Radiographic Procedures III Final Review

The human adult heart averages how many beat per minute?

70

How many carpal bones are found in the wrist?

8

sutural or wormian

A ______ bone is sometimes found in the sutures of an adult skull.

basal

A _______ skull fracture may produce an air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus.

4. osteoporosis.

A common condition of the femur that develops in elderly patients, leading to frequent fractures of the hip (proximal femur), is: 1. developmental dysplasia of the hip. 2. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. 3. congenital hip dysplasia. 4. osteoporosis.

3. pigeon breast.

A congenital defect characterized by anterior protrusion of the lower sternum is termed: 1. flail chest. 2. pectus excavatum. 3. pigeon breast. 4. sternal protrusion.

a. True

A correctly positioned AP 45-degree medial oblique ankle projection frequently may also demonstrate a fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal if present. a. True b. False

3. chance

A fracture through the vertebral body and posterior elements caused by lap seat belts during an auto accident involving sudden deceleration is a ____ fracture. 1. compression 2. teardrop burst 3. chance 4. Jefferson

B. False

A large "deep-chested" (hypersthenic) patient requires more obliquity for a frontal view of the sternum as compared with a "thin-chested" (asthenic) patient. A. True B. False

C. Lateral thoracic spine

A long exposure time (breathing technique) is necessary for which of the following positions? A. A.P. cervical spine B. 70 degree oblique thoracic spine C. Lateral thoracic spine D. Odontoid

dolichocephalic

A long, narrow skull is called _______.

3. Nothing; accept the initial radiograph.

A radiograph of a PA Caldwell projection reveals that the petrous ridges are projected into the lower one third of the maxillary sinuses. Which of the following modifications should be made during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image? 1. Increase the extension of the head and neck. 2. Decrease the extension of the head and neck. 3. Nothing; accept the initial radiograph. 4. Angle the CR 10 degrees caudad.

4.. None of the above; positioning was correct.

A radiograph of a PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the cranium reveals that the petrous ridges are located at the level of the lower one-third of the orbits. The technologist performed this projection with the CR angled 15 degrees caudal to the OML. How must positioning be altered if a repeat exposure is performed? 1. Increase the extension of the skull. 2. Increase the flexion of the skull. 3. Increase the CR angulation 4.. None of the above; positioning was correct.

1. Increase extension of the head and neck slightly.

A radiograph of a PA projection of the sinuses reveals that the petrous ridges are projected over the ethmoid sinuses. Which of the following modifications will eliminate this superimposition, while not compromising diagnostic quality? 1. Increase extension of the head and neck slightly. 2. Angle the CR 5 to 10 degrees caudad. 3. Increase flexion of the head and neck slightly. 4. Have the patient open his mouth.

4. None of the above; centering and image receptor placement were correct.

A radiograph of a lateral cranium reveals that the mentum was cut off from the bottom of the radiograph. A 10 ´12-inch (24 ´ 30 cm) image receptor was used and it was placed crosswise. What must be altered if a repeat exposure is performed? 1. Center the CR at the EAM. 2. Use a 14 ´ 17-inch (35 ´ 43 cm) cassette. 3. Place the 10 ´ 12-inch (24 ´ 30 cm) cassette lengthwise. 4. None of the above; centering and image receptor placement were correct.

4. Tilt

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cranium reveals that the orbital plates are not superimposed, one is slightly superior to the other. Which of the following positioning errors led to this radiographic outcome? 1. Rotation 2. Excessive extension 3. Excessive flexion 4. Tilt

4. Rotation

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the facial bones reveals that the mandibular rami are not superimposed. What specific positioning error is present on this radiograph? 1. Excessive extension 2. Tilt 3. Excessive flexion 4. Rotation

1. Decrease the extension of the head and neck.

A radiograph of a parieto-orbital projection for the optic foramen reveals that the optic foramen is projected into the inferior orbital rim. Which of the following modifications is needed to produce a more diagnostic image? 1. Decrease the extension of the head and neck. 2. Increase the extension of the head and neck. 3. Increase the CR angulation. 4. Decrease the CR angulation.

1. Excessive flexion

A radiograph of a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection for sinuses reveals that the petrous pyramids are projected over the maxillary sinuses. What positioning error is present on this radiograph? 1. Excessive flexion 2. Excessive extension 3. Excessive CR angulation 4. Rotation of the head

1. Insufficient extension

A radiograph of a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection reveals that the petrous ridges are superimposed over the lower 30% of the maxillary sinuses. What specific positioning error (if any) led to this radiographic finding? 1. Insufficient extension 2. Excessive extension 3. No error; accept initial radiograph 4. Excessive CR angulation

2. Increase the rotation of the skull to 45 degrees

A radiograph of a posterior profile projection of the petrous bone reveals that the petrous bone is foreshortened. The following positioning factors were used: 35-degree rotation of skull (from PA position), 12-degree cephalad angle, IOML perpendicular to film, 75 kV, CR centered to the downside petrous bone. Which of the following modifications needs to be made to produce a more diagnostic image? 1. Increase the CR angulation to 20 degrees cephalad 2. Increase the rotation of the skull to 45 degrees 3. Place the AML perpendicular to the film 4. Center the CR to upside petrous bone

2. Increase the extension of the skull.

A radiograph of a submentovertex projection of the cranium reveals that the mandibular condyles are projected into the petrous pyramids. What must be altered during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic radiograph? 1. Increase the flexion of the skull. 2. Increase the extension of the skull. 3. None of the above; it is an acceptable image. 4. Decrease the CR angulation.

1. Increase the extension of the head and neck.

A radiograph of a submentovertex projection reveals that the mandible is superimposed over the ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses. Which of the following modifications will eliminate this problem? 1. Increase the extension of the head and neck. 2. Increase the flexion of the head and neck. 3. Perform the projection with the patient supine. 4. Perform the axiolateral oblique instead of the submentovertex.

4. Excessive CR angulation

A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the cranium reveals that the dorsum sellae is projected below the foramen magnum but the anterior arch of C1 is visible within the foramen. Which of the following positioning errors led to this radiographic outcome? 1. Insufficient flexion of the head and neck 2. Insufficient CR angulation 3. Tilt of the skull 4. Excessive CR angulation

2. Increase the CR angulation.

A radiograph of an axiolateral (Schuller) projection of the mastoids reveals that the upside mastoid is superimposed on the downside mastoid. What modification is needed to prevent this superimposition during the repeat exposure? 1. Rotate the skull 15 degrees toward the film. 2. Increase the CR angulation. 3. Rotate the skull 15 degrees away from the film. 4. Extend the skull to place the OML perpendicular to the film.

2. Increase the rotation of skull toward the image receptor

A radiograph of an axiolateral projection of the mandible with the head in a lateral position reveals that the mandibular body is greatly foreshortened. Which of the following modifications is needed to produce a more diagnostic image? 1. Decrease the rotation of skull toward the image receptor. 2. Increase the rotation of skull toward the image receptor. 3. Increase the CR angulation. 4. Decrease the CR angulation

A. True

A recommended practice is to decrease the SID to less than 40 inches (102cm) for the oblique sternum to increase the magnification and resultant unsharpness of overlying ribs. A. True B. False

B. False

A right or left marker may be taped over the area of interest to indicate the location of the trauma to the ribs. A. True B. False

a. anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and the medial meniscus.

A tear of the tibial (medial) collateral ligament (MCL) due to a trauma injury is frequently associated with tears of the: a. anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and the medial meniscus. b. fibular (lateral. collateral ligament (LCL) and the patella ligament. c. posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and the lateral meniscus. d.None of the above

pituitary adenoma

A(n) ______ is a tumor that may produce an enlarged sella turcica.

depressed

A(n) _______ skull fracture is also called a "ping pong" fracture.

linear

A(n) _______ skull fracture may appear as a jagged or straight lucent line.

A patient comes from the ER with a possible cervical spine fracture. The preliminary radiographic image that should be obtained for this purpose is: A. A later projection in the dorsal decubitus position B. A lateral projection in extension with the patient supine C. A lateral projection in flexion with the patient erect D. A lateral projection in the erect position holding weights

A. A later projection in the dorsal decubitus position

A.P. stress studies (projections) of the ankle joint are made to verify the presence of: A. A ligamentous tear B. Tibial fracture C. All of the above D. None of the above

A. A ligamentous tear

Situation: A patient enters the ED (emergency department) with a possible ascites. The patient is ambulatory. Which of the following positions of the abdomen will best demonstrate this condition? A. AP erect B. AP supine C. PA prone D. PA erect chest

A. AP erect

Situation: A 16-year-old female patient enters the ED with a possible kidney stone. She complains of pain in the right lower pelvis region. Which of the following options should be taken in regard to gonadal shielding? A. Don't use it. B. Use it on all projections if correctly placed. C. Use it on the preliminary projection only. D. Ask the patient or her parents for their permission to not shield the gonads.

A. Don't use it.

On a supine abdomen radiograph the ________ aspect of the patient is in contact with the image receptor? A. Dorsal B. Ventral C. Lateral D. Decubitus

A. Dorsal

Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following abdominal projections would best demonstrate this condition? A. Dorsal decubituts B. Left lateral decubitus C. Right lateral decubitus D. AP erect

A. Dorsal decubituts

For the camp-coventry projection of the knee the patient's (body) is: A. Prone B. Supine C. Lateral recumbent D. Upright

A. Prone

For the holmblad projection of the knee the patient's torso (body) is: A. Prone B. Supine C. Lateral recumbent D. Upright

A. Prone

A radiographic image of the upper thoracic and lateral (Twining) projection. The CR is directed 5 degrees caudal with the arm closet to the image receptor: A. Raised above the head B. Lowered to the side C. Extended at a right angle

A. Raised above the head

Which of the following radiographic projections is most often requested to provide the best demonstration of the left atrium? A. Right PA oblique projection in the RAO position B. Left PA oblique projection in the LAO position C. Left lateral projection with the patient supine D. PA projection with the patient erect

A. Right PA oblique projection in the RAO position

In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the gallbladder be found? A. Right upper quadrant B. Left upper quadrant C. Right lower quadrant D. Left lower quadrant

A. Right upper quadrant

A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the PA oblique projection. The patient is placed in a right lateral recumbent position and rotate anteriorly 20 degrees. The CR is directed through T7. The structures best demonstrated would be the: A. Right zygapophyseal articulation B. Last lumbar spinous process C. L5-S1 interspace D. Last lumbar intervertebral foramen

A. Right zygapophyseal articulation

Mastoid Air Cells (or Sinuses)

Air spaces in the mastoid process of the temporal bone that communicate with the middle ear cavity

Base of the skull (mastoid tips)

Along with the upper incisors, what other bony landmark must be aligned for the AP open-mouth projection?

4. Horizontal x-ray beam

Along with the use of erect positions, what other technical factor is important to demonstrate air/fluid levels in paranasal sinuses? 1. Use of medium kV 2. Use of IR without a grid 3. Small focal spot 4. Horizontal x-ray beam

depressed skull fracture

Also called "ping-pong" fracture

4. scoliosis.

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is a congenital condition termed: 1. lordosis. 2. spondylolisthesis. 3. spina bifida. 4. scoliosis.

2. a compression fracture.

An anterior wedging of vertebrae with a loss of body height but rarely causing neurologic symptoms is called: 1. spondylolysis. 2. a compression fracture. 3. a teardrop burst fracture. 4. a chance fracture.

mesocephalic

An average shaped skull is called ________.

B. Townes or AP axial

An excellent projection to demonstrate the occipital bone is the: A. Lateral projection B. Townes or AP axial C. Waters or Parietalacanthial D. Submentovertex or SMV

D. Waters

An excellent projection to demonstrate the superimposed halves of the cranium is the: A. Submentovertex B. PA C. Lateral D. Waters E. AP

A. Above

An injury to the region of the 8th or 9th rib would require the _____ diaphragm technique. A. Above B. Below

d. os calcis

An older term for the calcaneus is: a. os magnum b. sinus tarsi c. obturator foramen d. os calcis

b. hallux

Another name for the great toe is the: a. calculus b. hallux c. hamulus d. hamate

a. patellar surface.

Another term for the intercondylar sulcus is the: a. patellar surface. b. intercondylar recess. c. articular facets. d. femoropatellar joint space.

Lesser wing

Anterior and superior to greater wing on the inferior of the sphenoid bone

linear skull fracture

Appears as jagged or irregular lucent line

The "vermiform" refers to which structure located in the abdomen?

Appendix

Temporal Process

Arch of bone extending posteriorly from the zygomatic bone

Glabella

Area between Supercilliary Arch

2. 40 years old

At approximately what age does the xiphoid process become totally ossified? 1. The xiphoid process never becomes ossified. 2. 40 years old 3. 21 years old 4. 12 years old

Which of the following is necessary to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? A. CR perpendicular to femur B. CR perpendicular to lower leg C. CR parallel to patella D. Knee fully relaxed

B. CR perpendicular to lower leg

A radiographic image of the vertebral arch of the cervical region is obtained in the AP axial projection. The CR should be directed to enter the neck at the level of the thyroid cartilage at a: A. Cephalic angle of 10-20 degrees B. Caudal angle of 20-30 degrees C. Caudal angle of 10-15 degrees D. Cephalic angle of 45-55 degrees

B. Caudal angle of 20-30 degrees

A radiographic image of the sternoclavicular joints is obtained in the axiolateral (Kurz Bauer) projection. The patient is placed in the lateral recumbent position on their affected side with the arm raised. The CR is directed through the sternoclavicular joint closest to the IR at a: A. Caudal angulation of 35 degrees B. Caudal angulation of 15 degrees C. Cephalic angulation of 25 degrees D. Cephalic angulation of 12 degrees

B. Caudal angulation of 15 degrees

The axial projection of the pelvis that gives you a tangential view of the pelvis and the heads of the femurs in relationship to the acetabulum is: A. Danelius-Miller B. Chassard-Lapine Method C. Fractures D. Lorenz Method

B. Chassard-Lapine Method

Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds to L2-3 vertebral level? A. Xiphoid tip B. Inferior costal margin C. Jugular notch D. ASIS

B. Inferior costal margin

Coronal Suture

Between frontal and parietal bone

Lamboidal Suture

Between occipital and perietal bones

Squamosal Suture

Between parietal bone and temporal bone on side of the skull, bordered in back by occipital bone

C. Floor

Blow-out fractures are demonstrated on the ______ of the orbit. A. Superior margin B. Nasal septum C. Floor D. None of the above

Malleus

Bone in middle ear attached to the ear drum (hammer)

Nasal bone

Bones forming the bridge of the nose (2)

Superior Nuchal Line

Bony ridge that extends latterally from each side of external occipital protuberance

Inferior Nuchal Line

Bony ridge that runs latteral and under the external occipital protuberance

Mastoid Process

Bump of the temporal bone behind the ear at the base of the skull

External Occipital Protuberance

Bump on back of occipital bone

A KUB radiograph on a hypersthenic patient reveals that the entire abdomen is not included on the 14 x 17 image receptor. What can be done to correct this on the repeat radiograph? A. Use two cassettes placed lengthwise B. Use two cassettes placed crosswise C. Expose during deep inspiration D. Perform KUB with patient in the erect position.

