Quiz Questions
1. The amount of medication that is given is known as the A) dose BY indication C) contraindication D) side effect
A
10. Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: A the reason why the patient called EMS. B) the patient's response to your treatment. C) whether or not the patient is deteriorating. D) the nature of any newly identified problems.
A
10. You have been dispatched to the home of an 88 year old male with burns to his left hand and forearm. He is alert and oriented and lives independently. He states that he spilled water from a hot teakettle and did not realize the water was as hot as it was until he noticed blistering of the skin. Considering the age of your patient and your knowledge of lifespan development, you would suspect that your patient A) Has some sensory deficit related to his age B. Is unable to care for himself and needs to go to a nursing home C. Does not have insurance and wants "free" treatment D. Is attention seeking
A
11. Between each chest compression, you should A) allow full chest recoil B) remove your hands from the chest C) check for a pulse D) administer a breath
A
13. Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the _______ A) hypoxic drive B) CO2 drive C) alternate drive D) COPD drive
A
14. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult? A))12-20 breaths/min B) 15-30 breaths/min C) 25-50 breaths/min D) 40-60 breaths/min
A
16. Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: A) encourage the patient to cough. B) perform abdominal thrusts. delined C) administer back blows. D) place the patient supine.
A
16. is a sign of hypoxia to the brain. A) Altered mental status B) Decreased pulse rate C) Decreased respiratory rate D) Delayed capillary refill time
A
17. At 0500 hours, you 76-year-old man complaining of chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient respond to the home of a states that he had been sleeping in the recliner all night due to indigestion, when the pain woke him up. He also tells you he has taken two nitroglycerin tablets. His vital signs are as follows: respirations, 16 breaths/min; pulse, 98 beats/min; blood pressure, 22/76 mm Hg. He is still complaining of chest pain. What actions should you take to intervene? A) Provide high-flow oxygen. B) Administer a third nitroglycerin tablet. C) Apply an AED. D) Begin chest compressions.
A
18. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: C) perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. B) have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. A begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. D) immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
A
3. A typical 4 month old infant will Have a social smile, begin to roll over, sit with support, recognize caregivers Pull self to stand and begin walking, have a 3-4 word understandable vocabulary C. Will show interest in feeding self, will sit unsupported, will drink from a cup of D) Will know body parts when asked, will have a 10-12 word vocabulary, will feed self
A
3. If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is Bormal, you should suspect that: A) minute volume is decreased. B) inspiratory reserve is increased. C) overall tidal volume is increased. D) expiratory reserve volume is decreased.
A
5. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult? A) 12-20 breaths/min B 15-30 breaths/min C) 25-50 breaths/min D) 40-60 breaths/min
A
8. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: A)) begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. B) have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. C) perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. D) immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
A
9. Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A) A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin B) A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations C) A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D) An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin
A
A When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: A))carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. B) apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. C) assume that minimal force was applied to the back. D) recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.
A
A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: A) heat. B) oxygen. C) nitrogen. D) lactic acid.
A
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: A) bone ends protrude through the skin. B) a large laceration overlies the fracture. C) a bullet shatters the underlying bone. D) the overlying skin is no longer intact.
A
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: À) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. 3.
A
The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is A) normal B) too fast C) too slow D) too shallow
A
When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: A) ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. B) approach him from behind and ask him not to move. C) stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. D) assess his mental status by having him move his head
A
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13- year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the childs parents will be on the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? A) Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. B) Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C) Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. D) Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.
A
bleeding". You notice a small amount of bright red bleeding where her front incisor should be. the side of one of the players who is on the bench. Per the child, her mouth "just started 6. You are assisting with a standby at a youth basketball game for 7-9 yearolds and are called to fonsidering the child's age and your knowledge of lifespan development, you suspect that A.The child has lost a primary tooth B. The child wants to go home C. The child is pretending to be vampire for the upcoming Halloween Party
A
tandmot 4. The EMT's first priority is A) personal safety B) rapid response C) treatment and transport D) empathy for all patients
A
1. Lifespan development is a continuous process that covers three dynamic developmental stages. These stages are: A) Birth, infancy, adulthood B) Infancy, Adolescence, Late Adulthood C) Birth, Adolescence, Mid-Adulthood D) Infancy, Toddler, Adolescence
B
1. The _______ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. A) costal arch (B)) diaphragm C) mediastinum D) costovertebral angle
B
1. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTS to perform emergency medical care in the field in their region is the: A) shift supervisor. B) medical director. C) EMS administrator. D) field training officer.
