Practice Test I & II Questions

Large stores of glycogen in skeletal muscle are critical during prolonged periods of exercise, because: A) a myosin hydrolysis ATP during muscle contraction B) actin requires ATP for polymerization C) muscle glycogen prevents hypoglycemia D) exposure of the myosin binding site requires ATP

A) ATP is required, which is obtained by hydrolyzing stored glycogen to generate glucose and then metabolizing that glucose. Specifically, hydrolysis of ATP is necessary to cock the myosin head, and the binding of ATP to the myosin head is necessary to release the myosin head from the actin filament in preparation for the following contraction cycle.

Making test-retest comparisons every five years provided the researchers with a measure of: A)fatigue effects. B) practice effects. C) reliability. D)Validity

Answer C is correct. Test-retest comparisons provide information about reliability. Answer A is incorrect because fatigue effects refer to decreased performance as a function of repeated testing. No such relationship was observed in this study, or if it was, it was not mentioned in the passage. Answer B is incorrect because practice effects refer to enhanced performance as a function of repeated testing. As with fatigue effects, no mention was made of this phenomenon. Answer D is incorrect because validity refers to the degree to which an instrument measures what it's supposed to measure. Retesting using the same instrument cannot change or demonstrate the validity of the instrument, but it can establish that the instrument is reliably generating the same results.

NADH exhibits a characteristic UV absorbance of 340 nm. This absorbance is the result of photons causing the: A) vibration of NADH sigma (σ) bonds. B) cleavage of NADH sigma (σ) bonds. C) cleavage of NADH pi (π) bonds. D) excitation of NADH pi (π) electrons.

Answer D is correct. NADH absorbs electromagnetic radiation in the UV region as the result of the excitation of π electrons. Answer A is incorrect because the vibration of bonds occurs in the infrared (IR) region; this accounts for IR spectroscopy, but not for UV absorbance. Answers B and C are both incorrect because the cleavage of bonds is not associated with UV absorption. Therefore, Answer D is the best choice.

Which trait is NOT included in the Eysencks' concept of personality? A)Extroversion B) Neuroticism C) Openness D) Psychoticism

Choice C is the correct answer. Openness is one of the Big 5 personality dimensions; it is not included in the Eysencks' concept of personality. Answer A is incorrect because extroversion is one of the Eysencks' personality dimensions. Answer B is incorrect because neuroticism is also one of the Eysencks' personality dimensions. Finally, choice D is incorrect because psychoticism is one of the Eysencks' personality dimensions.

Where are proteasomes located?

Cytoplasm

Tight junctions are important because A) they permit cell-to cell communication between cells in the CNS and those in PNS B) the adherents protein is over expressed at the BBB to ensure tight associations between cells. C) they create a chemical barrier that inhibits all active transport across the BBB membrane D) they seal off extracellular pathways, requiring passage through highly-selective cells membranes

D

What is the oxidation number of iron in Fe2O3? A) +6 B) +2 C) +4 D) +3

D

Following ingestion of a meal high in simple carbohydrates, the primary metabolic process at work is: A) glycolysis B) gluconeogenesis C) glycogenolysis D) glycogenesis

D) Glycogenesis is the process of building glycogen to store glucose for future. D plays a larger role in balancing of blood sugar.

Where X represents the conjugate are, which of the acids listed is expected to have the smallest H-X bond dissociation energy? A) pKa= 4.10 B) pKa= 4.75 C) pKb= 9.63 D) pKb= 10.90

D) Strong acid are expected to have relatively weaker H-X bonds (smaller bond dissociation energies) than weaker acids (large bond dissociation energies) D has the lowest pKa, meaning it's a strong acid

Ion channels are an example of what type of movement process?

Facilitated diffusion

Osmosis shifts from what concentration?