B. Use two cassettes placed crosswise

The axial projection of the patella is taken primarily to demonstrate: A. A foreign body B. Vertical fracture C. A horizontal fracture D. Dislocation

B. Vertical fracture

The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the beclere projection is: A. 80 degrees B. 90 degrees C. 120 degrees D. 45 degrees

C. 120 degrees

When radiographing the AP hip projection, the foot and leg should be inverted _____ degrees internally. a. 40-45 b. 80-90 C. 15-20 D. None of the above

C. 15-20

When radiograping the AP projection, the foot and leg should be inverted _____ degrees internally. A. 40-45 B. 80-90 C. 15-20 D. None of the above

C. 15-20

The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the anterior-posterior projection of the knee is: A. 90 degrees B. 120 degrees C. 180 degrees D. 45 degrees

C. 180 degrees

A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the AP projection. In order to maintain a uniform optical density, which of the following conditions should be employed? 1. The anode should be placed over the region having the greatest thickness 2. The anode should be placed over the Bucky side of the table 3. The cathode should be placed over the region having the greatest thickness A. 1 only C. 3 only B. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 3 only

For the Danelius-Miller projection of the hip, the central ray will enter at a _____ angle to the neck of the femur. A. Parallel B. 45 degrees C. 90 degrees D. Oblique

C. 90 degrees

A kite position is taken for: A. Ruling out fracture B. Weight bearing C. Club feet D. None of the above

C. Club feet

A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the lateral projection. A SID receptor distance of 180 (72") cm should be employed to: A. Reduce exposure received by the patient B. Increase the magnification of the vertebrae C. Decrease the magnification of the vertebrae D. Improve radiographic contrast on the image

C. Decrease the magnification of the vertebrae

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. Unwanted rotation of the chest is best detected by evaluating the: A. Rotation of the scapulae B. Dimensions of the costophrenic angle C. Dimensions of the sternoclavicular joint spaces D. rotation of the sternum

C. Dimensions of the sternoclavicular joint spaces

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. In order to demonstrate the maximum amount of lung tissue, the patient would be instructed to suspend respiration at the: A. End of shallow expiration B. End of shallow inspiration C. End of the second breath inspiration D. End of the first breath expiration

C. End of the second breath inspiration

What is another name for a P.A. projection of the foot? A. Subtalar B. Dorsoplantar projection C. Plantodorsal projection D. Semi-axial projection

C. Plantodorsal projection

Which of the following muscles must be seen on a well-exposed abdomen projection? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Erector spine C. Psoas major D. Quadratus lumborum

C. Psoas major

In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found? A. Right upper quadrant B. Left upper quadrant C. Right lower quadrant D. Left lower quadrant

C. Right lower quadrant

A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the AP projection. The CR should be directed perpendicular to the: A. Second thoracic vertebra B. Fourth thoracic vertebra C. Seventh thoracic vertebra D. Tenth thoracic vertebra

C. Seventh thoracic vertebra

An air fluid level cannot be seen on which of the standard positions or projections? A. Upright abdomen B. Erect abdomen C. Supine abdomen D. Lateral decubitus

C. Supine abdomen

The breathing technique for an erect abdomen radiograph is: A. Suspended respiration B. Suspended inspiration C. Suspended expiration D. Does not matter

C. Suspended expiration

The instrument used to assist with sleep apnea is a(n):

CPAP

Which of the following imaging modalities often requires the use of oral and intravenous contrast media for studies of the abdomen?

CT

Which of the carpal bones is considered to be the largest?

Capitate

Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior?

Carina

Frontal Sinus

Cavity in the frontal bone towards the forehead

Sphenoid Sinus

Circular shaped indentions on the sphenoid bone

A patient suffering from emphysema would cause you to make what adjustment for density?

Decrease

Mandibular Fossa

Deep impression in the petrous portion of the temporal bone to where the mandible seats

The instrument that provides an electrical shock to the heart to establish a normal rhythm is a(n):

Defibrillator

Jugular Fossa

Depression in skull allowing for jugular to pass through lying close to the Foramen magnum

The crest of the ilium is at the level of the vertebral interspace between lumbar vertebrae #_____ and #_____. A. 1, 2 B. 2, 3 C. 3, 4 D. 4, 5

D. 4, 5

Which of the following require a lateral rotation for its oblique position? A. Foot B. 1st toe C. Ankle D. 5th toe

D. 5th toe

A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the AP oblique projection. In order to demonstrate the zygapophyseal articulations between the thoracic vertebrae, the patient should be rotated so the midcoronal plane forms an angle of: A. 15 degrees with the plane of the IR B. 25 degrees with the plane of the IR C. 45 degrees with the plane of the IR D. 70 degrees with the plane of the IR

D. 70 degrees with the plane of the IR

According to the Bontrager presentation, the KVP technique for an abdomen radiograph should be within one of the following limitations: A. 30-60 KVP B. 100-120 KVP C. 10 MAS D. 70-80 KVP

D. 70-80 KVP

Which of the following radiographic projections of the thoracic spine is most commonly employed to demonstrate the intervertebral disc spaces? A. An anteroposterior projection B. A 45 degree AP oblique projection C. A 15 degree PA oblique projection D. A lateral projection

D. A lateral projection

A true lateral x-ray of the hip is also referred to as: a. Surgical lateral b. Crosstable lateral C. Danelius-Miller D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following pathologic indications would suggest the need for a dorsal decubitus abdomen position? A. Aneurysms B. Umbilical hernias C. Calcification of the aorta D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following structures should be seen on a good supine abdominal radiograph? A. Lumbar transverse processes B. Psoas muscles C. Kidney outline D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following would not be demonstrated on a medial oblique projection of the foot? A. Intertarsal joints B. Intermetatarsal spaces C. Tarsal bones D. Ankle joint

D. Ankle joint

To ensure that the diaphragm is included on the erect abdomen projection, the top of the image receptor should be placed at the level of the: A. Inferior costal margin. B. Jugular notch. C. Xiphoid process. D. Axilla.

D. Axilla.

The C-loop is another name for the:

Duodenum

Which aspect of the small intestine is considered the shortest?

Duodenum

Which portion of the small intestine is the widest?

Duodenum

Situation: A patient enters the ED (emergency department) with a possible perforated duodenal ulcer. The patient is ambulatory. Which of the following projections/position will best demonstrate intraperitoneal air in the abdomen? A. AP supine B. Right lateral decubitus C. Dorsal decubitus D. Erect

D. Erect

A radiographic image of the trachea is obtained in the AP projection. The CR should be directed perpendicular to the midsagittal plane and adjusted to enter at the: A. Level of the tip of the xiphoid process B. Level of the sixth thoracic vertebra C. Level of the AC joints D. Level of the manubrium

D. Level of the manubrium

Which body plane is centered to the midline of the table on an AP supine abdomen? A. Mid transverse B. Mid lambdoidal C. Mid coronal D. Mid sagittal

D. Mid sagittal

Superior Orbital Fissure

Fissure between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone that transmits structures from the cranial cavity to the orbit

Inferior Orbital Fissure

Fissure in the orbit floor between maxilla and greater wing of sphenoid for maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

Inferior Nasal Concha

Flakey bone located inside the nose, one on each side, roughly shell shaped

Temporal Bones

Flatish bones forming the sides of the head in the ear and temple region

What is the name for the structure that serves as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food or fluid?

Epiglottis

Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior?

Esophagus

A. Zygoma

For the Lateral Facial bones projection the central ray enters at the _______. A. Zygoma B. Glabella C. Inion D. Mentum

A. 15, caudal

For the Law's position of the TMJ's the central ray should be angled ______________degrees to the film surface. A. 15, caudal B. 30, cephalic C. 45, caudal D. 60, caudal

C. 15 degrees

For the Law's position of the TMJ's the head should be rotated ___________ towards the film. (From the lateral position) A. 30 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 15 degrees D. 100 degrees

D. 37

For the Water's position the OML is positioned at a_________Degree angle to the film surface. A. 45 B. 90 C. 20 D. 37 E. 57

C. Mento-meatal line

For the Water's position the__________will be at a perpendicular angle to the film surface. A. Orbito-meatal line B. Infraorbito-meatal line C. Mento-meatal line D. Mid sagital line E. More than one, but not all of the above

A. Submentovertex projection

For the Zygomatic Arches examination, the "jughandles view" is known as the: A. Submentovertex projection B. Waters projection C. AP axial projection D. Lateral projection

Orbits

Formed by Frontal (roof), Ethmoid (posterior medial), Lacrimal (anterior medial), Sphenoid (posterior lateral), Zygomatic (anterior lateral), Maxillary (anterior floor) Palatine (posterior floor)

Nasal Septum

Formed by perpendicular blade ofh ethmoid bone and the vomer

Palatine Process

Forms the anterior portion of the hard palate (roof) of the mouth also forms parts of the nasal cavity and eye orbits

Vomer

Forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum (1)

4. flail chest rib fractures.

Fracture of adjacent ribs in two or more places with associated pulmonary injury is known as: 1. compression rib fractures. 2. acute rib fractures. 3. compound rib fractures. 4. flail chest rib fractures.

b. plantar flexion.

Extending the ankle joint or pointing the foot and toes downward is called: a. dorsiflexion. b. plantar flexion. c. inversion. d. eversion.

The hip joint is best demonstrated in a radiograph of the AP distal femur. TRUE / FALSE

FALSE

The knee joint is best visualized by angling the central ray 5-7 degrees caudal. TRUE / FALSE

FALSE

When a patient has a transverse fracture of the patella a settegast projection must be done. TRUE / FALSE

FALSE

A. Cephalic 15 - 20 degrees B. Cephalic 15 - 20 degrees C. Perpendicular D. Caudad 15 - 20 degrees E. Perpendicular F. Perpendicular

Give the direction and degree of angulation of the central ray for the following projections: (For example: Cephalic, degrees 25) A) A.P. Cervical B) LPO Cervical C) A.P. Thoracic D) RAO Cervical E) Lat. Cervical F) Lat. Swimmers

(A) A.P. Lumbar: Perpendicular, 90° (B) A.P. Coccyx: Caudal, 10° (C) A.P. Sacrum: Cephalic, 15° (D) Lat. Lumbar: Perpendicular, 90° (E) A.P. L5-S1: Caudal, 30° - 35°

Give the direction and the degrees of angulations of the central ray for the following projections: (Example: Cephalic, degrees 25) (A) A.P. Lumbar ___________, ____________Degrees (B) A.P. Coccyx ___________, ____________Degrees (C) A.P. Sacrum ___________, ____________Degrees (D) Lat. Lumbar ___________, ____________Degrees (E) A.P. L5-S1 ___________, ____________Degrees

What is another common term for the greater omentum?

Fatty apron

1. True

Gonadal shielding should be used on both males and females of childbearing age for AP hip projections, if correctly placed. 1. True 2. False

The greater omentum extends from the transverse colon to the:

Greater curvature of the stomach

Which carpal articulates with both the fourth and fifth metacarpals?

Hamate

Incisive Fossa (foramen)

Hole or indentation on the front of the roof of the mouth

The type of instrument that measures cardiac activity over a period of time is a(n):

Holter monitor

26

How many bones make up the adult vertebral column?

1. 26

How many bones make up the adult vertebral column? 1. 26 2. 28 3. 31 4. 33

A. 15 degrees cephalad

How many degrees and in what direction should the tube be angled for an A.P. projection of the cervical spine? A. 15 degrees cephalad B. 15 degrees caudad C. 30 degrees cephalad D. 30 degrees caudad

A. 30 degrees posteriorly & 45 degrees axillary

How many degrees of rotation are needed for a routine oblique projection of the ribs? A. 30 degrees posteriorly & 45 degrees axillary B. 15 degrees posteriorly & 20 degrees axillary

c. Three

How many facets make up the subtalar joint? a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four

b. 7

How many tarsal bones are found in the foot? a. 5 b. 7 c. 26 d. 14

3. 25 degrees

How much cephalad CR angulation is required for the axiolateral projection of the mandible? 1. 45 degrees 2. 10 to 15 degrees 3. 25 degrees 4. 30 degrees

2. 7 to 8 degrees

How much difference is there between the OML and IOML positioning lines? 1. 10 to 11 degrees 2. 7 to 8 degrees 3. 8 to 9 degrees 4. 5 to 6 degrees

D. 70 degrees

How much must the patient be obliqued in order to visualize the apophyseal joints of the thoracic spine? A. 30 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 70 degrees

A. 15 degrees LAO

How much rotation and which oblique is required to best demonstrate the left sternoclavicular joint? A. 15 degrees LAO B. 35 - 45 degrees LAO C. 15 degrees RAO D. 5 - 10 degrees RAO

B. 15 degrees

How much rotation of the thorax is recommended for an anterior oblique of the sternoclavicular joints? A. 10 degrees B. 15 degrees C. 20 degrees

C. 15 degrees

How much rotation should be used for the oblique position of the sternum for a large, "deep-chested" patient? A. 20 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 15 degrees

3. None

How much skull rotation (from a lateral position) is required to place the ramus parallel to the image receptor for the axiolateral projection of the mandible? 1. 45 degrees 2. 53 degrees 3. None 4. 30 degrees

What is the proper abbreviation for the study that demonstrates the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder in the presence of contrast media?

IVU

B. AP axial/ Towne PA axial

If the occipital bone, petrous ridges and dorsum sella within the foramen magnum are best demonstrated in what position? A. Lateral skull B. AP axial/ Towne PA axial C. SMV

Which portion of the small intestine is the longest?

Ileum

B. 10 degrees caudad

Which of the following is the proper tube angle for an A.P. projection of the coccyx? A. 10 degrees cephalad B. 10 degrees caudad C. 25 degrees cephalad D. 25 degrees caudad

3. Ninth

Which of the following ribs is considered to be a false rib? 1. None of the above 2. First 3. Ninth 4. Seventh

3. Submentovertex

Which of the following skull projections results in the highest thyroid dose? 1. PA axial (Haas method) 2. Lateral 3. Submentovertex 4. AP axial (Towne method)

3. They do not possess costocartilage.

Which of the following statements is true about floating ribs? 1. They do not possess a head. 2. They do not possess a costovertebral joint. 3. They do not possess costocartilage. 4. They are ribs 10 through 12.

A. Suspend respiration upon inspiration

Which of the following statements is true about radiography of ribs located above the diaphragm? A. Suspend respiration upon inspiration B. Perform the study with the patient recumbent C. Use a medium kV range of 75-85 D. Always include an AP projection as part of the routine

2. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae.

Which of the following statements is true for a typical adult vertebra? 1. The spinous process extends posteriorly from the body of the vertebra. 2. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae. 3. All of the above 4. The transverse processes are present only on thoracic vertebrae containing rib connections.

3. All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rib articulation.

Which of the following statements is true? 1. All of the above 2. The intervertebral disks are tightly bound to the vertebral bodies to prevent movement within the vertebral column. 3. All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rib articulation. 4. All adult vertebrae are separated by intervertebral disks.

1. Costocartilage

Which of the following structures connects the anterior aspect of the ribs to the sternum? 1. Costocartilage 2. Sternal tendons 3. Costotransverse joints 4. Costovertebral joints

2. Lesser trochanter

Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior or distal? 1. Fovea capitis 2. Lesser trochanter 3. Greater trochanter 4. Neck

3. S1-2

Which of the following structures is located at the level of the ASIS? 1. L4-5 2. Tip of coccyx 3. S1-2 4. Promontory of sacrum

4. Obturator foramen

Which of the following structures is not an aspect of the proximal femur? 1. Lesser trochanter 2. Fovea capitis 3. Intertrochanteric crest 4. Obturator foramen

4. Obturator foramen

Which of the following structures is not an aspect of the proximal femur? 1. Lesser trochanter 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Fovea capitis 4. Obturator foramen

c. Glenoid process

Which of the following structures is not part of the proximal humerus? a. Intertubercular groove b. Lesser tubercle c. Glenoid process d. Anatomic neck

4. All of the above apply.

Which of the following technical factors do not apply to lateral nasal bone projections? 1. The technologist should use a small focal spot. 2. The technologist should not use AEC. 3. The technologist should use low to medium kV. 4. All of the above apply.

D. Use a breathing technique

Which of the following techniques is most effective in preventing lung markings from obscuring the sternum? A. Use a high kV B. Oblique as much as needed to not superimpose the sternum over the hilum C. Decrease the SID to magnify the sternum D. Use a breathing technique

B. Gonion

Which of the following terms describes the angle or lower posterior portion of the mandible? A. Nasion B. Gonion C. Vertex D. Inion

T11 - T12

Which of the following thoracic vertebra(e) possess no facets for costotransverse joints?

2. T11-12

Which of the following thoracic vertebra(e) possess no facets for costotransverse joints? 1. T1 2. T11-12 3. None of the above 4. T10-12

3. Iliac crest

Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds with the L4-5 vertebral level? 1. Lower costal margin 2. Xiphoid process 3. Iliac crest 4. ASIS

1. ASIS

Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds with the second sacral segment? 1. ASIS 2. Symphysis pubis 3. Greater trochanter 4. Iliac crest

e. C

Which of the labeled structures is the adductor tubercle? a. B b. D c. A d. E e. C

2. N

Which of the labeled structures is the ischial tuberosity? 1. P 2. N 3. M 4. E 5. F

d. B

Which of the labeled structures is the lateral condyle? a. D b. A c. C d. B e. E

a. C

Which of these labeled structures or bones identifies the lateral cuneiform? a. C b. D c. I d. B

b. E

Which of these labeled structures or bones identifies the metatarsophalangeal joint? a. G b. E c. H d. F

3. Submentovertex

Which one of the following projections of the mandible results in the greatest thyroid dose? 1. Axiolateral 2. AP axial 3. Submentovertex 4. PA axial

3. Lateral projection

Which one of the following projections will best demonstrate a compression fracture of the thoracic spine? 1. Anterior oblique positions 2. Posterior oblique positions 3. Lateral projection 4. AP projection

1. Median sacral crest

Which one of the following structures of the sacrum is considered to be the most posterior? 1. Median sacral crest 2. Promontory 3. Spinous processes 4. Superior articular processes

e. A

Which one of the labeled structures is the medial condyle? a. D b. B c. E d. C e. A

Lateral projection

Which one of the projection will best demonstrate a compression fracture of the thoracic spine?

