstable angina readily responds to nitroglycerin. C. Unstable angina is much less likely to occur during sleep or periods of rest. D. The pain caused by unstable angina is more severe than with stable angina.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408

28. Patients with cardiac compromise MOST commonly experience syncope as a result of: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. acute pulmonary edema. C. increased cardiac output. D. the associated severe pain.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408-409

37. Cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction is usually the result of: A. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle. B. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate. C. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting. D. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 410

36. The purpose of defibrillation is to: A. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells. B. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. C. improve the chance of CPR being successful in resuscitation. D. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 411

42. Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: A. assess the scene for potential hazards. B. determine if you need additional help. C. request a paramedic unit for assistance. D. gain immediate access to the patient.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 412-413

46. Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: A. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. B. increasing the amount of work that is placed on the myocardium. C. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries. D. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 415

51. Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, the EMT-B must: A. obtain authorization from medical control. B. ensure the medication is in tablet form. C. determine who prescribed the nitroglycerin. D. wait at least 5 minutes after assessing the BP.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 416-417

56. Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? A. A rapid heart rate B. Syncope or dizziness C. Heart rate less than 60 D. Generalized weakness

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 419

58. The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT-B because: A. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation. B. it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT-B that is using it. C. its use does not require the presence of advanced life support personnel. D. it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 421

60. In contrast to monophasic defibrillation, biphasic defibrillation: A. requires a lower energy setting. B. delivers all shocks at 360 joules. C. begins with 300 joules and escalates. D. is only effective for ventricular tachycardia.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 421

59. The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is: A. failure of the EMT-B to ensure the battery is charged. B. malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor. C. inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes. D. inability of the EMT-B to recognize ventricular fibrillation.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 421, 423-424

65. Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is MOST correct? A. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient. B. Defibrillation is the first link in the AHA chain of survival. C. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. D. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 422-424

2. The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: A. brain stem. B. cerebrum. C. cerebellum. D. cerebral cortex.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 440

6. The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: A. foramen magnum. B. vertebral foramen. C. foramen lamina. D. cauda equina.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 441

12. Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke? A. Blockage of a cerebral artery B. Acute atherosclerotic disease C. Rupture of a cerebral artery D. Narrowing of a carotid artery

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 443

18. When obtaining medical history information from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: A. when the patient last appeared normal. B. if there is a family history of a stroke. C. if the patient has been hospitalized before. D. the patient's overall medication compliance.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 447, 449

24. A generalized seizure is characterized by: A. severe twitching of all the body's muscles. B. a blank stare and brief lapse of consciousness. C. unconsciousness for greater than 30 minutes. D. a core body temperature of greater than 103°F.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 450-451

25. An absence seizure is also referred to as a: A. petit mal seizure. B. grand mal seizure. C. total body seizure. D. generalized motor seizure.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 451

32. A patient without a history of seizures experiences a sudden convulsion. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is: A. epilepsy. B. brain tumor. C. serious infection. D. intracranial bleeding.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 455

33. Which of the following MOST accurately describes a focal seizure? A. A seizure that begins in one extremity B. A blank stare without muscle contractions C. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura D. Generalized seizures without incontinence

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 455

37. When caring for a child with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: A. a seizure. B. an acute stroke. C. respiratory distress. D. a febrile convulsion.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 457

2. Pain felt at a location other than its origin is called: A. referred pain. B. radiating pain. C. visceral pain. D. remote pain.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 466

4. The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is: A. peritonitis. B. high fever. C. severe pain. D. internal bleeding.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 466

9. Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men? A. Cystitis B. Hepatitis C. Pancreatitis D. Cholecystitis

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 468

30. A hypnotic drug is one that: A. induces sleep. B. causes amnesia. C. increases the pulse. D. increases the senses.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 528

28. An overdose on acetaminophen (Tylenol) will MOST likely cause: A. liver failure. B. gastric ulcers. C. kidney failure. D. CNS depression.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 533

15. Which of the following statements regarding an ectopic pregnancy is correct? A. Signs of an ectopic pregnancy usually present within the first 6 to 8 weeks of pregnancy. B. The abdominal cavity is the most common location for abnormal implantation of a fertilized egg. C. An ectopic pregnancy almost always presents with acute signs and symptoms in the third trimester. D. Pain from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy is usually severe but the bleeding is typically rather minimal.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 469

19. When assessing a patient with right lower quadrant pain, you should first palpate the: A. left upper quadrant. B. left lower quadrant. C. right upper quadrant. D. right lower quadrant.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 472

20. Which of the following is a late sign of shock in a patient with acute abdominal pain? A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. Tachypnea D. Diaphoresis

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 473

3. Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a/an: A. disorder of carbohydrate metabolism. B. abnormally high blood glucose level. C. mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys. D. lack of insulin production in the pancreas.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 482

8. Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: A. polyphagia. B. polydipsia. C. dysphasia. D. dyspepsia.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 483

9. Metformin, a non-insulin medication, is another name for: A. Glucophage. B. Glucotrol. C. Micronase. D. Diabenase.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 483

20. Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is: A. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood. B. trying to generate energy by breathing deeply. C. severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2. D. compensating for decreased blood glucose levels.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 484-485

15. Insulin shock will MOST likely develop if a patient: A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. B. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. C. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 485

22. When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a diabetic patient, it would be MOST important to determine: A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress. B. approximately how much water the patient has drank today. C. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions. D. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 488

27. Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? A. Blindness B. Depression C. Alcoholism D. Hepatitis B

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 492

1. Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction? A. An exaggerated immune system response to any substance B. Destruction of the immune system by an external substance C. A release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance D. A direct negative effect on the body by an external substance

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 500

3. The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a/an: A. allergen. B. antibody. C. histamine. D. leukotriene.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 500

6. The two MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are: A. wheezing and diffuse urticaria. B. watery eyes and localized itching. C. expiratory stridor and tachycardia. D. hypertension and swollen hands.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 500

14. Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct? A. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly. B. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis. C. Fire ant bites typically occur on the face. D. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 502

21. Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: A. wheezing and hypotension are present. B. the patient is anxious and tachycardic. C. a paramedic is present at the scene. D. the reaction produces urticaria only.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 506, 512

24. Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection you should: A. properly dispose of the syringe. B. record the time and dose given. C. reassess the patient's vital signs. D. notify medical control of your action.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 508

19. Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. drowsiness. B. tachycardia. C. headache. D. dizziness.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 512

6. Heroin is an example of a/an: A. opioid. B. hypnotic. C. cholinergic. D. sympathomimetic.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 519, 529

9. A poison that enters the body by ____________ is the MOST difficult to treat. A. Injection B. Ingestion C. Inhalation D. Absorption

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 520

10. Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poisons is MOST correct? A. Lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the environment. B. Carbon monoxide is very irritating to the upper airway and may cause swelling. C. Burns around the eyes are the most common indication of an inhalation poisoning. D. Chlorine is a colorless and odorless gas that causes hypoxia and pulmonary edema.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 521

2. The MOST common route for poisonings is: A. ingestion. B. injection. C. inhalation. D. absorption.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 522

16. As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: A. be alert for personal hazards. B. look for drug paraphernalia. C. observe the scene for drug bottles. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 524-525

19. The MOST appropriate drug to use when diluting an airborne substance is: A. oxygen. B. syrup of ipecac. C. activated charcoal. D. an alkaline antidote.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 526-528

20. Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Fructose. B. Actidose. C. LiquiChar. D. InstaChar.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 527

3. Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: A. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere. B. the core body temperature is above 98°F. C. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air. D. air temperature is above body temperature.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 545

6. Shivering is a mechanism in which the body generates heat by: A. increasing the metabolic rate. B. decreasing the use of oxygen. C. decreasing the metabolic rate. D. retaining excess carbon dioxide.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 545

7. Covering a patient's ________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss. A. head B. chest C. abdomen D. extremities

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 545

11. A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below: A. 90°F. B. 92°F. C. 95°F. D. 97°F.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 546-547

18. To obtain the MOST accurate reading of a patient's core body temperature, you should place a special hypothermia thermometer: A. into the patient's rectum. B. under the patient's tongue. C. behind the patient's knee. D. under the patient's armpit.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 547, 549

20. Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: A. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core. B. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. C. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia. D. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 551

23. High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 554

28. Heat cramps are MOST likely the result of: A. a loss of water and electrolytes. B. complete thermoregulatory failure. C. carbon dioxide buildup in the muscles. D. stress on the muscles from excess exertion.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 554

33. Geriatric patients are at a higher risk for heatstroke because: A. circulation to the skin is reduced. B. most geriatric patients are obese. C. their ability to sweat is enhanced. D. their ability to shiver is reduced.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 557

38. The diving reflex may allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to: A. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate. B. laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water. C. tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure. D. increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 562

44. Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: A. superficial. B. third-degree. C. full-thickness. D. partial-thickness.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 568

45. Which of the following statements regarding lightning strikes is MOST correct? A. Lighting often results in a brief period of asystole that resolves spontaneously. B. The tissue damage pathway caused by lightning usually occurs through the skin. C. Victims who are struck by lightning often experience severe full-thickness burns. D. Cervical spine fractures are the most common cause of lightning-related deaths.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 568

50. Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? A. Local swelling and ecchymosis B. General weakness and diaphoresis C. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites D. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 572

4. In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a psychiatric emergency occurs when a person: A. demonstrates agitation or violence or becomes a threat to self or others. B. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for greater than one month. C. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance. D. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 585

9. When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should: A. be direct and clearly state your intentions. B. frisk the patient for the presence of weapons. C. spend as little time with the patient as possible. D. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 586

13. The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: A. depression. B. drug abuse. C. advanced age. D. a chronic illness.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 590

14. Risk factors for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. married males over 30 years of age. B. recent diagnosis of a serious illness. C. children whose parents are alcoholics. D. substance abuse of increasing frequency.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 590

3. When the cervix begins to dilate: A. a mucus plug is expelled from the vagina. B. the baby is forced feet-first from the uterus. C. the placenta detaches from the uterine wall. D. the inner lining of the uterus becomes thick.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 600

4. Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is MOST correct? A. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus. B. The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother's blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus. C. The placenta, also referred to as the afterbirth, provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled from the vagina about 30 minutes before the baby is born. D. The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 600-601

10. A 30-year-old pregnant female is gravida-3 and para-2. This means that she has: A. given birth to 2 live babies. B. given birth to 5 live babies. C. had 3 miscarriages in the past. D. been pregnant a total of 3 times.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 602

14. Signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension (preeclampsia) include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. blood in the urine. B. visual disturbances. C. headache and anxiety. D. swelling of the hands.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 603

20. In contrast to a placenta previa, a placenta abruptio occurs when: A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. B. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. C. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. D. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 603

25. During delivery, it is MOST important to position your partner at the mother's head because: A. the mother may become nauseated and vomit. B. the mother needs to be apprised of the situation. C. she may need emotional support during the delivery. D. mothers often need assisted ventilation during delivery.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 608

30. During delivery of the baby's head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because: A. suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid. B. it is easier to suction larger volumes of fluid from the baby's oropharynx. C. babies are primarily mouth breathers and do not breathe through their nose. D. the mucosa of the nose is fragile and is easily damaged by vigorous suctioning.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 611

31. After a baby is born, it is important to: A. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed. B. position it so that its head is higher than its body. C. cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing. D. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 612

37. Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is MOST correct? A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part. B. There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech presentation. C. It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting. D. Breech deliveries occur rapidly so the EMT-B should deliver at the scene.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 616-617

38. The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: A. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord. B. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage. C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta. D. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 617-618

39. An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before: A. 20 weeks B. 24 weeks C. 26 weeks D. 28 weeks

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 619

15. If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed, the EMT-B should: A. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma. B. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain. C. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries. D. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 637

19. When a driver is in a car equipped with an airbag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the ________ when the airbag deploys upon impact. A. door B. dashboard C. windshield D. steering wheel

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 638

20. The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. headrest is appropriately positioned. B. airbag correctly deploys upon impact. C. patient tenses up at the time of impact. D. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 639

26. Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. speed of fall. B. surface struck. C. height of fall. D. primary impact point.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 642

27. When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall. B. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. C. elderly patients who fall usually have secondary head injury. D. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 642-643

3. The systemic veins function by: A. returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart. B. delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries. C. returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium. D. delivering oxygen-rich blood to the capillaries.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 651

10. What is the approximate blood volume of a 75 kg adult? A. 5.25 L B. 5.50 L C. 6.25 L D. 6.50 L

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 655

15. The severity of internal bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: A. systolic blood pressure. B. poor general appearance. C. the mechanism of injury. D. clinical signs and symptoms.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 655

16. In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the MOST difficult to control? A. Femoral artery laceration and a BP of 140/90 mm Hg B. Jugular vein laceration and a systolic BP of 90 mm Hg C. Carotid artery laceration and a systolic BP of 60 mm Hg D. Antecubital vein laceration and a BP of 138/92 mm Hg

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 655

23. Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with severe external bleeding? A. Air splint B. Vacuum splint C. Sling and swathe D. Cardboard splint

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 661

25. Bleeding from the nose following head trauma: A. is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped. B. should be controlled by packing the nostril with gauze. C. should be assumed to be caused by a fractured septum. D. is usually due to hypertension caused by the head injury.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 666

1. Shock is the result of: A. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. D. widespread constriction of the blood vessels.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 678

5. When perfusion to the core of the body decreases: A. blood is shunted away from the skin. B. decreased cardiac contractility occurs. C. blood is diverted to the gastrointestinal tract. D. the voluntary nervous system releases hormones.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 680

12. Patients develop septic shock secondary to: A. poor vessel function and severe volume loss. B. an infection that weakens cardiac contractions. C. failure of the blood vessels to adequately dilate. D. weak vessel tone due to nervous system damage.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 682

7. Neurogenic shock occurs when: A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. C. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. D. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 682

9. Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A. plasma. B. platelets. C. whole blood. D. red blood cells.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 682

17. Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? A. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils B. A 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia C. A 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations D. A 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic BP of 110 mm Hg

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 684

2. The germinal layer of the epidermis contains melanin granules that are responsible for skin: A. color. B. texture. C. moisture. D. temperature.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 698

6. All of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes, EXCEPT for the: A. lips. B. nose. C. anus. D. mouth.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 699

13. In addition to external bleeding, the MOST significant risk that an open soft tissue injury exposes a patient to is: A. infection. B. hypothermia. C. nerve damage. D. vessel damage.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 704

16. Which of the following statements regarding penetrating injuries is MOST correct? A. External bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive. B. The degree of internal injury can often be estimated by the external injury. C. It is important to distinguish between entrance and exit wounds in the field. D. The depth of a penetrating injury should be thoroughly assessed by the EMT.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 706-707

20. In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. an air embolism. B. a spinal fracture. C. an ischemic stroke. D. nerve fiber damage.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 714

21. Burns are MOST appropriately classified according to: A. depth and extent. B. location and pain. C. degree and location. D. extent and location.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 715

27. Which of the following is considered to be a critical burn? A. Circumferential partial-thickness burns to the chest B. Full-thickness burns to 5% of the body surface area C. Partial-thickness burns to 20% of the body surface area D. Superficial burns covering 50% of the body surface area

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 715

32. According to the palmar method for estimating the extent of a patient's burns, the palm of the patient's hand is equal to ___% of the body surface area. A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 716

38. Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is MOST correct? A. Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage. B. Respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon. C. The exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound. D. The size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 723-724

40. Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. immobilization of the injury. B. prevention of contamination. C. protection from further injury. D. control of external hemorrhage.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 726

6. Approximately 80% of the eyeball is protected by the: A. orbit. B. globe. C. zygoma. D. conjunctiva.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 736

2. The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the: A. pupil. B. sclera. C. cornea. D. conjunctiva.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 737

7. The optic nerve endings are contained within the: A. retina. B. sclera. C. pupil. D. cornea.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 737

13. The term "hyphema" is MOST accurately defined as: A. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. B. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye. C. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens. D. compression of one or both optic nerves.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 747-748

3. The mastoid process is located approximately: A. 1" posterior to the external opening of the ear. B. ½" anterior to the external opening of the ear. C. 1" inferior to the external opening of the ear. D. 1" posterior to the angle of the mandible.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 758

8. The skin and underlying tissues of the face: A. have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely. B. swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma. C. are well protected by the maxilla and mandible. D. contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 760

10. Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A. of the risk for airway problems. B. bleeding must be controlled early. C. the c-spine may be injured as well. D. swelling may mask hidden injuries.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 761-762

15. Which of the following statements regarding anterior epistaxis is MOST correct? A. Anterior epistaxis usually originate from the septal area and bleed fairly slowly. B. Anterior nosebleeds cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx. C. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. D. Anterior epistaxis is usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 765

2. Pleural fluid is contained between the: A. visceral and parietal pleurae. B. parietal pleura and the heart. C. visceral pleura and the lung. D. parietal pleura and chest wall.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 779

13. A spontaneous pneumothorax would MOST likely occur as the result of: A. exertion of a person with a congenital lung defect. B. excessive coughing in a patient with pneumonitis. C. abnormally slow breathing in a patient with pleurisy. D. blunt or penetrating trauma to the anterior chest wall.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 786

18. Patients with rib fractures will commonly: A. breathe rapidly and shallowly. B. take a series of deep breaths. C. prefer to lie in a supine position. D. develop a sucking chest wound.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 787

19. A flail chest occurs when: A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. B. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. C. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. D. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 787

1. All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT for the: A. liver. B. bladder. C. ureters. D. stomach.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 798

6. Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. stomach.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 799-800

12. When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie: A. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. B. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints. C. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints. D. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 801

19. Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: A. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. C. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. D. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 811

1. The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. B. nervous system's control over the muscles. C. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. D. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 820

9. In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. articular cartilage. B. synovial tendons. C. muscular fascia. D. gliding cartilage.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 822

14. Which of the following scenarios is an example of a direct injury? A. A passenger fractures her patella after it struck the dashboard B. A skier dislocates his knee after a twisting injury to the ankle C. A person lands on his or her feet and fractures the lumbar spine D. A child dislocates his elbow after falling on his outstretched arm

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 824

20. Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: A. swelling. B. guarding. C. crepitus. D. ecchymosis.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 826

24. Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is MOST correct? A. Pressure within the fascial compartment is increased. B. It most commonly develops within minutes of the injury. C. It most commonly occurs following a pelvic fracture. D. It is caused by elevated pressure within the bone cavity.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 829

26. Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is considered to be the LEAST severe? A. Nondisplaced pelvic fracture B. Open fractures of a long bone C. An amputation of an extremity D. Multiple closed long bone fractures

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 829

30. The primary purpose for splinting a musculoskeletal injury is to: A. prevent further injury. B. maximize distal circulation. C. make the patient comfortable. D. facilitate ambulance transport.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 836

33. The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. traction. B. reduction. C. stabilization. D. immobilization.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 838

38. The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is/are the: A. clavicle. B. scapula. C. radius and ulna. D. midshaft femur.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 848

39. When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT-B should: A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. B. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. D. recognize that scapular fractures are life-threatening.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 849

46. The MOST significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A. neurovascular compromise. B. internal bleeding and shock. C. ligament and cartilage damage. D. total depletion of synovial fluid.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 860

2. The major mass of the brain is called the: A. cerebrum. B. cerebellum. C. brain stem. D. meninges.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 872

4. The _________ is the best protected part of the central nervous system and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. spinal cord D. cerebral cortex

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 872

11. Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is MOST correct? A. They carry information from the central nervous system to the muscles. B. Motor nerves perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. C. They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. D. Motor nerves are part of the central nervous system and control reflexes.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 874

14. When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A. pupillary constriction. B. increase in heart rate. C. shunting of blood to vital organs. D. bronchiole smooth muscle dilation.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 875-876

40. The _________ lies within the quadriceps muscle and protects the anterior knee from injury. A. tibia B. patella C. femur D. calcaneus

B. patella

25. An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: A. bleeding between the skull and dura mater. B. bleeding between the dura mater and brain. C. venous lacerations that occur within the brain. D. an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 879

31. Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. constricted pupils. B. combative behavior. C. CSF leakage from the ears. D. decreased sensory function.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 880

39. You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: A. slow. B. weak. C. rapid. D. irregular.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 883

36. When assessing a conscious patient with an MOI that suggests spinal injury, you should: A. determine if the strength in all extremities is equal. B. rule out a spinal injury if the patient denies neck pain. C. defer spinal immobilization if the patient is ambulatory. D. ask the patient to move his or her head to assess for pain.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 883-884

41. It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused physical exam on a patient who: A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position. B. was restrained during a high-speed motor-vehicle crash. C. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. D. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 884-885

45. An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapid brain swelling is: A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. B. a progressively lowering blood pressure. C. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. D. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 886

46. The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by: A. immediate reassessment following the intervention. B. a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician. C. reassessing the patient's BP after at least 10 minutes. D. noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 887

2. Compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the: A. intercostal muscles are not well developed. B. rib cage is rigid and provides little flexibility. C. abdominal organs force the diaphragm upward. D. upper airway is smaller and is easily collapsible.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 917

6. The first month of life after birth is MOST appropriately referred to as the: A. neonatal period. B. toddler period. C. start of infancy. D. premature phase.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 918

12. When assessing or treating an adolescent patient, it is important to remember that: A. they usually do not wish to be observed during a procedure. B. it is generally not necessary to explain procedures in advance. C. they often request medication to help in the relief of severe pain. D. they cannot understand complex concepts and treatment options.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 920-921

18. Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. sunken fontanels. B. headache and fever. C. a stiff or painful neck. D. an altered mental status.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 922

19. Children with Neisseria meningitidis (N. meningitidis) would MOST likely present with: A. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash. B. a low-grade fever and tachycardia. C. a generalized rash with intense itching. D. hypothermia and ventricular fibrillation.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 922

24. The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children: A. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight. B. are more obvious than they are in the adult population. C. usually present within the first 10 minutes of ingestion. D. are most severe if the child ingested a poisonous substance.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 923

30. When a child experiences a blunt injury to the abdomen: A. he or she can compensate for blood loss better than adults. B. his or her blood pressure falls with as little as 5% blood loss. C. your assessment will most often reveal bruising to the abdomen. D. delayed capillary refill indicates a state of decompensated shock.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 925-926

37. Bruising to the _______ is LEAST suggestive of child abuse. A. shins B. back C. face D. buttocks

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 928

41. Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of: A. intracranial bleeding. B. multiple open fractures. C. intra-abdominal hemorrhage. D. fracture of the cervical spine.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 928-929

46. When caring for an infant who was found apneic and cyanotic and was resuscitated by the parent or caregiver, you should: A. transport the infant to the hospital. B. report the event to law enforcement. C. allow the parent to monitor the child. D. inquire about the possibility of abuse.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 931

47. Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth: A. secretions can build up in and around the tube. B. the risk of a local infection is significantly high. C. bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube. D. severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 934

49. A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is called a: A. shunt. B. G-tube. C. CS tube. D. cerebral bypass.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 935

2. The components of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) are: A. appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation. B. mental status, heart rate, and systolic blood pressure. C. skin condition, respiratory rate, and level of alertness. D. activity, respiratory quality, and level of consciousness.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 943

4. Early signs of respiratory distress in the pediatric patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. cyanosis. B. tachypnea. C. retractions. D. head bobbing.

A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 944-945

106. Which of the following skin layers contains sweat and oil glands, hair follicles, blood vessels, and nerve endings? A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Sebaceous layer D. Subcutaneous layer

A. Dermis

31. In some states, where may a person indicate his or her wishes to become an organ donor? A. Driver's license B. Insurance card C. Social Security card D. Voter registration card

A. Driver's license

22. Which of the following factors would MOST likely result in inaccurate or misleading pulse oximetry values? A. Chemicals that displace oxygen B. Excessive red blood cell count C. Hypertension and tachycardia D. Increased peripheral perfusion

A. Chemicals that displace oxygen

26. Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A. Conscious male with respirations of 22 breaths/min and pink skin B. Confused female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations C. Conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D. Unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

A. Conscious male with respirations of 22 breaths/min and pink skin

57. You receive a call to a local daycare center for an unconscious 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. After delivering two rescue breaths, you should: A. assess for the presence of a brachial pulse. B. begin chest compressions and request backup. C. immediately transport the child to the hospital. D. assess for a carotid pulse for 10 to 15 seconds.

A. assess for the presence of a brachial pulse.

30. When palpating the carotid pulse of an unresponsive elderly patient, you should: A. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously. B. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position. C. avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected. D. firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak.

A. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously.

19. When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or do not resuscitate (DNR) order cannot be located, you should: A. begin resuscitation at once. B. contact medical control first. C. determine the patient's illness. D. notify the coroner immediately.

A. begin resuscitation at once.

43. With regard to assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time (CRT) is MOST reliable in: A. children who are younger than 6 years of age. B. patients who are significantly hypotensive. C. children who are older than 6 years of age. D. patients with decreased peripheral perfusion.

A. children who are younger than 6 years of age.

105. The connecting nerve, a nerve of the peripheral nervous system, functions by: A. connecting the sensory and motor nerves and bypassing the brain. B. connecting motor nerves directly to the walls of the blood vessels. C. connecting sensory nerves directly to the posterior cerebral cortex. D. connecting the spinal cord directly to the target muscle or organ.

A. connecting the sensory and motor nerves and bypassing the brain.

20. An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B. demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. C. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on their medical complaint. D. reassure your patient everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

38. To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: A. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. B. center of the mouth to the posterior ear. C. corner of the mouth to the superior ear. D. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth.

A. corner of the mouth to the earlobe.

5. The ________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx. A. cricoid B. thyroid C. laryngeal D. pyriform

A. cricoid

58. The firm cartilaginous ring that forms the lower portion of the larynx is called the: A. cricoid cartilage. B. tracheal cartilage. C. thyroid cartilage. D. laryngopharynx.

A. cricoid cartilage.

30. Putrefaction is defined as: A. decomposition of the body's tissues. B. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. C. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. D. separation of the torso from the rest of the body.

A. decomposition of the body's tissues.

35. A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: A. flushed and red. B. mottled and cool. C. pale and moist. D. cyanotic and dry.

A. flushed and red.

60. The MOST common and significant complication of using a flow-restricted oxygen- powered ventilation device is: A. gastric distention. B. hyperventilation. C. lung perforation. D. pneumothorax.

A. gastric distention.

17. The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. B. ensure that all EMT-Bs maintain certification through the NREMT. C. provide punitive action to EMT-Bs who do not follow local protocols. D. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

A. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

37. The bony ridge of the pelvis, commonly referred to as the "pelvic wing," is called the: A. iliac crest. B. pelvic girdle. C. greater trochanter. D. ischial tuberosity.

A. iliac crest.

63. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: A. inhalation. B. exhalation. C. respiration. D. ventilation.

A. inhalation.

75. You are dispatched to the scene of a crash involving a large tanker truck. While you are en route, dispatch advises you that there are multiple patients and that the fire department is en route as well. As you approach the scene, you should: A. maintain a safe distance and try to read the placard with binoculars. B. cordon off the area and quickly remove all of the injured patients. C. immediately begin evacuating residents that live near the crash site. D. don personal protective equipment and quickly triage all patients.

A. maintain a safe distance and try to read the placard with binoculars.

28. A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to: A. maintain stabilization of the spine at all times. B. move the patient as quickly as you possibly can. C. extricate the patient with one coordinated move. D. apply a vest-style device before moving the patient.

A. maintain stabilization of the spine at all times.

2. The EMT-B's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: A. medical director. B. state EMS office. C. EMS supervisor. D. local health district.

A. medical director.

9. Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: A. radiating. B. referred. C. palliating. D. provoking.

A. radiating

45. The bones of the forearm are called the: A. radius and ulna. B. tibia and radius. C. humerus and ulna. D. radius and humerus.

A. radius and ulna

75. The primary function of the right atrium is to: A. receive blood from the vena cava. B. pump blood to the pulmonary artery. C. receive blood from the pulmonary veins. D. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.

A. receive blood from the vena cava.

31. An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: A. requires CPR. B. begins to vomit. C. regains consciousness. D. has increased tidal volume.

A. requires CPR.

66. A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: A. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel. B. tell the family member that it is not your fault. C. subdue the family member until the police arrive. D. ignore the family member and assess the patient.

A. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel.

104. The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: A. right side cerebrum. B. left side cerebrum. C. left parietal lobe. D. right temporal lobe.

A. right side cerebrum.

62. You are caring for a critically injured 27-year-old female. During transport to the hospital, you should: A. take her vital signs every 5 minutes. B. complete the patient care run form. C. reassess her only if she deteriorates. D. reassess her every 10 to 15 minutes.

A. take her vital signs every 5 minutes.

5. Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient? A. "Things will get better in time." B. "It is okay to be angry and sad." C. "This must be painful for you." D. "Tell me how you are feeling."

Ans: A Things will get better in time." Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 27

27. Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: A. a living object. B. smoke or dust. C. direct contact. D. an inanimate object.