Low to high

For most material, the maximum static frictions is A) larger than the kinetic friction B) smaller than the kinetic friction force C) equal to the kinetic friction force D) equal to the gravitational force

A)

Transcription factors bind to what target molecule? A) DNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) Phospholipids

A)

The emergence of ADHD can also be explained by which sociological concept? A)Domain expansion B) Diagnostic expansion C) McDonaldization D) the "sick role"

Answer B is correct. Diagnostic expansion is when a medical diagnosis is expanded to include a larger group. ADHD meets that standard. Answer A is incorrect because ADHD is single medicalized condition, not a domain. Answer C is incorrect because McDonaldization refers to the ways in which society has restructured itself to match many of the rational efficiencies seen in a fast food restaurant. This is almost entirely irrelevant to the passage discussion of ADHD. Answer D is incorrect. The "sick role" is the broad approach to explaining the behavior characteristic of sick people in Western society. Although ADHD is a manifestation of the "sick role", it is not the most precise answer.

Which statement about the potential consequences of the official diagnosis of ADHD is most directly related to the concept of internal vs. external locus of control? ADHD diagnosis creates a: A) personal sense of accountability. B) perceived need for a drug. C) biological explanation for behavior. D) continuous demand for medical professionals.

Answer C is correct. A person with an internal locus of control assumes that they are primarily in control of their own decisions and future success. A person with an external locus of control feels they are a victim of external factors outside of their control. While the stem asks for something that relates to internal vs. external locus of control, the diagnosis of one's behavior as a medical condition is likely to lead one to attribute said behavior to an external cause; therefore the correct answer to this question should reflect an external locus of control, not an internal locus of control. This makes Answer C correct, because it describes an external locus of control, and Answer A incorrect, because it suggests the opposite—a sense of personal accountability for one's behavior (internal locus of control). The need to have a drug to treat ADHD (Answer B), or increased demand for professionals to diagnose and treat ADHD (Answer D), could be a result of the medicalization of ADHD, but neither is logically related to external vs. internal locus of control. Both choices B and D are similar in that they reference a person needing something external, which is not the same concept as attributing one's behavior or success to an external cause.

If the average molecular weight of the proteinogenic amino acids is 110 Da each, what is the approximate molecular weight of topoIb? (Its 765 amino acids long) A) 76.5Da B) 76.5 kDa C) 84 kDa

Answer C is correct. The average amino acid is 110 Da, and topoIb is described as a monomeric enzyme. The answer is calculated using the average molecular weight of an amino acid = 110 Da, and the number of amino acids in topoIb given in the passage: 765*110 = 84,150 Da, or 84 kDa, so choice C is the best answer. Answers A confuses kDa with Da. As written, it suggests that the entire topoIb molecule weighs less than the average weight of a single amino acid. Answer B multiplies by 100 Da instead of 110 Da. Answer D is too large by nearly a factor of four.

The national samples mentioned in the passage used random selection, had high survey response rates, and included longitudinal follow-ups which replicated the results. Adhering to these protocols improved the study's: A) reliability. B) validity. C) reliability and validity.

Answer choice C is correct. In order to successfully answer this question, a basic knowledge of the distinction between reliability and validity is required, as well as how various research methods increase or decrease reliability and validity. For a study to be reliable, the significant results must be replicable. In this case, the longitudinal follow-ups demonstrated replication of the results. Validity, on the other hand, includes meeting all aspects of the scientific method, including randomization. The fact that the study used a random selection method and had a high response rate contributed to the validity of the study. To the contrary, had the sample been acquired in a non-random manner, or had very few people respond, this would draw into question the validity of the results. Non-random sampling introduces bias that could account for the relationships observed rather than a true relationship between the variables tested. A low response rate reduces sample size and makes the sampled group less representative of the population. Answer choice A is correct in part, but incomplete: the study described in the stem was reliable, but also valid. Answer choice B is incorrect because the study was valid, but also reliable. Choice D is incorrect because fecundity refers to the reproductive rate of an organism and is unrelated to research design. The methodology described in the stem clearly did not impact the fecundity of study participants.

Which microorganism is capable of performing transcription and translation simultaneously in the same cellular compartment? A)Yeast B) Algae C) Bacteria

Answer choice C is correct; prokaryotes do not have a nuclear membrane, therefore there is nothing inhibiting the ribosomes from associating with the mRNA before it has finished transcribing. Bacteria are the only prokaryotes on the list. Yeast and algae are eukaryotic organisms and thus their mRNA is transcribed in the nucleus and must be passed through the nuclear pores to associate with a ribosome. Although viruses do not have a nucleus, the majority of the viruses will utilize the host cellular machinery, which will involve the mRNA being transcribed in the nucleus and the proteins being translated outside of the nucleus.