3. Second

Which pair of ribs attaches to the sternum at the level of the sternal angle? 1. First 2. Fourth and fifth 3. Second 4. Third

C. LPO

Which position can replace the RAO of the sternum if the patient cannot lie prone? A. LAO B. Left lateral decubitus C. LPO D. RPO

2. Lateral

Which position or projection is best for linear tomography of the TMJ? 1. Submentovertex 2. Lateral 3. AP axial 4. AP

45° oblique position combined with a cephalad angle RPO or LAO (15° caudual)

Which position will demonstrate the left intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine?

AP open mouth technique

Which position/projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1 and C2?

3. AP open mouth

Which position/projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1 and C2? 1. 45-degree obliques 2. Lateral 3. AP open mouth 4. AP axial

2. Infraorbitomeatal

Which positioning line is parallel to the image receptor for the oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection of the zygomatic arches? 1. Midsagittal plane 2. Infraorbitomeatal 3. Orbitomeatal 4. Glabelloalveolar

1. OML

Which positioning line is perpendicular to the image receptor for a PA projection of the mandible? 1. OML 2. GAL 3. AML 4. IOML

2. MML

Which positioning line is perpendicular to the image receptor for a parietoacanthial projection? 1. AML 2. MML 3. OML 4. IOML

2. AML

Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the image receptor for the parieto-orbital projection of the optic foramina? 1. MML 2. AML 3. OML 4. IOML

3. Mentomeatal

Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor for the parietoacanthial projection? 1. Lips-meatal 2. Orbitomeatal 3. Mentomeatal 4. Acanthiomeatal

2. Interpupillary

Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor with a true lateral nasal bone projection? 1. Midsagittal 2. Interpupillary 3. AML 4. OML

A. Infraorbitomeatal line

Which positioning line must be parallel to the IR for the SMV projection of the cranium? A. Infraorbitomeatal line B. Midsagittal plane C. Interpupillary line

4. OML

Which positioning line must be used with a 30-degree caudad angle for an AP axial projection of zygomatic arches? 1. IOML 2. AML 3. GAL 4. OML

2. Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters)

Which projection best demonstrates the floor of the orbits? 1. Parietoacanthial (Waters) 2. Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) 3. PA axial (Caldwell) 4. Lateral facial bones

4. Axiolateral oblique (modified Law) projection

Which projection for the mastoids requires a double 15-degree angle (head rotation and CR angle)? 1. AP axial (Towne) projection 2. Axioanterior oblique, posterior profile position (Stenvers) 3. Axiolateral (Schuller) projection 4. Axiolateral oblique (modified Law) projection

3. Submentovertex

Which projection will best demonstrate the entire mandible with one exposure? 1. AP axial 2. Axiolateral 3. Submentovertex 4. Tomography

d. AP oblique, 45 degrees medial rotation

Which projection/position of the foot is represented by this drawing of the foot? a. AP projection, no rotation b. AP oblique, 15 to 20 degrees medial rotation c. AP oblique, 45 degrees lateral rotation d. AP oblique, 45 degrees medial rotation

3. 1st through 7th ribs

Which ribs are considered to be true ribs? 1. 11th and 12th ribs 2. 1st through 9th ribs 3. 1st through 7th ribs 4. 1st and 2nd ribs

3. Sphenoid

Which sinus is projected through the oral cavity with a parietoacanthial transoral projection? 1. Ethmoid 2. Maxillary 3. Sphenoid 4. Frontal

1. Maxillary only

Which sinuses are best demonstrated with a parietoacanthial projection? 1. Maxillary only 2. Sphenoid and maxillary 3. Frontal and maxillary 4. Frontal, maxillary, and ethmoid

1. Frontal and ethmoid

Which sinuses are best demonstrated with the PA projection? 1. Frontal and ethmoid 2. Frontal and maxillary 3. Sphenoid and ethmoid 4. Maxillary and sphenoid

2. Auricular surface

Which specific aspect of the sacrum articulates with the ilium to form the sacroiliac joint? 1. Inferior articular processes 2. Auricular surface 3. Promontory 4. Cornu

B. LAO

Which specific oblique position best demonstrates the left sternoclavicular joint next to the spine? A. RAO B. LAO

c. Calcaneus

Which structure or bone contains the sustentaculum tali? a. Tibia b. Base of the fifth metatarsal c. Calcaneus d. Talus

a. Patellar

Which tendon attaches directly to the tibial tuberosity? a. Patellar b. Quadriceps c. Collateral d. Soleus

the atlas

Which term best defines or describes the vertebral body of C1?

3. There is no vertebral body at C1

Which term best defines or describes the vertebral body of C1? 1. A large bony mass 2. The smallest of all vertebral bodies 3. There is no vertebral body at C1. 4. A column of bone supported by an intervertebral disk

C. Infraorbitomeatal line

Which term describes the line between the infra-orbital margin and the E.A.M? A. Orbitomeatal line B. Midsagital plane C. Infraorbitomeatal line D. Acanthiomeatal line

B. Orbitomeatal line

Which term describes the line connecting the outer canthus of the eye to the E.A.M? A. Interpupillary line B. Orbitomeatal line C. Infraorbitomeatal line D. Acanthiomeatal line

b. Sternal extremity

Which term describes the medial end of the clavicle? a. Acromion b. Sternal extremity c. Acromial tuberosity d. Acromial extremity

b. Dorsum

Which term describes the top or anterior surface of the foot? a. Palmar b. Dorsum c. Volar d. Plantar

A. AP and LPO

Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the left posterior lower ribs? A. AP and LPO B. AP and RAO C. PA and LPO D. PA and RAO

A. PA and LAO

Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the right anterior upper ribs? A. PA and LAO B. PA and RAO C. AP and RAO D. AP and LPO

B. AP/RPO

Which two rib projections should be performed for an injury to the right posterior ribs? A. PA/LPO B. AP/RPO C. AP/RAO

d. External rotation, AP projection

Which view and projection of the proximal humerus is represented in the Figure? a. Neutral rotation, oblique projection b. Internal rotation, lateral projection c. External rotation, lateral projection d. External rotation, AP projection

1. Less thyroid and breast dose

Why are the anterior obliques (RAO/LAO) preferred over the posterior obliques of the cervical spine? 1. Less thyroid and breast dose 2. More comfortable for the patient 3. Place the zygapophyseal joints closer to the image receptor 4. Prevent overlap of the mandible over the spine

B. The RAO projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart

Why is the RAO sternum preferred to the LAO position? A. The RAO produces less magnification of the sternum B. The RAO projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart C. The RAO reduces dose to the thyroid gland D. The RAO projects the sternum away from the hilum and heart

3. To prevent superimposition upon the cervical spine

Why is the chin extended for an axiolateral projection of the mandible? 1. To open up the TMJ 2. To profile the condylar process 3. To prevent superimposition upon the cervical spine 4. To better visualize the mentum

D. To remove the mandible from spine area

Why is the patients chin extended for A.P. projection of the cervical spine? A. To stretch the neck B. To increase kyphotic curve C. To increase lordotic curve D. To remove the mandible from spine area

2. To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor

Why must the lower limb be rotated 15 to 20 degrees internally for AP hip projections? 1. To separate the greater trochanter from the lesser trochanter 2. To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor 3. To place the fovea capitis into a profiled position 4. To open up the femoroacetabular joint

Stapes

The final bone in the series of small bones or ossicles of the middle ear. (stirrup)

1. Osteomyelitis

The following disease or condition may be associated with postoperative complications of open heart surgery. 1. Osteomyelitis 2. Spondylitis 3. Flail chest 4. Osteoblastic metastases

Which of the carpal bones is considered to be the largest? a .Capitate b. Triquetrum c. Trapezium d. Hamate

a .Capitate

Alveolar Process

a ridge that forms the borders of the upper and lower jaws and contains the sockets of the teeth

4

The frontal bone articulates with _______ (number) cranial bones.

4. C3.

The gonion corresponds to the level of: 1. C7. 2. C1. 3. C4-5. 4. C3.

2. 90 degrees

The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at an angle of _____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. 1. 45 degrees 2. 90 degrees 3. 30 to 35 degrees 4. 70 to 75 degrees

3. cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial.

The intervertebral joints in the lumbar spine are classified as: Student Response Correct Answer Student Response 1. synovial/diarthrodial. 2. fibrous/amphiarthrodial. 3. cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial. Student Response 4. fibrous/synarthrodial.

zygapophyseal joints

The joints between articular processes of vertebra are termed:

D. Nose & forehead

In a PA projection of the cranium, head rests on the: A. Nose & mental point B. Vertex C. Nose, cheek, & chin D. Nose & forehead

B. Zygomatic arch

In evaluating the anatomy of the Water's projection radiograph, the Elephant trunk is the: A. Zygoma (Malar) B. Zygomatic arch C. Maxilla D. Nasal Spine

C. 30

In order to demonstrate the lowest zygapophyseal joint (L5-S1), the patients mid-coronal plane must be rotated to form an angle of degrees to the film surface. A. 60 B. 45 C. 30 D. 15

A. Nose and forehead

In positioning the patient for the Caldwell projection, you would ask the patient to rest his _____ on the table. A. Nose and forehead B. Chin C. Vertex D. Nose and Chin E. None of the above

C. Nose & chin

In positioning the patient for the Modified Water's projection, you would ask the patient to rest his ______ on the table. A. Nose & forehead B. Chin C. Nose & chin D. Nose, chin, & cheek

C. Vertex

In positioning the patient for the SMV projection, you would tilt the head back and rest the patients ________ on the table. A. Chine B. Nose C. Vertex D. Forehead

D. Chin

In positioning the patient for the Water's projection, you would ask the patient to rest his ______ on the table. A. Forehead & nose B. Zygoma C. Nose forehead & cheek D. Chin

A. Perpendicular to film

In radiography of a routine skull series the lateral projection will have the interpupillary line: A. Perpendicular to film B. Parallel to film C. Diagonal to the table D. Cattycorner to the table top

B. 25, cephalic

In the Axial lateral oblique of the mandible, the central ray is angle at a __________angle to the film surface. A. 45, cephalic B. 25, cephalic C. Perpendicular D. 60, caudal

B. Nose and forehead

In the Caldwell position the _____________are resting on the table surface. A. Chin and forehead B. Nose and forehead C. Chin and nose

D. Nasion

In the Caldwell position the central ray exits at the ___________. A. Parietal bone B. Acanthion C. Mentum D. Nasion

A. 15, caudal

In the Caldwell position the central ray is angled ___________degrees to the surface of the film. (No this is not a trick question!!) A. 15, caudal B. 25, caudal C. 25, cephalic D. 45, caudal

C. Interpupillary

In the Lateral nasal bone projection, the ______ line forms a 90 degree angle to the image receptor. A. Midsagittal B. Transverse C. Interpupillary D. None of the above E. Both A & C

C. 55

In the Modified Water's projection of the Facial bones, the orbito-metal line forms a _____ degree angle to the image receptor. A. 37 B. 45 C. 55 D. 67

D. Zygoma, chin, & nose

In the Rhese method (parieto-orbital oblique Projection), the head rests on the: A. Zygoma, forehead, & nose B. Zygoma, chin, & ear C. Zygoma, chin, & eyebrow D. Zygoma, chin, & nose

A. 53

In the Rhese position the mid-sagittal plane forms an angle of _____ degrees to the image receptor. A. 53 B. 45 C. 17 D. 00

A. 25, caudal

In the Schuller Laterals of the TMJ's the central ray is angled__________to the film surface. A. 25, caudal B. 35, caudal C. Perpendicular D. 15, caudal

A. IOML

In the Submento-vertico projection the ____________ lies parallel to the film surface. A. IOML B. OML C. MSP D. MML

C. Sub-mentum

In the Submento-vertico projection the central ray enters at the____________. A. Vertex B. Acanthion C. Sub-mentum D. Zygoma

C. MSP

In the Submento-vertico projection the___________ lies perpendicular to the film surface. A. IOML. B. OML C. MSP D. MML

B. Infraorbital-meatal

In the Submentovertex Projection the _________ line is positioned parallel to the image receptor. A. Mid-sagittal B. Infraorbital-meatal C. Interpupillary D. Mentomeatal

B. Acanthion

In the Water's position the central ray exits at the ___________ . A. Parietal bone B. Acanthion C. Mentum D. Nasion

D. 37

In the Water's projection the Orbitomeatal line will form a _____ degree angle to the image receptor. A. 45 B. 90 C. 55 D. 37

C. Acanthion

In the Water's projection, the central ray should exit at the: A. Glabella B. Nasion C. Acanthion D. Mentum

D. Below

In the Water's projection, the petrous ridges should be demonstrated ______ the maxillary sinuses. A. Mid-point B. Above C. Lateral D. Below E. None of the above

1. 3 to 5 inches (7.5 to 12.5 cm)

In the erect adult bony thorax, the posterior portion of a typical rib is ____ higher or more superior to the anterior portion. 1. 3 to 5 inches (7.5 to 12.5 cm) 2. 1 to 2 inches (2.5 to 5 cm) 3. 6 to 8 inches (15 to 20 cm) 4. 10 to 12 inches (25 to 30 cm)

C. Interpupillary Line

In the lateral projection of the Facial bones series the following line/plane is perpendicular to the image receptor: A. International Base line B. Mid-Sagittal Plane C. Interpupillary Line D. None of the above E. All of the above

D. 5-8 degrees caudal

In the lateral projection of the L5-S1 junction where the lumbar spine region is sagging and not parallel to the film surface, the central ray should be angled: A. 20 degrees cephalic B. 40 degrees caudal C. 5-8 degrees cephalic D. 5-8 degrees caudal

A. Interpupillary line

In the lateral projection of the Sinus series the___________will be at a perpendicular angle to the film surface. A. Interpupillary line B. Midsagittal line C. Orbito-meatal line D. Mento-meatal line

1. zygapophyseal joints.

The joints between articular processes of vertebra are termed: 1. zygapophyseal joints. 2. synarthrodial joints. 3. intervertebral joints. 4. fibrous joints.

Foramen Magnum

The large opening at the base of the cranium through which the spinal cord passes

What percentage of polyps will convert into cancer? a. 1% b. 5% c. 2% d. 10%

a. 1%

According to Ballinger, for the original Cleaves Method the central ray is angled _____ to the film surface. a. 40 degrees cephalic b. 20-30 degrees caudal c. Perpendicular d. None of the above e. More that one but not all the above

a. 40 degrees cephalic

The liver weights how many pounds? a. 7 b. 5 c. 10 d. 2

a. 7

The survival rate for liver transplant is about what percent? a. 90 b. 50 c. 20 d. 10

a. 90

In positioning the patient for an AP hip projection, the following anatomical reference points are used to center the hip joint to the center of the film. a. Anterior superior iliac spine & the symphysis pubis b. Femoral epicondyles & knee joint c. Coracoid process & acromion process d. Epicondyles & malleoli

a. Anterior superior iliac spine & the symphysis pubis

The laryngeal prominence is a positioning landmark located at the level of: a. C5. b. C3. c. T1. d. C7.

a. C5

Ear = (D) Superior Articular process Front leg = (A) Inferior Articular process Neck = (E) Pars Interarticularus Rump (Butt) = (C) Spinous process Eye = (B) Pedicle Nose = (F) Transverse process

In the oblique position of the lumbar spine radiograph "SCOTTY DOG" are demonstrated: Match the parts of the "SCOTTY DOG" in column (A) with the anatomical structures in column (B): COLUMN (A) COLUMN (B) _____Ear (A) Inferior Articular process _____Front leg (B) Pedicle _____Neck (C) Spinous process _____Rump (Butt) (D) Superior Articular process _____Eye (E) Pars interarticularus _____Nose (F) Tranverse process

C. 45

In the oblique projection of the cervical spine the mid-coronal plane is rotated at a degree to the film surface. A. 70 B. 30 C. 45 D. 90

A. 45

In the oblique projection of the lumbar spine the midcoronal plane is positioned at a degree angle to the film surface. A. 45 B. 30 C. 90 D. 60

D. Cervico-thoracic region

The lateral Swimmer's projection is done to demonstrate a lateral view of the: A. C-1 & C-2 B. T-7 C. Axis & atlas D. Cervico-thoracic region

B. Outer canthus

The lateral junction where the upper and lower eyelids meet, is termed the: A. Inner canthus B. Outer canthus C. Infraorbital margin D. Canthus of the THIRD KIND

A. Closest

The left anterior posterior oblique (lapo) projection of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint to the film surface. A. Closest B. Farthest

B. Left

The left anterior posterior oblique (lapo) projection of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint. A. Right B. Left C. None of the above D. All of the above

B. Left

The left posterior oblique position of the lumbar spine best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints. A. Right B. Left

F

The left zygapophyseal joint is labeled _____.

f

The left zygapophyseal joint is labeled _____.