B
10. A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A) continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. B) remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C) insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. D) select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.
B
12. A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: A) nasal cannula. B) nonrebreathing mask. C) bag-valve mask. D) mouth-to-mask device.
B
12. You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? A) 45% B 55% C) 65% D) 75%
B
14. You are ventilating a patient with a stoma, however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: A) thrust the jaw forward. B) seal the mouth and nose. C) ventilate with less pressure. D) thoroughly suction the stoma.
B
15. In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: A) a drug overdose. B) respiratory arrest. C) severe chest trauma. D) a cardiac dysrhythmia.
B
19. Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: A) contact medical control. (B) dry the chest if it is wet. T) perform CPR for 30 seconds. D) assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.
B
2. The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: A) damage to the eyes. B) airway compromise. C) cervical spine injury. D) mandibular immobility.
B
2. Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up? A) Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog B) Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status C) Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel D) Noting if the position of a crashed motor vehicle is safe
B
20. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? A) Pleural effusion B) Severe anxiety C) Pulmonary edema D) Narcotic overdose
B
20. Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? A) Labored breathing- B)Dependent edema C) Pulmonary edema D Flat jugular veins
B
3. Angina pectoris occurs when: A) a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B) myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. C) one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
B
3. Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? A) A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. B) The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. C) The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. D) A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.
B
3. You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A) is allergic to any medications,e B has a history of eye surgeries. C) regularly sees a family physician. D) noticed the change during a meal.
B
4. If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of A) hypotension B) vomiting hollggn olslidom C) GI trauma D) altered LOC
B
5. The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A) cerebellum and brain. B) brain and spinal cord. C) cerebrum and meninges. D) meninges and spinal cord.
B
6. The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A) thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. C) coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D) cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.
B
7. After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: A) assess for a carotid pulse. wwd immediately resume CPR. C) re-analyze the cardiac rhythm. D) transport the patient at once.
B
7. In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: the patient is in severe pain. B) the patient is clinically unstable. C) deformity and swelling are present. D) transport time is less than 15 minutes.
B
7. The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A) diffusion. B) ventilation. T) respiration. D) oxygenation.
B
9. A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: A) distraction. B) axial loading. C) hyperextension D) hyperflexion.
B
Angina pectoris occurs when: A) a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B) myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. C) one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D) myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
B
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: A) a drug overdose. (B) respiratory arrest. C) severe chest trauma. D) a cardiac dysrhythmia.
B
connected and set at a flow 15. Tou are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? A) 45% B)) 55% C) 65% D) 75% ventilating
B
x18, The only vein(s) in the body that carry oxygenated blood is/are the: Aexternal jugular veins. B) pulmonary veins. C) subclavian veins. Đ) inferior vena cava.
B
1. A palpable pulse is created by: Athe pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries. Bi he pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart. C) pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. DY electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
C
1. Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A) It results from direct brain trauma B) Because cerebral edema develons quickly, it is considered to be a following an impact to the head. primary brain injury. C) Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D) Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.
C
10. Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A) the patient adamantly denies neck pain. B) lateral immobilization has been applied. imou C) it causes a problem managing the airway. D) sensory and motor functions remain intact.
C
11. Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? A) Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. B) Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. C) Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D) Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.
C
15. During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates: A) fluid in the alveoli. B) secretions in the airway. C) a lower airway obstruction. D swelling of the upper airway.
C
17. A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: A) all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. B) a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. C) the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D) the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
C
2. The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to A) DCAP B) APGAR C) HIPAA D) CQI
C
3. What is an EMT's primary duty for patient care.? A) check with the police first B) Wait for directions from a paramedic C) Detect and correct any life threatening problems D) Start CPR
C
4. A toddler is a young child in the age range. А. 3-6 years B. Birth to 12 months C.) 12 months-36 months D. 6-9 years understandable
C
4. Crepitus and false motion are: A) indicators of a severe sprain. B) only seen with open fractures. C) positive indicators of a fracture. D) most common with dislocations.
C
4. The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: A) bundle of His. B) coronary sinus. C) sinoatrial node. D) atrioventricular node. Wine
C
5. Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: A) excess stress. B) hyperglycemia. C) family history. DY lack of exercise.
C
5. The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: ation A) undergo an annual physical examination. B) ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. C) wash your hands in between patient contacts. D undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis.