Ans: A a living object. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 42

37. If gastric distention is interfering with your ability to adequately ventilate a patient, you may have to: A. apply manual pressure to the abdomen. B. suction the airway for up to 45 seconds. C. insert an oropharyngeal airway adjunct. D. increase the force of your ventilations.

Ans: A apply manual pressure to the abdomen. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-19

24. The preferred initial treatment to attempt to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in an infant is: A. back blows. B. abdominal thrusts. C. blind finger sweeps. D. diaphragmatic thrusts.

Ans: A back blows Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-16

59. Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it: A. binds with the hemoglobin in the red blood cells. B. causes filling of the lungs with copious secretions. C. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide. D. destroys the number of circulating red blood cells.

Ans: A binds with the hemoglobin in the red blood cells Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 59

21. A condition of chronic fatigue and frustration that results from mounting stress over time is referred to as: A. burnout. B. isolation. C. delirium. D. irritability.

Ans: A burnout Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 36

40. The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the exposure control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT: A. family history of hepatitis. B. postvaccine antibody titers. C. vaccine safety and efficacy. D. record keeping and tracking.

Ans: A family history of hepatitis Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 49

51. The Ryan White Law is a federal law intended to protect EMS providers by requiring: A. notification by the hospital and follow-up after exposure. B. that all patients transported to a hospital be tested for HIV. C. hospitals to provide hepatitis vaccinations to EMS personnel. D. blood and body fluid protective equipment for all EMS personnel.

Ans: A notification by the hospital and follow-up after exposure. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 55

29. The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: A. one-third to one-half the diameter of the chest B. one-half to two-thirds the diameter of the chest C. one-half the diameter of the chest or about 1 ½" D. two-thirds the diameter of the chest or about 2"

Ans: A one-third to one-half the diameter of the chest Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-4

4. After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should: A. open the airway. B. assess for breathing. C. check for a carotid pulse. D. attach an AED immediately.

Ans: A open the airway. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-3, A-4

14. CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: A. prone. B. supine. C. horizontal. D. on a firm surface.

Ans: A prone. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-20

17. Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) is a program used to: A. reduce anxiety from stressful job-related incidents. B. evaluate adherence to locally established protocols. C. determine better ways to deal with similar incidents. D. apprise the media of the nature of the critical incident.

Ans: A reduce anxiety from stressful job-related incidents Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 35

23. Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: A. requests sexual favors in return for something else. B. touches another person without his or her consent. C. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. D. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts.

Ans: A requests sexual favors in return for something else. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 39

9. The automated external defibrillator (AED) should be applied to: A. uninjured patients who are pulseless and apneic. B. trauma patients who are in cardiopulmonary arrest. C. medical patients who have a very weak, slow pulse. D. patients who you think may experience cardiac arrest.

Ans: A uninjured patients who are pulseless and apneic. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-5, A-6

33. Abdominal thrusts in a conscious patient with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed: A. until he or she loses consciousness. B. in sets of five followed by reassessment. C. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process. D. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest.

Ans: A until he or she loses consciousness. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-12

46. If a pathogen is strong or able to produce disease, it is referred to as: A. virulent. B. pathogenic. C. contagious. D. communicable.

Ans: A virulent Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 52

7. While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family may view this as: A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. B. a show of respect for the person who has died. C. coaching them through the grieving process. D. your partner's caring and supportive attitude.

Ans: A your partner's attempt to diminish their grief Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 26

17. You should deliver chest compressions to an unconscious adult patient in cardiac arrest by: A. compressing quickly and releasing slowly. B. compressing the lower third of the sternum. C. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid. D. depressing the sternum 2 inches to 2 ½ inches.

Ans: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-21-A-23

2. Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process? A. "It is because of our lousy healthcare system that I developed this brain tumor." B. "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate." C. "I understand that my death is inevitable and am ready to die when the time comes." D. "The doctors must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy."

Ans: B "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 26

8. What percentage of exhaled oxygen is delivered during mouth-to-mask breathing without supplemental oxygen? A. 10% B. 16% C. 21% D. 32%

Ans: B 16% Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-5

44. The typical incubation period for hepatitis B is: A. 2 to 6 weeks. B. 4 to 12 weeks. C. 2 to 10 weeks. D. 10 to 12 weeks.

Ans: B 4 to 12 weeks Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 52

28. The transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact describes which mechanism of transmission? A. Airborne B. Direct contact C. Vector-borne D. Fluid splash

Ans: B Direct contact Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 42-43

26. What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? A. Check for other patients. B. Ensure the vehicle is stable. C. Request another ambulance. D. Contact medical control.

Ans: B Ensure the vehicle is stable Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 42

6. Common questions asked by patients with a serious illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. "Am I going to die?" B. "How much will this cost me?" C. "What are you doing to me?" D. "Will I be permanently disabled?"

Ans: B How much will this cost me?" Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 27

20. Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress? A. Increased interest in daily activities B. Isolation from the rest of the crew C. Hyperactivity during an EMS call D. Acute increase in his or her appetite

Ans: B Isolation from the rest of the crew Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 36

38. Which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE) items do the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) require your employer to provide you with? A. Bullet-proof vest B. Vinyl and latex gloves C. A fully-encapsulated suit D. Flame-retardant bunker gear

Ans: B Vinyl and latex gloves Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 48

53. If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should: A. quickly wipe down all high contact surfaces with an antibacterial solution. B. clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated. C. wait until the end of your shift and then disinfect the entire patient compartment. D. thoroughly wash the back of the ambulance at a local car wash or similar facility.

Ans: B clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 56

57. If you are caught in an open area during a thunderstorm with frequent lightning, you should: A. stand under a tree or other tall object. B. crouch as low to the ground as possible. C. quickly move away from the ambulance. D. remain still to avoid attracting electricity.

Ans: B crouch as low to the ground as possible Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 59

24. It is MOST important for EMS personnel to develop nonadversarial relationships with their coworkers because they: A. are highly prone to stress and burnout. B. depend on each other for their safety. C. must work together every third day. D. may have to bunk in the same room.

Ans: B depend on each other for their safe Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 40

11. Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. psychological disorders. B. distrust of the EMT-B. C. history of chronic disease. D. fear of medical personnel.

Ans: B distrust of the EMT-B.

20. During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor becomes tired and wants to switch positions. Before the switch is made, the rescuer providing ventilations should: A. assess for a carotid pulse for about 10 to 15 seconds. B. give two breaths and then prepare to start compressions. C. immediately move to the chest and resume compressions. D. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.

Ans: B give two breaths and then prepare to start compressions Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-27, A-28

33. Minimum BSI precautions for all patients if there is any possibility for exposure to blood or body fluids include: A. latex gloves only. B. gloves and eye protection. C. gloves, mask, and a gown. D. gloves, gown, mask, and head cover.

Ans: B gloves and eye protection. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 44

36. Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: A. in patients who are intubated. B. if you ventilate a patient too fast. C. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. D. when the airway is completely obstructed.

Ans: B if you ventilate a patient too fast. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-18, A-19

6. Most out-of-hospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of: A. open the airway. B. open the airway. C. an acute ischemic stroke. D. obstruction of the airway.

Ans: B open the airway. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-5

13. The chemical and physical reactions commonly referred to as the "fight or flight" response involve interaction of the: A. nervous and endocrine systems. B. respiratory and nervous systems. C. gastrointestinal and nervous systems. D. cardiovascular and endocrine systems.

Ans: B respiratory and nervous systems Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 32-33

30. In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: A. a drug overdose. B. respiratory arrest. C. severe chest trauma. D. a cardiac dysrhythmia.

Ans: B respiratory arrest. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-28

52. The treatment that you receive following exposure to an infectious disease depends on: A. your overall health. B. the type of disease. C. how you were exposed. D. the length of exposure.

Ans: B the type of disease Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 55

35. When attempting manual removal of a foreign body from an unconscious patient's upper airway, you should: A. use a modified jaw thrust. B. use a head-tilt chin-lift. C. hyperflex the patient's neck. D. hyperextend the patient's neck.

Ans: B use a head-tilt chin-lift. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-14

22. When ventilating an apneic patient with a pocket face mask, you should deliver each breath: A. over a period of about 1 to 2 seconds. B. while watching for adequate chest rise. C. with a tidal volume of about 500 mL. D. quickly to ensure adequate ventilation.

Ans: B while watching for adequate chest rise. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-17

27. When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: A. until a radial pulse is felt. B. with one or two hands. C. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. D. 70 to 80 times per minute.

Ans: B with one or two hands. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-4, A-28, A-30

3. What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120

Ans: B. 100 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-4

22. When considering his or her personal life, it is important for the EMT-B to realize that: A. he or she should not discuss stressful issues with family members. B. shift work is the least stressful type of EMS-related work schedule. C. family or friends may not understand the stress associated with EMS. D. it is more difficult to effectively relax at home than it is while on duty.

Ans: C . family or friends may not understand the stress associated with EMS Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 37

19. To deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions per minute during one-rescuer adult CPR, you will need to compress the patient's chest about ____ times per minute. A. 80 B. 90 C. 100 D. 110

Ans: C 100 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-24

28. An apneic infant or child should be ventilated ___ times per minute. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30

Ans: C 20 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-4

16. Even when properly performed, external chest compressions will provide only ___% of the blood that is normally pumped by the heart. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 50

Ans: C 30 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-20

10. Which of the following statements regarding the use of the AED in children is MOST correct? A. AEDs should never be used on children less than 8 years of age or less than 55 pounds. B. AEDs are only effective in pediatric patients if severe trauma is the cause of their cardiac arrest. C. AED use in children between 1 and 8 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer. D. AEDs are not used in pediatric patients because they do not experience ventricular fibrillation.

Ans: C AED use in children between 1 and 8 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-6

5. Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention? A. Abdominal thrusts B. Chest compressions C. Cardiac monitoring D. Automated defibrillation

Ans: C Cardiac monitoring Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-5

23. Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? A. Back blows B. Finger sweeps C. Chest thrusts D. Abdominal thrusts

Ans: C Chest thrusts Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-13

55. Which of the following statements regarding whooping cough is correct? A. It is a bloodborne disease that is also referred to as rubella. B. It is a viral infection that is seen most commonly in adults. C. It is an airborne disease that is also referred to as pertussis. D. It most commonly affects children older than 6 years of age.

Ans: C It is an airborne disease that is also referred to as pertussis. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 54

29. Which of the following communicable diseases is BOTH a sexually transmitted disease and a bloodborne disease? A. Herpes B. Mumps C. D. Tuberculosis

Ans: C Syphilis Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 43, 54

3. Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? A. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. B. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages. C. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. D. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process.

Ans: C The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 26

34. The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: A. performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts. B. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. C. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. D. advising the patient not to make attempts to cough.

Ans: C administering oxygen and transporting immediately Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-14

1. The self-control needed to perform effectively when confronted with a horrifying event or life-threatening situation is developed through all of the following, EXCEPT: A. experience. B. proper training. C. an effective partner. D. stress coping strategies.

Ans: C an effective partner Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 24

48. After treating and transporting a patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which reveals a positive result. This means that you have: A. been infected. B. avoided exposure. C. been exposed. D. become immune.

Ans: C been exposed Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 54

9. When a patient is dying, he or she may experience regression. This is MOST accurately defined as: A. anger projected toward the EMT-B or other providers. B. fear of being completely dependent upon other people. C. behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage. D. a decreased ability to exercise age-appropriate judgment.

Ans: C behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 29

38. Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. rib fractures. B. liver laceration. C. gastric distention. D. a fractured sternum.

Ans: C gastric distention. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-21

39. Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: A. are older than 35 years of age. B. have a weak immune system. C. have been infected in the past. D. received a hepatitis B vaccination.

Ans: C have been infected in the past Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 48

34. Prescription glasses are considered to be acceptable eye protection ONLY if they: A. have shatterproof lenses. B. have large rounded lenses. C. have removable side shields. D. are secured in place with a strap.

Ans: C have removable side shields Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 45

15. A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she: A. is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately. B. has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively. C. is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately. D. has a pulse but is unconscious and breathing shallowly.

Ans: C is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-20

39. During your attempts to dislodge a severe upper airway obstruction in a 30-year-old male, the patient becomes unconscious. You should: A. continue abdominal thrusts. B. perform a blind finger sweep. C. place him in a supine position. D. deliver a series of five back blows.

Ans: C place him in a supine position. Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: A-12

32. The simplest yet MOST effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: A. undergo an annual physical examination. B. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. C. wash your hands in between patient contacts. D. undergo HIV and TB testing at least twice a year.

Ans: C wash your hands in between patient contacts Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 44

43. Common signs and symptoms of hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. fever. B. jaundice. C. weight gain. D. loss of appetite.

Ans: C weight gain. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 51

16. Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT: A. when personnel are assessed during periods of rest. B. before personnel are preparing to re-enter the scene. C. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. D. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved.

Ans: C when patients are actively being assessed or treated Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 33

18. A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) should be conducted no longer than ____ hours following the incident. A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 72

Ans: D . 72 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 33

32. What is the correct ratio of ventilations to compressions when performing two-rescuer child CPR? A. 1:3 B. 1:5 C. 1:10 D. 2:15

Ans: D 2:15 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-4

19. Which of the following is the MOST effective strategy for managing stress? A. Frequently reflect on troublesome calls. B. Avoid friends and interests outside of EMS. C. Request overtime to increase your income. D. Focus on delivering high-quality patient care.

Ans: D Focus on delivering high-quality patient care Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 35

49. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by direct contact with respiratory secretions? A. HIV B. Syphilis C. Hepatitis B D. Meningitis

Ans: D Meningitis Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 52-53

41. Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? A. It is far more contagious than hepatitis B. B. It is easily transmittable in the EMS field. C. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. D. There is no vaccine to prevent HIV infection.

Ans: D There is no vaccine to prevent HIV infection Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 50-51

4. The final stage of death and dying is MOST commonly displayed as: A. anger. B. denial. C. depression. D. acceptance.

Ans: D acceptance. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 26

10. When caring for the parents of a child who has died of leukemia, the EMT-B should: A. immediately refer them to a counselor. B. tell them that their feelings are understood. C. refrain from using words such as died or dead. D. acknowledge the death of their child in private.

Ans: D acknowledge the death of their child in private Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 30-31

40. A 60-year-old male is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: A. start CPR and transport immediately. B. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. C. determine if he has a valid living will. D. begin CPR until an AED is available.

Ans: D begin CPR until an AED is available. Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: A-23, A-24

31. When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the _______ artery. A. radial B. carotid C. temporal D. brachial

Ans: D brachial Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-28

31. Bodily fluids such as vomitus, tears, and saliva may transmit an infectious disease if they: A. splash into the face or mouth. B. are in copious quantities. C. come in contact with intact skin. D. contain visible amounts of blood.

Ans: D contain visible amounts of blood Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 44

47. Patients with tuberculosis pose the GREATEST risk to the EMT-B when they are: A. febrile. B. vomiting. C. bleeding. D. coughing.

Ans: D coughing. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 53

50. Determination of exposure is an important part of an exposure control plan because it: A. determines the time of day that most exposures are likely to occur. B. determines which type of communicable diseases might be present in the workplace. C. defines who is most likely to transmit communicable diseases in the workplace. D. defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.

Ans: D defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 49

56. The MOST important consideration at the scene of a hazardous material incident is: A. identifying the material. B. calling the HazMat team. C. evacuation of bystanders. D. ensuring personal safety.

Ans: D ensuring personal safety Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 56

26. Asynchronous CPR is MOST accurately defined as: A. pausing compressions to deliver ventilations. B. delivering a compression during a ventilation. C. delivering 2 ventilations after 30 compressions. D. not stopping compressions to deliver ventilations.

Ans: D not stopping compressions to deliver ventilations. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-26

14. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? A. An EMT-B with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. B. A newly certified EMT-B becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. C. An EMT-B is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. D. An EMT-B becomes distracted at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash involving the same type of car that a child was previously killed in.

Ans: D respiratory and nervous systems Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 33

8. Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other healthcare providers often feel: A. relieved. B. superior. C. hopeful. D. shamed.

Ans: D shamed Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 28

25. The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: A. punitive action and the loss of a job. B. low morale and frequently missed shifts. C. tension among coworkers and supervisors. D. substandard or inappropriate patient care.

Ans: D substandard or inappropriate patient care Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 40-41

36. You should wear a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator when you suspect that your patient may be infected with: A. HIV. B. rubella. C. pertussis. D. tuberculosis.

Ans: D tuberculosis. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 46

30. During your assessment of a 77-year-old male who experienced a minor head injury, you note that his pupils are unequal. The patient is conscious and alert, complaining only of a slight headache. His blood pressure and pulse are stable. The LEAST likely cause of this patient's unequal pupils is: A. history of cataracts. B. intracranial pressure. C. previous eye surgeries. D. scar tissue on the pupils.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1009

31. You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a motor-vehicle accident. As you approach the scene, you can see multiple patients, some walking and others who are still in their vehicles. You should: A. establish an incident command post until relieved of your duties. B. declare a mass-casualty incident and request additional resources. C. begin rapidly triaging all patients before requesting additional help. D. immediately move all ambulatory patients to a pre-designated area.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1079-1080

35. You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest triage category? A. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse B. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing C. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities D. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1083

37. Your unit is the first to arrive at the scene of a large tanker truck that has overturned. The patient is still inside the vehicle and is screaming in pain. You note that a green liquid is leaking from the tank. You should: A. don BSI equipment and rapidly extricate the patient. B. remain at a safe distance and notify the hazardous materials team. C. ask the patient if he can free himself and come to you. D. immediately request law enforcement for traffic control.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1085

43. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: A. carefully document the witness's statements and report them immediately. B. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. C. don your BSI equipment and begin searching for critically injured patients. D. tell the witness that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1104

44. As the first arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or WMD incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then: A. remain where you are until additional ambulances arrive at the scene. B. function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive. C. direct your partner to begin triaging patients as you call medical control. D. carefully inspect the area for the presence of secondary explosive devices.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1105

49. You are assessing a 30-year-old female who presents with respiratory distress and tachycardia after she opened a package that was delivered to her home. The patient tells you that there was a fine white powder on the package, but she didn't think anything of it. This patient has MOST likely been exposed to: A. Ebola. B. anthrax. C. botulinum. D. a neurotoxin.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1115-1116

42. A 30-year-old female has overdosed on a large quantity of narcotics. She is unconscious, apneic, and has a slow and weak pulse. You should: A. insert a gastric tube to decompress her stomach. B. maintain her airway and ventilate with a BVM. C. insert a Combitube and confirm proper placement. D. open her airway and perform endotracheal intubation.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1134, 1137

44. Approximately 10 seconds into an intubation attempt, you are unable to view the vocal cords. You should: A. abort the attempt and preoxygenate for 30 seconds. B. direct your partner to apply posterior cricoid pressure. C. gently pry on the laryngoscope to improve your view. D. continue the intubation attempt until 30 seconds pass.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1145, 1148

46. You are transporting an intubated 24-year-old female when her level of consciousness improves and she becomes extremely combative. Without assisted ventilation, she appears to be breathing adequately. You should: A. request a paramedic to give her a sedative drug. B. contact medical control for further instructions. C. have suction available and remove the ET tube. D. carefully restrain her and continue ventilations.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1151

23. A 50-year-old male develops acute respiratory distress and cyanosis shortly after an IV line has been established. You should administer 100% oxygen and: A. position him supine with his legs elevated. B. place him on his left side with his head down. C. position him supine with his head elevated 45°. D. place him on his right side with his head elevated.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1174

72. While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the caller states that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should: A. ask the dispatcher if he or she knows the location of the perpetrator. B. confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene. C. request law enforcement personnel if the scene is unsafe upon arrival. D. proceed to the scene as usual but exercise extreme caution upon arrival.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 265-266

29. The MOST commonly abused drug in the United States is: A. cocaine. B. alcohol. C. codeine. D. marijuana.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 528

67. A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: A. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. B. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm. D. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 275-276

69. A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: A. ensure that his airway is patent. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. perform a rapid trauma assessment. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 278

38. You are transporting a 54-year-old male in cardiac arrest. A first responder is driving the ambulance as you and your partner attempt to resuscitate the patient. What is the MOST logical way of notifying the hospital? A. Call the receiving hospital with your cellular phone as you attempt resuscitation. B. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital. C. Request that a police officer respond to the hospital to apprise them of your arrival. D. Wait until you arrive at the hospital and then quickly apprise them of the situation.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 321-322

39. Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: A. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form. B. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification. C. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate. D. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 324

44. You are assessing a 60-year-old male with severe chest pain. When communicating with the patient, you should: A. use medical terminology to ensure that the patient understands you. B. ask him if he has high blood pressure or has ever had a heart attack. C. avoid answering direct questions for fear of causing patient anxiety. D. ask him if he has ever been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 327

31. While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: A. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure. B. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect. C. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose. D. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 345

33. A 62-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin, but states that he has not taken any. After administering 100% oxygen and contacting medical control, you should: A. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. B. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic BP is less than 100 mm Hg. C. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. D. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 354-355

37. You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. administer the drug. B. contact medical control. C. verify the medication name. D. check the drug's expiration date.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 355-356

36. When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes furosemide, atenolol, and Plavix. This medication regimen suggests a history of: A. bacterial infection. B. cardiovascular disease. C. reactive airway disease. D. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 358

31. A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: A. albuterol. B. epinephrine. C. an antihistamine. D. a beta-antagonist.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 374

28. A 60-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient? A. Assisted ventilation with a BVM device and a rapid medical assessment B. Oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and a focused history and physical exam C. Positive-pressure ventilations and immediate transport to the closest hospital D. Oxygen via a nasal cannula, vital signs, and prompt transport to the hospital

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 378-379

27. A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea, numbness, and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: A. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag. B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. C. request a paramedic to give her a sedative drug. D. position her on her left side and transport at once.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 390

67. You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious, has rapid and shallow respirations, and has a thready pulse. You should: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. begin ventilatory assistance. C. attach the AED immediately. D. apply a nonrebreathing mask.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 411

73. Your EMS team is performing CPR on a 60-year-old male in cardiac arrest. You connect the AED, push the analyze button, and receive a "no shock advised" message. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm. B. determine if a palpable pulse is present. C. perform CPR and transport immediately. D. immediately assess the patient's airway.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 427

72. A 67-year-old female with severe chest pain becomes unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic during transport. You should: A. defibrillate with the AED while continuing transport to the hospital. B. stop the ambulance, begin CPR, and attach the AED as soon as possible. C. perform CPR for 1 to 2 minutes and then analyze her rhythm with an AED. D. alert the receiving hospital and perform CPR for the duration of the transport.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 429

42. You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your initial assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. You should: A. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis. B. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible. C. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. D. hyperventilate the patient to reduce intracranial pressure.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 446

47. You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: A. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. B. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route. C. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. D. call medical control and request permission to give the child Tylenol.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 451-452

48. You arrive at a grocery store shortly after a 35-year-old male stopped seizing. Your assessment reveals that he is confused and incontinent of urine. The patient's girlfriend tells you that he has a history of seizures and takes Tegretol. When obtaining further medical history from the girlfriend, it is MOST important to: A. determine if the patient is a known alcohol abuser. B. obtain a description of how the seizure developed. C. determine when he was last seen by his physician. D. ask her how long the patient has been taking Tegretol.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 453

21. A 35-year-old mildly obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the right shoulder. The MOST likely cause of her pain is: A. acute cystitis. B. cholecystitis. C. appendicitis. D. pancreatitis.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 466

29. A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Gallbladder

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 468

22. A 59-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: A. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity. B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport. C. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once. D. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 469, 473

37. A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. You apply 100% oxygen and assess her blood glucose level, which reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: A. severe insulin shock. B. acidosis and dehydration. C. complete renal failure. D. hypoxia and overhydration.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 484-485

30. You respond to a movie theater for a 70-year-old male who is confused. His wife tells you he has type II diabetes but refuses to take his pills. Your assessment reveals that the patient is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. Initial management for this patient should include: A. administering 1 to 2 tubes of oral glucose. B. applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min. C. assisting the patient with his diabetic medication. D. performing a rapid exam and obtaining vital signs.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 487

however, it reads "error" after three attempts. After administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. perform a detailed physical exam at the scene. B. administer oral glucose as needed and transport. C. attempt to obtain another blood glucose reading. D. transport only with close, continuous monitoring.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 489-491

26. A 38-year-old female was bitten by fire ants while at the park with her kids. Your initial assessment reveals that she is semiconscious, has profoundly labored breathing with reduced tidal volume, and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body and her face appears swollen. You should: A. administer 0.3 mg of epinephrine 1:1,000. B. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen. C. apply oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. D. place her supine with her legs elevated 6" to 12".