1. ischium.

The lesser sciatic notch is an aspect of the: 1. ischium. 2. pubis. 3. sacrum. 4. ilium.

b. a short female

The long axis of the femur would have a greater angle on which of the following patients? a. a short male b. a short female c. a tall male d. a tall female

c. a tall male

The long axis of the femur would have less of an angle with which of the following patients? a. a tall female b. a short female c. a tall male d. a short male

C. Lateral projection

The mandibular rami superimposed and the orbital roofs superimposed are evaluation criteria for the: A. PA projection B. Towne or AP Axial C. Lateral projection D. Submentovertex projection

asterion

The mastoid fontanel becomes the ______ in an adult skull.

d. tibia.

The medial malleolus is part of the: a. talus. b. fibula. c. calcaneus. d. tibia.

B. Acantion

The mid-line point junction of the upper lip & nose is termed the: A. Inion B. Acantion C. Glabella D. Gonion

a. shoulder

The most frequently dislocated joint in the body occurs at the: a. shoulder b. ankle c. hip d. wrist

Spinous process

The most posterior aspect of a typical vertebra is the:

3. spinous process.

The most posterior aspect of a typical vertebra is the: 1. pedicle. 2. lamina. 3. spinous process. 4. body.

Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds to L2-3 vertebral level?

Inferior costal margin

Which topographic landmarks corresponds to L2-3 vertebral level?

Inferior costal margin

Internal Auditory Meatus

Inside temporal bone opening of ear

Incus

Intermediate ear bone (anvil)

What is the name of the joint found between the proximal and distal phalanges of the first digit?

Interphalangeal

Organs that are located within the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as:

Intraperitoneal

Wormian Bones

Irregular shaped bones that appear within sutures

Ethmoid Sinuses

Irregular shaped cells seperated from the orbital cavity by a very thin layer of bone

Ethmoid Bone

Irregularly shaped bone between the eye sockets and between the frontal and sphenoid bones

Palatine Bone

Irregularly shaped bone that forms the back of the hard palate and helps to form the nasal cavity and the floor of the orbits (2)

Lateral Masses

Irregularly shaped,thin walled bony regions flanking the perpendicular plate laterally

A. Erect

It is preferred to do an AP/PA ribs above the diaphragm _____ . A. Erect B. Supine

A. True

It is virtually impossible to visualize the sternum with a direct PA or AP projection? A. True B. False

2. False

The only bony connection between the shoulder girdle and the bony thorax is the acromioclavicular joint. 1. True 2. False

D. Rhese

The optic foramen is best demonstrated on which of the following projections? A. Sternvers B. Owens C. Schuller Lateral D. Rhese

Which portion of the small intestine has a "feathery" appearance in the presence of barium?

Jejunum

abnormal or exaggerated thoracic "humpback" curvature with increased convexity.

Kyphosis is defined as:

2. abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity.

Kyphosis is defined as: 1. normal or abnormal lumbar swayback curvature. 2. abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity. 3. normal compensatory curve of thoracic spine. 4. normal or abnormal convex sacral curvature.

The iliac crest corresponds with the ____ vertebral level.

L4-5

o

The part vertebral foramen is labeled _____.

paget's

The pathology that begins with a destructive stage and is followed by a reparative stage resulting in a "cotton-wool" appearance is called _______disease.

B. 35 degrees cephalic

The patient is a female and in the supine position, to demonstrate the L5-S1 junction the central ray should be angled: A. 30 degrees cephalic B. 35 degrees cephalic C. 30 degrees caudal D. 35 degrees caudal

Squamous Portion

Large flat area of the temportal bone

Greater Wing

Large lobe on shpenoid that looks like top of butterfly wing

Foramen Ovale

Large oval holes at base of the sphenoid which allow mandibular nerves to pass through

Frontal Bone

Large singular bone of skull (1 Sometimes 2)

Occiptal Condyles

Lateral parts of the occipital bone are situated at the sides of the foramen magnum - smooth surface for the skull to rock on the atlas vertebrae

C. 30 degrees caudal

The patient is a male and in the prone position, to demonstrate the L5-S1 junction the central ray should be angled: A. 30 degrees cephalic B. 35 degrees cephalic C. 30 degrees caudal D. 35 degrees caudal

1. sphenoid 2. occiptal 3. temporal 4. frontal 5. temporal 6. temporal 7. sphenoid 8. ethmoid 9. ethmoid 10. occiptal 11. frontal 12. sphenoid 13. ethmoid

List the bone that each process can be found: 1. sella turcica 2. foramen magnum 3. external auditory meatus 4. superciliary arch 5. petrous ridge 6. styloid process 7. foramen rotundum 8. crista galli 9, superior nasal conchae 10. inion 11. ethmoid notch 12. optic foramen 13. perpendicular plate

1. inion 2. supercillary ridge 3. glabella 4. supraorbital groove 5. vertex 6. supraorbital margin 7. frontal tuberosity

List the surface landmark with its correct description. 1. external occipital protuberance 2. ridge of bone at the eyebrow 3. smooth flat surface between eyebrows 4. depression in bone above eyebrow 5. most superior surface of cranium 6. superior rim of orbit 7. rounded prominence on forehead

The only organ in the body capable of regeneration is the:

Liver

What solid organs is the largest found in the abdomen?

Liver

Which of the following solid organs is the largest found in the abdomen?

Liver

Carotid Canal

Located on petrous portion of the temporal bone, anterior to the jugular foramen

Mandible

Lower jawbone in vertebrates

Hyoid

Main neck bone that supports tongue muscles; Adam's Apple

Mandible Body

Main part of the jaw bone

pituitary adenoma

May cause erosion of dorsum sellae

B. PA with central angled 15 degrees caudal

The petrous ridges are demonstrated in the lower 1/3 of the orbits on the: A. PA central ray perpendicular B. PA with central angled 15 degrees caudal C. PA with central ray angled 10 degrees caudal D. PA with central ray angled 25 degrees caudal

basal skull fracture

May produce air-fluid level in sphenoid sinus

osteitis Deformans

May result in "cotton-wool" appearance

sella turcica / sphenoid

The pituitary gland is associated with and protected by the _______ of the _______ bone.

lambda

The point where the sagittal suture and the lambdoidal suture meet is called the _________.

B. Closest to the film surface

The posterior oblique positions of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints. A. Farthest from the film surface B. Closest to the film surface

Mastoid Portion

The posterior part of the temporal bone. Includes air cells that communicate with the tympanic antrum

2. form the actual birth canal

The primary function of the true pelvis is to: 1. support the lower abdomen 2. form the actual birth canal 3. provide for a gynecoid-shaped pelvis 4. support the pregnant uterus

A. Lateral

The projection that will best demonstrate all the sinus cavities on one shot is: A. Lateral B. Caldwell C. Smv D. Water's

Pterygoid Medial

Medial- elevates and moves jaw it from side to side

Which of the following structures helps stabilize and support the small intestine?

Mesentery

Hypophyseal Fossa

Middle indent of the Sella Turcia

Middle Nasal Concha

Middle scroll-shaped projections lateral to the nasal septum

D. Submentovertex

Midpoint of the angles of the mandible to the center of the film is the CRPR reference for the _____ projection. A. Waters B. Townes C. Rhese D. Submentovertex

C. 25 degrees caudal

On the PA skull projection, to place the petrous ridges below the orbits, the central ray is directed _____. A. 15 degrees caudal B. Perpendicular C. 25 degrees caudal D. 10 degrees caudal

Mandibular Foramen

Opening in the ramus portion of the mandible

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA axial projection. In order to demonstrate the apices free of the superimposition with the shadows of the clavicles, the central ray should be directed: a. Cephalic at an angulation of 10-15 degrees b. Caudal at an angulation of 10-15 degrees c. Cephalic at an angulation of 35-40 degrees d. Caudal at an angulation of 35-40 degrees.

a. Cephalic at an angulation of 10-15 degrees

Which of the following joints displays a "hinge" type of movement? a. Ginglymus b. Sellar c. Trochoid d. Ellipsoidal

a. Ginglymus

What is the proper abbreviation for the study that demonstrates the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder in the presence of contrast media? a. IVU b. IVP c. KUB d. UGI

a. IVU

For the AP hip projection, the foot and leg are inverted to place the _____ parallel to the film surface. a. Neck of femur b. Epicondyles C. Malleoli D. Coracoid

a. Neck of femur

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the lateral projection. If the patient is erect, it is important to place the midsagittal plane: a. Parallel to the image receptor and vertical to the floor b. Perendicular to the image receptor and horizontal to the floor c. Parallel to the image receptor and horizontal to the floor d. Perpendicular to the image receptor and vertical to the floor

a. Parallel to the image receptor and vertical to the floor

Which carpal bone is the smallest? a. Pisiform b. Hamate c. Scaphoid d. Capitate

a. Pisiform

Which of the following structures is considered to be most distal? a. Styloid process b. Radial head c. Capitulum d. Radial tuberosity

a. Styloid process

In the AP internal projection of the shoulder the greater tuberosity is: a. Superimposed over the humerus b. In profile c. Oblique d. All of the above

a. Superimposed over the humerus

The jugular notch corresponds which vertebral level? a. T2-T3 b. C7-T1 c. T9-T10 d. T5-T6

a. T2-T3

Which abdominal pathology is associated with a radiographic "ground glass" appearance? a. ascites b. intussusception c. ulcerative colitis d. Crohn's disease

a. ascites

A fracture that occurs at the neck of the 5th metacarpal, usually from the fist striking a hard object is called a: a. boxer's fracture b. Colle's fracture c. Bennet's fracture d. Monteggia's fracture

a. boxer's fracture

Examples of "flat" bones are the: a. calvaria, ribs, scapulae, and sternum. b. ribs, sternum, patella, and ilia of pelvis. c. sternum, scapulae, ilia of pelvis, and base of cranium. d. sternum and ilia of pelvis only.

a. calvaria, ribs, scapulae, and sternum.

What is a painful disorder of the wrist and hand resulting from compression of the median nerve, as it passes through the center of the wrist? a. carpal tunnel syndrome b. osteoarthritis c. rheumatoid arthritis d. Paget's disease

a. carpal tunnel syndrome

The joint found between the base of the third metacarpal and carpal bone is the: a. carpometacarpal. b. intercarpal. c. proximal metacarpophalangeal. d. interphalangeal.

a. carpometacarpal.

The large intestine begins at the: a. cecum b. rectum c. ileum d. sigmoid

a. cecum

Which pathological conditions might cause a physician to order a soft tissue radiograph of the neck? a. either C or D b. croup c. pneumonia d. MRSA e. epiglottitis

a. either C or D

The first metacarpophalangeal joint has a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. ellipsoidal b. trochoidal c. sellar d. plane

a. ellipsoidal

The radiocarpal joint possesses a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. ellipsoidal b. plane c. ginglymus d. trochoidal

a. ellipsoidal

A chest radiograph reveals a diaphragm that is flat instead of dome shaped. The patient is most likely suffering from: a. emphysema b. bronchitis c. MRSA d. pneumonia

a. emphysema

An ellipsoidal joint allows movement in ____ directions. a. four b. all c. two d. six

a. four

The interphalangeal joints have a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. ginglymus b. sellar c. ellipsoidal d. plane

a. ginglymus

Ninety-five percent (95%) of the body's seratonin is located in the: a. gut b. liver c. blood d. brain

a. gut

Which bacteria is usually present with gastric ulcers? a. h. pylori b. MRSA c. streptococcus e. e.coli

a. h. pylori

The bacteria that is usually present with gastic ulcers is: a. h.pylori b. streptococcus c. MRSA d. e. coli

a. h.pylori

An accumulation of blood in the pleural space that causes a partial or complete collapse of the lung is call a: a. hemothorax b. pneumothorax c. hemoptysis d. pyothorax

a. hemothorax

Organs that are located below the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as: a. infraperitoneal b. intraperitoneal c. supraperitoneal d. retroperitoneal

a. infraperitoneal

What is the anatomical landmark that may be palpated with the patient in the prone position? a. ischial tuberosity b. symphysis pubis c. ASIS d. iliac crest

a. ischial tuberosity

How does the appearance of the large intestine differ with the presence of barium from the small intestine? a. large intestine contains haustra b. small intestine has sacculations c. there is no difference d. large intestine looks "feathery"

a. large intestine contains haustra

Air or gas that escapes into the pleural cavity results in a condition known as: a. pneumothorax. b. air bronchogram. c. hemothorax. d. hemidiaphragm.

a. pneumothorax.

The prefix pyelo refers to: a. renal pelvis. b. urinary bladder. c. ureter. d. renal cortex.

a. renal pelvis.

The instrument used to measure the output when a patient exhales is called a: a. spirometer b. CPAP c. bronchoscope d. pulmonary function test

a. spirometer

If all the alveoli were flattened out, it would equal the surface area of a: a. tennis court b. basketball court c. football field d. golf course

a. tennis court

A pivot joint is also referred to as a: a. trochoid joint b. ginglymus. c. sellar joint. d. plane joint.

a. trochoid joint

The term for the abdominal region found directly in the middle of the abdomen is: a. umbilical b. pubic c. epigastric d. inguinal

a. umbilical

The inferior-superior true lateral projection of the hip is known as the _____. a.. Danelius-Miller b. Johnson's Method c. Leonard-George d. Clements-Nakayama

a.. Danelius-Miller

The prominent protuberance found on the anterior aspect of the ilium is the:

anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

Chiasmatic Groove

anterior to the sella turcica, between the optica foramina. Lodges the optic chiasm (crossing of the optic nerves).

In the Clements-Nakayanna method of the hip the central-ray has a double angle _____ degrees superiorly and _____ degrees posteriorly. a. 10, 20 b. 15, 15 C. 25, 25 D. 45, 45

b. 15, 15

The xiphoid process generally doesn't calcify until the age of: a. 12 years b. 40 years c. 65 years d. 21 years

b. 40 years

The human adult heart averages how many beat per minute? a. 40 b. 70 c. 150 d. 100

b. 70

How must the patient's arm be positioned for a good AP projection of the scapula? a. Adducted b. Abducted c. Internally rotated d. Externally rotated

b. Abducted

The thyroid gland is located at the approximate level of: a. the epiglottis. b. C5-7. c. the carina. d. C1-3.

b. C5-7.