Which pair of codons is most likely to code for the same amino acid? A) CCU and ACU B) AUU and ACU C) GGG and GGC D)GUG and CUG

Answer choice C is the correct answer. This question requires understanding the "wobble" in the genetic code. Amino acids are coded for by three bases in mRNA, and the three bases are referred to as codons. In many cases, a single amino acid may correspond to several different codons. The most common variation, by far, is in the third base of the three-base codon. Answers A and D differ in the first base, while the second and third bases are the same, Answer B varies in the second base, while the first and third are the same. These choices can be excluded because they do not vary in the third base, and C is the correct answer because it is the only option that varies in the third base.

Which expression gives the probability that a mother and father will have four children, two girls and two boys, in any birth order? A(½)4 B4 (½) C2 (½)4 D6 (½)4

Answer choice D is the correct answer. Each birth is an independent event. For each "birth event" the probability of having a boy is ½ and the probability of having a girl is also ½. This type of problem would be more simple had the question asked "What is the probability of having four children, all of them boys?" The probability of having four boys in a row is (1/2)4 or 1/16. However, the problem changes when the question states that the births can appear in any order. In this case, one must first predict all of the possible birth orders by which these parents could have two boys and two girls: GGBB, GBGB, GBBG, BBGG, BGBG, BGGB It may be worthwhile for the examinee to try for a moment to think of a seventh or eighth possible birth order—it will become apparent that these six permutations represent all of the possible orders for having two girls and two boys. Next, one must calculate the possibility of each birth order. Because the probabilities of having a boy or a girl are both ½, the probability of the first order is ½ x ½ x ½ x ½ = (½)4 = 1/16. Notice that the math will be identical for the other five birth orders. The final key to this question is to recognize that six birth orders are six different events, ANY of which could satisfy the probability requirement of two boys + two girls, in any order. When multiple events are possible, and any of those events satisfy the question, the probabilities of each event must be ADDED. To clarify, think of a simple example. If you draw a ball from a bowl every morning and the bowl contains 33% red balls, 33% blue balls, and 33% green balls, the chance of drawing a green ball is clearly 1/3. But what if the question is "What is the probability of drawing either a green OR a blue ball?" It is now apparent that 66% of the balls in the bowl satisfy this requirement, so your odds are 2/3. Notice that this is the same as adding the probability of drawing a green ball to the probability of drawing a blue ball: 1/3 + 1/3 = 2/3. In the same way, we must add the probabilities of these two parents having two girls and two boys in any of these six possible birth orders. We established previously that the probability of one birth order is 1/16. Therefore, the chance of any of them happening is: 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16 = 6(1/16). This is equivalent to Answer D: 6(1/2)4. This proof eliminates Answers A, B and C.

An individual suffering from a paralyzing fear of clowns visits a therapist. The therapist gradually exposes the patient to an image of a clown, then a movie featuring clowns, and finally to an in-person encounter with a clown. Which perspective is most consistent with this therapeutic approach? A) Psychoanalytic B) Humanistic C) Social-cognitive D) Behaviorist

Answer choice D is the correct answer. The process described is known as systematic desensitization, a process which relies on principles of associative learning. This approach would be most consistent with the behaviorist perspective. Answer A can be eliminated because the psychoanalytic perspective espoused by Freud focused on the role that the unconscious mind played on conscious behavior. Nothing in the scenario described in the stem mentions or infers that the clown therapy was focused on the unconscious mind. Answer B is incorrect because the humanistic perspective espoused by Maslow and Rogers focuses on the potential for self-fulfillment that resides among all human beings. Self-fulfillment is unrelated to the story of gradual exposure to clowns. Answer C should be dismissed because the social-cognitive perspective espoused by Bandura focuses on modeling behavior observed in others (a.k.a., social learning). No modeling or social learning is described in the given scenario.