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 504

36. A 48-year-old male is found unconscious in the garden by his wife. When you arrive at the scene and assess the man, you find that he is unresponsive, has labored and shallow breathing, and has hives over his entire trunk. You should: A. perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment. B. maintain his airway and assist his ventilations. C. ask the wife if her husband has any known allergies. D. apply the AED in the event that cardiac arrest occurs.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 504

33. A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector or AnaKit and your protocols do not allow you to carry such drugs on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? A. Ask the patient if he has any Benadryl tablets that you can administer. B. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic rendezvous. C. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. D. Maintain the patient's airway and immediately transport him to the hospital.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 507-508

31. A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not have epinephrine or an AnaKit. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: A. position her legs well above the level of her heart. B. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital. C. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. D. not transport her and tell her to see her physician.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 512

34. Your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an intoxicated inmate. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has slow, shallow respirations. You should be MOST concerned that this patient: A. might become violent. B. may vomit and aspirate. C. may experience a seizure. D. is most likely hypoglycemic.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 528-529

40. You are dispatched to a local nursery for a 39-year-old female who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient lying on the floor. She is semiconscious, has copious amounts of saliva coming from her mouth, and is incontinent of urine. You quickly feel her pulse and note that it is very slow. Initial management for this patient should include: A. assisting her ventilations with a BVM. B. thoroughly suctioning her oropharynx. C. performing a rapid medical assessment. D. requesting a paramedic to give her Atropine.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 533

51. A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F. He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform an initial assessment. He is unconscious, pale, and apneic. After initiating artificial ventilations, you should: A. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm. B. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 45 seconds. C. begin chest compressions and transport at once. D. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 548

56. Approximately 12 hours after scuba diving with her friends, a 29-year-old female presents with pain in her elbows and knees. She is conscious and alert and is breathing with adequate tidal volume. When asked, she states that she may have ascended too rapidly during her dive, but didn't experience any symptoms until now. When treating this patient, you should: A. position her supine with her legs elevated 6" and her head down. B. place her in a left lateral recumbent position with her head down. C. administer supplemental oxygen via a nasal cannula at 2 to 4 L/min. D. provide ventilatory assistance with a BVM device and 100% oxygen.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 564-565, 567

23. A 78-year-old female presents with an acute change in her behavior. The patient's son tells you that his mother has a history of type II diabetes and was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease 6 months ago. The patient's speech is slurred and she is not alert to her surroundings. You should: A. transport the patient to a psychiatric facility. B. inquire about the possibility of head trauma. C. conclude that the patient's blood sugar is high. D. allow the patient to refuse transport if she wishes.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 586

18. You respond to a call for an "unknown emergency." When you arrive at the scene, the patient's husband meets you at the door and states that his wife has been depressed and has locked herself in an upstairs bedroom. He further tells you that he keeps his .45-caliber handgun in the bedroom. You should: A. ask the husband to attempt to reason with his wife. B. remain in a safe place and request law enforcement. C. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately. D. go upstairs with caution and attempt to talk to the patient.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 587

17. A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he didn't seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious, and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should: A. conclude that the patient has Alzheimer's disease. B. ask the daughter how her father normally behaves. C. carefully restrain the patient and transport at once. D. advise the patient that his behavior is unacceptable.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 588

24. You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central nervous system? A. An irregular pulse B. Rapid eye movement C. Excessive tearing or crying D. Consistent eye contact with you

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 589

57. You are assessing a 30-year-old woman who is 35 weeks' pregnant. She tells you that her amniotic sac has not ruptured, but she is experiencing irregular contractions that "come and go." Upon visual inspection, you note a small amount of brown mucus draining from her vagina. You should: A. allow her to drive to the hospital. B. administer oxygen and transport. C. prepare for an emergency delivery. D. perform a rapid medical assessment.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 602

48. A 35-year-old woman who is 30 weeks' pregnant presents with a severe headache and swelling in her hands and feet. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg, a pulse of 100 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. During transport, you should be MOST concerned with: A. her prematurely delivering the baby. B. the possibility that she may experience a seizure. C. using your lights and siren to clear the traffic. D. her hypertension causing a hemorrhagic stroke.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 603

52. Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should: A. give the mother 100% oxygen and transport at once. B. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose. C. leave the amniotic sac intact until arrival at the hospital. D. note the color of the amniotic fluid before breaking the sac.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 611

59. Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: A. elevate her legs 6" to 8" and cover her with a blanket. B. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. C. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. D. place her legs together and position her on her left side.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 613

50. While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: A. carefully push the cord back into the vagina. B. push the infant's head away from the cord. C. cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing. D. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 618

11. Who typically begins the triage process during a small-scale mass-casualty incident? A. The medical director who usually responds to such incidents B. The first provider on scene with the highest level of training C. The incident commander or a person that he or she designates D. The fire chief or a responder who is at least a basic-level EMT

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1081

36. While en route to a major motor-vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 7-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the airbag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A. open abdominal trauma. B. neck and facial injuries. C. blunt trauma to the head. D. lower extremity fractures.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 638

38. A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? A. Lateral impact to the spine B. Energy transmission to the spine C. Direct trauma to the spinal column D. Secondary fall after the initial impact.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 642

31. A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for: A. injury to the cervical spine. B. potential airway compromise. C. damage to internal structures. D. alterations in his mental status.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 644

35. A 39-year-old male accidentally cut his wrist while sharpening his hunting knife. He is conscious and alert with adequate breathing, but is bleeding significantly from the wound. You should: A. ensure the patient has a patent airway. B. control the bleeding with direct pressure. C. apply oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask. D. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 657

28. You arrive at the home of a 50-year-old female with severe epistaxis. As you are treating her, it is MOST important to recall that: A. the patient may be significantly hypertensive. B. the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration. C. a detailed exam is needed to determine the cause. D. many medications interfere with blood clotting.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 666

29. A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His BP is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. having the patient pinch his nostrils and then lie supine. B. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward. C. placing a rolled 4X4 dressing between his lower lip and gum. D. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 666-667

24. A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: A. acute myocardial infarction. B. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. C. severe septic hypoperfusion. D. a ruptured aortic aneurysm.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 681-682, 689

30. You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately: however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: A. immediately evaluate his airway. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. assess the rate and quality of his pulse. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 686-687

25. A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head. B. assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities. C. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs. D. assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia, and elevating his lower extremities.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 690

50. A 30-year-old male experienced a crushing injury when his arm was trapped between the back of a truck and a loading dock. Upon your arrival, the man's arm has been freed. Your assessment reveals that his arm is obviously deformed and swollen and is cold and pale. Further assessment reveals an absent radial pulse. You should be MOST concerned that this patient is experiencing: A. internal hemorrhage. B. compartment syndrome. C. a severe closed fracture. D. damage to the radial nerve.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 701

42. During your assessment of a 22-year-old male who was assaulted, you note widespread contusions and abrasions to his face, chest, and abdomen. His pulse is rapid and weak and his skin is cool and clammy. You should: A. perform a focused physical exam of his abdomen. B. administer oxygen and prepare for rapid transport. C. place him in a sitting position and give him oxygen. D. conclude that he is experiencing intracranial bleeding.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 702

60. During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a: A. handgun. B. shotgun. C. .22-caliber pistol. D. .357 magnum.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 707

44. A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his airway and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, you should care for his wound by: A. irrigating it with sterile water and then covering it with a dry dressing. B. covering it with moist, sterile dressings secured in place with bandages. C. covering the exposed bowel and keeping his legs in a straight position. D. carefully replacing the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transporting.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 711-712

55. A 50-year-old male with a history of diabetes sustained partial-thickness burns to approximately 15% of his body surface area (BSA) while attempting to light a barbeque pit. He is conscious and alert and in no respiratory distress. What factor makes this patient's burn a critical burn? A. His age B. His history of diabetes C. The extent of his burns D. The mechanism of injury

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 715

57. During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 44-year-old female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39-year-old female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is MOST correct? A. You should contact the police and have them arrested. B. The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection. C. The patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized. D. The 44-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 726

16. You are assessing a 59-year-old male who complains of diplopia. When obtaining the patient's medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A. is allergic to any medications. B. has a history of eye surgeries. C. regularly sees a family physician. D. noticed the change during a meal.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 738-739

17. A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: A. acute retinitis. B. conjunctivitis. C. a detached retina. D. a corneal abrasion.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 741

22. A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: A. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. B. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. C. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. D. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 744

26. A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed. B. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye. C. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve. D. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 746-747

24. Following blunt trauma to the head, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. a lacerated globe. B. a blowout fracture. C. a ruptured eyeball. D. optic vessel compression.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 747-748

17. You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A. quickly suction his oropharynx. B. turn the backboard on its side. C. reassess his breathing adequacy. D. alert the hospital of the situation.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 764

18. A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes: A. applying a tight pressure dressing. B. padding between the ear and the scalp. C. packing the ear with sterile gauze pads. D. covering the wound with a moist dressing.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 766

23. You are transporting a 20-year-old male with a laceration to the left external jugular vein. You have successfully controlled bleeding from the wound. Suddenly, he experiences an acute onset of labored breathing and cyanosis. You should suspect: A. a pneumothorax. B. an acute air embolism. C. disruption of the larynx. D. that the bandage is too tight.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 769

23. You have sealed an open chest wound on a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: A. begin ventilatory assistance. B. partially remove the dressing. C. begin rapid transport at once. D. call for a paramedic ambulance.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 786

28. A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to applying 100% oxygen, you should: A. apply an AED and take his BP. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. determine if he has cardiac problems. D. apply bulky dressings to the sternum.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 789

21. A 40-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain following blunt trauma. He is diaphoretic, thirsty, and has a weak and rapid pulse. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. covering him with a warm blanket. B. giving him small sips of plain water. C. promptly transporting to the hospital. D. administering supplemental oxygen.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 801

22. While assessing a 21-year-old female who struck a tree head-on with her small passenger car, you note that her airbag deployed. You should: A. perform a rapid trauma assessment while she is in the car. B. lift the airbag and look for deformity to the steering wheel. C. carefully assess her upper chest for seatbelt-related injuries. D. extricate her immediately and transport to a trauma center.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 801

25. You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was kicked in the abdomen by her boyfriend. While en route to the scene, you should ask the dispatcher if: A. the patient is conscious or not. B. law enforcement is at the scene. C. there are other patients involved. D. the severity of the injury is known.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 804

59. During your rapid trauma assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple trauma, you note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed the patient's airway and is maintaining manual stabilization of her head. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. applying and inflating the PASG and transporting. B. immobilization to a backboard and rapid transport. C. applying a traction splint to immobilize her femur. D. carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 831, 835

56. During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: A. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. B. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. C. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. D. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 853

63. During your initial assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulse. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should: A. perform a focused physical exam and thoroughly assess the patient's head. B. instruct him to assist ventilations as you perform a rapid trauma assessment. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and obtain baseline vital signs. D. immediately place her on a long backboard and prepare for rapid transport.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 882-883

68. A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an "ache" in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: A. obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen. B. perform a focused physical exam and immobilize his spine. C. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable. D. perform a rapid trauma assessment and immobilize his spine.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 883-884

69. During your initial assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a BVM device. B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. C. immobilize his spine and transport at once. D. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 890

50. A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the ventilator is malfunctioning. You should: A. attempt to troubleshoot the ventilator problem. B. discontinue the ventilator and ventilate with a BVM device. C. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient. D. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 934

58. You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars. He is not moving and does not appear to be conscious or breathing. You should: A. begin immediate rescue breathing. B. stabilize his head and open his airway. C. perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver. D. assess for the presence of respirations.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 944, 950

57. A 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should: A. carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it. B. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport. C. deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition. D. place the child in a supine position and perform abdominal thrusts.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 959

65. A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: A. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital. B. attempt cooling measures, offer oxygen, and transport. C. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. D. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 978

60. A 6-month-old male presents with 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant's mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant's heart rate is 140 beats/min and his anterior fontanel appears to be slightly sunken. You should suspect: A. mild dehydration. B. moderate dehydration. C. severe dehydration. D. hypovolemic shock.

B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 979

3. When transporting a stable elderly patient to the hospital, the MOST effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to: A. allow at least two family members to accompany the patient. B. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with. C. avoid the use of a long backboard, even if trauma is suspected. D. perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1005

5. The MOST effective way to gain an elderly patient's trust and confidence is to: A. perform a detailed physical exam, regardless of the problem. B. treat the patient with respect and explain what you are doing. C. frequently reassure him or her that everything will be alright. D. address the patient by his or her first name to reduce anxiety.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1006

7. To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an elderly patient, you should: A. dismiss the family members from the room or area. B. have only one EMT-B speak to the patient at a time. C. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient. D. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1006

12. The MOST effective way to monitor an elderly patient's level of consciousness is to: A. assess his or her response to pain. B. frequently converse with him or her. C. assess the pupils on a frequent basis. D. remind him or her of the time and date.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1008

17. When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT-B would MOST likely have to: A. force the head into a neutral alignment. B. place blankets behind the patient's head. C. secure the patient's head before the torso. D. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1010-1012

23. When taking an elderly patient's blood pressure in a supine position, a drop in the systolic blood pressure of more than ___ mm Hg when he or she sits or stands up suggests dehydration. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1015

24. Which of the following statements regarding altered mental status in the elderly is MOST correct? A. Acute psychotic episodes are the most common causes of altered mental status. B. Alzheimer's disease patients should not experience an acute mental status change. C. Most causes of altered mental status in the elderly population are not reversible. D. Altered mental status secondary to hyperglycemia can be reversed by the EMT-B.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1015

1. The six-pointed Star of Life emblem identifies vehicles that: A. are staffed by a minimum of one certified EMT-Intermediate. B. meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances. C. are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation. D. have complied with state regulations for ambulance certification.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1026

3. Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: A. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. C. based on recommendations of the health department. D. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1027

7. Minimum airway management supplies and equipment that should be carried on every BLS ambulance include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. various sizes of oral and nasal airways. B. Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways. C. mounted and portable suctioning units. D. adult and pediatric bag-valve masks.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1029

12. Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. face shields. B. hazardous materials gear. C. safety goggles. D. fire extinguishers.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1033

17. Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. observe the scene for safety hazards. C. determine if additional units are needed. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1036

18. When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance: A. 50' past the scene on the opposite side of the road. B. 100' past the scene on the same side of the road. C. 50' before the scene on the same side of the road. D. alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1036-1037

23. Upon arriving back at the station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST appropriately defined as: A. using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants. B. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose. C. removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants. D. destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1040

25. Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include: A. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed. B. a positive attitude about your ability to tolerate other drivers. C. realizing the lights and siren will be an effective traffic tool. D. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1040-1041

26. When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in an emergency mode, you should: A. pass other drivers on the right side. B. remain in the extreme left-hand lane. C. remain in the extreme right-hand lane. D. drive in the center lane of the highway.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1041

31. If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed: A. is allowable according to state law. B. will decrease the driver's reaction time. C. is often necessary if the patient is critical. D. increases the patient's chance for survival.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1044

35. When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), it is MOST important to: A. approach the aircraft from the uphill side. B. approach the aircraft from the downhill side. C. attempt to approach the aircraft from behind. D. move the patient to the aircraft as soon as it lands.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1051

5. An EMT-B should NOT attempt to gain access to the patient(s) in a damaged vehicle until: A. the fire department arrives at the scene. B. he or she is sure that the vehicle is stable. C. all occupants in the vehicle are accounted for. D. heavy-duty extrication equipment is available.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1061

9. Which of the following is the BEST example of gaining simple access to a patient? A. Using a pry bar to open a damaged door B. Entering a vehicle through an open window C. Breaking glass to gain access to the patient D. Removing the roof to access a critical patient

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1062

10. Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: A. rapidly extricate the patient. B. perform an initial assessment. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. begin treating his or her injuries.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1063

15. Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: A. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel. B. report to the incident commander for instructions. C. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. D. apprise medical control of the tactical situation.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1067

1. Which of the following statements regarding the incident command system (ICS) is MOST correct? A. The ICS is only activated if a natural disaster occurs. B. The ICS is designed for use in daily EMS operations. C. The EMS system developed and implemented the ICS. D. The ICS is only effective during a mass casualty incident.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1074

6. When victims involved in a mass-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: A. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made. B. a thorough assessment is performed and further treatment is rendered. C. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their severity. D. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1076-1077

16. Injuries or conditions that would be classified as first priority (red tag) include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. severe medical problems. B. fractures of multiple long bones. C. any airway or breathing difficulty. D. uncontrolled or severe hemorrhage.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1083

22. Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is MOST correct? A. Most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred. B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical. C. Identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards. D. A package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1086

27. The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazardous material is called: A. neutralization. B. decontamination. C. antidotal treatment. D. chemical containment.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1089

28. Level ___ hazardous materials would cause irritation on contact but only mild residual injury, even without treatment. A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1089

5. A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as: A. a device or agent used to destroy a specific area or region within a given geographic location. B. any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage. C. a nuclear or chemical weapon that can be launched from one country to another country. D. any device used for the express purpose of creating carnage in an effort to make a particular point.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1101

10. According to the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Security Advisory System, the color orange indicates a _______ risk of terrorist attacks. A. low B. high C. severe D. general

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1103

15. A persistent or nonvolatile chemical agent often: A. evaporates quickly when left on a surface. B. remains on a surface for more than 24 hours. C. explodes without warning and releases gases. D. remains in the environment for many weeks.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1106

21. Signs of exposure to a nerve agent include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. salivation. B. dilated pupils. C. excessive tearing. D. muscle twitching.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110

32. Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins: A. cause high fever. B. are not contagious. C. cause skin blistering. D. are not biological toxins.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1117

38. Which of the following statements regarding a "dirty bomb" is MOST correct? A. The effectiveness of a dirty bomb is solely dependent on the amount of alpha radiation that it emits. B. Dirty bombs would injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it. C. Dirty bombs contain significant amounts of radioactive material and are capable of being delivered via a missile. D. The dirty bomb, because of its ability to cause massive damage over a large geographic area, is an effective WMD.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1120

2. After opening a patient's airway, you should: A. insert an airway adjunct. B. ensure the airway is clear. C. assess for breathing effort. D. administer oxygen as needed.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1134

6. Proper confirmation of correct nasogastric or orogastric tube placement includes: A. attaching an end-tidal carbon dioxide detector to the end of the tube. B. injecting air into the tube and auscultating the stomach for gurgling. C. instilling 25 mL of saline down the tube and connecting the tube to suction. D. applying manual pressure to the stomach and observing the tube for contents.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1135

10. A properly placed endotracheal tube will facilitate all of the following, EXCEPT: A. complete protection of the airway. B. direct suctioning of gastric contents. C. the delivery of certain medications. D. delivery of higher minute volume.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1137

11. Endotracheal intubation is indicated for patients: A. prior to defibrillation if ventricular fibrillation is present. B. who are unconscious and cannot protect their own airway. C. in need of assisted ventilation due to reduced tidal volume. D. who are extremely combative and have an intact gag reflex.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1137-1138

13. The Macintosh (curved blade) lifts the epiglottis when the tip of the blade is placed into the: A. glottic opening. B. vallecular space. C. pyriform sinuses. D. cricothyroid space.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1139

20. When determining the proper size ET tube to use in an infant or small child, you should: A. double the child's age in years and add two. B. use a length-based resuscitation tape measure. C. select the smallest possible tube with a cuff. D. use a tube that is the size of the child's thumb.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1141-1142

25. A single intubation attempt in the adult patient should not exceed: A. 20 seconds. B. 30 seconds. C. 40 seconds. D. 45 seconds.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1144

26. Intubating a patient who is in cardiac arrest should occur after: A. the stomach has been adequately decompressed with a gastric tube. B. the patient has been assessed to determine if defibrillation is indicated. C. adequate chest compressions have been performed for at least 5 minutes. D. two attempts to insert a multilumen airway device have been unsuccessful.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1144

31. The MOST reliable indicator of successful endotracheal intubation is: A. the presence of bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds. B. visualization of the tube passing between the vocal cords. C. when the paper in the end-tidal CO2 detector turns yellow. D. the presence of mist or vapor in the tube during exhalation.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1145-1146

33. After performing an initial assessment and treating any immediate life threats, you should next: A. perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment. B. decide if immediate transport is indicated. C. perform a detailed physical examination. D. promptly transport to the closest hospital.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 279

36. Which of the following statements regarding multilumen airway devices is MOST correct? A. They are contraindicated in patients who have experienced a severe spinal injury. B. Ventilations can be provided whether the device is in the trachea or the esophagus. C. Insertion of a multilumen airway device requires visualization of the upper airway. D. Multilumen airway device insertion does not require medical control authorization.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1152

40. When using an LMA to secure a patient's airway, it is MOST important to: A. fully inflate the mask before the device is inserted. B. recall that active vomiting may dislodge the device. C. hyperextend the patient's neck prior to inserting it. D. ensure the presence of a gag reflex before insertion.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1156

1. The MOST important step in assembling intravenous (IV) equipment is to: A. follow the orders of your ALS partner. B. strictly adhere to proper BSI precautions. C. choose the appropriate administration set. D. select the most appropriate size IV catheter.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1166

12. The purpose of a saline lock is to: A. clamp off the IV tubing to decrease the rate at which the fluid flows. B. maintain an active IV site without running fluids through the vein. C. keep an IV line patent in patients who do not require medications. D. allow the delivery of large volumes of isotonic crystalloid solutions.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170

13. Intraosseous (IO) needles are used when: A. at least two large-bore IV lines have been established. B. immediate IV access is difficult or impossible to obtain. C. blood products must be administered to elderly patients. D. the patient does not require large volumes of IV fluid.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1171

5. A single ECG complex consists of all of the following components, EXCEPT: A. A T wave. B. an R-R interval. C. a QRS complex. D. a P-R interval.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184

3. The SA node normally paces at a rate of: A. 40-60 per minute B. 60-100 per minute. C. 80-110 per minute. D. 110-120 per minute.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184-1185

10. The QRS complex represents _______________ and should be no greater than ________ in duration. A. atrial repolarization, 0.20 seconds B. ventricular depolarization, 0.11 seconds C. ventricular repolarization, 0.20 seconds D. atrial depolarization, 0.11 seconds

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186-1187

12. Sinus tachycardia is differentiated from a normal sinus rhythm by the: A. shape of the P waves. B. rate of depolarization. C. width of the QRS complexes. D. consistency of the P-R intervals.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187-1188

16. Ventricular tachycardia (V-Tach) is characterized by: A. a markedly irregular rhythm and narrow QRS complexes. B. wide QRS complexes and a rate greater than 100 beats/min. C. QRS complexes that are greater than 0.08 seconds in duration. D. a heart rate greater than 200 beats/min and identifiable P waves.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188-1189

21. A 12-lead ECG: A. is only performed in the hospital setting. B. may identify myocardial ischemia or injury. C. is used by the EMT-B to diagnose a heart attack. D. does not indicate the heart's primary pacemaker.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1191

22. When applying the ECG leads to a patient, the white (negative) lead should be placed: A. on the left upper arm. B. on the right shoulder. C. to the left of the sternum. D. on the left side of the abdomen.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1191-1192

1. Which of the following activities would NOT be performed during the scene size-up? A. Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog B. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status C. Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel D. Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 265-269

3. Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? A. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. B. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. C. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. D. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 267

6. When is it MOST appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene? A. After you have triaged all the critical patients B. When you determine there are multiple patients C. After noncritical patients have been identified D. When all the deceased patients are accounted for

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 268-269

8. Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. appearance. B. pulse strength. C. race and gender. D. level of distress.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 271

12. When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT-B's responsibility is to: A. direct his or her attention to the most obvious signs and symptoms. B. determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life. C. definitively rule out serious causes of each of the patient's complaints. D. assess each complaint based on the patient's perception of its seriousness.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 272

15. A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: A. time and place. B. date and event. C. event and person. D. person and place.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 274

18. Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? A. Audible breathing B. Forceful coughing C. Inspiratory stridor D. Unresponsiveness

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 275

25. When a patient's respirations are shallow: A. chest rise will be easily noticeable. B. tidal volume is markedly reduced. C. oxygenation occurs more efficiently, D. carbon dioxide elimination is increased.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 276

1. When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F, heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: A. radiation. B. conduction. C. convection. D. evaporation.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 545

34. Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? A. Mild pain in the upper abdominal quadrants B. Chest pain with a systolic BP of 80 mm Hg C. Responsive and able to follow commands D. Decreased ability to move an extremity

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 279

39. You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis using the "O-P-Q-R-S-T" mnemonic only if: A. you note gross deformity to the pelvic area. B. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain. C. the mechanism of injury suggests pelvic trauma. D. the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 284-285

44. When performing a rapid physical exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? A. Abdomen B. Posterior C. Extremities D. Anterior chest

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 284-286

46. The focused history and physical exam of a medical patient complaining of dizziness should include assessments of: A. cervical range of motion, pulse, and skin color. B. orientation, vital signs, and signs of head trauma. C. blood pressure, skin condition, and breath sounds. D. bowel sounds, pulse regularity, and oxygen saturation.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 286

51. During your assessment of a patient with a possible upper extremity fracture, you note a grinding feeling in the bones when the patient moves. This finding is MOST appropriately called: A. grating. B. crepitus. C. crackles. D. flail movement.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 289

60. When performing a detailed physical exam on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle's sign. This is defined as: A. unequal pupils. B. bruising behind the ear. C. swelling to the orbital area. D. fluid drainage from the nose.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 300-301

62. Which of the following abnormal breath sounds would be LEAST suggestive of fluid in the lungs? A. Rales B. Stridor C. Crackles D. Rhonchi

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 303-304

6. Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is MOST correct? A. It is an exclusive frequency that is used by EMTs to communicate with each other in the field. B. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users. C. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control. D. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 317

7. Two-way communication that requires the EMT-B to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication? A. Duplex B. Simplex C. Multiplex D. Mediplex

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 319

2. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? A. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks B. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance C. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs D. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 319-320

12. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: A. using coded medical language. B. not disclosing his or her name. C. withholding medical history data. D. refraining from objective statements.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 322

13. Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. your perception of the severity of the problem. B. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. C. a brief history of the patient's current problem. D. a brief summary of the care that you provided.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 322

18. It is MOST important to keep your radio transmissions as brief as possible because: A. the recipient will become frustrated with lengthy traffic. B. other personnel with emergency traffic may need to speak. C. the FCC continuously monitors radio traffic for compliance. D. this will lessen feedback-related transmission interference.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 325

19. When notifying the dispatcher that you are leaving the scene and en route to the hospital, you should report all of the following, EXCEPT: A. your transport mode or status. B. the patient's injury or illness. C. your estimated time of arrival. D. the number of patients transported.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 325

25. When communicating with an elderly patient, it is important to remember that: A. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. B. most elderly people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. C. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. D. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 328-330

26. Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: A. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. B. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. B. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. D. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 330-331

32. In the eyes of the law, a poorly written patient care form indicates that: A. the EMT-B had poor documentation skills. B. patient care was inadequate or haphazard. C. patient care had priority over documentation. D. the continuum of patient care remained intact.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 333

31. All information recorded on the prehospital care report must be: A. typewritten or printed. B. considered confidential. C. a matter of public record. D. reflective of your opinion.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 335

11. Subcutaneous (SC) injections deliver the medication: A. directly into the muscle tissue. B. between the skin and the muscle. C. below the first layer of muscle. D. in the mucosa under the tongue.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 345

30. The MOST common reason that many people experiencing a myocardial infarction do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: A. are elderly. B. are in denial. C. cannot afford it. D. don't trust EMTs.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 409

21. An EMT-B may assist a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin if: A. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension. B. authorization from medical control has been obtained. C. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. D. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 349

19. Which of the following medications is NOT delivered via the inhalation route? A. Oxygen B. Nitroglycerin spray C. Epinephrine D. Albuterol

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 349, 351, 353-359

25. Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? A. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. B. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. C. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT-B via the intravenous route.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 351-352

1. The two processes that occur during respiration are: A. ventilation and diffusion. B. inspiration and expiration. C. diffusion and oxygenation. D. oxygenation and ventilation.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 366

4. When the level of arterial carbon dioxide increases: A. the brain stem inhibits respirations. B. respirations increase in rate and depth. C. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 366-367

10. An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are bilaterally clear and equal. These findings are MOST consistent with: A. an obstructed airway. B. adequate air exchange. C. respiratory difficulty. D. respiratory insufficiency.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 367

11. Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? A. Pleural effusion B. Abdominal pain C. Pulmonary edema D. Lower airway infection

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 368-369

15. Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are MOST characteristic of: A. rales. B. stridor. C. rhonchi. D. wheezing.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 370

16. The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by: A. repeated exposure to cigarette smoke. B. chronic stretching of the alveolar walls. C. massive constriction of the bronchioles. D. acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 372

21. Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is MOST correct? A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. C. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes after exposure. D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 374

22. When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: A. normal breath sounds. B. abnormal breath sounds. C. diminished breath sounds. D. an absence of breath sounds.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 381-382

56. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate sequence of assessment for an unresponsive medical patient? A. Vital signs, history, rapid physical exam B. Rapid physical exam, vital signs, history A. Focused physical exam, vital signs, history D. Vital signs, focused physical exam, history

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 396-397

1. What is the function of the left atrium? A. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. B. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. C. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries. D. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 402

3. Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: A. enters the systemic circulation. B. flows into the pulmonary arteries. C. has a high concentration of oxygen. D. was received directly from the aorta.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 402

7. The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: A. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium. B. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. C. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. D. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 403

9. When the myocardium requires more oxygen: A. the heart contracts with less force. B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate. C. the heart rate decreases significantly. D. the AV node conducts fewer impulses.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 403

12. The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: A. nipple line. B. umbilicus. C. iliac crest. D. pubic symphysis.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 404

15. Ischemic heart disease is MOST accurately defined as: A. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery. B. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. C. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. D. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 404-405

17. A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because the: A. coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. B. lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. C. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. D. ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 404-405, 407

23. Angina pectoris occurs when: A. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds the supply. C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408

24. Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris and acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? A. AMI is caused by myocardial ischemia. B. Anginal pain typically subsides with rest. C. Nitroglycerin has no effect on angina pectoris. D. Pain from an AMI subsides within 30 minutes.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408-409

34. When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, it is MOST important to: A. use medical terminology. B. use the patient's own words. C. underline the patient's quotes. D. document your own perception.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 409

40. Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to encounter in a patient with congestive heart failure? A. Hypertension and tachycardia B. Hypotension and flat jugular veins C. The presence of rales in the lungs D. Trouble breathing while lying down

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 411

41. Which of the following signs would MOST likely accompany right-sided heart failure? A. Labored breathing B. Dependent edema C. Pulmonary edema D. Flat jugular veins

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 412

44. Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent the formation of blood clots? A. Lasix B. Aspirin C. Oxygen D. Digoxin

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 415

48. Potential side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. bradycardia. B. hypertension. C. hypotension. D. severe headache.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 415

54. Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: A. who have taken up to two doses. B. who have experienced a head injury. C. with a history of an ischemic stroke. D. with a systolic BP less than 120 mm Hg.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 415

53. After assisting your patient with his or her nitroglycerin, you should: A. place the patient in a recumbent position in case he or she faints. B. reassess the blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. C. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache. D. perform a detailed physical exam before administering further doses.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 416-417

64. After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT-B should: A. assess for a carotid pulse. B. immediately resume CPR. C. reanalyze the cardiac rhythm. D. transport the patient at once.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 426-427

66. Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT-B should: A. contact medical control. B. dry the chest off if it is wet. C. perform CPR for 30 seconds. D. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 426-427

4. Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the: A. cerebrum. B. cerebellum. C. brain stem. D. cerebral cortex.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 440

10. An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called: A. a thrombus. B. an aneurysm. C. an embolism. D. atherosclerosis.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 442

9. The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: A. severe stress. B. hypertension. C. heavy exertion. D. diabetes mellitus.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 442

15. A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: A. aphasia. B. dysarthria. C. dysphagia. D. paraplegia.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 444

16. Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypovolemia C. Postictal state D. Intracranial bleeding

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 444-445

22. What Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score would you assign to a patient who responds to painful stimuli, uses inappropriate words, and flexes his or her arms in response to pain? A. 6 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 448

27. Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat patients with a history of seizures? A. Dilantin B. Dilaudid C. Tegretol D. Phenobarbital

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 451

28. Which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause of seizures? A. Poisoning or overdose B. Severe hypovolemia C. Acute hypoglycemia D. Acute alcohol withdrawal

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 451

35. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? A. High fever B. Hypoglycemia C. Acute poisoning D. Alcohol intoxication

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 457

40. Which of the following patients would MOST likely demonstrate typical signs of infection or fever? A. A 3-month-old female who was born prematurely B. A 17-year-old male with depression and anxiety C. A 35-year-old female in the later stages of AIDS D. An 88-year-old male with chronic renal problems

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 458

1. Colic is pain caused by: A. irritation of the parietal peritoneum. B. distention or contraction of hollow organs. C. blunt trauma to the solid abdominal organs. D. vigorous palpation of the abdominal quadrants.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 466

6. Erosion of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in: A. ileus. B. an ulcer. C. appendicitis. D. cholecystitis.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 467