The instrument used to assist with sleep apnea is a(n): a. asthma inhaler b. CPAP c. spirometer d. bronchoscope

b. CPAP

Which of the following structures is considered to be most lateral? a. Proximal radioulnar joint b. Capitulum c. Trochlea d. Coronoid tubercle

b. Capitulum

In the posterior anterior semi-axial projection of the clavicle the direction of the central ray is: a. Oblique b. Caudal c. Cephalic d. Perpendicular

b. Caudal

Which of the following body systems helps to regulate body temperature? a. Endocrine b. Circulatory c. Nervous d. Urinary

b. Circulatory

The CRPR for the AP shoulder projection is: a. Acromion process to center of film b. Corocoid process to center of film c. Epicondyles to center of film d. None of the above

b. Corocoid process to center of film

A chronic inflammation of the intestinal wall that is characterized by "skip" lesions where diseased bowel is seperated by normal bowel is: a. fibrous adhesions b. Crohn's disease c. volvulus d. intussusception

b. Crohn's disease

Which of the following views will best demonstrate the greater tuberosity of the humerus? a. Internal rotation b. External rotation c. Transthoracic Lateral d. Transaxillary

b. External rotation

Which of the following bony structures is found on the distal aspect of the ulna? a. Coronoid process b. Head c. Olecranon process d. All of the above

b. Head

The type of instrument that measures cardiac activity over a period of time is a(n): a. cardiac catheter b. Holter monitor c. cardiac stent d. tethoscope

b. Holter monitor

In the anterior posterior axial projection of the clavicle the degree of the angle would_________ with thinner patients. a. Decrease b. Increase c. Remain the same d. None of the above

b. Increase

Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior? a. Trochlea b. Olecranon process c. Coronoid process d. Radial tuberosity

b. Olecranon process

For the best recorded detail, which of the following projections of the clavicle would be used? a. A.P. b. PA c. Lateral d. Oblique

b. PA

What is the name of the two small depressions found on the anterior aspect of the distal humerus? a. Olecranon and coronoid fossa b. Radial and coronoid fossa c. Olecranon and radial fossa d. Trochlea and capitulum

b. Radial and coronoid fossa

Hypoglossal canal

Paired canal anterior to occipital condyle-Allows hypoglossal nerve to pass through

Optic Foramen

Paired opening through lesser wing of the sphenoid for optic nerve

The organ that produces insulin is the:

Pancreas

b. True

Part 4 refers to the greater tubercle. a. False b. True

d. All of the above

Part 7 refers to the: a. scapulohumeral joint. b. glenohumeral joint. c. glenoid cavity or fossa. d. All of the above

Zygomatic process

Part of bone on temporal / frontal bone going towards the cheek bone

Which special projection of the wrist will open up the interspaces on the ulnar side of the wrist? a. Carpal canal b. Radial deviation c. Ulnar deviation d. Carpal bridge

b. Radial deviation

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the right lateral projection. This projection is most commonly taken to improve the visualization of the lesions involving the: a. Mediastinal region b. Right lung c. Left ventrical of the heart d. Left hemidaphragm

b. Right lung

What is the name of the fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement, usually a FOSH injury from falling backward or with the wrist flexed? a. Monteggia's b. Smith's c. Colle's d. Bennet's

b. Smith's

Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? a. Hip bone b. Sternum c. Clavicle d. Radius

b. Sternum

Which two structures primarily form the hingelike structure and movement of the elbow joint? a. Capitulum and trochlea b. Trochlea and olecranon process c. Coronoid fossa and trochlea d. Coronoid process and coronoid fossa

b. Trochlea and olecranon process

Which one of the following structures is not part of the ulna? a. Coronoid tubercle b. Ulnar notch c. Radial notch d. Styloid process

b. Ulnar notch

Which disease would cause a patient to have an excess of saline in their sweat? a. epiglottitis b. cystic fibrosis c. croup d. emphysema

b. cystic fibrosis

The instrument that provides an electrical shock to the heart to establish a normal rhythm is a(n): a. pacemaker b. defibrillator c. cardiac catheter d. cardiac stent

b. defibrillator

The C-loop is another name for the: a. sigmoid colon b. duodenal bulb c. ileocecal valve d. jejunum

b. duodenal bulb

The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstructions, where a growth of tissue causes two adjacent structures to "stick" together is called a(n): a. intussusception b. fibrous adhesion c. volvulus d. Crohn's disease

b. fibrous adhesion

An abnormal communication between two structures that are normally separate is called a(n) a. metastasis b. fistula c. adhesion d. scar

b. fistula

The greater omentum extends from the transverse colon to the: a. inferior margin of the liver b. greater curvature of the stomach c. posterior abdominal wall d. proximal portion of the duodenum

b. greater curvature of the stomach

An accumulation of blood in the pleural space that causes a patial or complete collapse of a lung is called a(n): a. pneumothorax b. hemothorax c. hemoptysis d. pyothorax

b. hemothorax

A ginglymus joint can also be referred to as a: a. pivot joint. b. hinge joint c. trochoid joint. d. saddle joint.

b. hinge joint

The peritoneum that attaches the colon to the posterior abdominal wall is the: a. lesser omentum b. mesocolon c. mesentery d. greater omentum

b. mesocolon

The animal that is being tested to help "sniff" for tuberculosis is: a. cats b. rats c. rabbits d. dogs

b. rats

Organs that are located posteriorly to, or behind the serous lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are reffered to as: a. infraperitoneal b. retroperitoneal c. intraperitoneal d. supraperitoneal

b. retroperitoneal

A chronic disease involving inflammation of the colon that begins in the rectosigmoid region and results in a loss of haustra giving a characteristic "stovepipe" sign is: a. fibrous adhesion b. ulcerative colitis c. Crohn's disease d. intussusception

b. ulcerative colitis

The lower concave area of the lung is termed the:

base

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA oblique in the LAO position. The patient is placed with their left shoulder in contact with the IR and their right hand on the hip . In order to demonstrate the heart and descending aorta, the patient should be rotated: a. 10-20 degrees from the plane of the IR b. 25-35 degrees from the plane of the IR c. 45-60 degrees from the plane of the IR d. 75-85 degrees from the plane of the IR

c. 45-60 degrees from the plane of the IR 35-45 degrees to evaluate esophagus 10-20 degrees to evaluate pulmonary diseases

The source to image distance for the acromio-clavicular joints is: a. 40 inches b. 36 inches c. 72 inches d. 6 inches

c. 72 inches

Which radiographic projection of the chest is most often used to evaluate the presence of free air in the left pleural cavity? a. A PA projection with the patient erect b. An AP projection with the patient supine c. An AP projection with the patient in the right lateral decubitus position d. An AP projection with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position

c. An AP projection with the patient in the right lateral decubitus position

A common fracture that occurs when a patient experiences a FOSH injury that results in a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement is called a: a. Smith's fracture b. Monteggia's fracture c. Colle's fracture d. boxer's fracture

c. Colle's fracture

Whenever possible, radiographic images of the chest should be performed with the patient erect in order to: a. Prevent engorgement of the great vessels b. Reduce the amount of magnification of the heart c. Demonstrate the presence of free fluids d. Reduce the amount of focal spot blur in the image

c. Demonstrate the presence of free fluids

What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the elbow? a. Trochlea and capitulum b. Radial and ulnar styloid processes c. Humeral epicondyles d. Humeral condyles

c. Humeral epicondyles

In the lateral projection of the scapula the CRPR is____________ to center of the film. a. Corocoid process b. Acromion process c. Mid- vertebral border d. Crest of ilium

c. Mid- vertebral border

Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior? a. Radial tuberosity b. Trochlea c. Olecranon process d. Coronoid process

c. Olecranon process

In the AP external projection of the shoulder the epicondylar plane is_________ to the film surface. a. Perpendicular b. 45 degrees c. Parallel d. None of the above

c. Parallel

What is the name of the two small depressions found on the anterior aspect of the distal humerus? a. Trochlea and capitulum b. Olecranon and radial fossa c. Radial and coronoid fossa d. Olecranon and coronoid fossa

c. Radial and coronoid fossa

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. a 180 centimeter (72") SID receptor distance is employed in order to: a. Reduce the amount of motion due to respiration b. Blur the shadows of the scapulae from the lung fields c. Reduce the amount of magnification in the heart shadow d. Project the clavicles above the top of the thoracic cavity

c. Reduce the amount of magnification in the heart shadow

Which of the following organs is not considered an accessory organ for digestion? a. Pancreas b. Gallbladder c. Spleen d. Liver

c. Spleen

The breathing technique for the lateral scapula would be: a. Suspended inspiration b. Suspended expiration c. Suspended respiration d. Shallow breathing

c. Suspended respiration

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the lateral projection. If the patient is erect, the CR is directed horizontal to the floor to enter at the midcoronal plane at the level of the: a. T-2 b. T-4 c. T-7 d. T-9

c. T-7

The xiphoid process corresponds to which vertebral level? a. L2-L3 b. C7-T1 c. T9-T10 d. T2-T3

c. T9-T10

Two radiographic images of the chest are obtained in the PA projection. Separate images are taken with the patient suspending their respiration at the end of full inspiration and one at full expiration. These projections are commonly used to evaluate: a. The presence of vascular bleeding b. The movement of foreign bodies of the lungs c. The excursion of the diaphragms d. The presence of mediastinal lesions

c. The excursion of the diaphragms

Which two structures primarily form the hingelike structure and movement of the elbow joint? a. Coronoid process and coronoid fossa b. Coronoid fossa and trochlea c. Trochlea and olecranon process d. Capitulum and trochlea

c. Trochlea and olecranon process

An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen, usually caused by chronic conditions is called: a. peritonitis b. mechanical bowel obstruction c. ascites d. Crohn's disease

c. ascites

An inherited disease in which heavy mucus is secreted causing progressive "clogging" of the bronchioles and digestive ducts is called: a. epiglottitis b. dyspnea c. cystic fibrosis d. emphysema

c. cystic fibrosis

Which condition of the upper respiratory tract is caused by a viral infection and is a medical emergency that may result in death if not treated quickly? a. croup b. cystic fibrosis c. epiglottitis d. emphysema

c. epiglottitis

A fatty liver may result from a diet high in fats and/or: a. prolonged hypertention b. metastatic cancers c. excessive alcohol d. Type II diabetes

c. excessive alcohol

The function of which organ is to store and concentrate bile? a. pancreas b. spleen c. gall bladder d. liver

c. gall bladder

The interphalangeal joints have a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. sellar b. ellipsoidal c. ginglymus d. plane

c. ginglymus

A bowel obstruction that occurs when the bowel telescopes into itself is called: a. volvulus b. Crohn's disease c. intussusception d. fibrous adhesions

c. intussusception

The only organ in the body capable of regeneration is the: a. gall bladder b. brain c. liver d. pancreas

c. liver

A common primary bone cancer characterized by "punched out" lesions in the bone is called: a. osteochondroma b. osteoarthritis c. multiple myeloma d. rheumatoid arthritis

c. multiple myeloma

The most common type of arthritis is: a. osteomyeloma b. rheumatoid arthritis c. osteoarthritis d. pyogenic arthritis

c. osteoarthritis

The double walled tissue that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is called the: a. omentum b. mesentery c. peritoneum d. viscera

c. peritoneum

A portable chest radiograph is taken and is noted that there are no lung markings in one of the lungs.The patient is most likely suffering from: a. lung cancer b. MRSA c. pneumothorax d. pneumonia

c. pneumothorax

An accumulation of air in the pleural space causing a partial or complete collapse is called a: a. pleural effusion b. pyothorax c. pneumothorax d. hemothorax

c. pneumothorax

An accumulation of air in the pleural space that causes a partial or complete collapse of a lung is called a(n): a. hemoptysis b. pyothorax c. pneumothorax d. hemothorax

c. pneumothorax

The two fat stripes of the wrist demonstrated radiographically are known as the scaphoid fat stripe and the: a. pisiform fat stripe. b. anterior fat stripe. c. pronator fat stripe. d. abductor fat stripe.

c. pronator fat stripe.

The kidneys are connected to the urinary bladder by way of the: a. urethra b. renal vein c. ureter d. renal artery

c. ureter

The upper margin of the lungs is at the level of the: a. laryngeal prominence. b. jugular notch. c. vertebra prominens. d. sternal angle.

c. vertebra prominens

The inner membrane of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the: a. pericardial sac b. parietal pleura. c. visceral pleura. d. pleural cavity.

c. visceral pleura.

The internal prominence or ridge where the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchi is termed the:

carina

The joint found between the base of the third metacarpal and carpal bone is the:

carpometacarpal

The large intestine begins at the:

cecum

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. If the CR is directed perpendicular to the IR, the resulting image is most likely to show the shadows of the clavicles: a. At the level of the midscapula b. At the level of the costophrenic recesses c. About 2 cm above the apices of the lung d. About 5 cm below the apices of the lung

d. About 5 cm below the apices of the lung

Which of the following is a sign/symptom of liver disease? a. Fatigue b. Yellow skin and eyes c. Abdominal pain d. All of these e. Dark urine

d. All of these

Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior? a. Epiglottis b. Vocal cords c. Hyoid bone d. Carina

d. Carina

Which system of the human body is responsible for the elimination of solid waste? a. Urinary b. Circulatory c. Respiratory d. Digestive

d. Digestive

What is the name for the structure that serves as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food or fluid? a. Hyoid bone b. Uvula c. Oropharynx d. Epiglottis

d. Epiglottis

In the radiographic procedure of the acromic-clavicular joints the patient must be in the _______ position. a. Suspine b. Prone c. Decubitus d. Erect

d. Erect

Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Hyoid bone d. Esophagus

d. Esophagus

What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the elbow? a. Trochlea and capitulum b. Radial and ulnar styloid processes c. Humeral condyles d. Humeral epicondyles

d. Humeral epicondyles

For the transaxillary view of the shoulder the projection is: a. Superior-inferior b. Medial - lateral c. Lateral- medial d. Inferior superior

d. Inferior superior

In the trans-axillary projection of the shoulder, the central-ray travels in an_________ direction. a. Lateral b. Caudal c. Axial d. Inferior-Superior

d. Inferior-Superior

The transthoracic projection of the proximal humerus is also known as the _______ position. a. Jacobi b. Transaxillary c. Scobey d. Lawrence

d. Lawrence

On the AP projection of the scapula the breathing technique would be: a. Suspended respiration b. Suspended inspiration c. Suspended expiration d. Normal breathing

d. Normal breathing

In order to blurr out the lung markings that are superimposed over the proximal humerus on the transthoracic lateral view, the breathing technique would be: a. Suspended respiration b. Suspended inspiration c. Suspended expiration d. Normal breathing continued

d. Normal breathing continued

Which of the following structures is considered to be most proximal? a. Coronoid process b. Radial tuberosity c. Head of ulna d. Olecranon process

d. Olecranon process

Which of the following actions will lead to the proximal radius crossing over the ulna? a. Placing epicondyles parallel to image receptor b. External rotation of elbow c. Supination of the hand d. Pronation of the hand

d. Pronation of the hand

What is another term for the sellar joint? a. Ball and socket b. Hinge c. Pivot d. Saddle

d. Saddle

Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone? a. Lunate b. Trapezium c. Hamate d. Scaphoid

d. Scaphoid

Which of the following structures is considered to be most distal? a. Radial head b. Radial tuberosity c. Capitulum d. Styloid process

d. Styloid process

Which of the following positions would be used if there is an obvious fracture of the upper humerus? a. Internal rotation b. External rotation c. Transaxillary d. Transthoracic lateral

d. Transthoracic lateral

Which wrist ligament is attached to the styloid process of the ulna and continues to the triquetrum and pisiform? a. Radial collateral ligament b. Dorsal radiocarpal ligament c. Palmar radiocarpal ligament d. Ulnar collateral ligament

d. Ulnar collateral ligament

Which two structures form the distal radioulnar joint? a. Radial notch and radial head b. Coronoid tubercle and radial notch c. Radial tuberosity and ulnar notch d. Ulnar notch and head of ulna

d. Ulnar notch and head of ulna

The term "vermiform" refers to which structure located within the abdomen? a. cecum b. duodenum c. ileum d. appendix

d. appendix

The the "vermiform" refers to which structure located in the abdomen? a. duodenum b. ileum c. cecum d. appendix

d. appendix

An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen caused by long term conditions such as cirrhosis is called: a. ulcerative colitis b. Crohn's disease c. fibrous adhesions d. ascites

d. ascites

C. Air fluid levels

Patient is in the erect position during a routine sinus examination to best demonstrate what? A. Dorsal aspect of sinus B. Sphenoid sinus best C. Air fluid levels D. Sinusitis

What is the name of the double-walled tissue that lines the abdominopelvic cavity?

Peritoneum

Which carpal bone is the smallest?

Pisiform

Ramus

Posterior part of the mandible that is more or less vertical

The internal prominence or ridge where the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchi is termed the: a. hilum. b. costophrenic angle. c. thyroid cartilage. d. carina.

d. carina.

The lower concave area of the lung is termed the: a. apex. b. hilum. c. base. d. costophrenic angle.

d. costophrenic angle.

Condylar Process (head)

Posterior upward projection of the ramus that fits into the temporomandibular joint, which is the hinge of the mandible

Why is the right kidney usually lower than the left?