Given a genome content of 50% AT, assuming random nucleotide variability, the probability of AUUUA sequence is one in every: A) 2^5 B) 4^5 C) 2.0 x10 ^5 D) 4.0 x10^5

B) 50% A/T means there is 50% G/C. At each position there is a 1/4 (25%) chance of having the necessary ease out of the four possible bases. Since the sequence is 5 nucleotides long, one must multiply the individual probabilities : (1/4) (1/4) (1/4) (1/4) (1/4)= 1/1024, thus its 4^5

When other bio molecules are unavailable, acetoacetic acid can be used as a fuel source in all of the following organs EXCEPT for: A) heart B) liver C) brain D) muscles

B) Acetoacetic acid is a Ketone body. Ketone bodies can be used as fuel in the brain, the heart and muscles. Not liver because it lacks necessary enzymes to concert ketone bodies to ATP. This is because ketone bodies are produced in liver when blood glucose is low

What is needed for the first step of an Aldol reaction?

Base

The germ cells of a newly discovered diploid organism divide without DNA replication step that normally occurs prior to meiosis. For this organism, which type of chromosome is found at the metaphase plate during Meiosis I? A) tetrads, consisting of 2 pairs of sister chromatids B) Dyads, consisting of a single pair of sister chromatids C) monads, consisting of a single chromatid D) Bivalents consisting of four pairs of sister chromatids

C

Beta-isoindole is excited with 420nm. The flourescent light emitted from the beta-isoindole fluorophore must: A) be infrared light B) be ultraviolet C) have a wavelength greater than 420 nm D) have a wavelength less than 420 nm

C) Flourescent light has to be a lower energy (longer wavelength) than the source light used to cause the excitation. Therefore, the light flourescent must be of wavelength longer than 420nm.

The decomposition of H202 is an exothermic process. However, solutions of H202 in water are stable when stored in bottles over a long period of time. Which statement best explains these 2 observations? A) the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide to water is highly exothermic B) Hydrogen peroxide contains 2 oxygen atoms per molecule, while H20 contains only one C) the formation of water from hydrogen peroxide is associated with a high energy of activation D) The O-O bond in hydrogen peroxide is stronger than the O-O bond in atmospheric oxygen

C) The O-O bond must be broken at some point along the reaction path. Breaking chemical bonds requires considerable activation energy, which is often the definitions parameter affecting the reaction rate; in this case, the kinetic stability of H2O2

The synthesis of glucagon in pancreatic alpha-cells is most closely associated with which cellular organelle? A) nucleus B) lysosomes C) endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria

C) because glucagon is a secretory protein, it will be translated at the RER, with the growing protein chain oriented into the ER lumen as translation proceeds. Mitochondria is not right because they do NOT synthesize secretory proteins for use outside the cell. Majority of mitochondrial proteins are coded for by the nuclear genome.

Ammonia is an example of a Bronsted-Lowry Base. Through which process does ammonia raise the pH of biological solutions A) ammonia is a strong base, so small concentrations cause large increase in pH B) Ammonia release NH2-, which is analogous in size to the hydroxide ion C) By abstracting protons for water, ammonia causes an increase in [OH-] D) by abstracting protons from water, ammonia causes an increase in [H+]

C) bronsted lowry bases accept protons. In aqueous solutions, they can accept proton from water and leave behind hydroxide. (Causing pH to go up)

One mole of which lipid will produce the most ATP upon complete oxidative metabolism? A) glycophospholipids B) sphingolipids C) triacylglycerides D) steroids

C) fatty acids produce the most ATP/carbon of any lipid. The rest have 2 or fewer fatty acid chains versus C.

As a personality disorder, BPD is characterized as a: A) rigid, problematic pattern of thought and behavior. B) persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest. C) breakdown in memory, awareness, or identity. D) long-lasting anxiety not focused on a specific target.

Choice A is the correct answer because personality disorders involve inflexible patterns of thinking or behaving that lead to dysfunction. All of the distractors listed here are accurate descriptors of other psychological disorders. Answer B describes a depressive disorder. Answer C describes a dissociative disorder. Answer D describes an anxiety disorder.

The largest estimates of heritability for any given trait result from: A)high degrees of genetic variability within a group of individuals raised in similar environment B) high degrees of genetic variability within a group of individuals raised in different environments. C) low degrees of genetic variability within a group of individuals raised in similar environments. D) low degrees of genetic variability within a group of individuals raised in different environments.