7. Pain that is localized to the lower back and/or lower abdominal quadrants is MOST suggestive of: A. acute pancreatitis. B. an aortic aneurysm. C. a kidney infection. D. acute appendicitis.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 468

14. Peritonitis may result in shock because: A. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present. B. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues. C. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions. D. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 470

16. Common signs and symptoms of acute abdomen include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. tachycardia. B. hypertension. C. nausea and vomiting. D. abdominal guarding.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 471-472

2. Insulin functions in the body by: A. producing new glucose as needed. B. enabling glucose to enter the cells. C. increasing circulating blood glucose. D. metabolizing glucose to make energy.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 482

1. Type I diabetes: A. is typically treated with medications such as Diabenase. B. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body. C. typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age. D. is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 482-483

7. Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because: A. they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration. B. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys. C. low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration. D. high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 483

6. Normal blood glucose levels, as measured by a glucometer, are: A. 60-80 mg/dL. B. 80-120 mg/dL. C. 130-150 mg/dL. D. 160-200 mg/dL.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 483-484

12. Diabetic coma is a life-threatening condition that results in: A. hypoglycemia, excess insulin, and dehydration. B. hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, and dehydration. C. hypoglycemia, dehydration, and ketoacidosis. D. hyperglycemia, excess insulin, and ketoacidosis.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 485

13. Which of the following statements regarding diabetic coma is correct? A. Diabetic coma can be prevented by taking smaller insulin doses. B. Diabetic coma typically develops over a period of hours or days. C. Patients with low blood glucose levels are prone to diabetic coma. D. Diabetic coma rapidly progresses once hyperglycemia develops.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 485

19. Insulin shock tends to develop more often and more severely in children because: A. they have larger glucose stores than adults do. B. they do not always eat correctly and on schedule. C. their cells do not uptake glucose as fast as adults' do. D. their low activity levels cause rapid glucose depletion.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 485

14. Common signs and symptoms of diabetic coma include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. warm, dry skin. B. cool, clammy skin. C. rapid, thready pulse. D. acetone breath odor.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 485-486

26. Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assessing the patient's mental status. B. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex. C. checking the medication's expiration date. D. requesting permission from medical control.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 491-492

4. Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a/an: A. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. B. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. C. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. D. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 500

11. The stinger from a honeybee should be: A. left in place and covered. B. scraped away from the skin. C. squeezed with tweezers and removed. D. irrigated with copious amounts of water.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 502-503

9. Most patients who die of anaphylaxis do so within the first: A. 5 minutes following exposure. B. 30 minutes following exposure. C. 60 minutes following exposure. D. 90 minutes following exposure.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 503

12. Which of the following adventitious sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? A. Rales B. Stridor C. Rhonchi D. Wheezing

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 505

17. Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. abdominal pain. B. drying of the eyes. C. flushing of the skin. D. persistent dry cough.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 506

18. Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction? A. Bronchodilation and vasodilation B. Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation C. Bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction D. Inhibition of further histamine release

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 507

23. When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for: A. 5 seconds. B. 10 seconds. C. 15 seconds. D. 20 seconds.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 508

25. The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within __________ following administration. A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute C. 30 minutes D. 1 hour

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 512

4. The EMT-B's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to: A. administer the appropriate antidote. B. recognize that a poisoning occurred. C. administer 25 g of activated charcoal. D. contact poison control immediately.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 518

5. Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include: A. sedation. B. tachycardia. C. hypotension. D. slurred speech.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 519

11. Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to: A. move the patient to a safe area. B. avoid contaminating yourself. C. decontaminate the patient's skin. D. obtain and maintain a patent airway.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 522

14. Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: A. induces vomiting and empties the stomach. B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. C. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs. D. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 523

15. All of the following drugs will cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, EXCEPT: A. opiates. B. amphetamines. C. barbiturates. D. sedative-hypnotics.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 523

22. After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is MOST important to: A. call medical control. B. be alert for vomiting. C. reassess the patient's BP. D. document the intervention.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 527

23. The major side effect associated with ingestion of activated charcoal is: A. headache. B. black stools. C. abdominal pain. D. ringing in the ears.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 527

25. Hyperthermia is MOST accurately defined as a condition in which: A. the core body temperature exceeds 98.6°F. B. the body is exposed to more heat than it can lose. C. heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. D. the body eliminates more heat than it can generate.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 554

30. In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism: A. several layers of clothing must be worn. B. it must be able to evaporate from the body. C. the relative humidity must be above 90%. D. the body must produce at least 1L per hour.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 555

31. Heatstroke occurs when: A. a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F. B. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed. C. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss. D. the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F and the humidity is high.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 557

35. Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: A. temporary survival after submersion in water. B. death from suffocation after submersion in water. C. water in the lungs following submersion in water. D. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 559-560

40. An air embolism associated with diving occurs when: A. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water. B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent. C. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure. D. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 564

46. The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: A. renal system. B. nervous system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 569

48. In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider: A. is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back. B. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen. C. produces a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops. D. usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 569-570

2. Which of the following terms is defined as a manner in which a person responds to his or her environment? A. Affect B. Behavior C. Neurosis D. Psychosis

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 584

1. The term behavioral crisis is MOST accurately defined as: A. a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member. B. any reaction that interferes with activities of daily living or is deemed unacceptable by others. C. a situation in which a patient demonstrates bizarre behavior and becomes a risk to other people. D. a period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 584-585

6. Organic brain syndrome (OBS) is MOST accurately defined as: A. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain. B. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. C. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. D. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to inadequate cerebral blood flow.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 586

7. Which of the following conditions or factors would be the LEAST likely to result in a change in behavior? A. Low blood glucose levels B. Antihypertensive medications C. Exposure to excess heat or cold D. Inadequate blood flow to the brain

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 586

12. Which of the following statements regarding the detailed physical exam of a patient with a behavioral emergency is MOST correct? A. It is critical that the EMT-B performs a detailed physical exam on all patients with a behavioral emergency in order to detect potential underlying problems. B. The detailed physical exam may be detrimental to gaining the patient's trust and should not be performed unless there is an accompanying physical complaint. C. The detailed physical exam is an integral part of the assessment process of a patient with a behavioral emergency, but it should be performed en route to the hospital. D. Performing a detailed physical exam on a patient with a behavioral emergency will likely cause him or her to become agitated or violent and should not be performed.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 589

2. From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? A. Vagina B. Uterus C. Cervix D. Perineum

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 600

6. The amniotic fluid serves to: A. transfer oxygen to the fetus. B. insulate and protect the fetus. C. remove viruses from the fetus. D. assist in fetal development.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 601

11. The term primipara refers to a woman who: A. has never been pregnant. B. has had only one live birth. C. is pregnant for the first time. D. has had more than one live baby.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 602

12. Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: A. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity. B. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions. C. pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions. D. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 602

35. If a baby is born at 7:52 p.m., the second APGAR score should be calculated at: A. 7:53 p.m. B. 7:57 p.m. C. 7:59 p.m. D. 8:00 p.m.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 614

41. Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. low birth weight. B. profound tachycardia. C. premature delivery. D. respiratory depression.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 620

43. General treatment guidelines when caring for a woman with traumatic vaginal bleeding includes: A. carefully removing impaled objects. B. transporting to an appropriate facility. C. packing the vagina with sterile dressings. D. cleaning external wounds with sterile water.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 622

8. When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 MPH, the unrestrained occupant: A. will most likely be thrown over the steering column. B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. C. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle does. D. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 634

13. Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision of a motor-vehicle crash? A. Collapsed dashboard B. Deformed steering wheel C. Caved-in passenger door D. Intrathoracic hemorrhage

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 636

14. Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision of a motor-vehicle crash? A. Flail chest B. Aortic rupture C. Extremity fractures D. Forehead lacerations

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 636

17. When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an airbag that did not deploy upon impact, it is MOST important to: A. realize that the airbag malfunctioned at the time of impact. B. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. C. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries. D. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 638

22. Twenty-five percent of severe aortic injuries occur during: A. frontal collisions. B. lateral collisions. C. rollover collisions. D. rear-end collisions.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 640

24. When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car versus pedestrian collision, you should first: A. determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. B. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian. C. evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage. D. determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 641

30. The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. capitation. B. cavitation. C. congruent. D. conversion.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 643

2. The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the: A. venules. B. arterioles. C. vena cavae. D. capillary arteries.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 651

4. Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the: A. systolic blood pressure exclusively. B. ability of the blood to effectively clot. C. ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. D. white blood cell's ability to fight infection.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 652

9. An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the: A. body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased. B. body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F. C. systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg. D. heart rate is maintained at greater than 100 beats/min.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 654

12. An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock after what amount of blood loss? A. 80 to 100 mL B. 100 to 220 mL C. 220 to 320 mL D. 320 to 420 mL

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 655

14. Hypovolemic shock occurs when: A. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. B. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss. C. the patient's systolic BP is less than 100 mm Hg. D. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 655

19. Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is MOST correct? A. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets. B. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously. C. Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. D. Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 656

24. When using a stick and square knot as a tourniquet to control severe bleeding from an amputated arm, the EMT-B should: A. cover the tourniquet with a sterile dressing. B. stop twisting the stick when the bleeding stops. C. twist the stick until the radial pulse disappears. D. remove the tourniquet if the bleeding has stopped.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 663, 665-666

3. One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is: A. lactic acid. B. carbon dioxide. C. pyruvic acid. D. carbon monoxide.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 680

4. When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include: A. tachypnea. B. tachycardia. C. vasodilation. D. restlessness.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 680

10. Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? A. Severe vomiting B. Liver laceration C. Excessive sweating D. Repeated diarrhea

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 682

15. When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is MOST important to remember that: A. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. C. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. D. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 684

1. What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Muscular layer D. Subcutaneous layer

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 698

4. Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is MOST correct? A. The dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin. B. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. C. The cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced. D. The germinal layer lies below the dermis and provides protection.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 698

10. A hematoma develops when: A. small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis. B. large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged. C. severe swelling compromises arterial circulation. D. cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 700

9. A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a/an: A. abrasion. B. contusion. C. hematoma. D. crush injury.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 700

9. Early bruising following abdominal trauma is often indicated by: A. localized pain. B. red areas of skin. C. gross distention. D. multiple abrasions.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 800

19. When caring for an amputated body part, the EMT-B should: A. pack it in ice to prevent tissue damage. B. keep it cool without allowing it to freeze. C. immerse it in a container of sterile water. D. prevent cell damage by keeping it warm.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 714

22. A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. third-degree burn. B. first-degree burn. C. second-degree burn D. partial-thickness burn

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 716

26. Common signs and symptoms of an airway burn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hoarseness. B. chest pressure. C. singed nasal hair. D. soot around the mouth.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 716

31. Critical burns in an infant or child include: A. superficial burns that cover 30% to 40% of the body surface area. B. partial-thickness burns to more than 20% of the body surface area. C. full-thickness burns covering 5% to 10% of the body surface area. D. any burn that involves the arms, legs, or posterior aspect of the body.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 716-717

33. Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is MOST correct? A. A child's head is equal to 14% of his or her total body surface area. B. The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the body surface area. C. The posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the body surface area. D. The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total body surface area.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 718

37. In order for electricity to flow through the body and cause damage: A. an insulator must exist between the electrical source and the patient. B. a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground. C. the part of the body that is in contact with the electrical source must be dry. D. the person must make direct physical contact with the source of electricity.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 723

1. The eyeball itself is referred to as the: A. orbit. B. globe. C. sclera. D. cornea.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 736

4. Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is MOST correct? A. Vitreous humor is a clear, watery fluid that cannot be replaced if it is lost during an eye injury. B. Vitreous humor is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. Vitreous humor is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. D. Vitreous humor is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 736

11. When a light is shone into the pupil: A. the opposite pupil should dilate. B. it should become smaller in size. C. it should become larger in size. D. both pupils should dilate together.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 737

5. The cricoid cartilage: A. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. B. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. C. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 759

7. The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: A. damage to the eyes. B. airway compromise. C. cervical spine injury. D. mandibular immobility.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 760

12. Frequent ongoing assessments in the patient with facial or throat injuries are MOST important because: A. they lend credibility to your documentation. B. such injuries can affect the respiratory system. C. hospital staff require frequent patient updates. D. rapid facial swelling may mask hidden injuries.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 763

13. When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: A. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed. B. maxillofacial specialists may need to be called. C. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. D. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 764

1. When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: A. contracts and flattens inferiorly. B. may rise as high as the nipple line. C. is less prone to penetrating trauma. D. descends below the level of the navel.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 778-779

7. Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. tachypnea. B. hematemesis. C. localized pain. D. chest wall ecchymosis.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 780

6. Hemoptysis is defined as: A. vomiting blood. B. coughing up blood. C. abnormal blood clotting. D. blood in the pleural space.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 780-781

12. An open pneumothorax occurs when: A. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung. B. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. C. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. D. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 784-785

14. Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. profound cyanosis. B. collapsed jugular veins. C. contralateral tracheal deviation. D. unilaterally absent breath sounds.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 786

20. A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is MOST suggestive of a: A. ruptured aorta. B. myocardial contusion. C. pericardial tamponade. D. tension pneumothorax.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 789

3. Which of the following statements regarding abdominal trauma is MOST correct? A. Most of the vital abdominal organs lie within the retroperitoneal space. B. The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding. C. The liver is well-protected and is rarely injured during a traumatic event. D. Hollow abdominal organs are vascular and bleed profusely when injured.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 798-799

4. Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: A. vital signs should be monitored frequently. B. prompt transport to the hospital is essential. C. the EMT-B must perform a thorough exam. D. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 799-800

14. When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: A. the abdomen will become instantly distended. B. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. C. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. D. it commonly protrudes through the injury site.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 802

15. Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is MOST correct? A. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. C. The organs should carefully be replaced to avoid heat loss. D. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 802-803

2. Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. A. smooth B. striated C. connective D. involuntary

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 820

3. Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. Autonomic

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 820

10. A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a: A. total loss of function in a bone. B. break in the continuity of the bone. C. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. D. abnormality in the structure of a bone.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 822

12. A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. A. strain B. sprain C. fracture D. dislocation

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 823

17. A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a _________ fracture. A. greenstick B. pathologic C. carcinogenic D. comminuted

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 825

36. When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT-B should: A. assess proximal circulation. B. compare it to the uninjured leg. C. carefully move it to elicit crepitus. D. ask the patient to move the injured leg.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 825

22. If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: A. distal circulation. B. the patient history. C. bruising to the shoulder. D. the presence of deformity.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 828

28. Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to: A. prevent further injury. B. reduce pain and swelling. C. enhance tissue circulation. D. maintain extremity perfusion.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 836

29. In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. the patient is clinically unstable. C. deformity and swelling are present. D. transport time is less than 15 minutes.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 836

41. A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: A. radial head. B. distal humerus. C. proximal radius. D. olecranon process.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 852

42. A Colles' fracture involves a fracture of the: A. distal ulna. B. distal radius. C. proximal radius. D. radius and ulna.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 854

50. The pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) would be MOST appropriate to use when immobilizing: A. hip fractures. B. a fractured pelvis. C. tibia/fibula fractures. D. unilateral femur fractures.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 856-857

48. A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A. thoracic spine. B. lumbar spine. C. coccygeal spine. D. symphysis pubis.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 862-863

49. When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is MOST important for the EMT-B to: A. use a pillow as a splint. B. leave the toes exposed. C. apply a pneumatic splint. D. observe for tissue swelling.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 863

6. The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by: A. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. B. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. C. delivering oxygen directly to the central nervous system. D. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 872

10. Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? A. Somatic B. Connecting C. Peripheral D. Autonomic

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 874

16. When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: A. blood is shunted away from the digestive organs. B. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate. C. hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. D. the heart rate increases and the blood pressure increases.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 876

18. The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 876

23. A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a/an: A. cerebral contusion. B. cerebral concussion. C. intracranial hemorrhage. D. intracerebral hematoma.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 879

27. Bleeding within the brain parenchyma (tissue) is MOST appropriately called a/an: A. epidural hematoma. B. intracerebral hematoma. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracranial hematoma.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 879

29. The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: A. skull fracture. B. cerebral edema. C. hypoxic seizures. D. acute hypotension.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 880

34. Any unconscious trauma patient should be assumed to have: A. a history of diabetes mellitus. B. an accompanying spinal injury. C. a severe intracranial hemorrhage. D. internal bleeding in the abdomen.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 882

40. The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A. a pulse that is rapid and thready. B. a decreased level of consciousness. C. an abnormally low blood pressure. D. decreased sensation in the extremities.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 884-885

43. When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she: A. will likely be paralyzed from the neck down. B. may lose sensation below the level of the injury. C. most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity. D. often loses motor function on one side of the body.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 885-886

48. Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is MOST correct? A. Once a cervical collar is applied, you can cease manual head stabilization. B. A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization. C. Cervical collars are contraindicated in patients with numbness to the extremities. D. The patient's head should be forced into a neutral position to apply a cervical collar.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 890

50. The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: A. the clothes drag. B. the four-person log roll. C. to use a scoop stretcher. D. the direct patient carry.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 891

53. After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of a patient's head, you should: A. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. C. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. D. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 891-892, 894-895

54. A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A. are found supine and have stable vital signs. B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. C. require prompt extrication from an automobile. D. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 893-894

8. A child may begin to show signs of stranger anxiety as early as: A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 18 months. D. 24 months.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 918

9. Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: A. in the ambulance. B. at the hands or feet. C. from head to toe. D. en route to the hospital.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 919

11. When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure. B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. C. use a toe-to-head assessment approach. D. rely solely on the parent for information.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 920

15. The EMT-B should be MOST concerned when a child presents with fever and: A. chills. B. a rash. C. ear pain. D. a headache.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 921-922

17. Which of the following factors is associated with the lowest risk of meningitis? A. Newborn age B. Female gender C. Recent head trauma D. Children with VP shunts

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 922

21. Febrile seizures are MOST common in children between: A. 3 months and 4 years of age. B. 6 months and 6 years of age. C. 8 months and 8 years of age. D. 18 months and 10 years of age.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 923

23. Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. infection. B. hyperglycemia. C. electrolyte imbalances. D. poisonings or ingestion.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 923

27. When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: A. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. B. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. C. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her. D. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 925

29. When a child experiences a blunt chest injury: A. the flexible rib cage protects the vital thoracic organs. B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking. C. the sudden force against the ribs causes them to fracture. D. there is usually obvious injury to the external chest wall.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 925

32. Which of the following statements regarding use of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) in children is MOST correct? A. The abdominal compartment should always be fully inflated. B. They are rarely used in treating children with traumatic shock. C. You can place both of the child's legs in one leg compartment. D. They should be applied to any child with obvious signs of shock.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 926

34. Critical burns in children include: A. any superficial or partial-thickness burn that involves the legs or arms. B. partial-thickness burns covering greater than 20% of the body surface. C. second-degree burns that cover greater than 10% of the body surface. D. superficial burns that cover greater than 10% to 15% of the body surface.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 927 35. Submersion injuries in the adolescent age group are MOST commonly associated with: A. alcohol. B. child abuse. C. hyperthermia. D. swimming pools. Ans: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 927

39. With regard to the legal implications of child abuse: A. child abuse should be reported only if it can be proven. B. EMT-Bs must report all suspected cases of child abuse. C. you should document your perceptions on the run form. D. a supervisor can forbid you from reporting possible abuse.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 929

40. When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: A. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. B. have a female EMT-B accompany her if possible. C. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. D. immediately report your suspicions to the parents.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 929

29. Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume? A. Shallow breathing B. Deep respirations C. Irregular breathing D. Agonal respirations

B. Deep respirations

45. During the attempted resuscitation of an infant with suspected SIDS: A. discourage the family from observing. B. allow the family to observe if they wish. C. a law enforcement officer must be present. D. give detailed updates to the infant's parents.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 931

1. The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: A. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. B. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. C. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only. D. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 943

7. To ensure that the airway of an infant or small child is correctly positioned, you may have to: A. place bulky padding behind his or her occiput. B. place a towel or folded sheet behind the shoulders. C. slightly flex the neck to prevent tracheal kinking. D. hyperextend the neck to ensure adequate alignment.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 944

6. Before assessing the respiratory adequacy of an unconscious infant or child, you must: A. routinely suction the mouth to remove oral secretions. B. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions. C. insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway adjunct. D. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 944-945

9. Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called: A. tenting. B. retracting. C. hyperpnea. D. accessory muscle use.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 945

13. After determining that an infant or child has strong central pulses, you should: A. assume the child is hypertensive. B. not rule out compensated shock. C. conclude that the child is stable. D. assess his or her respiratory effort.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 946

14. Capillary refill time (CRT) is MOST reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children less than: A. 4 years of age. B. 6 years of age. C. 8 years of age. D. 10 years of age.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 946, 948

21. The MOST efficient way to identify the appropriately sized equipment for a pediatric patient is to: A. estimate the child's weight based on age. B. use a length-based resuscitation tape measure. C. estimate the child's weight based on appearance. D. ask a relative if he or she knows the child's weight.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 950, 952

23. An oropharyngeal airway should not be used in children who have ingested a caustic or petroleum-based product because it may: A. depress the gag reflex. B. cause the child to vomit. C. result in airway swelling. D. result in soft tissue injury.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 951

28. Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate ONLY if: A. an oral airway has been inserted. B. his or her tidal volume is adequate. C. his or her respirations are shallow. D. he or she is breathing inadequately.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 955

34. Infection should be considered as a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: A. severe restlessness. B. drooling or congestion. C. skin that is cool and dry. D. acute respiratory distress.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 958

39. Which of the following newborns requires positive-pressure ventilations and chest compressions? A. Central cyanosis: respirations, fast: pulse, 100 beats/min B. Central cyanosis: respirations, slow: pulse, 50 beats/min C. Peripheral cyanosis: respirations, fast: pulse, 90 beats/min D. Peripheral cyanosis: respirations, absent: pulse, 80 beats/min

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 964

41. Cardiac arrest in the pediatric population is MOST commonly the result of: A. a complete airway obstruction. B. respiratory or circulatory failure. C. a congenital cardiovascular defect. D. lethal cardiac rhythm disturbances.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 964-965

51. Common signs of severe dehydration in an infant include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. sunken eyes and anterior fontanel. B. slowed or decreased level of activity. C. markedly delayed capillary refill time. D. heart rate greater than 160 beats/min.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 977

4. Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: A. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. B. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions. C. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. D. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are impaired anyway.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 987

5. Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS Diamond? A. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. B. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. C. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. D. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 987

11. Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: A. retinitis. B. cataracts. C. glaucoma. D. conjunctivitis.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 989

16. Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: A. pancreatic failure. B. renal insufficiency. C. intentional overdose. D. splenic dysfunction.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 989

20. The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called: A. potentiation. B. polypharmacy. C. drug tolerance. D. drug dependency.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 991

26. A "silent" heart attack occurs when: A. sweating is the only presentation. B. the usual chest pain is not present. C. a sudden dysrhythmia causes death. D. the patient minimizes the chest pain.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 992

22. Vascular causes of syncope include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. venous pooling. B. vasoconstriction. C. acute hypotension. D. blood volume loss.

B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 992-993

6. Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? A. "Does the pain stay in your chest?" B. "Does your mother have diabetes?" C. "Has this ever happened to you before?" D. "Are there medications that you can't take?"

B. "Does your mother have diabetes?"

14. The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from: A. 10 to 15 breaths per minute. B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute. C. 18 to 24 breaths per minute. D. 24 to 28 breaths per minute.

B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute.

40. When you assess capillary refill time (CRT) in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: A. 1 second. B. 2 seconds. C. 3 seconds. D. 4 seconds.

B. 2 seconds.

16. What is the maximum amount of weight that four EMT-Bs should attempt to lift? A. 200 pounds B. 250 pounds C. 300 pounds D. 325 pounds

B. 250 pounds

64. Brain cells begin to die without oxygen in as few as: A. 1-3 minutes. B. 4-6 minutes. C. 8-10 minutes. D. 10-15 minutes.

B. 4-6 minutes.

49. An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: A. 200 psi. B. 500 psi. C. 1,000 psi. D. 1,500 psi.

B. 500 psi.

62. You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 liters per minute. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. 75%

B. 55%

59. On which of the following patients would it be MOST appropriate to use the flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device? A. An 8-year-old female with respiratory failure B. A 21-year-old male with atraumatic cardiac arrest C. A 38-year-old apneic female with blunt chest trauma D. A 59-year-old male with chronic obstructive lung disease

B. A 21-year-old male with atraumatic cardiac arrest

33. In which of the following patients would the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? A. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed C. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet D. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma

B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed

37. Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway? A. A 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume B. A 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations C. A 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations D. A 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations

B. A 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations

63. Which of the following statements regarding a patient with a behavioral crisis is correct? A. Depression accounts for a very small percentage of violent attacks. B. A quiet patient is not as likely to attack you as one who is screaming. C. A past history of violence is an unreliable indicator of future violence. D. People who say that they are "hearing voices" are usually bluffing you.

B. A quiet patient is not as likely to attack you as one who is screaming.

1. Which of the following statements MOST accurately describes emergency medical services (EMS)? A. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. A team of healthcare professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. A system composed exclusively of basic-level EMTs who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

B. A team of healthcare professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

61. What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? A. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. C. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

6. Which of the following MOST accurately lists the correct order of structures of the lower airway, starting inferiorly? A. Larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli B. Alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, trachea, larynx C. Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli D. Alveoli, bronchi, bronchioles, larynx, trachea

B. Alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, trachea, larynx

12. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts informed consent? A. A patient advises an EMT-B of why he or she is refusing care B. An EMT-B advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment C. An EMT-B initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult D. A patient is advised by an EMT-B of the risks of refusing care

B. An EMT-B advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment

23. Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct? A. The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move. B. An emergency move is performed before the initial assessment and treatment. C. The patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move. D. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient.

B. An emergency move is performed before the initial assessment and treatment.

64. You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the healthcare system caused his disease. What stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with? A. Denial B. Anger C. Bargaining D. Depression

B. Anger

50. Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? A. Vertical-position flowmeter B. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter C. Ball-and-float flowmeter D. Pressure-compensated flowmeter

B. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

102. Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for coordinating bodily movements such as writing or sewing? A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Brain stem D. Hypothalamus

B. Cerebellum

25. Which of the following is a LATE sign of hypoxia? A. Anxiety B. Cyanosis C. Tachycardia D. Restlessness

B. Cyanosis

7. Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? A. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will B. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury C. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMT-Bs

B. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

5. Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. EMT-Basic. B. EMT-Paramedic. C. EMT-Intermediate. D. certified first responder.

B. EMT-Paramedic.

48. A 56-year-old female is found supine in a narrow hallway of her mobile home. She complains of severe weakness and dizziness, and states that she is unable to walk. There is no evidence of trauma and the patient states that she did not fall. How should you and your partner move this patient to a more spacious area? A. Direct carry B. Extremity lift C. Scoop stretcher D. Emergency move

B. Extremity lift

1. Which of the following is an example of a symptom? A. Cyanosis B. Headache C. Tachycardia D. Hypertension

B. Headache

50. You have two patients that were involved in a motor-vehicle crash, when their SUV struck a tree—one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a "hard board," nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the MOST appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance? A. Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury: place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench. B. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher: place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench. C. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench: allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher. D. Apply a traction splint to the patient with the deformed femur and place him on the wheeled stretcher: place the patient with neck and back pain on the squad bench immobilized with a cervical collar and scoop stretcher.

B. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher: place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.

19. Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. C. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has a low carbon dioxide content.

B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.

26. Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? A. Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure. B. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point. C. Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating. D. Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.

B. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.

11. Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word dorsal? A. Medial B. Posterior C. Palmar D. Anterior

B. Posterior

23. What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? A. Controlling insurance cost B. Protecting patient privacy C. Preventing insurance fraud D. Ensuring access to insurance

B. Protecting patient privacy

24. In the eyes of the court, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A. that inadequate patient care was administered. B. potential falsification of the patient care form. C. that thorough documentation was not required. D. the EMT-B was too busy providing patient care.

B. Protecting patient privacy

78. Which of the following vessels carry blood away from the heart? A. Pulmonary vein B. Pulmonary artery C. Inferior venae cavae D. Superior venae cavae

B. Pulmonary artery

108. What layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? A. Epidermis B. Subcutaneous C. Dermal layer D. Sebaceous layer

B. Subcutaneous

15. An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A. Dorsal B. Supine C. Prone D. Recumbent

B. Supine

3. Which of the following MOST accurately describes the term "chief complaint"? A. The information about the call provided to you by the dispatcher B. The major signs or symptoms that the patient reports when asked C. The general appearance of the patient upon your initial encounter D. The symptoms that the patient denies having when he or she is asked

B. The major signs or symptoms that the patient reports when asked

32. What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? A. Vomitus B. The tongue C. Blood clots D. Aspirated fluid

B. The tongue

6. In which of the following situations does the EMT-B NOT have a legal duty to act? A. You respond to the residence of a patient who fell. B. You come upon a motor-vehicle crash while off duty. C. You begin caring for an injured patient while off duty. D. Local policy requires you to assist in any emergency.