Presence of the liver

Coronoid Process

Process anterior to the condylar process of the mandible

Crista Galli

Prominant ridge in the ethmoid bone

A patient suffering from emphysema would cause you to make what adjustment for density? a. increase b. no change c. not within the scope of practice d. decrease

d. decrease

A patient suffering from emphysema would cause you to make what adjustment for density? a. not within the scope of practice b. no change c. increase d. decrease

d. decrease

Which portion of the small intestine is the widest? a. ileum b. cecum c. jejunum d. duodenum

d. duodenum

The structure found at the junction between the small and large intestine is the: a. appendix b. ascending colon c. sigmoid colon d. ileocecal valve

d. ileocecal valve

Which portion of the small intestine is the longest? a. jejunum b. cecum c. duodenum d. ileum

d. ileum

Which muscles must be seen on a well-exposed abdomen projection?

Psoas major

Which of the following muscles must be seen on a well-exposed abdomen projection?

Psoas major

Organs that are located within the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as: a. supraperitoneal b. infraperitoneal c. retroperitoneal d. intraperitoneal

d. intraperitoneal

Which abdominal condition may be resolved by performing a barium enema? a. ulcerative colitis b. Crohn's disease c. volvulus d. intussusception

d. intussusception

Which anatomical landmark should be palpated with the patient in the prone position? a. symphysis pubis b. ASIS c. xiphoid process d. ischial tuberosity

d. ischial tuberosity

Which portion of the small intestine has a "feathery" appearance in the presence of barium? a. cecum b. ileum c. duodenum d. jejunum

d. jejunum

A common benign bone tumor found in young persons and located on the knee, pelvis and/or scapula is called a(n): a. multiple myeloma b. rheumatoid arthritis c. osteoarthritis d. osteochondroma

d. osteochondroma

The organ that produces insulin is the: a. gall bladder b. brain c. liver d. pancreas

d. pancreas

A portable chest radiograph is taken and it is noted that there are no lung markings in one of the lungs. The patient is most likely suffering from: a. lung cancer b. pneumonia c. MRSA d. pneumothorax

d. pneumothorax

The pathologic condition that results from an autoimmune disorder where the body doesn't recognize "self" cells is called: a. osteomalacia b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. osteoarthritis d. rheumatoid arthritis

d. rheumatoid arthritis

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. The patient is placed erect facing the IR with the arms flexed and the backs of the hands resting on the hips. The position of the arms is used to: a. Move the diaphragms to their highest position b. Move the diaphragms to their lowest position c. Direct the clavicles above the apices of the lungs d. rotate the scapulae laterally away from the chest

d. rotate the scapulae laterally away from the chest

The bending or forcing of the hand toward the lateral side of the forearm (with hand pronated, PA projection) is known as: a. radial deviation. b. radial abduction. c. ulnar extension. d. ulnar deviation.

d. ulnar deviation.

A bowel obstruction that occurs when a loop of intestine twists upon itself, resulting in a "kink" in the bowel is called a(n): a. intussusception b. fibrous adhesion c. Crohn's disease d. volvulus

d. volvulus

Patient comes in with bilateral fractures of the femurs, but you need a lateral right hip. Which projection would you need? a. Danelius-Miller b. Clements-Nakayama c. Johnson's Method d. None of the above e. More than one, but not all of the above

e. More than one, but not all of the above

What are the sign/symptoms of liver disease? a. yellow skin and eyes b. fatigue c. abdominal pain d. dark urine e. all of these

e. all of these

Which of the following is a sign/symptom of liver disease? a. abdominal pain b. dark urine c. yellow skin and eyes d. fatigue e. all of these

e. all of these

Which of the following is a sign/symptom of liver disease? a. dark urine b. yellow skin and eyes c. fatigue d. abdominal pain e. all of these

e. all of these

A nonvisible posterior fat pad on a well-exposed, correctly positioned lateral elbow radiograph generally suggests: a. a congenital defect. b. fracture of one of the bones of the elbow. d. injury to the synovial joint. e. negative study for injury.

e. negative study for injury.

A chest radiograph reveals a diaphragm that is flat instead of dome shaped. The patient is most likely suffering from:

emphysema

The suprarenal glands are part of the:

endocrine system

A fatty liver may result from a diet high in fats and/or:

excessive alcohol

3. spondylolysis

The radiographic appearance on an oblique lumbar spine in which the neck of the Scotty dog appears broken suggests the presence of ____. 1. spina bifida 2. compression fracture 3. spondylolysis 4. spondylolisthesis

2. 50 to 60

The recommended kV range for the superoinferior tangential projection of the nasal bones is: 1. 40 to 50. 2. 50 to 60. 3. 60 to 70. 4. 70 to 80.

superciliary

The ridge of bone inferior to the eyebrow is called the _______ ridge or arch.

A. Left

The right anterior oblique position of the lumbar spine best visualizes the zygapophyseal joints. A. Left B. Right

A. Right

The right anterior posterior oblique (rapo) projection of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint. A. Right B. Left C. None of the above D. All of the above

A. Closest

The right posterior oblique (rapo) projection of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint to the film surface. A. Closest B. Farthest

C. Erect

The routine Sinus Examination is normally done with the patient in the_____________position. A. Lateral decubitus B. Prone C. Erect D. Supine

1. pars interarticularis.

The small section of bone found between the superior and inferior articular processes of the lumbar spine is termed: 1. pars interarticularis. 2. articular facets. 3. transverse processes. 4. pillar.

a. sustentaculum tali

The small shelf of bone located on the medial surface of the calcaneus referers to the: a. sustentaculum tali b. peroneal trochlea c. calcaneal tuberosity d. sinus tarsi

pterion

The sphenoid fontanel becomes the _______ in the adult skull.

L1

The spinal cord tapers off to a point distally at the level of:

3. L1-L2.

The spinal cord tapers off to a point distally at the level of: 1. lower L5. 2. L2-3 intervertebral space. 3. L1-L2. 4. L4-5 intervertebral space.

temporal

The squamosal suture separates the parietal bone from the _______ bone.

3. T4-5.

The sternal angle is a palpable landmark at the level of: 1. T9-10. 2. T2-3. 3. T4-5. 4. T7.

a. humerus

The strongest bone of the upper limb is the: a. humerus b. scapula c. ulna d. clavicle

H

The structure "anterior arch" of the atlas is labeled _____.

M

The structure "lamina" is labeled _____.

A

The structure "lateral mass" is labeled _____.

h

The structure anterior arch of the atlas is labeled _____.

Left lateral mass of C1

The structure labeled "A," which should be well demonstrated on this projection, is the:

4. articular pillar (lateral mass).

The structure labeled "A," which should be well demonstrated on this projection, is the: 1. lamina. 2. inferior articular process. 3. pedicle. 4. articular pillar (lateral mass).

3. Costocartilage of the last true rib.

The structure labeled iii is: 1. Costocartilage of the 8th rib. 2. Costocartilage of the 10th rib. 3. Costocartilage of the last true rib. 4. Costocartilage portion of the first false rib.

m

The structure lamina is labeled _____.

a

The structure lateral mass is labeled _____.

L

The structure pedicle is labeled _____.

l

The structure pedicle is labeled _____.

K

The structure transverse process is labeled _____.

k

The structure transverse process is labeled _____.

2. T2-3.

The suprasternal, manubrial, or jugular notch all correspond to the level of: 1. T1. 2. T2-3. 3. C7. 4. T4-5.

1. labor and delivery.

The symphysis pubis provides limited movement during pelvic trauma and during: 1. labor and delivery. 2. voiding. 3. walking and running. 4. flexing and extending.

b. head

The thickest part of the scapula is in the area of the: a. neck b. head c. coracoid process d. spine

1. mid-teens

The three bones of the hip eventually fuse at what age? 1. mid-teens 2. 21 years 3. 40 years 4. 3 years

1. acetabulum

The three separate bones of the hip fuse at the: 1. acetabulum 2. symphysis pubis 3. ala of the ilium 4. ischial tuberosities

4. ASIS and the symphysis pubis.

The two bony landmarks that are palpated using the traditional hip localization method are the: 1. ASIS and the crest of ilium. 2. ischial spine and the symphysis pubis. 3. symphysis pubis and the greater trochanter. 4. ASIS and the symphysis pubis.

C3-6

The vertebra represented in the illustration is typical of _________ (choose one of the following: C3-6 or C7 or T1 or C2-7).

1. the 8th or 9th rib.

The widest aspect of the thorax occurs at the level of: 1. the 8th or 9th rib. 2. the 11th and 12th ribs. 3. the sternoclavicular joints. 4. T7.

parietal tubercles

The widest part of the skull is found between the ______.

2. T9-10.

The xiphoid process corresponds to the level of: 1. T7. Student Response 3. T4-5. 4. L1-2.

T10

The xiphoid tip corresponds to the level of:

70 - 75 degrees

The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.

2. 70 to 75 degrees

The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. 1. 90 degrees 2. 70 to 75 degrees 3. 45 degrees 4. 60 degrees

90 degrees true lateral

The zygapophyseal joints for the typical cervical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.

3. 90 degrees

The zygapophyseal joints for the typical cervical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. 1. 70 to 75 degrees 2. 60 degrees 3. 90 degrees 4. 45 degrees

3. 50 degrees

The zygapophyseal joints of the upper lumbar vertebrae are ____ in relationship to the midsagittal plane. 1. 90 degrees 2. 45 degrees 3. 50 degrees 4. 30 degrees

6

There are a total of _______ (number) fontanels in an infant skull.

Mandible Neck

Thinner part of the mandible between the head and the body

C. Comparison, open & closed laterals

To best demonstrate a dislocation of the TMJ's you should do: A. Obliques B. Comparison lateral C. Comparison, open & closed laterals D. Owen's

a. dorsiflexion.

To decrease the angle between the anterior surface of the foot and anterior surface of the lower leg is described as: a. dorsiflexion. b. inversion. c. plantar flexion. d. eversion.

The function of which organ is to store and concentrate bile?

gall bladder

The greater omentum extends from the transverse colon to the:

greater curvature of the stomach

To ensure that the inferior margin of the abdomen is included on a KUB radiograph, the technologist should palpate the:

greater trochanter or symphysis pubis

To ensure that the inferior margin of the abdomen is included on a KUB radiograph, the technologist should palpate the:

greater trochanter or symphysis pubis.

Ninety-five percent (95%) of the body's seratonin is located in the:

gut

The bacteria that is usually present with gastic ulcers is:

h.pylori

An accumulation of blood in the pleural space that causes a patial or complete collapse of a lung is called a(n):

hemothorax

The structure found at the junction between the small and large intestine is the:

ileocecal valve

Organs that are located below the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as:

infraperitoneal

Organs that are located within the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as:

intraperitoneal

Which anatomical landmark should be palpated with the patient in the prone position?

ischial tuberosity

Which aspect of the large intestine is found between the left and right colic flexures?

Transverse colon

Which portion of the small intestine has a "feathery" appearance in the presence of barium?

jejunum

bregma

label d:

pterion

label e:

squamosal suture

label f:

lambdoidal suture

label g:

asterion

label h:

ethmoid bone

label i:

frontal bone

label ii:

parietal bone

label iii:

occipital bone

label iv:

temporal bone

label v:

sphenoid bone

label vi:

Mental Foramen

Twin holes in the front of the chin

Parietal Bone

Two bones between the frontal and occipital; on the side and top of the cranium (2)

Pterygoid Process

Two bony processes descending from the body of the sphenoid bone

Perpendicular Plate

Upper portion of thin bone (ethmoid) in the middle of the nasal cavity

Superior Concha

Upper, scroll like structure, extend from the ethmoid bone

The kidneys are connected to the urinary bladder by way of the:

Ureter

4. 42 degrees

What CR angle is required for the AP axial projection for the temporomandibular joints (TMJs) with the IOML perpendicular to the image receptor? 1. 25 degrees 2. 30 degrees 3. 37 degrees 4. 42 degrees

4. 25 to 30 degrees caudad

What CR angle is required for the Schuller method projection of the TMJs? 1. None; the CR should be perpendicular to the film. 2. 20 to 25 degrees cephalad 3. 15 degrees caudad 4. 25 to 30 degrees caudad

2. 25 to 30 degrees caudad

What CR angulation is required for the Schuller method? 1. 15 degrees caudad 2. 25 to 30 degrees caudad 3. 12 degrees cephalad 4. 10 degrees caudad

2. 12 degrees cephalad

What CR angulation is required for the posterior profile projection of the mastoids? 1. 20 degrees cephalad 2. 12 degrees cephalad 3. 1 degree caudad 4. 45 degrees caudad

E. All of the Above

What are some of the common errors made during skull radiography? A. Rotation B. Tilt C. Excessive flexion D. Excessive extension E. All of the Above

D. All of the above

What are the three points that must be included in the patients clinical history prior to a ribs series? A. The nature of the trauma or patient complaint B. The location of the rib injury or pain C. Whether or not the patient has been coughing up blood D. All of the above

b. Longitudinal and transverse

What are the two arches of the foot? a. Instep and cross-step b. Longitudinal and transverse c. Anterior and longitudinal d. Transverse and anterior

4. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to the IOML.

What can the technologist do if the patient cannot extend the head and neck adequately for the routine submentovertex projection of the zygomatic arches? 1. Rotate the skull 15 degrees away from the affected side. 2. Use a short SID to magnify the arches. 3. Perform the Haas method. 4. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to the IOML.

A. 7-8 degrees

What difference, in degrees, is there between the OML and the IOML positioning planes? A. 7-8 degrees B. 5-7 degrees C. 3-4 degrees D. 2-5 degrees

2. 37 degrees

What is the angle between the OML and the plane of the image receptor for the parietoacanthial (Waters) projection? 1. 15 to 20 degrees 2. 37 degrees 3. 42 degrees 4. 40 degrees

4. 53 degrees

What is the angle between the midsagittal plane and the image receptor for a parieto-orbital projection of the optic foramen? 1. 30 degrees 2. 12 degrees 3. 45 degrees 4. 53 degrees

How does the appearance of the large intestine differ with the presence of barium from the small intestine?

large intestine contains haustra

The only organ in the body capable of regeneration is the:

liver

The peritoneum that attaches the colon to the posterior abdominal wall is the:

mesocolon

Supraorbital Noth (sometimes Foramen)

notch on the frontal bone located on the medial portion of the supraorbital ridge and is where the supraorbital artery and nerve travel from the orbit to the forehead

The organ that produces insulin is the:

pancreas

The double walled tissue that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is called the:

peritoneum

A portable chest radiograph is taken and it is noted that there are no lung markings in one of the lungs. The patient is most likely suffering from:

pneumothorax

Air or gas that escapes into the pleural cavity results in a condition known as:

pneumothorax.