Choice A is the correct answer. Heritability is a ratio of trait variability given by genetic variability over total trait variability. Therefore, high levels of genetic variability in a less variable environment would lead to the highest estimates of heritability for any given trait. Answer B is incorrect because the high variability in the environment would result in lower levels of heritability. Answer choices C and D are both incorrect because they begin with "low levels of genetic variability." Low genetic variability would not be expected to generate a high estimate of heritability.

Weber's Law suggests that the difference threshold from Study 1 will be a: A)constant ratio of the original stimulus for all stimulus magnitudes. B) variable ratio of the original stimulus for all stimulus magnitudes. C)increased by a factor of 10 during arousal. D) decreased by a factor of 10 during arousal.

Choice A is the correct answer. Weber's Law (∆I/I = constant) predicts that the difference threshold, or the just-noticeable difference, will be a constant ratio of the original stimulus for all stimulus magnitudes. In other words, if the minimum noticeable difference between two weights is 0.05 kg, and the original weight was 1.0 kg, then this ratio is 0.05/1.0 = 5%. This indicates that for a 100 kg weight the just noticeable difference in mass will be different, but it will maintain the same ratio. In this case, it would be 5% of 100 kg, or exactly 5 kg. Answer B is false because Weber's Law predicts a constant ratio, not a variable ratio. Answers C and D are both incorrect because Weber's Law cannot be used to predict an increase or a decrease due to arousal.

How might the concept of demand characteristics impact the results of studies 1 and 2? A) Participants may identify the hypothesis, which could elicit their most natural responses. B) Participants may identify the hypothesis, which could elicit behaviors that support the hypothesis. C) Participants may eat ice cream because they were told to do so, when they otherwise would not have. D) Participants may complete the gratitude activity because they were told to do so, when they otherwise would not have.

Choice B is the correct answer. The concept of demand characteristics refers to the phenomenon by which study participants pick up on subtle or overt clues about the purpose of the study, the hypothesis, or the expectations of the experimenters, and alter their behavior as a result. Behavior can be altered in a positive or negative way, meaning subjects may behave in a way that seeks to please the experimenters and support their hypothesis, or in a negative way—behavior that resists what they perceive to be the purpose of the study or that is designed to undermine the results. In this case, participants may, for example, intuit that because they are completing a positive/negative affect scale after eating ice cream that the experimenters are hypothesizing that eating ice cream will improve their affect. Answer B is therefore correct. Answer A is false because demand characteristics describe an alteration in the normal activity of the participants, not their most natural response pattern. Answers C and D are both incorrect; neither choice addresses the participants having intuited the purpose of the study. Further, participants complying with the requests of the study administrators to complete the basic tasks involved in the study is not an illustration of demand characteristics.

The improved visual acuity demonstrated by participants in the arousal group is most likely the result of post-treatment changes to which structure? A)Cornea B)Visual Cortex C) Auditory Cortex D) Retina

Choice B is the correct answer. The information in the passage suggests reduced thresholds for stereopsis, or depth perception, using binocular disparity. This effect cannot be traced to physiological changes or differences in any part of the eye (lens, retina, etc.). Logically, it can be deduced that arousal would not change the actual structure of the retina in a way that could improve acuity (i.e., increase cone density), nor does it seem logical that the cornea changes its normal function after arousal. These observations eliminate Answers A and D. The effect is most likely cerebral in nature and based upon some aspect of neurological arousal. However, the effect could not be traced to the auditory cortex because this brain region perceives sound, not light. Therefore, Answer B is the only plausible answer.

The mitochondria of brown fat adipocytes contain a high concentration of the proton channel thermogenin in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Thermogenin generates heat via non-shivering thermogenesis. Which energy transformation best explains this process? A) Electrical potential, to kinetic, to chemical B) Electrical potential to thermal C) Chemical, to kinetic, to electrical potential D) Electrical to chemical

Choice B is the correct answer. When thermogenin is introduced into the inner mitochondrial membrane, the energy stored in the electrochemical gradient is decoupled from ATP production. Instead of being used to generate ATP, this energy is released as heat. This makes only Answer B plausible because it is the only option that includes thermal energy.