B. You come upon a motor-vehicle crash while off duty

46. A decrease in blood pressure may indicate all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: A. loss of blood volume. B. a closed head injury. C. loss of vascular tone. D. decreased cardiac pumping.

B. a closed head injury.

8. Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: A. worsen the pain. B. alleviate the pain. C. initiate the pain. D. change the pain.

B. alleviate the pain.

7. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the: A. bronchioles. B. alveolar sacs. C. apex of the lung. D. pulmonary capillaries.

B. alveolar sacs.

61. As the bronchus divides into smaller air passages, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: A. pleura. B. alveoli. C. bronchi. D. capillaries.

B. alveoli.

41. An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: A. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. B. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device. C. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar. D. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes.

B. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

38. Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: A. pink. B. ashen. C. flushed. D. cyanotic.

B. ashen.

27. Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: A. libel. B. assault. C. battery. D. negligence.

B. assault.

35. After opening an unconscious patient's airway, you should: A. deliver two rescue breaths. B. assess for respiratory effort. C. determine if a pulse is present. D. insert an oropharyngeal airway.

B. assess for respiratory effort.

21. To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: A. push the patient from an overhead position if possible. B. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended. C. push from the area of your body between the knees and hips. D. kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level.

B. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended.

83. The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the: A. ventral pedis. B. dorsalis pedis. C. anterior tibial. D. posterior tibial.

B. dorsalis pedis.

21. The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the: A. percentage of red blood cells. B. effectiveness of oxygenation. C. saturation level of venous blood. D. amount of exhaled carbon dioxide.

B. effectiveness of oxygenation.

90. Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to the ___________ and carries oxygen. A. monocyte B. erythrocyte C. leukocyte D. thrombocyte

B. erythrocyte

6. An individual would MOST likely be denied certification as an EMT-Basic if he or she: A. cannot lift at least 200 pounds. B. has had a prior felony conviction. C. does not have an associate's degree. D. has been convicted of a misdemeanor.

B. has had a prior felony conviction

73. While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should: A. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. B. immediately report the incident to your supervisor. C. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. D. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention.

B. immediately report the incident to your supervisor.

29. The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: A. unnecessarily wasting time. B. injury to you or your patient. C. causing patient anxiety or fear. D. confusion among team members.

B. injury to you or your patient.

11. In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: A. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs. B. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. C. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. D. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure.

B. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure.

13. When carrying a patient on a backboard up or down stairs: A. keep your palms facing down. B. keep the head end elevated. C. carry the patient head first. D. keep the foot end elevated.

B. keep the head end elevated.

42. Two EMT-Bs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMT-Bs ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMT-Bs is considered: A. legal and ethical. B. legal but unethical. C. illegal but ethical. D. illegal and unethical.

B. legal but unethical.

22. Continuing education in EMS serves to: A. prove research and statistical findings in prehospital care. B. maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills. C. enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training. D. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

B. maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.

43. At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you identify a patient as an organ donor. When triaging the other patients, you: A. should transport the donor patient before critical patients. B. may have to assign the donor patient a lower triage priority. C. should use a separate ambulance to transport the donor patient. D. must assign the donor the highest priority regardless of injuries.

B. may have to assign the donor patient a lower triage priority.

1. The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline or center of the body is: A. lateral. B. medial. C. midaxillary. D. midclavicular.

B. medial

41. The distal aspect of the tibia forms the: A. lateral condyle. B. medial malleolus. C. Achilles tendon. D. lateral malleolus.

B. medial malleolus.

14. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMT-B personnel to perform emergency medical care is the: A. shift supervisor. B. medical director. C. lead EMT in charge. D. EMS administrator.

B. medical director.

12. Tidal volume is MOST accurately defined as the volume of air that: A. is moved through the lungs in a single minute. B. moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath. C. remains in the lungs following a complete exhalation. D. is forced into the lungs as a result of positive pressure.

B. moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath.

73. The heart muscle is called the: A. epicardium. B. myocardium. C. pericardium. D. endocardium.

B. myocardium.

55. Voluntary muscle becomes paralyzed when: A. insufficient oxygen is carried to the muscle. B. nerve supply is lost through injury to the brain. C. blood supply to the muscle is markedly decreased. D. acidic waste products accumulate within the muscle.

B. nerve supply is lost through injury to the brain.

53. A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: A. nasal cannula. B. nonrebreathing mask. C. bag-valve mask device. D. pocket facemask device.

B. nonrebreathing mask.

13. Typical methods of assessing a patient's breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. listening to breath sounds with a stethoscope. B. observing for nasal flaring during inhalation. C. observing the chest for adequate rise and fall. D. feeling for air movement at the nose and mouth.

B. observing for nasal flaring during inhalation.

64. A 44-year-old construction worker fell approximately 20 feet. He is unconscious and unresponsive with slow, shallow respirations. After completing your rapid assessment and caring for immediately life-threatening conditions, your priority should be to: A. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. B. package the patient and rapidly transport. C. request a paramedic ambulance for backup. D. ask a coworker what caused the patient's fall.

B. package the patient and rapidly transport

66. A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and he is breathing with slow, shallow respirations. The MOST appropriate initial airway management for this patient is to: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. B. perform oropharyngeal suctioning. C. assist his ventilations with a BVM. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

B. perform oropharyngeal suctioning.

37. When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: A. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her head first down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. B. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. C. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. D. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs.

B. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.

71. A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your initial assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. D. select a smaller sized oral airway and attempt to insert it.

B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.

69. You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by: A. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers. B. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support. C. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day. D. allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments.

B. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support

however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: A. thrust the jaw forward. B. seal the mouth and nose. C. ventilate with less pressure. D. thoroughly suction the stoma.

B. seal the mouth and nose.

97. Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated exclusively by the: A. central nervous system. B. somatic nervous system. C. autonomic nervous system. D. involuntary nervous system.

B. somatic nervous system.

91. Worn out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. pancreas.

B. spleen.

46. As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: A. reposition you hands and continue to move the patient. B. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. C. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

B. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.

42. Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes: A. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions. B. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx. C. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter. D. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well-oxygenated.

B. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.

51. When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: A. pulse pressure. B. systolic blood pressure. C. diastolic blood pressure. D. cardiac output pressure.

B. systolic blood pressure.

31. The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient: A. without a spinal injury. B. with a deformed humerus. C. who complains of nausea. D. with forearm lacerations.

B. with a deformed humerus.

11. As an EMT-B, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. the patient's condition. B. your local EMS protocols. C. the national standard of care. D. transport time to the hospital.

B. your local EMS protocols.

33. You have immobilized the spine of an 81-year-old female with a head injury. During transport, you note that she is experiencing signs of intracranial pressure. In addition to reassessing her ABCs and providing the appropriate treatment, you should: A. elevate the foot end of the backboard 6". B. place several layers of blankets on her. C. elevate the head end of the backboard. D. allow her to sit up on the backboard.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1012-1013

34. An elderly male fell and experienced a possible fracture to his left hip. His left leg is flexed and externally rotated. The MOST effective method for splinting his injury is to: A. straighten his leg and fully immobilize his spinal column with a backboard. B. bind his lower extremities together with cravats and place him on the stretcher. C. place a pillow under the injured extremity and secure him to a scoop stretcher. D. carefully straighten his leg, apply a traction splint, and secure him to a backboard.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1013-1014

39. You begin transporting a 60-year-old male with severe chest pain. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is 70 minutes. The patient is receiving 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. You should: A. remove the mask and apply a nasal cannula. B. drive with excessive speed to arrive sooner. C. attach an oxygen humidifier if you have one. D. remove the oxygen until arrival at the hospital.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1030

40. When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck: he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: A. park downhill from the scene. B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. C. position the ambulance upwind. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1037

44. Your unit and a fire department vehicle are responding to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. As you approach an intersection that is highly congested, you should: A. turn off your lights and siren and proceed with safety. B. advise the fire department vehicle to follow you closely. C. use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle. D. ask the fire department vehicle to remain 1000' behind you.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1047

18. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and the other two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: A. begin triage to determine injury severity. B. call medical control for further direction. C. immediately request additional resources. D. request law enforcement for traffic control.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1059-1060

23. As you and your team are removing an unconscious patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has closed deformities to both of her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should: A. realign the deformed extremities before continuing. B. splint the deformities before moving her any further. C. support the injured extremities and continue removal. D. assess distal neurovascular functions in her extremities.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1064

33. You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should: A. transport the critically injured patient to a trauma center. B. direct a police officer to monitor the patients as you transport. C. remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives. D. assign the least injured patient the task of caring for the others.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1079

38. You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unconscious. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? A. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient. B. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver. C. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the hazardous materials team. D. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1087

41. As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: A. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. B. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. C. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. D. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard the number of casualties.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1102-1103

46. Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatments for these patients include: A. amyl nitrate and naloxone. B. activated charcoal and glucose. C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. D. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1110

50. After performing endotracheal intubation on an elderly male in cardiac arrest, you think you hear breath sounds, but also hear gurgling over the epigastrium. You should: A. withdraw the ET tube approximately 1 inch and then reauscultate over the epigastrium. B. attach an end-tidal CO2 detector to the ET tube and observe for the appropriate color change. C. remove the ET tube at once, ventilate with a BVM for 2 to 3 minutes, and reattempt intubation. D. secure the tube with the proper device, continue ventilations, and confirm placement with an esophageal bulb.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1150-1151

45. After intubating a 44-year-old unconscious, apneic male, you place him on the ambulance stretcher and prepare to load him into the ambulance. After he is placed into the ambulance, you should: A. continue ventilations with an automatic ventilator. B. reassess the patient's vital signs and attach an AED. C. reconfirm that the ET tube is still correctly positioned. D. hyperventilate the patient for approximately 30 seconds.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1152

22. Approximately 20 minutes after initiating an IV line of normal saline, your patient complains of generalized itching and develops a generalized rash. These are signs and symptoms of: A. a vasovagal reaction. B. acute air embolism. C. an allergic reaction. D. circulatory overload.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1173-1174

70. A 50-year-old male presents with an altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" 3 years ago, but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive, but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen, you should: A. perform a rapid assessment. B. inquire about his family history. C. prepare for immediate transport. D. perform a detailed physical exam.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 279, 296

75. You are transporting a 49-year-old male with chest pain and an extensive cardiac history when he suddenly loses consciousness. You should: A. quickly attach the AED. B. assess for a carotid pulse. C. perform a head-tilt chin-lift. D. begin rescue breathing at once.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 307

41. While en route to a call for a patient with chest pain, you encounter a bridge that is covered with fast-moving water and is not barricaded off. You should: A. notify dispatch that you are out of service and have another unit respond. B. contact dispatch to have barricades placed and attempt to cross the bridge. C. notify the dispatcher of your delay and take an alternate route to the scene. D. use your ambulance as a barricade to prevent others from crossing the bridge.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 325

39. A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed metered-dose inhaler, you should: A. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. B. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did. C. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. D. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 354-356

35. Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, you note that she has become hypotensive and complains of dizziness. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: A. wait 5 minutes and reassess her BP. B. transport her in a Fowler's position. C. place her supine and elevate her legs. D. assist ventilations with a BVM device.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 355

30. You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female that was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. This patient's presentation is MOST consistent with: A. acute pulmonary edema. B. right-sided heart failure. C. acute pulmonary embolism. D. spontaneous pneumothorax.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 375-376

35. You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. D. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 383-384

76. A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? A. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD. B. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate. C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. D. Continue CPR and transport to the closest appropriate hospital.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 419

71. You are dispatched to a convenience store for a possible cardiac arrest. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two bystanders performing CPR on the patient, a 48-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: A. assess the effectiveness of the bystander's CPR. B. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button. C. have the bystanders stop CPR and assess the patient. D. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 424, 426

44. Law enforcement has summoned you to a nightclub, where a 22-year-old female was found unconscious in an adjacent alley. Your initial assessment reveals that her respirations are rapid and shallow and her pulse is rapid and weak. She is wearing a medical alert bracelet that identifies her as an epileptic. There is an empty bottle of vodka next to the patient. You should: A. place a bite block in her mouth in case she seizes again and transport at once. B. apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, place her on her left side, and transport. C. assist ventilations, perform a rapid exam, and prepare for immediate transport. D. apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and transport her for a blood-alcohol test.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 453-454

49. You receive a call to a residence, where a neighbor has found the resident, a 40-year-old female, semiconscious on her living room floor. During your assessment, you discover a bottle of Dilantin on a nearby table. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient: A. has experienced a stroke. B. is being treated for depression. C. is postictal following a seizure. D. has a very low blood sugar level.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 455

27. The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock includes: A. administering oxygen via a nasal cannula. B. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. C. transporting the patient without delay. D. positioning the patient on his or her side.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 473

29. A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type II diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is responsive to painful stimuli only. You should: A. quickly assess for the presence of a medic-alert tag. B. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. D. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 487

35. A 29-year-old female presents with confusion and disorientation. Her respirations are rapid and shallow and her pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. She is markedly diaphoretic and has an oxygen saturation of 89%. You should: A. transport immediately. B. administer oral glucose. C. provide ventilatory support. D. treat her for hyperglycemia.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 487

34. You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 300 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: A. oxygen. B. glucagon. C. insulin. D. dextrose.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 489

28. You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should: A. monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens. B. crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum. C. request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine. D. administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 507

34. After administering 0.3 mL of epinephrine 1:1,000 to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: A. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mL of epinephrine. B. transport her rapidly as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. C. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. D. consider administering 0.15 mL of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 512

39. A 4-year-old male ingested an unknown quantity of Tylenol. The child's mother states that the ingestion occurred approximately 20 minutes ago. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. After contacting medical control, you should: A. induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac. B. transport the child for definitive care. C. administer up to 25 g of activated charcoal. D. give the child cold milk to absorb the Tylenol.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 527

32. You respond to a local motel for a young female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious but confused. She tells you that the last thing she remembers was drinking beer at a club with her friends the night before. When she awoke, she was in the bed of the motel room. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient: A. is a heroin abuser. B. is acutely intoxicated. C. was given Rohypnol. D. is abusing marijuana.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 530

33. A 3-year-old female ingested several leaves from a plant in the living room. The child's mother is not sure what type of plant it is, stating that she bought it simply because it was pretty. After completing your initial assessment of the child, you should: A. administer 25 g of activated charcoal. B. induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac. C. contact the regional poison control center. D. immediately transport the child to the hospital.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 535-536

58. A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform an initial assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should: A. suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep him warm, and transport at once. B. ventilate with a BVM device, apply a cervical collar, remove his wet clothing, and transport rapidly. C. provide rescue breathing, remove wet clothing, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully. D. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport rapidly.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 548, 562

53. You receive a call to a residence for a "sick patient." Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready and his BP is 90/50 mm Hg. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. perform a rapid medical assessment and look for signs of trauma. B. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 liter of water. C. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 557, 559

21. A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees "aliens" and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: A. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the aliens too. B. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital. C. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries. D. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 587, 591-593

49. You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks' pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the appropriate BSI precautions, you should: A. apply 100% oxygen. B. place her on her left side. C. assess her for crowning. D. transport her immediately.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 606-607

54. You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His APGAR score is: A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 614

55. You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? A. Allow the mother to hold her baby. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Assess the brachial or umbilical pulse. D. Assist ventilations with a BVM device.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 615

35. The driver of a sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has a few small abrasions to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include: A. a focused exam of her forearm. B. transport to a community hospital. C. performing a rapid trauma assessment. D. allowing a friend to drive her to a hospital.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 637

40. Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: A. spinal cord injury. B. airway compromise. C. intracranial bleeding. D. a fracture of the skull.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 644

33. While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. underlying cardiac disease. B. a lacerated coronary artery. C. bruising of the heart muscle. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 645

26. A 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. place the patient on 100% oxygen. C. take appropriate BSI precautions. D. perform a rapid trauma assessment.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 656

31. A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A. an aortic aneurysm. B. acute appendicitis. C. gastrointestinal bleeding. D. intrathoracic hemorrhaging.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 668

23. You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: A. reassess your interventions. B. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. C. perform a detailed physical exam. D. reassess his condition in 15 minutes.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 686

29. A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to: A. form a general impression. B. call for an ALS ambulance. C. adhere to BSI precautions. D. ask bystanders what happened.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 686

27. A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer 100% oxygen and give him epinephrine via subcutaneous injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: A. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. B. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack. C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. D. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 691

41. A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a line drive during a baseball game. He is confused, has a large hematoma to the center of his forehead, and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: A. perform a neurologic exam. B. conduct a rapid assessment. C. administer 100% oxygen. D. apply ice to the hematoma.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 701-702

46. A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: A. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial. B. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. C. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. D. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 705-706

52. A 17-year-old male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation with a gang member. As your partner is applying 100% oxygen, you perform a rapid trauma assessment and find an open chest wound with a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should: A. place a sterile dressing over the wound and apply direct pressure. B. control the bleeding from the wound and prepare to transport at once. C. apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment. D. repeat the initial assessment and direct your partner to assist ventilations.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 708

53. You are dispatched to an industrial plant for a 47-year-old male who was exposed to an unknown chemical. Upon arrival, you find the patient standing outside the plant. He is conscious and alert and is covered with dry lime-colored powder. After taking the appropriate self-protective measures, you should: A. irrigate his body with copious amounts of water. B. remove his clothing and flush his body with water. C. brush the dry chemical from his skin and clothing. D. apply oxygen and then flush his body with water.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 722

59. You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to the arm of a young female after she lacerated it when she fell from her bike. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: A. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one. B. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. C. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. D. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 727

21. A young female was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with active venous bleeding. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A. stabilize the impaled glass in her eye. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. apply direct pressure to her arm wound. D. carefully remove the glass from her eye.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 740, 742-745

19. A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should: A. scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze. B. cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline. C. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital. D. remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 741-742

19. A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: A. use tweezers to try to remove the object. B. remove the peanut with a cotton-tip swab. C. transport her to the emergency department. D. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 766-767

24. A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your rapid trauma assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: A. requesting a paramedic ambulance. B. careful monitoring of her vital signs. C. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. D. quickly immobilizing her spinal column.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 768-769

24. During your rapid trauma assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. As your partner is administering oxygen to the patient, you should: A. request a paramedic to decompress the chest. B. make note of it and continue your assessment. C. stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing. D. reassess the adequacy of the patient's breathing.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 783, 787-788

30. You are transporting a stable patient with a possible pneumothorax. The patient is receiving 100% oxygen and has an oxygen saturation of 95%. During your reassessment, you find that the patient is now confused, hypotensive, and profusely diaphoretic. What is MOST likely causing this patient's deterioration? A. A total collapse of the affected lung B. Hidden bleeding in the thoracic cavity C. Compression of the aorta and vena cava D. Blood accumulation in the pleural space

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 786

24. A 20-year-old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding minimally and appears to be superficial. You should: A. transport only if signs of shock begin to develop. B. carefully probe the wound to determine its depth. C. assume that the arrow injured an internal organ. D. clean the wound and apply a dry, sterile dressing.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 802

28. A football player was struck by another player in the right flank area just below the posterior rib cage. He complains of severe pain and point tenderness to the area. Your assessment reveals that there is a small amount of blood in his underwear. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. external genitalia injury. B. a lacerated liver or spleen. C. blunt injury to the kidney. D. a ruptured urinary bladder.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 809

54. A 70-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor functions are intact. The MOST appropriate method of splinting this injury involves: A. applying a traction splint to realign the deformity. B. applying and fully inflating the antishock garment. C. applying padded board splints to both sides of the leg. D. binding the legs together and elevating them 6" to 8".

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 825, 841

51. During your rapid trauma assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing the rapid trauma assessment, you should: A. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. B. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. C. stabilize the pelvis with the PASG and transport immediately. D. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 829, 856

55. You have applied a zippered air splint to a patient's left arm. During transport, the patient complains of increased numbness and tingling in his left hand. You reassess distal circulation, and note that it remains present. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. elevate the injured arm and reassess distal sensory function. B. inflate the splint with more air until the patient is comfortable. C. assess the amount of air in the splint and let air out as necessary. D. remove the air splint and reimmobilize with padded board splints.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 840, 846

60. A 17-year-old football player collided with another player and has pain to his left clavicular area. He is holding his arm against his chest and refuses to move it. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to the midshaft clavicle. After assessing distal circulation and neurological function, you should: A. perform a detailed physical examination. B. straighten his arm and apply a board splint. C. immobilize the injury with a sling and swathe. D. place a pillow under his arm and apply a sling.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 848-849

67. You are assessing a 27-year-old female who was ejected from her car when it struck a utility pole at a high rate of speed. She is unconscious and has slow, irregular breathing. Her blood pressure is 180/90 mm Hg and her pulse rate is 50 beats/min and bounding. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. immobilization with a short backboard, 100% oxygen, and prompt transport. B. 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, spinal immobilization, and transport. C. spinal immobilization, assisted ventilation with oxygen, and rapid transport. D. hyperventilation at 40 breaths/min, spinal immobilization, and rapid transport.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 880-883

61. A 30-year-old male experienced closed head trauma when he crashed his motorcycle: he was not wearing a helmet. As you approach the patient, you can hear snoring respirations and can see blood draining from his mouth. You should: A. begin ventilatory assistance with a BVM and 100% oxygen. B. immediately suction the patient's mouth and open his airway. C. manually stabilize his head and perform a jaw-thrust maneuver. D. apply 100% oxygen and then perform a rapid trauma assessment.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 882, 888

61. You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: A. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device. B. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance. C. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. D. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 943-945, 954-955

4. To obtain an accurate medical history when assessing an elderly patient, the EMT-B must: A. ask detailed questions about his or her history. B. always obtain medical history data from the family. C. be patient and have effective communication skills. D. contact the patient's physician to obtain information.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1006

9. Because of the complexity of the geriatric patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: A. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. B. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. C. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. D. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1007

10. When determining whether to perform a focused physical exam or a rapid trauma assessment on an injured elderly patient, you should: A. routinely perform a focused exam to minimize time at the scene. B. perform a detailed physical exam prior to initiating any treatment. C. recall that it will take less of an MOI to cause significant injuries. D. focus your assessment just on the area(s) of pain or obvious injury.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1007-1008

16. The MOST common type of spinal injury seen in the elderly population, which may occur from relatively minor trauma, is a: A. burst fracture. B. distraction injury. C. compression fracture. D. vertebral dislocation.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1010

22. When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT-B should: A. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing. B. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack. C. ask her how many pillows she uses when she sleeps. D. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1015

5. The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: A. inside the jump kit. B. near the side or rear door. C. in the driver's compartment. D. on the ambulance stretcher.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1028

10. Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? A. Oral glucose B. Vacuum splint C. Snake bite kit D. Bronchodilator

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1029

16. Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assigning tasks to each member of the response team. B. obtaining additional information from the dispatcher. C. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call. D. fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1036

21. During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: A. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. B. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. D. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1038

27. General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. B. assuming that other drivers will not see you. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1042

28. Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: A. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road. B. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. C. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle. D. they often freeze when they see your lights in the rearview mirror.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1042

33. While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to: A. disregard all traffic control signals. B. drive as fast as the department allows. C. carefully exceed the posted speed limit. D. proceed through red lights without stopping.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1046

34. The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: A. stop signs. B. stop lights. C. intersections. D. railroad crossings.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1047

1. Extrication is MOST accurately defined as: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. C. removal from a dangerous situation or position. D. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1059

7. When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should consider all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the position of the crashed vehicle. B. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers. C. the make and model of the vehicle. D. the possibility of vehicle instability.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1062

12. When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: A. remove him or her using a short backboard. B. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C. secure any injured extremities to one another. D. cease c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1064

4. The _______ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. A. triage B. support C. staging D. transportation

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1076

33. Blind nasotracheal intubation should ONLY be performed on patients who: A. are unconscious and apneic. B. have damaged vocal cords. C. are breathing spontaneously. D. have experienced head trauma.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1147

10. Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when the EMT-B is determining whether a particular situation is a mass-casualty incident? A. What will happen if there are more than two patients that require emergency care? B. How long will it take for additional resources to arrive at the scene once requested? C. How many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care? D. How many seriously injured patients can be effectively cared for in your ambulance?

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1079

12. Normally, no more than two patients are placed in the same ambulance: however, if severe weather conditions exist, a _________ patient may be transported in the passenger seat of the ambulance. A. red-tagged B. black-tagged C. green-tagged D. yellow-tagged

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1082

18. After a mass-casualty situation has ended, all personnel who were involved should be: A. thoroughly decontaminated, regardless of the type of incident. B. required to complete detailed run forms for all of the patients. C. debriefed and evaluated to determine if they need assistance. D. quickly evaluated for obvious injuries and then sent home.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1084

20. Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials incident involving several patients, you should: A. retrieve all critical patients. B. rope off the entire perimeter. C. carefully assess the situation. D. divert traffic away from the scene.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1085

26. After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazardous materials team and then: A. don BSI equipment before gaining access to any patients. B. not allow anyone within 25' to 50' of the incident scene. C. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others. D. identify the chemical using the emergency response book.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1088

3. Which of the following terrorist groups poses the LEAST threat to a person's physical safety? A. Doomsday cults B. Single-issue groups C. Technology terrorists D. Extremist political groups

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1100-1101

9. In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: A. the type of call. B. the location type. C. weather conditions. D. pre-incident indicators.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1103

14. Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or WMD incident is MOST important because: A. bystanders may destroy the evidence. B. weather conditions may change quickly. C. a secondary explosive device may detonate. D. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1106

19. Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: A. vaccine. B. antibiotic. C. pesticide. D. detergent.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

24. Unlike a bacterial agent, viral agents: A. are far less infectious. B. can be vaccinated against. C. are usually not treatable. D. do not replicate in the body.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1113

29. Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is MOST correct? A. Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates. B. Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate. C. Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form. D. There is presently no vaccine against anthrax.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1115

30. Most cases of anthrax begin with: A. signs of shock. B. pulmonary edema. C. flu-like symptoms. D. respiratory distress.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1116

35. Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: A. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. B. chemical and biological weapons are stockpiled. C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. D. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

1. Advanced airway management techniques are performed ONLY after: A. the patient is assessed as being apneic. B. the patient has been delivered to the hospital. C. basic airway techniques have been completed. D. the upper airway has been thoroughly suctioned.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1134, 1144

5. To determine the proper size nasogastric tube, you should measure from the: A. corner of the nose, around the ear, to the distal tip of the xiphoid process. B. tip of the nose, around the ear, to the epigastric area below the xiphoid process. C. tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the epigastric area below the xiphoid process. D. base of the nose, around the ear, to the area between the xiphoid and umbilicus.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1135

8. The Sellick maneuver is performed by applying pressure to the: A. tracheal rings. B. thyroid cartilage. C. cricoid cartilage. D. cricothyroid membrane.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1135-1137

15. A lighted stylet is used to: A. improve visualization in the dark. B. assist EMTs who have poor vision. C. perform blind endotracheal intubation. D. provide direct esophageal visualization.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1138, 1140

16. When an ET tube is placed in an adult patient, the cm marking at the teeth is usually around: A. 15 cm. B. 20 cm. C. 22 cm. D. 25 cm.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1141

18. The proper size ET tube for the average size adult male ranges from: A. 6.0-7.5 mm. B. 6.5-8.0 mm. C. 7.5-8.5 mm. D. 8.0-9.0 mm.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1141

22. The MOST appropriate size ET tube for a 6-year-old child is: A. 4.5 mm. B. 5.0 mm. C. 5.5 mm. D. 6.0 mm.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1141

28. The MOST appropriate method of inserting a laryngoscope blade into the patient's mouth to visualize the vocal cords is to: A. insert the blade in the left side of the mouth, sweep the tongue to the left, and pry. B. insert the blade in the right side of the mouth, sweep the tongue to the left, and pry. C. insert the blade in the right side of the mouth, sweep the tongue to the left, and lift. D. use the tongue-jaw lift maneuver, insert the blade in the center of the mouth, and lift.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1145, 1149

39. Which of the following statements regarding the laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is MOST correct? A. You must inflate the mask on the device prior to inserting it. B. The LMA provides greater airway protection than an ET tube. C. The device is inserted into the hypopharynx until resistance is felt. D. You should hear epigastric sounds when the LMA is correctly inserted.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1156-1158

4. Once an IV solution is removed from its protective wrap, it must be used within: A. 12 hours. B. 18 hours. C. 24 hours. D. 36 hours.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1167

7. After sliding the piercing spike of the administration set into the IV bag port, you should next: A. ensure that the drip chamber is only half filled. B. adjust the drip chamber until fluid slowly drains. C. prime the line and flush the air out of the tubing. D. remove the protective cap and allow air to escape.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1168-1169

17. If an IV line is found to be infiltrated, the ALS provider must: A. apply a chemical heat pack to the IV site. B. slow the flow rate down to keep the vein open. C. remove the catheter and apply direct pressure. D. immediately change the IV administration set.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1172

20. Which of the following statements regarding IV therapy in geriatric patients is MOST correct? A. Intraosseous infusions are more effective in elderly patients. B. Fluid overload occurs less commonly in the geriatric patient. C. Elderly patients often have fragile skin that is easily damaged. D. Large-bore IV catheters should be used in all geriatric patients.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1175-1176

4. When an electrical impulse wave moves toward an electrode: A. the ECG records a negative wave. B. the patient's heart rate decreases. C. the ECG records an upward wave. D. the cardiac rhythm will be irregular.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184

9. A P wave is created when: A. the heart is in its resting phase. B. the SA node generates an impulse. C. electricity travels through the atria. D. ventricular depolarization is complete.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185-1186

14. Increased parasympathetic nervous system stimulation results in: A. short P-R intervals. B. wide QRS complexes. C. a decreased heart rate. D. an irregular rhythm.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188

15. The maximum heart rate for a 30-year-old male should be: A. 170 beats per minute. B. 180 beats per minute. C. 190 beats per minute. D. 200 beats per minute.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188

17. A rapid, chaotic rhythm that is completely disorganized is called: A. asystole. B. atrial fibrillation. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. pulseless electrical activity.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188-1190

20. When assessing a patient's cardiac rhythm, it is MOST important to: A. correctly interpret the rhythm. B. identify signs of cardiac ischemia. C. focus your treatment on the patient. D. quickly defibrillate if asystole is present.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1191

5. Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: A. a physician arrives at the scene. B. the number of patients is known. C. all the patients have been triaged. D. area hospitals have been notified.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 268

11. The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: A. most life-threatening condition that you discover. B. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem. C. most serious thing the patient is concerned about. D. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 272

17. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered mental status? A. Acute stroke B. Hypoxemia C. Acute anxiety D. Hypoglycemia

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 275

24. Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? A. Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis B. Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SaO2 C. Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope D. Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 276-277

26. In what position should you place an uninjured patient with difficulty breathing? A. Shock position B. Supine position C. Fowler's position D. Recumbent position

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 277

28. If a pulse cannot be palpated at the radial artery, you should: A. attach an AED at once. B. immediately begin CPR. C. assess the carotid pulse. D. elevate the arm 6" to 12".