The animal that is being tested to help "sniff" for tuberculosis is:

rats

Organs that are located posteriorly to, or behind the serous lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are reffered to as:

retroperitoneal

Styloid Process

sharp projection from the bottom of the temporal bone

The instrument used to measure the output when a patient exhales is called a:

spirometer

The jugular notch is located on the:

sternum

. If all the alveoli were flattened out, it would equal the surface area of a:

tennis court

Maxillae

the two fused bones forming the upper jaw (2)

Cribriform Plate

thin, medial portion of the ethmoid bone of the skull with many little foramen

Petrous Portion

triangle shaped. hardest part of temporal bone. located at base of skull between sphenoid bone & occipital bone

The term for the abdominal region found directly in the middle of the abdomen is:

umbilical

The kidneys are connected to the urinary bladder by way of the:

ureter

The upper margin of the lungs is at the level of the:

vertebra prominens

The inner membrane of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the:

visceral pleura

3. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement

What is the joint classification and type of movement for the costotransverse joint? 1. Cartilaginous with diarthrodial (ginglymus) movement 2. Synovial with amphiarthrodial, limited movement 3. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement 4. Cartilaginous with synarthrodial or no movement

3. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement

What is the joint classification and type of movement for the sternoclavicular joints? 1. Cartilaginous with diarthrodial (ginglymus) movement 2. Synovial with amphiarthrodial, limited movement 3. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement 4. Cartilaginous with synarthrodial or no movement

4. Synovial/diarthrodial

What is the joint classification of the zygapophyseal joints? 1. Fibrous/synarthrodial 2. Cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial 3. Symphyses/amphiarthrodial 4. Synovial/diarthrodial

d. Deltoid tuberosity

What is the name of the insertion point for the deltoid muscle located on the shaft of the humerus? a. Surgical neck b. Deltoid protuberance c. Intertubercular groove d. Deltoid tuberosity

b. Subscapular fossa

What is the name of the large fossa found within the anterior surface of the scapula? a. Infraspinous fossa b. Subscapular fossa c. Supraspinous fossa d. Glenoid fossa

2. Sternoclavicular joint

What is the name of the part labeled i in this Figure? 1. Body 2. Sternoclavicular joint 3. Sternal angle 4. Facet for the first rib

1. Sternal angle

What is the name of the part labeled ii? 1. Sternal angle 2. Sternoclavicular joint 3. Xiphoid process 4. Body

2. Facet for the first rib attachment

What is the name of the part labeled iv? 1. Facet for the second rib attachment 2. Facet for the first rib attachment 3. Facet for the sternum attachment 4. Head of the sternum

3. Head

What is the name of the part of the rib that articulates with the thoracic vertebral body? 1. Facets 2. Neck 3. Head 4. Tubercles

B. Odontoid

What is the name of the process that projects upward from the body of the second cervical vertebrae? A. Spinous process B. Odontoid C. Transverse process D. Inferior articulating process

3. Manubrium

What is the name of the structure labeled v? 1. Head 2. Xiphoid 3. Manubrium 4. Body

a. bicipital groove

What is the older term for the intertubercular groove? a. bicipital groove b. Surgical neck c. anatomic neck d. humeral condyles

3. True lateral position

What is the position of the skull for a Schuller method projection of the TMJs? 1. Midsagittal plane at a 53-degree angle to the image receptor 2. Skull rotated 15 degrees toward the image receptor from the lateral position 3. True lateral position 4. OML is at a 37-degree angle to the image receptor

D. 72 inches

What is the preferable source to image distance (FFD) for a lateral position of the cervical spine? A. 36 inches B. 40 inches C. 60 inches D. 72 inches

2. Jugular notch

What is the primary or preferred term for the superior margin of the sternum? 1. Sternal notch 2. Jugular notch 3. Manubrial notch 4. Suprasternal notch

D. 72 inches (180cm)

What is the recommended SID for the lateral sternum position? A. 40 inches (102cm) B. 44 inches (112cm) C. 46 inches (117cm) D. 72 inches (180cm)

A. 20 degrees B. 15 degrees

What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic-type patient? A. 20 degrees B. 15 degrees C. 30 degrees D. 10 degrees

D. Thyroid cartilage

What is the technical name for the "Adam's apple"? A. Pharynx B. Larynx C. Epiglottis D. Thyroid cartilage

A. Suspended respiration on expiration

What type of breathing instructions should be given to the patient for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints? A. Suspended respiration on expiration B. Use a breathing technique C. Suspended breathing is not necessary

1. Plane

What type of joint movement occurs with the zygapophyseal joints? 1. Plane 2. Ellipsoidal 3. Trochoidal 4. Ginglymus

B. Kyphotic

What type of natural curve is found in the thoracic spine? A. Lordotic B. Kyphotic C. Scoliotic D. Myoptic

C. 37

When doing a Posterior - Anterior Rhese projection, one would rotate the head _____ degrees from the PA position. A. 45 B. 55 C. 37 D. None of the above

4. Acanthion

Where does the CR exit for a PA axial projection of the mandible? 1. Junction of the lips 2. Nasion 3. Mentum 4. Acanthion

3. Acanthion

Where does the CR exit for a modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) projection of the facial bones? 1. Nasion 2. Glabella 3. Acanthion 4. Midorbits

C. At the level of the jugular notch (T2-3)

Where is the CR centered for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints? A. At the level of the vertebra prominens (T1) B. At the level of the sternal angle (T4-5) C. At the level of the jugular notch (T2-3) D. At the level of the thyroid cartilage (T9)

4. Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus

Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the facial bones? 1. Acanthion 2. Outer canthus 3. Midway between the glabella and the EAM 4. Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus

4. Midway between the outer canthus and the EAM

Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the sinuses? 1. Upside EAM (side away from image receptor) 2. At the level of the nasion 3. Midway between the acanthion and the EAM 4. Midway between the outer canthus and the EAM

4. At the glabella

Where is the CR centered for an AP axial projection for the mandible? 1. 2 inches (5 cm) above glabella 2. At the mentum 3. At the nasion 4. At the glabella

Between the superior and inferior articular processes

Where is the articular pillar located on a cervical vertebra?

1. Between the superior and inferior articular processes

Where is the articular pillar located on a cervical vertebra? 1. Between the superior and inferior articular processes 2. Between the pedicle and the body 3. Are not present on cervical vertebrae 4. Between the spinous process and the lamina

A. 3 - 4 inches below the juigular notch at the level of T7

Where is the central ray centered for an AP projection of the ribs for an injury located above the diaphragm? A. 3 - 4 inches below the juigular notch at the level of T7 B. Level of T12 C. Level of T5

A. Midsternum

Where is the central ray centered for the oblique & lateral projections of the sternum? A. Midsternum B. At jugular notch C. ½ inch above xiphoid process

d. Between the phalanges of the first digit

Where would the interphalangeal joint be found in the foot? a. Between any of the metatarsals and phalanges b. Between the tarsal bones and phalanges c. Between the phalanges of the second through fifth digits d. Between the phalanges of the first digit

B. Down

Referring to the previous question this will move the diaphragm _____ . A. Up B. Down

D. Infraorbitomeatal line

Reid's base line is also used occasionally to describe the __________ line. A. Mentomeatal line B. Glabelloaveolar line C. Orbitomeatal line D. Infraorbitomeatal line

Organs that are located posteriorly to, or behind the serous lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are reffered to as:

Retroperitoneal

Superciliary Arch

Ridge above oritals

In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found?

Right lower quadrant

In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the gallbladder be found?

Right upper quadrant

Foramen Rotundum

Round holes in shpenoid inferior to supraorbital foramen

b. bursae.

Saclike structures found in the knee joint that allow smooth articulation between ligaments and tendons are called: a. synovial bodies. b. bursae. c. synovial membranes. d. menisci.

Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?

Scaphoid

Which of the following carpals articulate with the radius?

Scaphoid

2. herniated nucleus pulposus.

Sciatic-type pain resulting from a "slipped disk" indicates: 1. spina bifida. 2. herniated nucleus pulposus. 3. ankylosing spondylitis. 4. spondylolisthesis.

lateral curvature

Scoliosis is defined as abnormal or exaggerated:

3. lateral curvature.

Scoliosis is defined as abnormal or exaggerated: 1. "swayback" lumbar curvature. 2. convex curvature. 3. lateral curvature. 4. concave curvature.

1. Male

Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Acute angle of pubic arch: 1. Male 2. Female

2. Male

Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. More oval or heart-shaped pelvic inlet: 1. Female 2. Male

2. Male

Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Narrower, deeper general shape of pelvis: 1. Female 2. Male

2. Female

Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Obtuse angle of pubic arch: 1. Male 2. Female

1. Female

Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Round and large pelvic inlet: 1. Female 2. Male

1. Female

Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Wider and shallow general shape of pelvis: 1. Female 2. Male

Maxillary sinus (antrum of highmore)

Sinus located in the upper jaw bone of the skull. Largest

2. AP axial, modified Law and Stenvers projections

Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a mastoid series. Which of the following routines would provide the most complete study of the mastoids? 1. AP axial, Stenvers and Arcelin projections 2. AP axial, modified Law and Stenvers projections 3. Stenvers, modified Law and Haas projections 4. Arcelin, AP axial and Haas projections

1. Use the IOML and increase the CR angulation by 7 degrees.

Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a routine study of the cranium. He is unable to flex his head and neck sufficiently to place the OML perpendicular to the IR for the AP axial projection. What should the technologist do to compensate for this problem without creating excessive magnification of the skull?

2. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to IOML.

Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a sinus series. She cannot fully extend her head and neck for the submentovertex projection. What else can the technologist do to produce a diagnostic submentovertex projection? 1. Perform the projection with the patient recumbent. 2. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to IOML. 3. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to the OML. 4. Place sandbags on the forehead to extend the skull.

2. Horizontal beam lateral

Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a sinus series. She is unable to stand or sit erect for any of the projections. Which of the following projections will best detect any air/fluid levels present in the maxillary sinuses? 1. Parietoacanthial 2. Horizontal beam lateral 3. PA 4. Parietoacanthial transoral

1. AP axial and lateral

Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a study of the sella turcica. Which of the following routines would best demonstrate this structure? 1. AP axial and lateral 2. Haas method and submentovertex 3. PA axial with a 15-degree caudal angle and lateral 4. Submentovertex and lateral

4. MRI

Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of an acoustic neuroma. Which of the following imaging modalities will provide the best assessment for this tumor? 1. Nuclear medicine 2. Radiography 3. Ultrasound 4. MRI

2. PA axial with a 30-degree caudal angle to OML

Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a history of a possible erosion of the foramen rotundum. Which of the following projections would best demonstrate this structure? 1. AP axial with a 37-degree caudal angle to OML 2. PA axial with a 30-degree caudal angle to OML 3. Submentovertex 4. PA axial with a 15-degree caudal angle to OML

2. PA with no CR angulation to OML

Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a possible bone cyst within the squamous portion of the frontal bone. Which of the following projections would best demonstrate this region with a minimal amount of distortion of the frontal bone? 1. PA axial with a 30-degree caudal angle to OML 2. PA with no CR angulation to OML 3. PA axial with a 15-degree caudal angle to OML 4. AP axial with a 30-degree caudal angle to OML

4. Perform the axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection

Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a request for a right hip study. He is from an extended care facility and is confused about the cause of the injury. The technologist takes an AP pelvis, and when the lateral frog-leg projection is attempted, the patient complains loudly about the pain in his affected hip. What should the technologist do to complete the study? 1. Continue to position the patient, but move the affected limb more gently 2. Perform the anterior pelvis (Taylor) outlet projection 3. Perform the AP pelvis projection only 4. Perform the axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection

4. CT

Situation: A patient comes to radiology with severe mastoiditis. Which one of the following imaging modalities will best demonstrate possible bony destruction within the mastoid region? 1. MRI 2. Ultrasound 3. Nuclear medicine 4. CT

4. Lateral position

Situation: A patient comes with a clinical history of a possible pituitary adenoma. Because this is a rural hospital, CT and MRI are not available. Which radiographic projection or position would best demonstrate signs of erosion of the sella turcica due to the tumor? 1. SMV 2. PA-Caldwell method 3. AP axial-Towne method 4. Lateral position

1. Horizontal beam lateral projection

Situation: A patient enters the ED with a possible basilar skull fracture. Which of the following skull projections would best demonstrate any blood present in the sphenoid sinus? 1. Horizontal beam lateral projection 2. AP with a 15-degree cephalic angle 3. Haas method 4. Submentovertex

3. PA axial mandible projection, axiolateral projection with no rotation, and a 35-degree AP axial projection

Situation: A patient enters the ED with a possible fracture of the proximal ramus of the mandible. Which of the following routines would best diagnose this fracture? 1. Parietoacanthial projection, axiolateral projection with a 30-degree rotation toward film, and lateral facial bone projection 2. PA mandible projection, axiolateral projection with a 45-degree rotation, and 35-degree AP axial projection 3. PA axial mandible projection, axiolateral projection with no rotation, and a 35-degree AP axial projection 4. PA mandible projection, axiolateral projection with a 45-degree rotation toward film, and submentovertex projection

3. Submentovertex, bilateral oblique tangential, and AP axial projections

Situation: A patient enters the ED with a possible fracture of the right zygomatic arch. Which of the following routines would best diagnose a possible fracture of this structure? 1. Submentovertex, parietoacanthial, and bilateral tangential superoinferior projections 2. Parietoacanthial, parieto-orbital, and lateral facial bone projections 3. Submentovertex, bilateral oblique tangential, and AP axial projections 4. Modified parietoacanthial, 15-degree PA Caldwell, and lateral facial bone projections

1. Parietoacanthial, lateral nasal bone, and superoinferior (axial) projections

Situation: A patient enters the ED with a possible nasal bone fracture. The physician is concerned about a possible bony nasal septum deviation, as well as fractured nasal bones. Which of the following routines would best diagnose these injuries? 1. Parietoacanthial, lateral nasal bone, and superoinferior (axial) projections 2. Modified parietoacanthial and lateral nasal bone projections 3. Modified parietoacanthial, submentovertex, and oblique axial projections 4. 15-degree PA Caldwell and lateral facial bone projections

D. A&B only

Which are the two lines or planes that should be checked carefully to insure a true lateral skull position? A. Midsagittal plane parallel B. Interpupillary line perpendicular C. Mentomeatal line perpendicular D. A&B only E. B&C only F. A&C only

5. D

Which aspect of the Scotty dog is the pedicle? 1. C 2. B 3. E 4. A 5. D

5. A

Which aspect of the Scotty dog is the superior articular process? 1. E 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A

5. E

Which aspect of the Scotty dog is the transverse process? 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. E

nucleus pulposus

Which aspect of the intervertebral disk is composed of semigelatinous material?

4. Nucleus pulposus

Which aspect of the intervertebral disk is composed of semigelatinous material? 1. Cauda equina 2. Annulus fibrosus 3. Conus medullaris 4. Nucleus pulposus

1. Condyloid process

Which aspect of the mandible is best demonstrated with an AP axial projection? 1. Condyloid process 2. Body 3. Mentum 4. Ramus

1. Pubis

Which bone of the pelvic girdle forms the anterior inferior aspect? 1. Pubis 2. Ischium 3. Ilium 4. Sacrum

3. Ischium, pubis, and ilium

Which bones fuse to form the acetabulum? 1. Pubis, ilium, and sacrum 2. Ilium and ischium 3. Ischium, pubis, and ilium 4. Ischium and pubis

2. Hemothorax

Which of the following conditions may occur with trauma to the ribs? 1. Pneumonia 2. Hemothorax 3. Pulmonary embolus 4. Airway obstruction of the trachea

A. Airway obstruction of the trachea B. Pneumonia C. Hemothorax D. Pulmonary embolus

Which of the following conditions may occur with trauma to the ribs? A. Airway obstruction of the trachea B. Pneumonia C. Hemothorax D. Pulmonary embolus

C. Vertebrae prominens

Which of the following could not be demonstrated on a true lateral skull radiograph? A. Superimposed halves of the cranium B. Sella turcica C. Vertebrae prominens D. Anterior & posterior clinoids

B. The entire sternum should lie over the heart shadow & be adjacent to the spine

Which of the following criteria apply to a radiograph for an evaluation of the oblique sternum? A. The entire sternum should be adjacent to the spine & adjacent to the heart shadow B. The entire sternum should lie over the heart shadow & be adjacent to the spine C. The left sternoclavicular joint should be adjacent to the spinal column D. The 2nd rib should lie directly over the manibrium of the sternum

2. Cervical

Which of the following curves is classified as being compensatory? 1. Thoracic 2. Cervical 3. None of the above 4. Sacral

2. Cervical

Which of the following curves is classified as being compensatory? 1. Sacral 2. Cervical 3. Thoracic 4. None of the above

C. Acantiomeatal line

Which of the following describes a line drawn between the acanthion and the E.A.M? A. Orbitomeatal line B. Infraorbitomeatal line C. Acantiomeatal line D. Mentomeatal line

2. Transverse foramina and double (bifid) tips on spinous processes

Which of the following features makes the cervical vertebra unique as compared with other vertebrae of the spine? 1. Overlapping vertebral bodies 2. Transverse foramina and double (bifid) tips on spinous processes 3. All of the above 4. Presence of zygapophyseal joints

B. 1 inch anterosuperior to the T.E.A

Which of the following is the centering (CRPR) used to center the entire cranium on a lateral skull projection? A. ¾ inch anterior & ¾ inch superior to the E.A.M B. 1 inch anterosuperior to the T.E.A C. 1 inch above inion D. ¾ inch below mentum

A. ¾ inch anterior & ¾ inch superior to the E.A.M

Which of the following is the centering(CRPR) used to center the sella turcica to the film on a lateral? A. ¾ inch anterior & ¾ inch superior to the E.A.M B. 1 inch anterosuperior to the T.E.A C. 1 inch above inion D. ¾ inch below mentum

Lacrimal Groove

Small depressed inferior opening on the lacrimal bone. Provides passageway fo the nasolacrimal duct (drains tears into nasal cavity).