C
6. A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: A) all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. B) a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. C) the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D) the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
C
6. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A) Larynx B) Pharynx C) Bronchus D) Oropharynx
C
8. Which of the following is an indicator of increased intracranial pressure? A) Increased rate respiratory rate, prolonged expiratory time, rapid heart rate, hot skin B) Irregular heart rate, increase respiratory rate, high pulse pressure C) Hypertension, bradycardia, erratic respiratory pattern D) Bradycardia, hypotensive, cool clammy skin
C
8. Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? * A) Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. B) The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. C)) Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. D) A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.
C
9. An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A) Dorsal B) Supine C)) Prone D Recumbent
C
9. The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: A) most life-threatening condition that you discover. B) condition that exacerbates an underlying problem. C) most serious thing the patient is concerned about. D) gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.
C
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: A) all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. B) a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. C) the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D) the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
C
The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A) aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B) reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. C) compression of nerves, Dý delaying transport of a critically tissues, and vasculature. injured patient.
C
o. A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg The "130" in this measurement represents: A) atrial contraction. B) ventricular filling. C)) ventricular contraction. Đ) ventricular relaxation.
C
1. The upper jawbones are called the: A) mandible. B) mastoid. C) zygoma. D) maxillae.
D
1. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? A) A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness B) A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears C) A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea D) A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
D
10. A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A) pelvic girdle. B) femoral shaft. C) pubic symphysis. (D) proximal femur.
D
10. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? A) 30:1 B) 5:1 C) 3:2 D) 30:2
D
10. Your patient has just received bad news about their health, what order will they emotionally display their personality? A) Anger, depression, acceptance B) Bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance C) Denial, anger, depression D) None of the above, everyone is different
D
11. A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: A) make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position. B) gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. C) flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. D keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.
D
11. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: rib A) mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. B) sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. ninss C) verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. D) eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
D
13. A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: A) start CPR and transport immediately. o mood B) withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. C) determine if he has a valid living will. D begin CPR until an AED is available.
D
13. During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates: A) fluid in the alveoli. B) secretions in the airway. C) a lower airway obstruction. D) swelling of the upper airway.
D
14. Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: A) ataxic respirations. B) agonal respirations. C) eupneic respirations D) Cheyne-Strokes respirations
D
17. Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed. by periods of apnea are called: A) ataxic respirations. B) agonal respirations. C) eupneic respirations. D) Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
D
19. In most cases, cardiac arrest in children results from: A) choking. B) aspiration. Ccongenital heart disease. Drespiratory arrest.
D
2. The pulmonary system in infants differs from a more a mature airway in that A. The airway of an infant is more easily obstructed B. Accessory muscles are immature, causing early fatigue C. Airways are narrower D.) All of the above
D
22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A) apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. B) administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. ) assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations, D) stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
D
5. An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on: A) obtaining baseline vital signs. B) gathering medical history data. C) providing immediate transport. D) airway, breathing, and circulation.
D
5. Toddlers and preschool children typically have understandable language by 3-4 years of age. _______ language will often precede _______ language. A. English/Second B. Babbling/Understandable C. Expressive/Receptive D. Receptive/Expressive
D
5. Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A) An amputated extremity B) Bilateral femur fractures C) Nondisplaced long bone fractures D Pelvic fracture with hypotension
D
6. When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: A) dilate. B) not react. C) become larger. D become smaller.
D
6. Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? A) Formal B Implied C) Informed D) Expressed
D
8. A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the _____ forearm. A) proximal B) superior C) dorsal D distal
D
8. The leading cause of death for young adults (age 20-40 years) is A. Heart disease B. Diabetes C. Cancer D. Accidental death (automobile accident/fall/drowning/violent crime)
D
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and sustained a fracture of the forearm. has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture to the _______ forearm A) proximal B) superior C) dorsal (D) distal
D
In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: A) back of the neck. B) forehead and face. C) dorsum of the hand. D) lips or oral mucosa.
D
Two social phenomenon that often help to define middle adulthood are _____ and ______. A. Perimenopause/ menopause B) Divorce/Retirement C) Health scare/Diagnosis D) Empty nest syndrome/Sandwich generation
D
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A) Severe strain B) Moderate sprain D) Hairline fracture D Displaced fracture
Displaced Fracture
16 Adolescence is a period of rapid growth where females reach full maturity by 18 years of age and males typically reach full maturity at 16 years of age.
false (females -16, males-18)
1. Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: A) fascia. B) tendons. C) cartilage. D) ligaments.
tendons