Prions are infectious agents composed entirely of protein. Prions cannot: A) be inherited or coded for by a gene. B) convert normal proteins into pathogenic proteins. C) cause pathology outside the central nervous system. D)be acquired through food consumption

Choice C is correct. Although prion infections are usually associated with the consumption of contaminated meat (Answer D), they can also be inherited and encoded for in a person's DNA (Answer A). Prions convert normal proteins of the brain into pathogenic ones (Answer B). This conversion is exponential and takes years to decades to become pathological. The correct answer is option C because prion pathology is only observed in the central nervous system of the infected person or animal

The final electron acceptor during alcohol fermentation in S. cerivisiae is acetaldehyde. Is this process analogous to anaerobic respiration in humans? A) Yes, because acetaldehyde is the final electron acceptor. B) Yes, because oxygen is the final electron acceptor. C) No, because pyruvate is the final electron acceptor. D)No, because oxygen is the final electron acceptor.

Choice C is the correct answer. In humans, when insufficient oxygen is available (as in muscles during extended exercise), or when the necessary cellular equipment is lacking (as in red blood cells), glucose undergoes anaerobic fermentation with pyruvate acting as the final electron acceptor. Many students confuse this with lactate, which is formed in the final step, but it is the reactant molecule, pyruvate, that is reduced and is therefore labeled as the final electron acceptor. Similarly, oxygen is identified as the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration, even though water is the molecule formed in the final step. Answers A and B are false because yeast fermentation and human anaerobic fermentation utilize different final electron acceptors. Answer D is false because oxygen is the final electron acceptor in human AEROBIC respiration and the question asks about anaerobic respiration.

The primary mRNA transcript for dystrophin contains 300,000 fewer nucleotides than the DMD gene from which it is transcribed. The primary mRNA transcript is shorter because A) introns have been deleted. B) exons have been deleted. C) the poly-A tail was not transcribed. D) regulatory sequences were not transcribed.

Choice D is correct. Genes contains large regulatory sequences, such as the promoter region, that are not transcribed. However, these regulatory sequences are still considered part of the gene they help to regulate. As a result, the primary transcript will always be shorter than the gene itself. This matches best with answer choice D. Answer choices A and B can be eliminated because both introns and exons are part of the primary transcript. Introns will be removed during post-transcriptional processing, prior to translation. Choice C is incorrect because the poly-A tail is added onto the primary transcript during post-translational processing. In other words, the poly-A tail would actually lengthen the mRNA slightly.

The average protein is composed of approximately 500 amino acids. This suggests that the average mature mRNA polymer contains approximately: A) 500 base pairs. B) 500 nucleotides. C)1500 nucleotides. D) >1500 nucleotides.

Choice D is correct. The stem indicates that the average length of a protein is about 500 amino acids. This requires the translation of approximately 500 codons. However, each codon is composed of three nucleotides, so approximately 1500 nucleotides are required to form 500 codons. These facts alone would suggest Answer C, however, a mature mRNA molecule also features untranslated regions on both the 5' and the 3' ends, as well as a poly A tail. These are variable in length, but allow one to definitively conclude that if the average number of amino acids in a protein is 500, then the average number of nucleotides in mature mRNA must be quite a bit larger than 1500. This makes choice D the correct answer. Answer A can be eliminated because the mature mRNA is composed of a single strand of nucleotides, not base pairs. Answer B can be eliminated as 500 nucleotides would not produce a protein with 500 amino acids, since three nucleotides make up a single codon.