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 277

41. The goal of the rapid physical exam is to: A. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. B. assess only the parts of the body that are injured. C. locate injuries not found in the initial assessment. D. definitively rule out significant internal injuries.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 284

48. Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? A. Multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall. B. A marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing. C. Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another area falls. D. One side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 289

49. When assessing a trauma patient's pelvis, you should: A. do so with the patient lying in a recumbent position. B. palpate the pelvis only if the patient complains of pain. C. gently press inward and downward on the pelvic bones. D. palpate the pelvic bones using a slight rocking motion.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 290

54. Following the initial assessment, how should you proceed with your assessment of a stable patient who has not experienced a significant mechanism of injury? A. Ongoing assessment B. Detailed physical exam C. Focused physical exam D. Rapid trauma assessment

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 293

19. Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? A. Cephalic B. Axillary C. Saphenous D. Subclavian

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 405

59. Which of the following actions would you be LEAST likely to perform during the detailed physical exam? A. Head-to-toe assessment B. Requesting ALS backup C. Full spinal immobilization D. Modifications in treatment

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 299

64. When performing an ongoing assessment, you should first: A. obtain updated vital signs. B. reassess your interventions. C. repeat the initial assessment. D. confirm medical history findings.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 307

18. Which of the following drugs is NOT carried on the ambulance? A. Oxygen B. Oral glucose C. Nitroglycerin C. Activated charcoal

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 312-314 (ECTSI)

5. A _________ is able to receive low-power signals and then rebroadcast them with higher power. A. duplex B. scanner C. repeater D. decoder

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 317-318

11. Which of the following charges can be brought against you if you injure the reputation of a patient by making derogatory remarks? A. Libel B. Assault C. Slander D. Negligence

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 322

17. General guidelines for effective radio communication include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. limiting your radio transmission to 30 seconds. B. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. D. holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 325

22. Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. B. important medical history not previously given. C. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. D. the patient's response to treatment you provided.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 326-327

28. Which of the following statements regarding communications with a child is MOST correct? A. Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. B. Give the child minimal information to avoid scaring them. C. Standing over a child often increases their level of anxiety. D. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 330

34. Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is MOST correct? A. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment. B. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented. C. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport. D. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 336

35. Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities? A. Spousal abuse B. Animal bites C. Cardiac arrest D. Gunshot wounds

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 336

8. The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as: A. the study of drugs that are produced illegally. B. the study of how medications affect the brain. C. the study of drugs and their actions on the body. D. the study of drug excretion from the human body.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 344

16. Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct? A. MDIs are contraindicated for patients with asthma or emphysema. B. MDIs are most commonly used by patients with cardiovascular disease. C. An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used. D. Shaking an MDI prior to use will cause deactivation of the medication.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 347-348

24. Activated charcoal is frequently suspended in Sorbitol, a complex sugar that: A. significantly slows the process of digestion. B. binds to any chemicals that are in the stomach. C. facilitates movement through the digestive system. D. disguises the unpleasant taste of the activated charcoal.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 350

27. Epinephrine may be administered by the EMT-B through all of the following routes, EXCEPT: A. IM. B. SC. C. IV. D. MDI.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 351-354

30. Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? A. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. B. The epinephrine auto-injector is carried on an EMT-B ambulance. C. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug. D. EMT-Bs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 352

6. In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of: A. increased oxygen levels. B. decreased oxygen levels. C. increased carbon dioxide levels. D. decreased carbon dioxide levels.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 366-367

5. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 367

13. Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of: A. right-sided heart failure. B. severe hyperventilation. C. toxic chemical inhalation. D. an upper airway infection.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 369, 371

20. A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a unilaterally collapsed lung. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. fluid accumulation outside the lung. D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 374

25. Albuterol is a generic name for: A. Alupent. B. Atrovent. C. Proventil. D. Singulair.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 386

5. The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it: A. pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated. B. uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart. C. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. D. receives blood directly from the systemic circulation.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 402

11. The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: A. iliac arteries. B. jugular arteries. C. carotid arteries. D. subclavian arteries.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 403

15. Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? A. Diffuse urticaria B. Severe hypotension C. Upper airway swelling D. Systemic vasodilation

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 504

16. Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? A. Adrenaline B. Epinephrine C. Diphenhydramine D. Acetaminophen

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 505

22. When using an auto-injector to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the: A. medial part of the buttocks. B. lateral portion of the arm. C. lateral portion of the thigh. D. medial portion of the thigh.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 508-509

12. Syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended to treat patients who have ingested a poisonous substance because it: A. has been linked to hypotension. B. does not effectively induce vomiting. C. may result in aspiration of vomitus. D. has toxic effects on the myocardium.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 522

17. The poison control center will be able to provide you with the MOST information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if they: A. know the location of the closest hospital. B. are aware of the patient's age and gender. C. are aware of the substance that is involved. D. know why the patient overdosed on the drug.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 526

24. Activated charcoal administration is contraindicated in patients who have ingested: A. ibuprofen. B. acetaminophen. C. acids or alkalis. D. steroid drugs.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 527

27. Delirium tremens (DTs) is a syndrome associated with withdrawal from: A. cocaine. B. opioids. C. alcohol. D. sedatives.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 529

5. The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body's surface, is called: A. radiation. B. conduction. C. convection. D. evaporation.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 545

9. Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia? A. Hypoperfusion B. Severe infection C. Hyperglycemia D. Spinal cord injury

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 546

14. To assess a patient's general temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the: A. neck. B. chest. C. abdomen. D. forehead.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 546-548

15. When assessing a hypothermic patient, you should palpate for a carotid pulse for approximately __________ seconds before determining that he or she is pulseless. A. 10 to 20 B. 20 to 30 C. 30 to 45 D. 60 to 90

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 548

21. A frostbitten foot can be identified by the presence of: A. gross deformity. B. soft, smooth skin. C. mottling and blisters. D. blanching of the skin.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 552

22. The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: A. respiration and bradycardia. B. perspiration and tachycardia. C. sweating and vessel dilation. D. hyperventilation and tachycardia.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 553

27. Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they: A. have relatively smaller heads. B. have less body fat. C. exhibit poor thermoregulation. D. have smaller body surface areas.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 554

32. Signs of late heatstroke include: A. hot, moist skin. B. nausea and vomiting. C. a weak, rapid pulse. D. a change in behavior.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 557

37. The EMT-B must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: A. an air embolism. B. alcohol intoxication. C. possible spinal injury. D. cold water immersion.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 562

43. Breath-holding syncope is caused by a decreased stimulus to breathe and occurs when: A. a swimmer breathes shallowly before entering the water. B. a diver holds his or her breath during a staged ascent. C. a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water. D. a diver holds his or her breath for a long period of time.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 567

49. All of the following snakes are pit vipers, EXCEPT for the: A. copperhead. B. rattlesnake. C. coral snake. D. cottonmouth.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 571-572

5. Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder? A. Head trauma B. Drug ingestion C. Schizophrenia D. Alzheimer's disease

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 586

10. The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: A. take vital signs. B. restrain the patient. C. ensure your safety. D. obtain proper consent.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 586-587

15. It is MOST important for the EMT-B to remember that suicidal patients may: A. inject illicit drugs. B. be self-destructive. C. be homicidal as well. D. have a definitive plan.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 591

5. The umbilical cord: A. separates from the placenta shortly after birth. B. carries blood away from the baby via the artery. C. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein. D. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 601

9. Which of the following occurs during true labor? A. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity. B. The uterus becomes very soft and movable. C. Uterine contractions become more regular. D. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 602

15. Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as: A. high levels of protein in the patient's urine. B. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy. C. seizures that result from severe hypertension. D. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 603

16. The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is: A. massive brain damage secondary to a prolonged seizure. B. unrecognized or untreated supine hypotensive syndrome. C. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. D. blunt trauma to the abdomen during a motor-vehicle crash.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 603

21. A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: A. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. B. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume. D. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 604

22. All of the following questions are pertinent to ask a mother when determining whether or not her baby will deliver within the next few minutes, EXCEPT: A. "When are you due?" B. "Is this your first baby?" C. "Have you had a sonogram?" D. "Do you feel the urge to push?"

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 606-607

27. When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to: A. hold her breath. B. push for 30 seconds. C. take quick short breaths. D. rest and breathe deeply.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 611

32. Which of the following is NOT considered an obstetrical emergency? A. Failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes B. Significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta C. Return of contractions following delivery of the baby D. More than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 613

33. A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _____ seconds following birth. A. 3 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 15 to 20 D. 30 to 60

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 614

40. Which of the following statements regarding twins is MOST correct? A. Twins are typically larger than single infants. B. Identical twins are typically of different gender. C. Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other. D. Fraternal twins have two cords coming from one placenta.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 620

44. Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant that has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should: A. begin full resuscitation and transport. B. report the case to the medical examiner. C. provide emotional support to the mother. D. dry the infant off to stimulate breathing.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 621-622

1. Index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. the way in which traumatic injuries occur. B. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. C. concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. D. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 632

5. When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. doubles. B. triples. C. quadruples. D. is not affected.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 632

11. With regard to a motor-vehicle collision, which of the following statements regarding collision #1 is MOST correct? A. It provides the least amount of information about the mechanism of injury. B. It has a direct effect on patient care because of the obvious vehicular damage. C. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult. D. It occurs when the unrestrained occupant collides with the interior of the vehicle.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 634-635

16. Airbags are designed to: A. prevent a second collision inside the car. B. be used with or without a shoulder harness. C. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries. D. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 638

21. Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the: A. thoracic and sacral spine. B. lumbar and coccygeal spine. C. thoracic and lumbar spine. D. lumbar and sacral spine.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 639

25. Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant fall? A. 4'8" tall patient who fell 13 feet B. 5'0" tall patient who fell 13 feet C. 4'6" tall patient who fell 13 feet D. 5'9" tall patient who fell 14 feet

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 641

29. Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because: A. the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown. B. the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet. C. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body. D. exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 643

5. As red blood cells begin to clump together to form a clot, __________ reinforces the clumped red blood cells. A. fibrin B. plasma C. fibrinogen D. plasminogen

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 653

13. The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to: A. his or her baseline BP. B. the part of the body injured. C. how rapidly he or she bleeds. D. how fast his or her heart beats.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 655

18. External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because: A. veins carry deoxygenated blood. B. veins hold smaller blood volume. C. veins are under a lower pressure. D. blood typically oozes from a vein.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 655

20. The pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) would MOST likely be effective in: A. forcing blood from the lungs of a patient with pulmonary edema. B. maintaining adequate perfusion to the fetus during the third trimester. C. controlling severe external bleeding associated with pelvic fractures. D. controlling severe intrathoracic bleeding caused by penetrating trauma.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 661-662

6. Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A. septic shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. cardiogenic shock. D. anaphylactic shock.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 681

11. Pneumothorax is MOST accurately defined as: A. accumulation of air between the lungs. B. blood collection within the lung tissue. C. accumulation of air in the pleural space. D. blood collection within the pleural space.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 784

11. Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? A. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection C. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation D. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 682

14. Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: A. vasovagal shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. psychogenic shock. D. neurologic shock.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 683

20. Hypotension in a child with blunt or penetrating trauma is particularly significant because: A. it typically develops earlier in children than it does in adults. B. the most likely cause of the hypotension is respiratory failure. C. it often indicates the loss of half of his or her blood volume. D. most children with hypotension die in the prehospital setting.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 684

5. Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? A. Scalp B. Back C. Ears D. Soles of the feet

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 698

7. Functions of the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. maintenance of water balance. B. regulation of body temperature. C. the production of key antibodies. D. sending information to the brain.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 699

12. When assessing a patient with a closed soft tissue injury, it is MOST important to: A. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture. B. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury. C. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. D. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 701

14. A laceration: A. is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. B. is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel. C. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma. D. rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 705

18. In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? A. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest. B. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen. C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back. D. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 713

28. Which of the following is considered a critical burn in a 60-year-old patient? A. Superficial burns to 30% of the body surface area B. Full-thickness burns to 1% of the body surface area C. Partial-thickness burns to 20% of the body surface area D. Second-degree burns covering 10% of the body surface area

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 715

29. When assessing the severity of a patient's burn(s), you should routinely consider all of the following factors, EXCEPT: A. the area(s) burned. B. the age of the patient. C. known drug allergies. D. past medical history.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 715

24. Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: A. blister formation protects the burn. B. he or she is generally not conscious. C. the nerve endings have been destroyed. D. subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 716

34. With regard to the pediatric rule of nines, the: A. head is proportionately smaller than an adult's. B. thorax is proportionately larger than an adult's. C. legs are proportionately smaller than an adult's. D. arms are proportionately larger than an adult's.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 718

39. In contrast to animal bites, the bite of a human: A. is usually less severe because the human mouth is cleaner. B. typically results in a minor infection that is slow-spreading. C. carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses. D. is associated with a much higher incidence of rabies infection.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 726

5. The white portion of the eye is called the: A. globe. B. retina. C. sclera. D. cornea.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 736

10. The light-sensitive area of the eye where images are projected is called the: A. iris. B. lens. C. retina. D. conjunctiva.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 737

14. Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of a closed head injury? A. One pupil larger in size than the other pupil B. Failure of the eyes to move in the same direction C. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light D. Failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 748

1. The lower jaw bone is called the: A. zygoma. B. maxilla. C. mandible. D. mastoid.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 758

4. The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the: A. incus. B. pinna. C. tragus. D. stapes.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 758

9. When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT-B must: A. closely assess the patient's airway. B. consider the mechanism of injury. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. manually stabilize the patient's head.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 761

14. Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: A. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. B. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point. C. direct pressure using dry sterile dressings. D. ice packs and elevating the patient's head.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 764

5. The ________ nerves control the diaphragm. A. vagus B. costal C. phrenic D. intercostal

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 779

10. Asymmetry of the chest wall occurs when: A. the entire chest wall fails to move due to nerve damage. B. a segment of fractured ribs bulges out during exhalation. C. one side of the chest wall does not expand during inhalation. D. movement of both sides of the chest wall is extremely shallow.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 782

17. Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that: A. at least half of one lung has completely collapsed. B. your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade. C. air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung. D. blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 787

5. The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A. is always accompanied by hypotension. B. indicates a state of decompensated shock. C. should be assumed to be a sign of shock. D. is most commonly caused by severe pain.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 800

13. Airbags, in conjunction with properly worn seatbelts, are of MOST benefit when a person is involved in a: A. rollover crash. B. lateral collision. C. head-on crash. D. rear-end collision.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 801

18. Which of the following organs is at MOST risk for injury as the result of a pelvic fracture? A. Uterus B. Fallopian tubes C. Urinary bladder D. Liver or spleen

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 809-810

4. Smooth muscle is found in all of the following organs, EXCEPT for the: A. esophagus. B. blood vessels. C. myocardium. D. large intestine.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 820-821

18. A/an __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. A. greenstick B. diaphyseal C. epiphyseal D. metaphyseal

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 825

21. Crepitus and false motion are: A. indicators of a severe sprain. B. only seen with open fractures. C. positive indicators of a fracture. D. most common with dislocations.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 827

27. Assessing a person's neurovascular status following a musculoskeletal injury includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assessing motor function. B. assessing sensory function. C. evaluating proximal pulses. D. determining capillary refill.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 832-833

34. In which of the following situations should the EMT-B splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 839

35. Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: A. hip. B. pelvis. C. femur. D. humerus.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 841

40. Which of the following statements regarding shoulder dislocations is MOST correct? A. Posterior dislocations are most common. B. They are caused by forced arm adduction. C. Most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly. D. It involves the acromion process and humerus.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 850

44. Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? A. Hip B. Femur C. Pelvis D. Humerus

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 856

45. Bilateral femur fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 4,000

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 859

3. Coordination of body movement is controlled by the: A. medulla. B. cerebrum. C. cerebellum. D. brain stem.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 872

13. The body's functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the __________ nervous system. A. sensory B. somatic C. autonomic D. voluntary

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 875

15. The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: A. insulin. B. thyroxine. C. epinephrine. D. aldosterone.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 876

20. The cervical spine is composed of ___ vertebrae. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 877

21. Lacerations to the scalp: A. bleed minimally because the scalp has few vessels. B. uncommonly cause hypovolemic shock in children. C. may be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries. D. are most commonly associated with skull fractures.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 877-878

26. In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: A. does not cause pressure within the skull. B. results from a laceration to the brain tissue. C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. D. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 879

35. Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. B. lateral immobilization has been applied. C. it causes a problem managing the ABCs. D. sensory and motor functions remain intact.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 882

38. Assessing an unconscious trauma patient's airway begins by: A. performing a jaw-thrust maneuver. B. carefully applying a cervical collar. C. manually stabilizing his or her head. D. thoroughly suctioning the oropharynx.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 882

44. When controlling bleeding from a scalp laceration with a suspected underlying skull fracture, you should: A. elevate the patient's head and apply an ice pack. B. apply manual pressure and avoid applying a bandage. C. avoid excessive pressure when applying the bandage. D. apply firm compression for no longer than 5 minutes.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 886

49. The MOST important treatment for patients with a head injury, regardless of severity, is to: A. immobilize the spine. B. administer 100% oxygen. C. maintain airway patency. D. transport to a trauma center.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 890

55. When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply an extrication collar: A. after the torso has been adequately secured. B. after moving the patient to a long backboard. C. after assessing distal neurovascular functions. D. before manually stabilizing the patient's head.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 894-895

59. Which of the following statements regarding helmet removal is MOST correct? A. Helmets should be removed if your transport time will be prolonged. B. Helmets should never be removed by EMTs in the prehospital setting. C. Padding should be placed under the occiput as the helmet is removed. D. Football helmets can be effectively and safely removed by one person.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 900-904

60. After removing a motorcycle helmet, you should: A. place bulky padding behind the patient's neck to maintain alignment. B. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and secure the torso straps. C. maintain manual stabilization of the head and apply a cervical collar. D. gently allow the patient's head to extend until it contacts the ground.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 903

1. Which of the following statements regarding a pediatric patient's anatomy is correct? A. The tracheal rings of a child are more rigid than an adult's. B. A child's tongue is proportionately smaller than an adult's. C. Children have a larger, rounder occiput compared to adults. D. The child's epiglottis is less floppy and smaller than an adult's.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 917

3. Pale skin in a child indicates that the: A. child is in severe decompensated shock. B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. C. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. D. child's core body temperature is elevated.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 917

7. The primary mechanism that a child's body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion is: A. peripheral vasoconstriction. B. increased cardiac contraction. C. an increase in heart rate. D. increased respiratory depth.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 917

13. When caring for an ill 5-year-old male, you should: A. not expect him to be able to identify areas of pain when asked. B. gain his trust by explaining that a painful procedure will not hurt. C. avoid separating him from his parents or caregivers when possible. D. defer painful procedures, even if the child is clinically unstable.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 918, 921

14. The MOST common cause of dehydration in children is: A. high fever. B. internal blood loss. C. vomiting and diarrhea. D. refusal to drink fluids.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 921

20. When caring for a child with suspected meningitis, it is MOST important for the EMT-B to: A. give 100% oxygen. B. transport to the hospital. C. adhere to BSI precautions. D. assist ventilations if needed.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 922

25. When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence? A. What time did the ingestion occur? B. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms? C. Why did your child ingest the poison? D. Do you know what substance was ingested?

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 924

26. Which of the following statements regarding pediatric trauma is MOST correct? A. Children are less likely than adults to be struck by a car. B. The child's head is less frequently injured than an adult's. C. Children are more likely to experience diving-related injuries. D. Inexperience and poor judgment are rare causes of pediatric trauma.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 924

31. Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because: A. the growth plate is commonly injured. B. their bones are more brittle than an adult's. C. their bones bend more easily than an adult's. D. twisting injuries are more common in children.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 926

36. Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? A. Evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene B. Burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution C. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver D. An unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 927-928

42. Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is MOST correct? A. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. B. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. C. Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months of age. D. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 930

43. Risk factors for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. mother is younger than 20 years of age. B. low weight of the baby at the time of birth. C. babies who were put to sleep on their back. D. mother smoked cigarettes during pregnancy.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 930

11. Signs of impending respiratory arrest in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. bradypnea. B. bradycardia. C. nasal flaring. D. weak retractions.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 946

12. When assessing the heart rate of a 6-month-old infant, you should palpate the brachial or ________ artery. A. radial B. carotid C. femoral D. popliteal

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 946

17. The purpose of the transition phase is to: A. rapidly determine if immediate transport to the hospital is indicated. B. facilitate a smooth transfer of care from the EMT-B to the hospital staff. C. allow the infant or child to become familiar with you and your equipment. D. move from the initial assessment into a more detailed physical examination.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 947

20. A detailed physical exam should be performed, if possible, when an infant or child: A. requires a lengthy transport time. B. presents with respiratory distress. C. has experienced a significant MOI. D. is transported without his or her parents.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 949-950

25. If a nasopharyngeal airway is too long, it may: A. result in tachycardia. B. push the tongue anteriorly. C. stimulate the vagus nerve. D. become obstructed by mucus.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 952

27. When assessing an infant's ventilation status, you should: A. assess rise and fall of his or her chest. B. rule out hypoxia if cyanosis is absent. C. observe the abdomen for rise and fall. D. give oxygen if the SaO2 is less than 90%.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 954

30. Which of the following children would benefit the LEAST from a nonrebreathing mask? A. Conscious 4-year-old male with adequate tidal volume B. Responsive 6-year-old male who responds appropriately C. Unresponsive 5-year-old male with shallow respirations D. Semiconscious 7-year-old female with normal ventilation

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 955-956

36. Signs of a severe upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include: A. pink, dry skin. B. crying and anxiety. C. an ineffective cough. D. mild respiratory distress.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 959

38. Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. suctioning the upper airway. B. thorough drying with a towel. C. positive-pressure ventilations. D. some form of tactile stimulation.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 963

43. In contrast to adults, deterioration to cardiac arrest in infants and children is usually associated with: A. irritability of the left ventricle. B. a sudden ventricular arrhythmia. C. severe hypoxia and bradycardia. D. acute hypoxia and tachycardia.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 970

55. Early signs of respiratory distress in the child include: A. cyanosis. B. bradycardia. C. restlessness. D. decreased LOC.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 975-976

1. General communication techniques with the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. being aware of how you present yourself. B. not assuming he or she knows who you are. C. speaking loudly and distinctly to the patient. D. looking directly at the patient when speaking.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 986

7. Findings during the social assessment of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. interaction with others. B. daily activity assistance. C. medications are outdated. D. delays in obtaining meals.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 987-988

8. Leading causes of death in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. trauma. B. diabetes. C. senile dementia. D. pulmonary disease.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 988

14. Elderly patients may present with lower than normal pulse oximetry readings because: A. red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate. B. most elderly patients have an obstructive pulmonary disease. C. sensitivity of the body's chemoreceptors decreases with age. D. the percentage of hemoglobin in the blood decreases by 50%.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 989

19. Osteoporosis is MOST accurately defined as: A. increased flexibility of bone mass. B. decreased bone marrow production. C. a decrease in the density of a bone. D. an abnormality near the growth plate.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 990, 992

24. Common causes of syncope in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. heart attack. B. tachycardia. C. depression. D. vasodilation.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 992-993

25. An abdominal aortic aneurysm: A. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. D. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 992-993

30. Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. chronic medical conditions. B. prescription medication use. C. an acute onset of dementia. D. alcohol abuse and dependence.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 994-995

35. Which of the following is NOT a reason why the exact extent and prevalence of elder abuse is unknown? A. It has been largely hidden from society. B. The definitions of abuse and neglect vary. C. Human resource agencies fail to investigate. D. Victims of elder abuse are hesitant to report it.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 996

31. Where should you evaluate skin color in patients with deeply pigmented skin? A. Lips B. Behind the ear C. Oral mucosa D. Back of the hand

C Question type: General Knowledge Page: 278

29. While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates: A. rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues. B. a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli. C. constriction of the bronchioles in the lungs. D. enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs.

C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 505

11. Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: A. flexing. B. referring. C. guarding. D. withdrawing.

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 804-805

8. What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? A. Central B. Sensory C. Somatic D. Autonomic

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 875

49. Blood loss in a child exceeding _____ of his or her total blood volume significantly increases the risk of shock. A. 5% B. 15% C. 25% D. 35%

C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 977

5. Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? A. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?" B. "How long have you had your chest pain?" C. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?" D. "When was the last time that you ate a meal?"

C. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?"

28. An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between: A. 8 and 15 breaths/min. B. 10 and 18 breaths/min. C. 12 and 20 breaths/min. D. 16 and 24 breaths/min.

C. 12 and 20 breaths/min.

19. When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ______ in front of your torso. A. 5" to 10" B. 10" to 15" C. 15" to 20" D. 20" to 30"

C. 15" to 20"

44. When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: A. 100 mm Hg. B. 200 mm Hg. C. 300 mm Hg. D. 400 mm Hg.

C. 300 mm Hg.

60. Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

C. 5

57. With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ____% oxygen. A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100

C. 90

17. Which of the following statements regarding a pediatric patient's breathing is correct? A. Chest rise in an infant or small child is more marked than in an adult. B. The sniffing position is an atypical sign of pediatric labored breathing. C. Abdominal movement is more prominent in a child than it is in an adult. D. It is easy to determine effective breathing by observing a child's chest.

C. Abdominal movement is more prominent in a child than it is in an adult.

63. Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-valve mask (BVM) device is correct? A. BVM ventilations should be delivered over 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person. B. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a BVM. C. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT-B is operating the BVM device. D. The BVM device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.

C. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT-B is operating the BVM device.

72. Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct? A. Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume. B. Agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops. C. Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted. D. Agonal respirations are characterized by fast irregular breaths.

C. Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted.

68. A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and is producing copious bloody secretions from his mouth. How should you manage his airway? A. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations. C. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. D. Provide continuous ventilations with a BVM device to minimize tissue hypoxia.

C. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.

26. Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? A. Cardiac arrest B. Drug overdose C. Attempted suicide D. Accidental knife wound

C. Attempted suicide

2. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A. Pharynx B. Epiglottis C. Bronchus D. Oropharynx

C. Bronchus

29. You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death? A. Absence of a pulse B. Profound cyanosis C. Dependent lividity D. Absent breath sounds

C. Dependent lividity

71. Your partner, a veteran EMT-B who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? A. Remain quiet and simply request another partner. B. Report the incident to your EMS medical director. C. Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. D. Tell your partner that he must seek professional help.

C. Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor

8. Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? A. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation B. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation C. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation D. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation

C. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

109. Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? A. Skeletal B. Nervous C. Endocrine D. Reproductive

C. Endocrine

74. A patient with a persistent cough informs an EMT-B that he has tested positive for HIV. On the basis of this information, the EMT-B refuses to treat the patient. Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation? A. Medically prudent B. Legally acceptable C. Ethically unacceptable D. Reasonable and justifiable

C. Ethically unacceptable

16. You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. What type of consent is her agreement considered? A. Implied B. Informed C. Expressed D. Minor's

C. Expressed

17. A patient in a semireclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the _____________ position: A. prone B. supine C. Fowler's D. recovery

C. Fowler's

49. An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? A. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher. B. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps. C. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. D. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding.

C. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.

10. Which of the following MOST accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique? A. Two at the head, two at the feet, and a fifth EMT-B balancing the torso B. One at the head, two at the feet, and a fourth EMT-B balancing the torso C. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient's torso D. Two at the head, one at the feet, and one on the left side of the patient's torso

C. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient's torso

55. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause the pupils to remain significantly constricted? A. Severe cerebral hypoxia B. Intracranial hemorrhaging C. Overdose of an opiate drug D. Oculomotor nerve pressure

C. Overdose of an opiate drug

52. Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? A. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. B. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.

C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.

27. Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? A. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. B. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. D. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.

C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.

11. In addition to blood pressure, pulse, and respirations, which of the following should also be assessed when evaluating a patient's vital signs? A. Deep tendon reflexes B. Core body temperature C. Pupillary reaction to light D. Capillary refill in adults

C. Pupillary reaction to light

25. Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move? A. Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus B. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle C. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock D. Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient

C. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

52. Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? A. Blood vessels B. Urinary system C. Skeletal system D. Gastrointestinal tract

C. Skeletal system

2. EMT-Basic training in nearly every state follows or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. National Registry of EMTs. B. individual state's EMS protocols. C. U.S. Department of Transportation. D. National Association of EMTs.

C. U.S. Department of Transportation.

10. An EMT who has advanced training in specific areas of advanced life support is called: A. a first responder. B. an EMT-B (Basic). C. an EMT-I (Intermediate). D. an EMT-P (Paramedic).

C. an EMT-I (Intermediate).

34. When assessing the skin of an unconscious patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: A. pallor. B. flushing. C. cyanosis. D. mottling.

C. cyanosis.

56. A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT-B should: A. wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions. B. defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital. C. determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card. D. ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient.

C. determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.

8. Laypeople may be trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT: A. one- or two-rescuer CPR. B. splinting of a possible fracture. C. electrocardiographic monitoring. D. control of life-threatening bleeding.

C. electrocardiographic monitoring.

73. Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female's respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should: A. restrain her and provide ventilatory assistance. B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen. C. explain to her that you will assist her ventilations. D. ventilate her at the rate at which she is breathing.

C. explain to her that you will assist her ventilations.

49. A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: A. false low systolic and diastolic reading. B. high systolic but low diastolic reading. C. false high systolic and diastolic reading. D. low systolic but high diastolic reading.

C. false high systolic and diastolic reading.

82. The major artery that supplies the lower extremities with blood is the: A. aorta. B. brachial. C. femoral. D. dorsalis pedis.

C. femoral.

32. When using the direct carry to move a patient from a bed to a wheeled stretcher, you should place the: A. stretcher on the far side of the patient's bed. B. head end of the stretcher next to the head end of the bed. C. head end of the stretcher parallel to the foot end of the bed. D. head end of the bed perpendicular to the head end of the stretcher.

C. head end of the stretcher parallel to the foot end of the bed.

31. The intercostal spaces are located: A. on the anterior ribcage. B. inferior to the diaphragm. C. in between each of the ribs. D. on the lateral sternal border.

C. in between each of the ribs.

21. In a healthy individual, the primary respiratory drive is based on: A. increased arterial oxygen levels. B. decreased arterial oxygen levels. C. increased arterial carbon dioxide levels. D. decreased arterial carbon dioxide levels.

C. increased arterial carbon dioxide levels.

85. Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: A. common iliac vein. B. coronary sinus vein. C. inferior vena cava. D. superior vena cava.

C. inferior vena cava.

62. The diaphragm is a unique muscle in that it: A. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. B. does not receive impulses from the brain. C. is both a voluntary and involuntary muscle. D. does not have striations like skeletal muscle.

C. is both a voluntary and involuntary muscle.

68. You are caring for a 40-year-old female who was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. Her husband, who was driving the vehicle, was killed. When the patient asks you if her husband is all right, you should: A. tell her that he is being resuscitated by other EMT-Bs. B. immediately tell her of his death so that she may grieve. C. let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible. D. avoid answering her questions and focus on her injuries.

C. let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible.

88. White blood cells are also called ___________ and function by: A. lymphocytes, producing the body's erythrocytes. B. thrombocytes, producing blood-clotting factors. C. leukocytes, protecting the body from infection. D. erythrocytes, carrying oxygen and other nutrients.

C. leukocytes, protecting the body from infection.

15. Each cell of the body combines nutrients and oxygen and produces energy and waste products through a process called: A. respiration. B. ventilation. C. metabolism. D. oxygenation.

C. metabolism.

34. When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position, but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: A. assault. B. battery. C. negligence. D. abandonment.

C. negligence.

40. You are treating a man with a closed head injury following an assault by a burglar. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to "leave him alone." You should: A. ask a police officer to transport the patient to the hospital. B. allow him to refuse treatment since the injury was not his fault. C. proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement if necessary. D. have the police arrest him so that you can legally begin treatment.

C. proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement if necessary.

61. You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate that is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: A. apply a pulse oximeter. B. request a paramedic unit. C. provide assisted ventilation. D. obtain his blood pressure.

C. provide assisted ventilation.

78. You have been dispatched to a nearby bar, where a man has been stabbed. As you pull up in front of the bar, a man in an apron yells that he is the bartender and that "the crazy guy inside has a knife." You should: A. enter the bar with your partner and overpower the man with the knife. B. carefully enter the bar and begin caring for the patient who was stabbed. C. remain outside until the scene is secured by law enforcement personnel. D. ask the man inside the bar to drop the knife and slowly exit the building.

C. remain outside until the scene is secured by law enforcement personnel.

44. The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the: A. glenoid. B. clavicle. C. scapula. D. acromion.

C. scapula.

36. You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eight people. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient that you triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury and her pulse is weak and thready. You should: A. assess the severity of her open head injury. B. place a red tag on her and continue triaging. C. begin ventilating her with a bag-valve mask. D. give her a low priority and continue triaging.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1083

50. After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious: however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. position him supine and elevate his legs. C. request a paramedic to administer atropine. D. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1117

47. You respond to a construction site where a steel girder collapsed on a 22-year-old male's chest. Coworkers removed the girder prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is unconscious and apneic. You should: A. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, maintain his head in a neutral in-line position, and insert a Combitube. B. apply a cervical collar, maintain an open airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, and insert a multilumen airway device. C. ensure that his spine is fully immobilized, maintain his airway with an airway adjunct, and perform endotracheal intubation. D. maintain stabilization of his head, open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, ventilate with a BVM, and prepare to intubate him.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1145, 1151

41. You have inserted an ET tube but are unable to hear breath sounds on the left side of the chest. You should: A. treat the patient for a pneumothorax and transport immediately. B. extubate the patient and preoxygenate for at least 2 to 3 minutes. C. advance the tube as you are auscultating the patient's breath sounds. D. withdraw the tube approximately 1 inch and reassess breath sounds.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1150

66. You respond to a call for a female pedestrian that has been struck by a car. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform an initial assessment. She is unconscious, has ineffective breathing, and bloody secretions in her mouth. You should: A. assist ventilations with a BVM device. B. quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. assess the rate and quality of her pulse. D. immediately suction her oropharynx.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 275

71. You have completed your initial assessment and treatment of a 33-year-old male with abdominal pain. As you are performing a focused history and physical exam, your partner should: A. repeat the initial assessment. B. gather the patient's medications. C. prepare the ambulance stretcher. D. obtain a set of baseline vital signs.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 283

73. A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for this patient? A. A focused physical exam B. 100% supplemental oxygen C. Treating her for possible shock D. Gentle palpation of the pelvis

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 284-285, 288

32. A 40-year-old female is found unconscious by her sister. The patient has a history of diabetes and has been treated for hypoglycemia in the past. You should: A. place oral glucose between her cheek and gum. B. give oxygen and oral glucose and transport rapidly. C. give oral glucose and carefully monitor her airway. D. administer 100% oxygen and transport her at once.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 349-351

38. A 49-year-old male with an extensive cardiac history presents with 2 hours of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He is pale and diaphoretic and tells you that he feels like he's going to die. His medications include nitroglycerin (nitro), Viagra, and Vasotec. His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. obtain physician approval to give the nitroglycerin. B. place him in a supine position and transport at once. C. administer one nitroglycerin and call medical control. D. ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 355

34. A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? A. Rupture of the diaphragm B. Exacerbation of his COPD C. Acute pulmonary embolism D. Spontaneous pneumothorax

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 374

29. A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F. On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing 100% oxygen, you should: A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing. B. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine. C. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment. D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 381

68. A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: A. nitroglycerin for her chest pain. B. assisted ventilation with a BVM. C. oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. D. placing her in an upright position.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 411

69. A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: A. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 413

75. The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following two minutes of CPR, you reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm and receive a "no shock advised" message. Reassessment reveals that he has a palpable carotid pulse. You should: A. obtain a blood pressure and apply the pulse oximeter. B. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen. C. transport at once and reanalyze his rhythm en route. D. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 426

41. During the initial assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations. B. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level. C. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke. D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 445-446

46. A 58-year-old male presents with confusion, right-sided weakness, and slurred speech. As your partner is applying oxygen, it is MOST important for you to: A. list all of the patient's current medications. B. obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs. C. administer glucose to rule out hypoglycemia. D. ask his wife when she noticed the symptoms.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 447

23. You are caring for a 25-year-old female with acute left lower quadrant pain. She is conscious and alert and in obvious pain. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 100 beats/min and regular, and respirations are 24 and unlabored. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: A. place her in Trendelenburg's position. B. request permission to give her Motrin. C. give her small sips of water to drink. D. place her in a comfortable position.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 473

28. You are transporting a 49-year-old male with "tearing" abdominal pain. You are approximately 30 miles away from the closest hospital. During your ongoing assessment, you determine that the patient's condition has deteriorated significantly. You should: A. begin ventilatory assistance with a BVM device. B. immediately perform a detailed physical examination. C. continue transporting and alert the receiving hospital. D. consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 474

31. You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medic-alert bracelet. You should: A. calm him down so you can assess him. B. be assertive and talk the patient down. C. contact medical control for instructions. D. retreat at once and call law enforcement.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 487

36. A 75-year-old male with a history of insulin-dependent diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: A. hypoglycemia. B. an acute stroke. C. hyperglycemia. D. a heart attack.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 487-488

32. A 50-year-old male was stung by a honeybee approximately 15 minutes ago. He presents with respiratory distress, facial swelling, and hypotension. After placing him on oxygen and administering his epinephrine via auto-injector, you note that his breathing has improved. Additionally, his facial swelling is resolving and his blood pressure is stable. Your next action should be to: A. load him into the ambulance and transport to the hospital. B. visualize his airway to assess for oropharyngeal swelling. C. notify medical control of the situation and your treatment. D. record the time and dose of the injection on the run form.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 508

31. A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a "heavy drinker" and she thinks he had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: A. acute hypovolemia. B. alcohol intoxication. C. acute schizophrenia. D. delirium tremens (DTs).

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 529

37. You respond to a college campus for a young male who is "acting strange." After law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed: he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, has a rapid, irregular pulse, and his BP is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes: A. requesting a paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan). B. assisting his ventilations with a BVM and 100% oxygen. C. asking law enforcement to place handcuffs on the patient. D. attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 531

38. In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for: A. acute respiratory depression. B. a sudden outburst of violence. C. an increase in her blood pressure. D. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 532-533

52. You are dispatched to a local high school track and field event for a 16-year-old male who fainted. The outside temperature is approximately 95°F with high humidity. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious, alert, and complains of nausea and a headache. His skin is cool, clammy, and pale. You should: A. give him a liquid salt solution to drink. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. apply chemical ice packs to his axillae. D. move him into the cooled ambulance.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 555-556

57. While drinking beer with his friends near a creek, a 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: A. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. B. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. C. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. D. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 572

16. A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his high-paying job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: A. approach the patient with caution. B. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. C. tell the patient that you want to help. D. calmly identify yourself to the patient.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 586-587

22. You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body build, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence? A. His clenched fists B. The broken window C. Shouting obscenities D. His large body build

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 594

51. A 26-year-old woman complains of a stabbing pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. She states that her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and that she had pelvic inflammatory disease approximately 3 months ago. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A. an acute appendicitis. B. an intrapelvic infection. C. a spontaneous abortion. D. an ectopic pregnancy.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 603

56. Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should: A. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord. B. administer 100% oxygen to the mother and transport at once. C. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport. D. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 611

46. You have delivered an infant with gasping respirations. After suctioning and physical stimulation, there is no improvement. You should: A. clamp the umbilical cord. B. begin chest compressions. C. administer free-flow oxygen. D. initiate ventilatory assistance.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 615

34. A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: A. inspect the helmet for cracks. B. perform a detailed exam. C. obtain baseline vital signs. D. fully immobilize her spine.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 641

39. A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: A. perform a detailed exam. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. auscultate bowel sounds. D. assess for an exit wound.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 643

27. After applying a dressing to an arterial bleed from a patient's arm, you notice that the dressing quickly becomes soaked with blood. You should: A. replace the dressing with another dressing. B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. C. splint the arm and keep it below heart level. D. place additional dressings over the wound.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 660

33. A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has reduced tidal volume breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. apply a nonrebreathing mask. C. perform a rapid trauma exam. D. assist the patient's ventilations.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 669

21. A 45-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused, diaphoretic, and has a weak and rapid radial pulse. His blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg. After applying 100% supplemental oxygen, you should: A. perform a head-to-toe assessment. B. allow him to drink plain water. C. obtain a repeat BP in 5 minutes. D. prepare for immediate transport.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 685

26. A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? A. 100% oxygen administration B. Full immobilization of her spine C. Applying and inflating the PASG D. Rapid transport to a trauma center

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 685, 688

35. A major benefit when using a multilumen airway device is that: A. it can be used on patients of any age and size. B. it can be visualized as it enters the esophagus. C. the airway is better protected than with an ET tube. D. maintenance of a mask-to-face seal is not required.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1152

54. You are assessing a 30-year-old male with an amputation just above the left wrist. He is conscious and alert and has a patent airway. Dark red blood is freely flowing from the injury. You should: A. administer supplemental oxygen. B. perform a rapid trauma assessment. C. attempt to locate the amputated part. D. apply direct pressure to the injury site.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 708-709

43. A teenage boy who was involved in a bicycle accident has a puncture wound in which the bicycle kickstand is impaled in his leg. The MOST appropriate method for treating this injury is to: A. remove the kickstand in a circular motion and apply a dry, sterile dressing. B. cut the kickstand off just above the skin, and stabilize it with sterile dressings. C. leave the kickstand attached to the bike until the physician can remove it safely. D. unbolt the kickstand from the bike frame and stabilize it with bulky dressings.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 713-714

48. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a house fire where fire fighters have rescued a 50-year-old male from his burning house. The patient has superficial and partial-thickness burns to his face and chest. His nasal hairs are singed and he is coughing up sooty sputum. You should be MOST concerned with: A. treating him for hypothermia. B. preventing the risk of infection. C. estimating the extent of his burns. D. the potential for airway swelling.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 716

49. A 4-year-old female pulled a pot of boiling water from the stove. She has superficial and partial-thickness burns to her head and anterior trunk. What percentage of her body surface area has been burned? A. 9% B. 18% C. 27% D. 36%

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 718

58. An 8-year-old male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the dorsum of his left hand, which your partner covers with a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should: A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog. C. advise the child that he will need rabies shots. D. report the incident to the appropriate authorities.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 725

20. A construction worker has a large sliver of metal impaled in his right eye. The MOST appropriate treatment for this injury includes: A. stabilizing the object with a pressure dressing. B. removing the object and irrigating with saline. C. removing the object and covering both of his eyes. D. stabilizing the object and covering both of his eyes.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 742-745

16. A 30-year-old female was robbed and assaulted by a gang as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner assumes manual stabilization of her head, you should: A. begin immediate ventilatory assistance. B. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds. C. apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D. suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 764

21. Following direct trauma to the superior aspect of the throat, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a/an: A. esophageal tear. B. crushed cricoid. C. collapsed trachea. D. laryngeal fracture.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 768

22. You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should: A. apply direct pressure below the lacerated vessel. B. circumferentially wrap a dressing around his neck. C. apply pressure to the closest arterial pressure point. D. apply direct pressure above and below the wound.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 769

22. Following blunt trauma to the chest, an 18-year-old female presents with respiratory distress, reduced tidal volume, and cyanosis. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130 beats/min and thready. You should: A. apply 100% oxygen and immediately transport. B. place her supine and elevate her lower extremities. C. perform a rapid head-to-toe physical assessment. D. provide some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 780-781

27. You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband: the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. C. perform a detailed physical exam. D. immediately request ALS support.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 786

21. A 33-year-old male was stabbed in the left anterior chest. He is conscious, but is experiencing signs of shock. Further assessment reveals that his jugular veins are distended and his breath sounds are bilaterally equal and clear. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: A. multiple rib fractures. B. a tension pneumothorax. C. a myocardial contusion. D. a pericardial tamponade.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 789

29. You arrive at the scene of a major motor-vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unconscious, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your rapid trauma assessment reveals bilaterally equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pericardial tamponade. D. laceration of the aorta.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 789-790

27. Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her BP is 98/58 mm Hg, pulse is 130 beats/min, and respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: A. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. B. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. C. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. D. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 811-812

58. A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. C. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. D. stabilize her head and perform an initial assessment.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 830

53. A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: A. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. B. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. C. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates. D. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 836-837

64. A female patient with a suspected spinal injury is breathing with a marked reduction in tidal volume. The MOST appropriate airway management for her includes: A. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths per minute. B. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. ventilation assistance to maintain an SaO2 of 90%. D. assisting ventilations at an age-appropriate rate.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 882-883, 888

65. You respond to a motor-vehicle crash involving a small car versus a tree. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 39-year-old male, still seated in his vehicle. He is conscious and alert and is complaining of neck pain. He does not have any immediately life-threatening injuries. You should: A. obtain vital signs, administer oxygen, and then extricate him from the car. B. apply a cervical collar and remove him from the car on a long backboard. C. rapidly extricate him from the car and perform a rapid trauma assessment. D. immobilize his spine with a short backboard and remove him from the car.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 893-894

however, the child's chest does not rise. You should: A. perform five abdominal thrusts and reassess. B. open his airway and perform a finger sweep. C. deliver five back blows and five chest thrusts. D. reposition his head and reattempt ventilations.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 960-962

25. A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should: A. leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water. B. remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing. C. leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing. D. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.

D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 749-750

1. A geriatric patient's chief complaint: A. is typically grossly obvious to the EMT-B. B. is usually related to a single disease process. C. usually presents with fairly classic symptoms. D. may be an exacerbation of a chronic problem.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1005

6. Which of the following is the BEST example of a question to ask an elderly patient with chest pain? A. "Does the pain radiate to your arm?" B. "Is the pain sharp, dull, or stabbing?" C. "Does it feel like a pressure sensation?" D. "Can you describe how the pain feels?"

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1006

11. Which of the following statements regarding an elderly patient's vital signs is MOST correct? A. Systolic blood pressure typically decreases by 1 mm Hg per year. B. The patient's pupils usually become more briskly reactive with age. C. Most patients over 65 years of age normally have an irregular pulse. D. Some drugs may prevent the heart rate from increasing when needed.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1008

15. Relatively minor hyperextension injuries to the spine can result in central cord syndrome, a dysfunction characterized by: A. permanent absence of sensory and motor functions to one side of the body. B. absent or weak sensory function more pronounced in the lower extremities. C. temporarily disabled sensory and motor functions in the lower extremities. D. weak or absent motor function more pronounced in the upper extremities.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1010

21. An elderly patient may understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because: A. the nervous system deteriorates. B. of decreased perception of pain. C. of conditions such as dementia. D. he or she fears hospitalization.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1014-1015

4. Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the MOST readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance? A. Emergency childbirth kit B. Stethoscope and penlight C. PASG and traction splint D. Bleeding control supplies

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1027

6. Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must: A. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. B. hold a minimum capacity of 1500 L of oxygen. C. be easily identifiable by their bright green color. D. be capable of delivering oxygen at 2 to 25 L/min.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1029

11. The purpose of a "jump kit" is to: A. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. B. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. C. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. D. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1032

20. When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should: A. generally exceed the posted speed limit by 10 to 20 miles per hour. B. place the patient on a long backboard, even if no trauma is involved. C. secure the patient to the ambulance stretcher with at least two straps. D. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1038

22. Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A. completing a detailed written report. B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. C. restocking any disposable items you used. D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1038-1039

29. Maintaining a "cushion of safety" when operating an ambulance means: A. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. B. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. C. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 miles per hour. D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1042

2. Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: A. gaining access to the patient(s). B. requesting additional resources. C. immediately beginning triage. D. surveying the area for hazards.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1059-1060

8. Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is MOST correct? A. The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. B. Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle. C. It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1062

3. Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch? A. Triage B. Transport C. Treatment D. Extrication

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1075

5. The ___________ officer is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. A. triage B. medical C. treatment D. transportation

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1077, 1083

9. A mass casualty incident is MOST accurately defined as: A. an incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients. B. an incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials. C. an incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured. D. an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1079

13. A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a _______ tag during a mass-casualty incident. A. red B. green C. black D. yellow

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1083

17. A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a mass-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag) patient, unless: A. he or she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine. B. he or she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma. C. there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest. D. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1083

29. A Level 4 hazardous material: A. causes temporary damage or injury unless prompt medical care is provided. B. requires protective gear to ensure that no part of your skin surface is exposed. C. is mildly toxic but still requires the use of a self-contained breathing apparatus. D. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1089-1090

1. Most terrorist attacks: A. are carried out by less than three people. B. occur within the continental United States. C. involve the use of nuclear explosive devices. D. require multiple terrorists working together.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1101

6. To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: A. nuclear weapons. B. chemical weapons. C. biological weapons. D. explosive weapons.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1101

7. The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biological agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired effect, is called: A. potentiation. B. alkalinization. C. dissemination. D. weaponization.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1102

12. Upon arriving at the scene of a suspected terrorist attack, you should: A. contact the FBI at once. B. park your unit downhill. C. try to identify suspects. D. ensure your own safety.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1104

18. Exposure to ________ would MOST likely result in immediate respiratory distress. A. tabun B. soman C. lewisite D. chlorine

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

23. The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: A. incubation. B. aerosolization. C. weaponization. D. dissemination.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

25. The skin lesions associated with smallpox: A. initially form on the lower trunk. B. are of different shapes and sizes. C. develop early during the disease. D. are identical in their development.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1114

31. Botulinum is: A. an acute viral infection. B. a disease of the leukocytes. C. rarely associated with death. D. a potent bacterial neurotoxin.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1117

9. Prior to performing endotracheal intubation in a cardiac arrest patient, it is MOST important to: A. ensure that the stomach is not distended. B. perform CPR for at least 5 to 10 minutes. C. hyperventilate the patient for 3 to 5 minutes. D. clear the airway and ventilate with a BVM.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1137

24. When inserting the stylet inside an ET tube, you should: A. bend the ET tube in the shape of a "U." B. recede the stylet 3" from the tube's distal tip. C. apply petroleum jelly to the tube's distal tip. D. avoid inserting the stylet past Murphy's eye.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1142

30. Immediately after you place an ET tube in the trachea, you should remove the stylet and then: A. attach the BVM and ventilate the patient. B. listen for breath sounds to confirm placement. C. secure the ET tube with the appropriate device. D. inflate the distal cuff and detach the syringe.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1145, 1149

3. Five percent dextrose in water (D5W) is MOST commonly used for: A. rapidly increasing the patient's BP. B. replacing the body's lost salt and water. C. treating patients in hypovolemic shock. D. mixing and administering medications.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1167

10. Which of the following IV catheters would deliver fluid at the slowest rate? A. 16 gauge B. 18 gauge C. 20 gauge D. 22 gauge

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170

8. ALS providers choose the type and size of IV catheter based on all of the following factors, EXCEPT the: A. patient's age. B. purpose of the IV. C. the vein's location. D. gender of the patient.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170

15. Local reactions associated with IV therapy include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. phlebitis. B. hematoma. C. infiltration. D. catheter shear.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1172

18. Signs and symptoms of acute circulatory overload include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. shortness of breath. B. jugular vein distention. C. acute peripheral edema. D. a drop in blood pressure.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1174

2. The left and right bundle branches: A. cause a slight delay of the electrical impulse at the AV node. B. transmit the electrical impulses from the SA node to the AV node. C. divide into the internodal pathways that stimulate the atria to contract. D. are the only route of communication between the atria and the ventricles.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182-1183

6. When looking at ECG graph paper, one large box represents: A. 0.04 seconds. B. 0.08 seconds. C. 0.12 seconds. D. 0.20 seconds.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185

11. Which of the following statements regarding sinus bradycardia is MOST correct? A. It is significant and must always be treated. B. The heart rate is usually less than 80 beats/min. C. It is characterized by inconsistent P-R intervals. D. It may be a normal variant in some individuals.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187

18. The MOST effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia is: A. effective CPR. B. cardiac drug therapy. C. advanced airway care. D. prompt defibrillation.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1189

23. It does not matter if you place the arm leads on the patient's shoulders or arms, as long as: A. you apply the green lead first. B. the patient is in a supine position. C. the red lead is placed on the right side. D. they are at least 10 cm from the heart.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1191-1192

25. Which of the following leads views the lateral wall of the left ventricle? A. V1 only B. V1 and V2 C. V3 and V4 D. V5 and V6

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192

2. Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: A. remove all bystanders. B. request another ambulance. C. move the patient to safety. D. ensure that you are safe.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 265-266

7. The goal of the initial assessment is to: A. determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma. B. identify patients that require transport to a trauma center. C. determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment. D. identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 271

13. The MOST effective way to gain a patient's trust when he or she is communicating with you is to: A. repeatedly ask questions for clarification. B. ask the same questions to every patient. C. document the patient's words verbatim. D. maintain eye contact and actively listen.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 273

14. A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her hand is pinched, is said to be: A. conscious and alert. B. completely unresponsive. C. responsive to verbal stimuli. D. responsive to painful stimuli.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 274

20. After performing a head-tilt chin-lift to open the airway of an unconscious patient, you should: A. place him or her in the recovery position. B. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. C. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. D. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 275

21. Supplemental oxygen via nonrebreathing mask should be administered to patients: A. who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. B. with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume. C. who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. D. with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 276

32. Diminished perfusion manifests with skin that is: A. pink. B. yellow. C. red. D. pale.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 278

36. After the first 60 minutes of experiencing a significant injury: A. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. B. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. C. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. D. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 279

38. The focused history and physical exam of a stable trauma patient consists of: A. a detailed exam, vital signs, and history. B. a focused trauma exam and vital signs only. C. a rapid trauma exam, vital signs, and history. D. a focused trauma exam, vital signs, and history.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 283

40. A rapid physical exam should be performed on: A. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. B. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport. C. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. D. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 284

47. When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the diaphragm (head) of the stethoscope over the _________ artery. A. radial B. apical C. femoral D. brachial

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 289

18. Assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will MOST likely reveal: A. sunken eyes. B. hyperactivity. C. warm, dry skin. D. bizarre behavior.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 485-486

9. After being dispatched on an emergency call, you should expect the dispatcher to provide you with all of the following information, EXCEPT: A. the time at which your unit was dispatched. B. the number of patients involved in the incident. C. other agencies that are responding to the scene. D. the general geographic location of the incident.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 321

14. After receiving on-line orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: A. perform the intervention as ordered. B. confirm the order in your own words. C. ask the physician to repeat the order. D. repeat the order back word for word.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 324

20. Which of the following statements regarding standing orders is MOST correct? A. Standing orders have less legal authority than orders given via radio. B. Standing orders require you to contact medical control first. C. Standing orders only highlight the care that you may provide. D. Standing orders should be followed when physician contact is not possible.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 326

21. The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT-B: A. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. B. notifies the admitting clerk of their arrival at the hospital. C. informs dispatch of their arrival at the emergency department. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 326

24. In what manner should you act and speak with a patient? A. Passive B. Authoritative C. Loud and official D. Calm and confident

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 328

30. The MOST important function that the prehospital care report serves is: A. research data. B. legal protection. C. quality assurance. D. continuity of care.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 332-333

4. Which of the following is an example of a drug's generic name? A. Bayer B. Advil C. Excedrin D. Aspirin

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 344

22. How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT-B? A. Orally B. Inhaled C. Injected D. Sublingual

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 345

10. Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or nicotine patch? A. Sublingual B. Intraosseous C. Subcutaneous D. Transcutaneous