A reporter on the evening news describes a gruesome murder and subsequent suicide in an otherwise quiet suburban neighborhood. Such acts violate which form of cultural expectation? A) Societal norms B) Folkways C) Mores D) Taboo

Choice D is correct; taboos are the most deeply held norms in our society. Specifically, these norms prohibit actions thought to be either a) too sacred, or b) too dangerous, awful or accursed, to be performed by anyone. Violation of such norms brings about an extreme response by other members of society. Taking someone's life and one's own is an example of this. Other examples could include rape, kidnapping, or harming children or the elderly. Answer choice A is partially correct since societal norms is the broader category to which taboos belong. However, Answer D is the more specific and better choice because societal norms also include rather minor expectations and societal pressures, whereas murder and suicide would be a gross violation of a deeply held societal boundary. Answer B is incorrect because folkways are casual, informal norms. An example of a folkway violation would be picking one's nose in public. Answer C is incorrect because mores are common, formal norms. These rules govern our everyday behavior. Murder and suicide are clearly more deviant than everyday mores. Many students have submitted comments about this question because they do not feel comfortable saying that the heinous acts described in the stem "violate" the taboo. They have said the murder is the taboo. This is inaccurate. It is correct to say that a taboo has been violated when something heinous is performed. The taboo is not the thing itself, but the societal expectation that that thing NOT be done. By doing it, one has violated the societal expectation. Other students have struggled with the fact that the word "norm" is used to refer to a taboo. This happens if one incorrectly assumes that "norms" refers only to good things. Norms are expectations. They can be expectations that one should do good things, and also that one should not do bad things. Sociology texts defined four types of norms: folkways, mores, taboos and laws. All of these are norms.

George Herbert Mead developed a theory explaining how a person's self-concept is developed as a result of social experience. A modern proponent of Mead's research could be expected to make any of the following assertions about socialization, EXCEPT: A)The military often teaches its recruits that killing is okay in wartime circumstances. B) Public school curricula often include ideological lessons of nationalism and patriotism. C) Studies suggest exposure to violent television or video games increases aggression in children. D) Religious concepts of morality are integrated into the "I" part of the self, if the "me" approves.

Choice D is the correct answer. Because this is an EXCEPT question, we are looking for the answer that does NOT match with the ideas of George Mead regarding socialization. Answer D contains similar language to Mead's theory on self, but the relationships are reversed. Agents of socialization create expectations that become part of the "me," which is the social self, but must be approved by the "I," the more creative and independent self. Answer D suggests the opposite, so it is the correct answer to this EXCEPT question. The remaining options all describe general processes of socialization, any of which could be logically associated with a proponent of Mead's theories. Answer A is wrong because a social institution such as the military re-socializing its members to accept killing as acceptable is indeed an example of socialization. Answer B is wrong because Public school curricula shaping ideological views of a person's country or nationality is also an example of socialization. Answer C is wrong because video games or media in general are agents of socialization that can shape a person's self-concept.

Information about the amino acid content of food is communicated through which taste sensation? A)Bitter B) Sour C)Salty D)Umami

Choice D is the correct answer. Umami is associated with amino acids. Answer A is incorrect because bitter tastes are associated with the presence of alkaloids. Answer B is incorrect because sourness is associated with acidity. Answer choice C is also incorrect because saltiness is associated with sodium.

SIlkworms excrete structural protein in which protein chains are organized and stabilized by which repetitive structural motif? A) alpha-helices B) disulfide bonds C) salt bridges D) beta-pleated sheets

D) THis is a rare question!!!!

Suppose a researcher discovers a small molecule that inhibits CYPs once APAP is bound in the active site. This would illustrate which type of inhibition? A) Competitive B) Non-competitive C) mixed D) uncompetitive

D) The inhibitor inhibits the enzyme only after the substrate is bound= uncompetitive Competitive= bind to substrate pocket and mimic the substrate Mixed= combination of uncompetitive and non-competitive inhibition in which the inhibitor can bind the enzyme with or without the substrate bound, but the binding of the inhibitor affects the rate of binding of the substrate, and vice versa.

A student attempts to isolate a solid organic drug compound with a known melting point range of 148-151. An impure sample of this drug is likely to have which melting point range? A) 148-150 B) 150-155 C) 145-147 D) 144-150

D) impurities in a sold both depress the melting point, and broaden the range over which the solid melts. Impurities never increase the temperature at which the solid melts.