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 346

14. Medications encased in a gelatin shell taken by mouth are called: A. pills. B. tablets. C. caplets. D. capsules.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 346

20. With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to ___% oxygen. A. 14 B. 24 C. 34 D. 44

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 350

26. Aspirin is MOST beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: A. reduces the associated chest pain. B. dissolves the coronary artery clot. C. causes direct coronary vasodilation. D. prevents the aggregation of platelets.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 351

3. In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 366

9. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely prevent effective exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs? A. Rigid upper airway walls B. Dilation of the bronchioles C. 22 respirations/min and deep respirations D. Pulmonary arterial occlusion

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 368

14. Which of the following statements regarding Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) is correct? A. Multiple bacteria have been identified as being the cause of SARS. B. SARS is most commonly transmitted by direct contact with blood. C. The onset of SARS is typically marked by acute, severe pneumonia. D. SARS is a viral infection that often begins with flu-like symptoms.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 370

18. At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and: A. audible stridor. B. rales and rhonchi. C. profound cyanosis. D. expiratory wheezing.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 373

24. Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: A. altered mental status and bradycardia. B. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech. C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 377

4. Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood? A. Superior vena cava B. Pulmonary arteries C. Inferior vena cava D. Pulmonary veins

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 402

10. What is the function of the atrioventricular (AV) node? A. It generates the initial electrical impulse. B. It adjusts the heart rate as needed by the body. C. It increases the speed of the electrical impulse. D. It allows time for the blood to pass into the ventricles.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 403

6. The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the ____________, which originate(s) from the __________. A. coronary sinus, vena cava B. aorta, inferior vena cava C. vena cava, coronary veins D. coronary arteries, aorta

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 403

16. Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called: A. angiosclerosis. B. arteriosclerosis. C. acute ischemia. D. atherosclerosis.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 405

25. The pain associated with angina pectoris or acute myocardial infarction is MOST commonly described as: A. sharp. B. aching. C. stabbing. D. crushing.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408-409

29. Common signs and symptoms of cardiac compromise include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. feeling of impending doom. B. acute unexplained sweating. C. shortness of breath or dyspnea. D. pain exacerbated by breathing.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 408-409

35. Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm? A. Sinus tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Extra ventricular beats D. Ventricular tachycardia

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 410

38. Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because: A. the volume of blood returning to the atria increases. B. the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood. C. blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion. D. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 411

43. Which of the following is of LEAST pertinence when obtaining medical history information from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? A. Cigarette smoking for 20 years B. History of previous heart attack C. Presence of personal risk factors D. Family history of hypertension

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 414

49. Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is MOST correct? A. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light. B. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient. C. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum. D. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 415-416

55. A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: A. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. B. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg. C. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing. D. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 418

62. Prior to defibrillating a patient with an AED, it is MOST important that you: A. properly position the defibrillation pads. B. perform up to 5 minutes of effective CPR. C. confirm that the patient is in cardiac arrest. D. ensure that no one is touching the patient.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 422, 424-427

61. ECG/defibrillator pads are placed on the patient's chest with one pad to the: A. left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the left nipple. B. right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the right nipple. C. left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right and below the left nipple. D. right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the left and below the left nipple.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 426

1. The three major parts of the brain are the: A. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. B. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord. C. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord. D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 440

7. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain? A. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe B. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere C. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe D. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 441-442

11. Which of the following clinical signs would be MOST suggestive of a ruptured cerebral artery? A. Unilateral hemiparesis B. Confusion and weakness C. Nasal discharge of blood D. Sudden, severe headache

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 442

17. Successful treatment of a stroke depends on whether or not: A. surgical intervention is performed to remove obstructive clots. B. medications are given to restore the function of infarcted cells. C. the stroke occurs within the left or right hemisphere of the brain. D. clot-buster therapy is given within 2 to 3 hours of symptom onset.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 446

23. A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: A. has had a prior heart attack. B. is older than 60 years of age. C. has a GCS that is less than 8. D. has bleeding within the brain.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 449-450

29. Status epilepticus is characterized by: A. generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes. B. an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura. C. profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity. D. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 451

34. A patient with an altered mental status is: A. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. B. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events. C. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. D. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 456

36. The principle clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia: A. always take oral medications to maintain normal blood glucose levels. B. do not present with slurred speech or weakness to one side of the body. C. are typically alert and attempt to communicate with healthcare providers. D. usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 457

10. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the: A. testicles. B. gallbladder. C. urinary bladder. D. fallopian tubes.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 469

11. An incarcerated hernia is one that: A. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. B. can be pushed back in the body cavity to which it belongs. C. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. D. cannot be pushed back within its respective body cavity.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 469

17. When asking a patient if his or her abdominal pain "moves anywhere," you are establishing the presence or absence of: A. referred pain. B. provoking pain. C. palliating pain. D. radiating pain.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 472

4. Patients with type II diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. diet and exercise. B. tolbutamide (Orinase). C. glyburide (Micronase). D. supplemental insulin.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 483

11. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when: A. blood glucose levels rapidly fall. B. the cells rapidly metabolize glucose. C. the pancreas produces excess insulin. D. insulin is not available in the body.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 484

23. When assessing an unconscious diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between diabetic coma and insulin shock is the: A. patient's mental status. B. rate of the patient's pulse. C. presence of a medic-alert tag. D. rate and depth of breathing.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 488

25. To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? A. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin B. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting C. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex D. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 490

2. Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include: A. the bee venom itself. B. adrenaline and histamines. C. leukocytes and epinephrine. D. histamines and leukotrienes.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 500

13. A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: A. hives. B. purpura. C. urticaria. D. a wheal.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 502

8. Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting: A. the stinger can easily be removed with tweezers. B. the body's immune system deactivates the venom. C. toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes. D. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 502-503

20. The adult epinephrine auto-injector contains ___ milligrams and the pediatric auto-injector contains ___ milligrams. A. 0.1, 0.01 B. 0.01, 0.1 C. 0.03, 0.3 D. 0.3, 0.15

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 507-508

1. Substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as: A. knowingly selling illicit drugs in order to buy more drugs. B. willfully using a therapeutic drug to treat a medical illness. C. unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol. D. knowingly misusing a substance to produce a desired effect.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 518

3. Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when obtaining information from a patient who ingested a substance? A. How much was taken? B. How long ago was it taken? C. What type of substance was taken? D. Why was the substance ingested?

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 518, 526

8. Your paramedic partner administers atropine to a middle-aged male. Which of the following effects would you expect the patient to experience? A. Pupillary constriction B. Excessive lacrimation C. A fall in blood pressure D. Dry mucous membranes

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 519

13. Phosphorus or elemental sodium should be brushed off of the skin prior to irrigating with water because: A. water will enlarge the surface area of the burn. B. severe swelling will occur when mixed with water. C. this will eliminate the chances of you being exposed. D. these chemicals may ignite upon contact with water.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 522-523

18. It is MOST important to determine a patient's weight when asking questions pertaining to a toxic ingestion because: A. additional lifting help may be needed at the scene. B. this will allow you to predict if the exposure is lethal. C. this will determine whether or not to give ipecac syrup. D. activated charcoal is given based on a patient's weight.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 526

21. The usual dose for activated charcoal is up to ___ g for a pediatric patient and up to ___ g for an adult patient. A. 5, 10 B. 10, 20 C. 12.5, 25 D. 25, 50

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 527

26. A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: A. addiction. B. dependence. C. withdrawal. D. tolerance.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 528

2. The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 545

8. The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are: A. shivering and vasodilation. B. vasodilation and respiration. C. respiration and vasoconstriction. D. vasoconstriction and shivering.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 546

13. Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F and 92°F? A. Bradypnea B. Confusion C. Stiff muscles D. Tachycardia

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 546-547

16. Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: A. cardiac arrhythmias. B. a decreased heart rate. C. severe muscular rigidity. D. blood-clotting abnormalities.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 548

24. High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat through: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 554

26. When the body loses sweat, it also loses: A. plasma. B. nutrients. C. erythrocytes. D. electrolytes.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 554

29. Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. nausea. B. headache. C. tachycardia. D. hot, dry skin.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 555

34. Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency? A. Motrin B. Tylenol C. Aspirin D. Diuretics

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 559

36. Which of the following statements regarding drowning is MOST correct? A. Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs. B. Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm. C. Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims. D. Laryngospasm following submersion in water makes rescue breathing difficult.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 560

39. Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: A. water less than 70°F. B. too rapid of a descent. C. alcohol consumption. D. too rapid of an ascent.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 564

19. A placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as: A. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby. B. premature placental separation from the uterine wall. C. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta. D. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 603

24. When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: A. in a supine position with her legs spread. B. on her left side with the right leg elevated. C. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12". D. on a firm surface in a semi-Fowler's position.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 608

26. When determining the frequency of contractions, you should: A. time the contractions from the end of one to the start of the next. B. time the contractions from the start of one to the end of the next. C. time the contractions from the end of one to the end of the next. D. time the contractions from the start of one to the start of the next.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 608-609

36. If a newborn has gasping respirations after being dried and suctioned: A. you should suspect hyperthermia and cool the infant. B. continue to stimulate the infant for another 30 seconds. C. normal breathing will usually begin within 20 seconds. D. further stimulation is not likely to improve ventilation.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 615

42. An infant is considered to be premature if it: A. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 pounds. B. weighs less than 5.5 pounds or is born before 37 weeks' gestation. C. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 pounds. D. weighs less than 5 pounds or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 620

6. Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is MOST correct? A. High velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. A. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury. C. Low velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma. D. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 632-633

7. By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? A. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy: the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. B. Potential energy is created as the person is falling: the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. C. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work: work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy: the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 633

12. Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A. Dismounted seats B. Steering wheel deformity C. Intrusion into the vehicle D. Deployment of the airbag

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 636

23. A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A. is wearing only a lap belt. B. remains within the vehicle. C. experiences multiple impacts. D. is ejected or partially ejected.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 640

28. Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is MOST correct? A. Internal injuries caused by low-velocity bullets are usually easy to predict. B. Exit wounds are typically easy to locate with low-energy penetrating injuries. C. It is usually easy to differentiate between an entrance wound and an exit wound. D. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 643

1. Which of the following body systems or components is LEAST important for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? A. An effectively pumping heart B. An intact system of blood vessels C. Adequate blood in the vasculature D. Filtering of blood cells in the spleen

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 650

6. Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as the: A. effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls. B. ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure. C. effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body's cells. D. circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 653

11. Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses greater than ____ percent of his or her total blood volume. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 655

17. Which of the following statements regarding the clotting of blood is MOST correct? A. Venous and capillary blood typically does not clot spontaneously. B. Bleeding begins to clot when the end of a damaged vessel dilates. C. Direct contact with the environment prevents blood from clotting. D. A person taking aspirin will experience slower blood clotting time.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 655-656

2. Capillary sphincters are: A. under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system. B. capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs. C. responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion. D. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 678, 680

8. In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: A. hypovolemia. B. tachycardia. C. diaphoresis. D. hypothermia.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 682

13. Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is MOST correct? A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C. Anaphylactic shock is the result of immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D. Subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces more severe reactions.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 683

19. Which of the following conditions has the GREATEST potential to be accompanied by internal bleeding? A. Anaphylaxis B. A heart attack C. Severe infection D. Spinal injury

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 684

3. The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a substance that: A. facilitates shedding of the epidermis. B. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 698

8. When a person is exposed to a cold environment: A. sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict. B. blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body. C. the skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation. D. peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 699

11. Compartment syndrome would MOST likely develop following a: A. laceration. B. contusion. C. hematoma. D. crush injury.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 701

17. An abdominal evisceration: A. is most commonly the result of blunt force trauma. B. should be covered with bulky dry, sterile dressings. C. often causes severe hypothermia because of heat loss. D. occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 711-712

23. A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the: A. epidermis. B. fatty layer. C. muscle fascia. D. dermal layer.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 716

25. Which of the following statements regarding severe burns is MOST correct? A. Severe burns involving the airway have a 100% mortality rate. B. The majority of severe burns involve full-thickness burns only. C. Patients with severe burns are especially prone to hyperthermia. D. Severe burns are typically a combination of all degrees of burn.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 716

30. Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: A. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia. B. most burns in children are the result of child abuse. C. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. D. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 717

35. When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should: A. immerse the affected part in warm water. B. rupture any blisters to prevent an infection. C. cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing. D. avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 720-721

36. When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: A. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution. B. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water. C. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. D. brush away the chemical before flushing with water.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 722-723

15. The conjunctiva is kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. corneal duct. B. posterior orbit. C. optic chiasma. D. lacrimal gland.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 736

3. The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. sclera. B. cornea. C. retina. D. conjunctiva.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 736

12. A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced: A. conjunctivitis. B. acute hyphema. C. a blowout fracture. D. a detached retina.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 737, 748

8. In the normal, uninjured eye: A. only a small portion of the iris is visible and the pupils are round. B. the pupils are typically at a fixed size and are not affected by light. C. the iris is visible and the eyes should move in opposite directions. D. the pupils are equal in size and move together in the same direction.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 737-738

9. Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. retinitis. B. contact lenses. C. conjunctivitis. D. a head injury.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 737-738

6. What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Allows flexion of the neck B. Primary muscle of respiration C. Connects the scapulae together D. Allows movement of the head

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 760

11. Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT-B's index of suspicion for a/an: A. airway obstruction. B. displaced mandible. C. basilar skull fracture. D. spinal cord injury.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 762

4. Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: A. the diaphragm descends. B. abdominal contents descend. C. intrathoracic pressure decreases. D. the intercostal muscles contract.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 779

9. A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: A. should be placed in Trendelenburg's position. B. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss. C. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta. D. requires prompt oxygenation and ventilation.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 781

15. Definitive care for a tension pneumothorax involves: A. placing a bulky dressing over the affected side of the chest. B. assisting the patient's breathing with increased tidal volume. C. surgically removing the portion of the lung that is damaged. D. inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 786

16. When assessing a patient with a hemothorax, you would MOST likely find: A. jugular venous engorgement. B. ipsilateral tracheal deviation. C. distant or muffled heart tones. D. signs and symptoms of shock.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 786-787

2. Peritonitis, an intense inflammatory reaction of the abdominal cavity, usually occurs when: A. solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma. B. the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed. C. bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract. D. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 798

5. An infant's fontanels should close completely by the time he or she is: A. 8 months old. B. 12 months old. C. 14 months old. D. 18 months old.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 918

10. The mesentery is/are: A. the point of attachment between the small and large intestines. B. layers of thick skeletal muscles that protect the abdominal organs. C. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver. D. membranous folds that attach the intestines to the walls of the body.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 801

16. It can be difficult to assess the severity of injuries to the genitourinary system following sexual assault because: A. the police must collect evidence before you begin care. B. the patient typically minimizes the pain or discomfort. C. patients generally prefer to remain in a prone position. D. patients may be hesitant to allow you to examine them.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 804

20. When documenting a call involving a female patient who was sexually assaulted, the EMT-B should: A. theorize as to why the sexual assault occurred. B. include the results of your internal vaginal exam. C. include a description of the suspected perpetrator. D. avoid speculation and document only factual data.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 812

6. What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its respective structure? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Striated D. Smooth

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 821

11. The disruption of a joint in which the bone' ends are no longer in contact is called a: A. strain. B. sprain. C. fracture. D. dislocation.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 822-823

15. An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: A. bone ends protrude through the skin. B. a large laceration overlies the fracture. C. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 824-825

16. Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. Severe strain B. Moderate sprain C. Hairline fracture D. Displaced fracture

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 825

31. Prior to splinting an open extremity fracture, the EMT-B should first: A. assess the injury for crepitation. B. manually stabilize the injury site. C. assess distal neurovascular status. D. cover all bleeding or open wounds.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 836-837

37. The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. C. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 846

43. When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: A. into a fist. B. in a straight position. C. in an extended position. D. in a functional position.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 855

47. A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. pelvic girdle. B. femoral shaft. C. pubic symphysis. D. proximal femur.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 858

12. A reflex arc occurs when: A. the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the central nervous system. B. a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body. C. the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles. D. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 875

17. Which of the following statements regarding the cranium is MOST correct? A. The skull is a subdivision of the cranium. B. Thirty percent of the cranium is occupied by blood. C. The cranium protects the structures of the face. D. Eighty percent of the cranium is occupied by brain tissue.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 876

22. Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. mastoid process bruising. B. ecchymosis around the eyes. C. noted deformity to the skull. D. superficial scalp lacerations.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 878

28. Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? A. Cerebral contusion B. Subdural hematoma C. Cerebral concussion D. Epidural hemorrhage

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 879

33. When caring for a patient with a possible head injury, it is MOST important to monitor the patient's: A. pupil size. B. blood pressure. C. pulse regularity. D. level of consciousness.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 880

37. When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you should use the: A. tongue-jaw lift. B. head-tilt neck-lift. C. head-tilt chin-lift. D. jaw-thrust maneuver.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 882

42. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: A. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. B. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. C. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. D. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 885

47. When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT-B manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: A. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. B. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. C. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 889

52. When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: A. have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps. B. secure the torso and then center the patient on the board. C. follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso. D. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 891-892

58. When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should: A. secure the head prior to securing the torso and legs. B. defer cervical collar placement to avoid discomfort. C. place the child's head in a slightly extended position. D. place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 904

10. Which of the following statements regarding preschool-age children is MOST correct? A. They realize that injuries are not a form of punishment. B. Preschoolers are usually not fearful of pain or separation. C. The preschool age begins after the child turns 2 years old. D. They can usually identify painful areas when questioned.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 919

16. Hyperthermia differs from fever in that it is an increase in body temperature: A. of more than 2 to 3 degrees per hour. B. secondary to a severe bacterial infection. C. caused by inflammation of the spinal cord. D. caused by inability of the body to cool itself.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 922

22. Febrile seizures in a child: A. typically last less than 30 minutes. B. occur after a week of a febrile illness. C. are usually caused by viral meningitis. D. may indicate a serious underlying illness.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 923

28. Which of the following is MORE common in children than in adults following a head injury? A. Spinal cord injury B. Loss of consciousness C. Seizures and hypoxia D. Nausea and vomiting

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 925

33. Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hot items on a stovetop. B. scalding water in a bathtub. C. exposure to caustic chemicals. D. entrapment in a structural fire.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 927

38. Which of the following should make you MOST suspicious for child abuse? A. Worried or crying parents B. A laceration to the child's chin C. Willingness of the child to speak D. Bruises in various stages of healing

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 927-930

44. Causes of infant death that may be mistaken for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. child abuse. B. meningitis. C. severe infection. D. hyperglycemia.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 930

48. Common complications associated with central intravenous (IV) lines include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a local infection. B. clotting of the line. C. bleeding around the line. D. rupture of a central vein.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 934

3. A normal level of consciousness in an infant or child is characterized by: A. normal interactiveness, awareness to time, and pink skin color. B. awareness to place, pink and dry skin, and consistent eye contact. C. crying or combativeness, good muscle tone, and awareness to time. D. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 943

8. All of the following are normal findings in an infant or child, EXCEPT: A. quiet breathing. B. fear or anxiety. C. belly breathing. D. head bobbing.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 945

16. Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she: A. is experiencing mild to moderate pain. B. falls from a height that is greater than 5'. C. has a possible closed fracture of the radius. D. has a history suggestive of a serious illness.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 946-947

22. Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should: A. put padding behind his or her head. B. thoroughly suction his or her airway. C. rule out an injury to the spinal cord. D. place him or her on a firm surface.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 950-951

26. When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an infant or child, you should: A. place padding under the child's head. B. ensure his or her neck is hyperextended. C. insert it until the flange rests on the teeth. D. depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 952-953

32. The MOST appropriate method for determining if you are delivering adequate tidal volume to a child during BVM ventilations is to: A. monitor the child's heart rate. B. observe the child's skin color. C. monitor the pulse oximeter reading. D. observe the chest for adequate rise.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 957-958

37. Which of the following statements regarding airway obstructions in children is MOST correct? A. Blind finger sweeps should be performed in pediatric patients. B. Use the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver to visualize the child's airway. C. Abdominal thrusts are indicated in children with mild obstructions. D. Finger sweeps are indicated only if you can visualize the foreign body.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 959

42. The automated external defibrillator (AED) is indicated in children over 1 year of age if: A. 2 to 3 minutes of CPR are unsuccessful. B. the cardiac arrest is the result of trauma. C. the child's cardiac arrest is not witnessed. D. you have an AED with a pediatric adaptor.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 969

54. When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should: A. secure the head before the torso. B. slide the device under the child. C. pad underneath the child's head. D. secure the torso before the head.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 971-972

47. The MOST ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is: A. pallor. B. retractions. C. nasal flaring. D. bradycardia.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 976

27. The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as: A. delirium. B. delusion. C. paranoia. D. dementia.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 994

32. A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a/an: A. statute of care. B. power of attorney. C. physician directive. D. advance directive.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 995

38. Many elderly victims of physical abuse may make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because: A. they are protective of the abuser. B. they don't want to be bothersome. C. most elderly patients have dementia. D. they fear retribution from the abuser.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 997

40. When documenting a case of suspected elder abuse, it is MOST important for the EMT-B to: A. theorize as to why the patient was abused. B. document his or her perceptions of the event. C. list the names of all of the suspected abusers. D. avoid documenting any unsupported opinions.

D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 998

7. Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? A. "I was in the hospital for this a week ago." B. "I am not having any difficulty breathing." C. "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago." D. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."

D. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."

54. Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function? A. Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed. B. Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced. C. Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly. D. Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light.

D. Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light.

101. All necessary life functions are coordinated in what part of the brain? A. Cerebrum B. Gray matter C. Cerebellum D. Brain stem

D. Brain stem

26. The MOST easily palpable spinous process in the neck is: A. C4. B. C5. C. C6. D. C7.

D. C7.

30. Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: A. ataxic respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

47. Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? A. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation. B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. C. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. D. It is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

D. It is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

17. Which of the following statements regarding the Good Samaritan Law is correct? A. It provides the EMT-B immunity from a lawsuit. B. It guarantees that you will not be held liable if sued. C. The law does not protect EMT-Bs who are off duty. D. It will not protect you in cases of gross negligence.

D. It will not protect you in cases of gross negligence.

24. Which of the following steps is NOT proper procedure when performing an emergency move? A. Using a long-axis body drag during the move B. Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object C. Pulling the patient's clothing in the shoulder area D. Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

D. Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

44. You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action? A. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence. B. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving of the patients. C. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients. D. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

D. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

71. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? A. Use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis B. Respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume C. Cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles D. Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement

D. Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement

103. What set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system? A. Motor B. Cranial C. Vertebral D. Sensory

D. Sensory

32. Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant (LUQ) of the abdomen? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Cecum D. Spleen

D. Spleen

7. Which of the following statements regarding the National Registry of EMTs (NREMT) is correct? A. They are a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. B. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. C. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. D. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

D. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

77. What occurs during left ventricular relaxation? A. The aortic valve opens. B. The tricuspid valve closes. C. The pulmonic valve closes. D. The mitral valve opens.

D. The mitral valve opens.

21. In which of the following circumstances can the EMT-B legally release confidential patient information? A. A police officer requests a copy to place on file B. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes C. A media representative inquires about the patient D. The patient is competent and signs a release form

D. The patient is competent and signs a release form

43. A 72-year-old woman lying in her bed complains of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. She states she has had two previous heart attacks. Her blood pressure is 146/102 mm Hg, pulse is 108 beats/min, and respirations are 28 breaths/min. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate method of transferring this patient to the ambulance? A. Place her on a scoop stretcher and carry her to the ambulance with a minimum of four EMT-Bs. B. Assist her in sitting up on the side of the bed and then use a two-person assist to walk her to the ambulance. C. Immobilize her to a long backboard in a supine position and then transfer the backboard to the wheeled stretcher. D. Use the draw sheet method to transfer her from the bed to the wheeled stretcher and then to the ambulance.

D. Use the draw sheet method to transfer her from the bed to the wheeled stretcher and then to the ambulance.

57. Which of the following is a function of the upper airway? A. Relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle B. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide C. Sound creation from vocal cord vibration D. Warming and humidifying of inhaled air

D. Warming and humidifying of inhaled air

14. Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called: A. flexion. B. extension. C. adduction. D. abduction.

D. abduction.

60. An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of consciousness as unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care should focus on: A. obtaining baseline vital signs. B. gathering medical history data. C. providing immediate transport. D. airway, breathing, and circulation.

D. airway, breathing, and circulation.

26. When performing an urgent move of a patient from his or her vehicle, you should: A. apply a vest-style extrication device prior to moving the patient. B. apply a cervical collar and immobilize the patient on a shortboard. C. grasp the patient by the clothing and drag him or her from the car. D. apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.

D. apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.

11. General guidelines for carrying a patient on a cot include: A. maintaining slight flexion of your back. B. leaning back from your waist when lifting. C. slightly twisting your body when carrying. D. constant communication with your partners.

D. constant communication with your partners.

35. While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor-vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims. B. remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrives. C. stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance. D. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.

D. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.

27. When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: A. count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy. B. count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by 4. C. count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by 2. D. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

D. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

50. You can auscultate a patient's blood pressure by: A. comparing the pulse of the wrist with the pulse in the neck. B. feeling for the return of a pulse while inflating the blood pressure cuff. C. deflating a blood pressure cuff while watching the needle of the gauge bounce. D. deflating a blood pressure cuff while listening with a stethoscope to the return of blood flow through the brachial artery.

D. deflating a blood pressure cuff while listening with a stethoscope to the return of blood flow through the brachial artery.

8. A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the: A. proximal forearm. B. superior forearm. C. dorsal forearm. D. distal forearm.

D. distal forearm.

1. Basic life support (BLS) is noninvasive, meaning that it: A. can only be performed by EMT-Basics. B. focuses only on severe bleeding control. C. is only used to treat an obstructed airway. D. does not involve penetration of the body.

D. does not involve penetration of the body.

76. A 37-year-old male has an apparent foreign body airway obstruction. He is conscious and alert and is coughing forcefully. His skin is pink, warm, and moist. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. a series of back blows and chest thrusts. B. finger sweeps to remove the obstruction. C. performing a series of abdominal thrusts. D. encouraging him to cough and transporting.

D. encouraging him to cough and transporting.

5. When performing his or her duties, the EMT-B is generally expected to: A. consistently exceed the standard of care. B. contact medical control on every EMS call. C. function above his or her scope of practice. D. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.

D. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.

18. The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: A. foramen ovale. B. vertebral foramen. C. spinous foramen. D. foramen magnum.

D. foramen magnum.

65. Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in obvious distress. You first action should be to: A. ask the patient what's wrong. B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. C. assess the patient's airway status. D. introduce yourself to the patient.

D. introduce yourself to the patient.

32. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: A. quickly moving the weapon out of the patient's sight. B. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. C. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. D. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

D. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

41. You should assess an infant or child's skin color on his or her: A. arms and legs. B. fingers and toes. C. chest and abdomen. D. palms and soles.

D. palms and soles.

4. In relation to the chest, the back is: A. ventral. B. inferior. C. anterior. D. posterior.

D. posterior.

2. In relation to the wrist, the elbow is: A. distal. B. medial. C. lateral. D. proximal.

D. proximal.

54. Cardiac muscle has the property of automaticity, which means that it can: A. survive for an extended period of time without oxygen. B. quickly increase its rate to meet the body's metabolic needs. C. spontaneously increase the strength of its own contraction. D. set its own rate and rhythm without influence from the brain.

D. set its own rate and rhythm without influence from the brain.

2. When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is FIRST reflected onto the: A. pelvic girdle. B. spinal column. C. thigh muscles. D. shoulder girdle.

D. shoulder girdle

75. While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: A. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can. B. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. C. place him in a supine position and open his airway. D. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

D. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

16. Trendelenburg's position is MOST accurately defined as a: A. recumbent position with the head lower than the legs. B. supine position with the legs elevated approximately 6" to 12". C. recumbent position with the head elevated at a 25° to 45° angle. D. supine position with the legs elevated 6" to 12" higher than the head.

D. supine position with the legs elevated 6" to 12" higher than the head.

24. The severity of hypoxia depends MOSTLY on the patient's: A. mental status. B. specific illness. C. ability to speak. D. ventilatory quality.

D. ventilatory quality.

12. A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: A. at a normal rate. B. with shallow depth. C. without difficulty. D. without assistance.

D. without assistance.

49. The bones that comprise the fingers and toes are called: A. carpals. B. metacarpals. C. phalanges. D. metatarsals

D. wrist.

24. Palpating the carotid pulse is not recommended in infants because: A. the pulse rate is usually too fast to count. B. a decrease in cerebral perfusion may occur. C. the carotid artery is more anterior in infants. D. you may inadvertently compress the trachea.

D. you may inadvertently compress the trachea.