In its native form, beta-alpha is a soluble protein with extensive alpha helices domains. Misfortune of Beta-Alpha causes an alpha-helix to beta sheet transition that decreases solubility. Beta-alpha aggregation is likely the result of which interaction between beta motifs on misfiled beta alpha proteins? A) charge-charge attractions B) charge charge repulsion a C) hydrophilic interactions D) hydrophobic interactions

D) when pleated beta sheets form, hydrophobic groups are exposed to the polar cytosol and are therefore attracted to the sheets of other unfolded proteins. A favorable energy change is therefore associated with aggregation.

What level of protein structure is disrupted by the point mutation in the C-terminus of NhhA? I. Primary II. Secondary III. Tertiary IV. Quaternary

I &IV Because the primary structure is defined as the amino acid sequence, a point mutation will always change primary structure as long as the mutation results in substitution of an amino acid (Roman Numeral I). The only time a mutation would not alter the primary sequence is when the mutation resulted in a related codon that still coded for the same amino acid. That is not possible in this case because the passage tells us that the mutation reduced trimerization—so there must have been a change to the protein. This change must have impacted the quaternary structure because the passage indicates that the point mutation disrupts the trimer formation of NhhA, and trimerization is an example of quaternary structure. Answers A, B, and D are all incorrect because none of them include quaternary structure (Roman Numeral IV). Also, it is possible that this point mutation does not alter the secondary and tertiary structure of NhhA. The primary structure can be changed such that an amino acid is substituted but the region still remains formed into a beta sheet or alpha helix, and the tertiary structure may still remain the same (eliminating Roman Numerals II and III). That one amino acid could be the binding point for the trimer such that the tertiary structures of the native protein and the mutant protein are indistinguishable, but trimer formation is impossible in the mutant form.

Which of the following is true regarding action-reaction pairs? I. They must be the same type of force II. They must act on the same object III. They must act on different objects.

I and II

Passive immunity could result from: I. receiving a vaccine. II. contracting a viral or bacterial infection. III. receiving an injection of antibodies.

III. Passive immunity is immunity generated when one receives antibodies from some outside source. The immune system of the person receiving the passive immunity is never directly activated. This can occur when a person is injected with antibodies developed against an antigen in another person or host, as in Statement III. A more common example is the antibodies passed from mother to child in mother's milk. The mother's immune system produces the antibodies and passes them to the child, but the child's immune system is never activated against the antigens to which those antibodies bind. Statements I and II are both false because either a vaccine or an infection activate the host's immune system and it generates its own antibodies. Because Statement II is false, Answers B, C and D must be rejected.

The findings of this study provide the most support for which sociological perspective? A) Social conflict theory B) Symbolic interactionism C) Structural functionalism D)Social exchange theory

nswer choice B is correct. Basic knowledge of each of the four major perspectives is key to choosing the correct answer for this question. Symbolic interactionism sees society as the product of everyday interactions among people. Because the impact on obesity described in the passage is largely the result of interactions between individual members of society, this supports Answer B. Answer A is incorrect because social conflict theory sees society as an arena of inequality that generates conflict and change. Answer C is incorrect because structural functionalism sees society as a complex system whose parts work together to promote stability. Answer D is incorrect because social exchange theory sees society as a system made up of individuals engaging in basic hedonistic calculations: rewards - costs = outcome. Nothing in Answers A, C or D is closely related to the passage discussion, so they can all be eliminated.

What is the most probable impact of a point mutation that substitutes the terminal guanine of a 5' exon with an alternate nucleotide? A) The mRNA will be prematurely terminated. B) The protein will be nonfunctional due to an amino acid change. C) The intron will not be spliced from the mRNA transcript. D) There will be no effect, because this is a silent mutation.

nswer choice C is the correct answer. A guanine at the 5' position is required for RNA splicing. If a different nucleotide were present, the process would not function and the intron would not be removed. This makes choice C the best answer. This will not create a stop codon, making choice A incorrect. Answer B may be tempting because failure of the splicing mechanism may well result in a non-functional protein. However, given both answers, B and C, answer C is a more complete and accurate description that emphasizes the primary importance of guanine in the splicing mechanism. This is particularly important given that the importance of a guanine substitution was specifically referenced in the stem. Examinees should expect AAMC questions to feature distractors that may be true, or could be true, but are not as complete, or as correct, as the best answer. Answer D must be incorrect because, as already described, failure of exon splicing will have multiple deleterious effects.