Sella Turcia

Small depression in the midline of the sphenoid - house petuitary galnd (Turks Saddle)

Lacrimal Bone

Small fragile bone making up part of the front inner walls of each eye socket and providing room for the passage of the lacrimal ducts (2)

Frontanels

Soft spots in fetal skull

Which of the following structures is part of the lymphatic system?

Spleen

The term "gastro" refers to the:

Stomach

I

Stress from a severe whiplash type of injury may cause a fracture of the structure labeled _____.

Sagittal Suture

Suture uniting the two parietal bones

Jugular notch

T2-3 disk space is found at the level of the:

2. jugular notch.

T2-3 disk space is found at the level of the: 1. 2 inches (5 cm) below the jugular notch. 2. jugular notch. 3. xiphoid process. 4. sternal angle.

The jugular notch corresponds which vertebral level?

T2-T3

The xiphoid process is at the vertebral level of:

T9-10

The xiphoid process is at the vertebral level of:

T9-10.

The xiphoid process corresponds to which vertebral level?

T9-T10

Any anatomical structure that measures 9CMS or more should be done on screens or grids TRUE / FALSE

TRUE

In all the projections that demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa, the central ray is always perpendicular to the line of the lower leg. TRUE / FALSE

TRUE

In order to best demonstrate the patella, a PA projection should be done instead of an AP projection TRUE / FALSE

TRUE

The lateral projections of the knee are normally done with the lateral aspect of the knee in contact with the film surface. TRUE / FALSE

TRUE

External Auditory Meatus

Temporal bone openings for ear canal

Jugular Foramen

Temporal bone: foramen for jugular vein and crainial nerves 9, 10 and 11. Posterior to Carotid Canal

2. Glabelloalveolar

The CR must be placed parallel to the ____ positioning line for the superoinferior (tangential) projection of nasal bones. 1. Mentomeatal 2. Glabelloalveolar 3. Glabellomeatal 4. Lips-meatal

A. Glabella

The CRPR for the AP projection of the skull is _____ to the center of the film. A. Glabella B. Acanthion C. Inion D. Mentum

D. Frontal & ethmoid

The Caldwell position for the sinus series will best demonstrate the ____________sinus(es). A. Sphenoid & ethmoid B. Maxillary C. Ethmoid & maxillary D. Frontal & ethmoid

B. False

The LAO position of the sternum provides the best frontal image of the sternum with a minimal amount of distortion. A. True B. False

D. Floor of the orbits

The Modified Water's Projection of the facial bones is done to best demonstrate the: A. Supraorbital margin B. Maxillary sinuses C. Occipital bone D. Floor of the orbits E. None of the above

E. More than one, but not all of the above

The Submento-vertico projection is also known as the_________position. A. Lawrence B. Gaynor Hart C. Schuller's D. Bowen-Hirtz E. More than one, but not all of the above

petrous ridge

The TEA (top of ear attachment) corresponds to the level of the _______.

D. A&B only

The Townes projection is used to demonstrate which of the following? A. Occipital bone B. Dorsum sella within the foramen magnum C. Frontal portion D. A&B only E. A, B&C

C. Parito-Acanthial

The Water's is also known as the _________ projection. A. Fuchs B. Axillary C. Parito-Acanthial D. Vertico-Submental

B. Parieto-acanthial

The Water's position is also considered to be the _____________projection. A. Acanthio-parietal B. Parieto-acanthial C. Inferior-superior D. None of the above

B. Maxillary

The Water's position is done to demonstrate the _____________sinuses. A. Sphenoid B. Maxillary C. Ethmoid D. Frontal

sphenoid

The _______ bone acts as an anchor for all other cranial bones.

sphenoid

The _______ bone articulates with all other cranial bones.

sphenoid

The _______ bone contains the foramen ovale.

sagittal

The _______ suture separates the left and right parietal bones.

lambdoidal

The _______ suture separates the parietal bones from the occipital bone.

frontal, right parietal, left parietal, occiptal

The ________, _______, _______, and _______ are the four bones that make up the calvaria or skull cap.

atlanto-occipital or occipito-atlantal

The _________ joint is found between the lateral condylar processes of the skull and the superior articular process of C1.

coronal

The _________ suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones.

ethmoid, spheniod, left temporal, and right temporal

The _________, _________, _______ and ________ are the four bones that make up the floor of the cranium.

b. True

The adductor tubercle is located on the posterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle. a. False b. True

a. synovial; sellar

The ankle joint is a ____ joint with a ____ type of movement. a. synovial; sellar b. fibrous; ginglymus c. synovial; ginglymus d. fibrous; plane

b. B

Which of these labeled structures or bones identifies the navicular? a. C b. B c. A d. I

c. A

Which of these labeled structures or bones identifies the talus? a. J b. B c. A d. I

For the weight-bearing feet examination, the patient must be placed in the _________ position. A. Prone B. Supine C. Recumbent D. Erect

D. Erect

Pterygoid Lateral

Depresses and protracts the lower jaw

The prefix pyelo refers to:

Renal pelvis

3. Ultrasound

The imaging modality that has thankfully replaced cephalopelvimetry is: 1. Nuclear Medicine 2. MRI 3. Ultrasound 4. CT

On the AP semi-axial projection of the clavicle the central ray is directed: a. Perpendicular b. Horizontal c. 15-20 degrees caudal d. 15-20 degrees cephalic

d. 15-20 degrees cephalic

D. 30

19) In order to best demonstrate the body of the mandible in the Axial Lateral Oblique, the head must rotated ____________ degrees towards the film. A. 45 B. 90 C. 60 D. 30

Mandibular Notch

Notch / groove between the mandibular condyle and the coronoid process

C. C-4

On the A.P. cervical spine projection the central ray enters at the level of: A. T-7 B. C-1 C. C-4 D. C-7

A. T-7

On the A.P. thoracic spine projection the central ray enters at the level of: A. T-7 B. T-12 C. C-4 D. T-1

3. 15; 15

The modified Law method for TMJ requires a ____ -degree rotation of the skull and a ____-degree angle of the CR. 1. 10; 15 2. 5; 0 3. 15; 15 4. 0; 25- to 30

a. sinus tarsi

The opening in the middle of the talocalcaneal joint refers to the: a. sinus tarsi b. flabella c. nutrient foramen d. sustentaculum tali

O

The part vertebral foramen is labeled _____.

C4

The thyroid cartilage generally corresponds to the level of:

2. C4-6.

The thyroid cartilage generally corresponds to the level of: 1. C1-2. 2. C4-6. 3. C6-7. 4. C7-T1.

3. 50 to 100 mrad.

The thyroid dose range received for an AP axial (Towne method) skull is: 1. 0 to 5 mrad. 2. 250 to 500 mrad. 3. 50 to 100 mrad. 4. 10 to 20 mrad.

Mandible Angle

The turn of the mandible fromt the body to the ramus

B. Away

To properly elongate & visualize the axillary aspect of the ribs the patient's spine should be rotated _____ the area of interest. A. Toward B. Away

Where should the central ray enter for a dorsoplantar projection of the foot? A. 3rd metatarsophalangeal joint B. Base of the 3rd metatarsal C. Anterior talus D. 1st cuneiform

B. Base of the 3rd metatarsal

The survival rate for liver transplant is about what percent?

90

On the dorsoplantar projection of the foot the central ray is directed _________ cephalad. A. 10 degrees B. 20 degrees C. 25 degrees D. 45 degrees

A. 10 degrees

The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the settegast projection is: A. 80 degrees B. 120 Degrees C. 180 degrees D. 45 degrees

A. 80 degrees

Where should the central ray be directed for an A.P. projection of the knee joint? A. 1 CM proximal to the base of patella B. 1 CM distal to the apex of patella C. 1 CM distal to the base of patella D. Parallel to patellar surface

B. 1 CM distal to the apex of patella

The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the lateral projection of the knee is: A. 90 degrees B. 150-160 degrees C. 80 degrees D. 120 degrees

B. 150-160 degrees

Sphenoid Bone

Butterfly-shaped bone at the base of the skull (1)

In the Johnson's Method of the hip the central-ray has a double angle of _____ degrees superiorly and _____ degrees posteriorly. a. 10, 20 b. 15, 15 C. 25, 25 D. 45, 45

C. 25, 25

In order to demonstrate the S.I. joints the patient should be in this position: a. Prone b. Supine C. Oblique D. Lateral

C. Oblique

The xiphoid process is at the vertebral level of: A. L2-3. B. T2-3. C. T9-10. D. T5-6.

C. T9-10.

The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the holmblad projection is: A. 120 degrees B. 80 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 110 degrees

D. 110 degrees

Infraorbital Foramen

Hole beneath eye sockets

C3

The gonion corresponds to the level of:

The C-loop is another name for the:

duodenal bulb

coronal suture

label c:

Supraorbital margin

the superior border, or margin, of the eye socket

C. Zygapophyseal joints

2. The oblique position of the lumbar spine is used to best demonstrate which of the following? A. Intervertebral spaces B. Intervertebral foramina C. Zygapophyseal joints D. Bodies

D. 15 degrees cephalad

. Which of the following angles is required for an A.P. projection of the sacrum? A. 5 degrees caudad B. 5 degrees cephalad C. 15 degrees caudad D. 15 degrees cephalad

What percentage of polyps will convert into cancer?

1

The superior margin of the greater trochanter is approximately ____ inches superior to the symphysis pubis.

1 to 1½ (2½ to 4 cm)

What percentage of polyps will convert into cancer?

1%

C. Flexed

1. The A.P projection of the lumbar Spine requires the legs to be to better visualize the disk spaces. A. Inverted B. Everted C. Flexed D. Abducted

The xiphoid process generally doesn't calcify until the age of

40 years

The settegast projection of the knee best demonstrates an axial view of the: A. Head of fibular B. Intercondyloid fossa C. Patella D. Tibial tuberosity

C. Patella

Which of the following factors must be observed for an AP erect abdomen projection? A. Collimate lower border to level of ASIS. B. Use a higher kV technique. C. Patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes prior to imaging. D. Increase SID to 72 inches (180 cm) to minimize magnification.

C. Patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes prior to imaging.

On a good radiograph of the hip the _____ should not be seen (demonstrated). a. Neck of the femur b. Greater trochanters C. Head of femur D. Lesser trochanters

D. Lesser trochanters

The right anterior oblique position will best demonstrate the sacro-iliac joint _____ to the film surface. A. Closest B. Farthest

A. Closest

4. Arcelin method

Which of the following projections will provide an anterior profile image of the petrous bone? 1. Modified Law method 2. Stenvers method 3. Schuller method 4. Arcelin method

A. Modified Waters

Which of the following projections would be used to demonstrate blow-out fractures? A. Modified Waters B. Rhese C. PA Mandible D. Lateral Facial Bones

D. Lateral projection

Which of the following projections would best demonstrate the intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine? A. LPO oblique B. RPO oblique C. A.P. projection D. Lateral projection

B. Lateral projection

Which of the following projections would best demonstrate the intervertebral spaces of the lumbar spine? A. A.P. projection B. Lateral projection C. Medial-lateral projection D. Lateral-medial projection

C. LPO

6. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the left ribs? A. AP B. PA C. LPO D. LAO

The liver weights how many pounds?

7

For the oblique position (radiograph) of the foot, the foot and leg should be rotated _________. A. Laterally B. Medially C. Dorsi-flexed D. None of the above

B. Medially

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. With the patient erect, an adequate inspiratory effort is indicated by the visualization of: A. 10 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms B. 8 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms C. 6 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms D. 4 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms

A. 10 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms

A radiographic image of the sternoclavicular joints is obtained in the PA oblique projection. The proper degree of obliquity to best evaluate an affected SC joint is a: A. 10-15 rotation B. 25-35 degree rotation C. 45-55 degrees rotation D. 60-70 degrees rotation

A. 10-15 rotation

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA oblique projection in the RAO position. The patient is placed with their right shoulder in contact with the IR and their left hand on the hip. In order to demonstrate pulmonary diseases the patient should be rotated: A. 10-20 degrees from the plane of the IR b. 25-35 degrees from the plane of the IR c. 45-60 degrees from the plane of the IR d. 75-85 degrees from the plane of the IR

A. 10-20 degrees from the plane of the IR

For the AP projection of the pelvis, the feet and legs should be rotated _____. A. 15-20 degrees internally B. 5-12 degrees externally C. 10-15 degrees externally D. parallel

A. 15-20 degrees internally

The malleoli are used as landmarks when making a radiograph of the: A. Ankle B. Knee C. Elbow D. Foot

A. Ankle

Which of the following must be done for a properly positioned A.P. projection of the ankle? A. Ankle joint dorsi-flexed B. Tube angled 10 degrees cephalad C. Plantar surface touching film D. All of the above

A. Ankle joint dorsi-flexed

A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the lateral projection. If the lower vertebral column is not elevated to the horizontal position, the CR should be directed to the level of T7 at a: A. Cephalic angulation of 10-15 degrees B. Caudal angulation of 25-35 degrees C. Caudal angulation of 10-15 degrees D. Cephalic angulation of 25-30 degrees

A. Cephalic angulation of 10-15 degrees

In order to obtain a lateral projection of the cervical spine in flexion, the patient is placed in the true lateral position with the: A. Chin lowered toward the chest B. Chin raised as much as possible C. Body of the mandible parallel to the floor D. Ramus of the mandible parallel to the floor

A. Chin lowered toward the chest

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the AP projection. With the patient supine, the scapulae can be rotated away from the lung fields by: A. Flexing the elbows and pronating the hands B. Raising the arms over the head of the patient C. Supinating the hands and elbows D. Abducting the upper arms 90 degrees

A. Flexing the elbows and pronating the hands

A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the AP projection. With the patient supine, the normal degree of kyphosis can be reduced by: A. Flexing the knees B. Fully extending the legs C. Inverting the toes by 15 degrees D. Raising the arms above the head

A. Flexing the knees

The suspended breathing technique on an erect abdomen is applied in order to demonstrate: A. Free air under the diaphragm B. Both apices of the lung field C. The urinary bladder D. Both iliac crests

A. Free air under the diaphragm

Choose the conversion factor that is used in converting from a non-cast technique to a cast technique. A. Increase 6-10 Kvp B. Decrease 6-10 Kvp C. Double Mass D. Decrease Mass

A. Increase 6-10 Kvp

Where should the central ray enter for an A.P. projection of the 1st toe? A. Interphalangeal joint B. Proximal interphalangeal joint C. Distal interphalangeal D. 1st metatarsal phalangeal joint

A. Interphalangeal joint

A radiographic image of the right sacroiliac (SI) joint is to be obtained in the AP oblique projection. The patient should be placed in the: A. LPO position with the affected joint farthest from the IR B. RPO position with the affected joint farthest from the IR C. LAO position with the affected joint closest to the IR D. RAO position with the affected joint closest to the IR

A. LPO position with the affected joint farthest from the IR

A radiographic image of the odontoid process is obtained in the AP projection open-mouth position. The patient should open the mouth as wide as possible with a line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisor to the: A. Mastoid tip placed perpendicular to the IR B. Mental process placed perpendicular to the IR C. External auditory meatus placed perpendicular to the IR D. Inion (EOP) placed perpendicular to the IR

A. Mastoid tip placed perpendicular to the IR

To demonstrate the tibio-fibular articulation of the proximal lower leg you would position the leg in a : A. Medial oblique B. External oblique C. Lateral D. Anterior Posterior

A. Medial oblique

A radiographic image of the odontoid process (dens) is obtained in the AP projection open mouth position. The resultant radiograph demonstrates the occipital bone obscuring the dens. in order to correct for this positioning error, the radiographer should: A. Tuck the patient's chin closer to the chest B. Raise the patient's chin farther away from the chest C. Oblique the patient's head by 10 degrees D. Place the head in the lateral position

A. Tuck the patient's chin closer to the chest

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. Which body position and phase of respiration will move the diaphragms to their lowest position? A. The erect position with inspiration B. The erect position with expiration C. The supine position with inspiration D. the supine position with expiration

A. The erect position with inspiration

In Which direction does the diaphragm move on expiration? A. Up B. Down C. Medial D. Lateral

A. Up

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA oblique projection. With the patient in the LAO position the maximum area of the lung demonstrated is on: A. The right side of the thorax B. The left side of the thorax

A. The right side of the thorax

Motion of the patient's diaphragm can be stopped by providing proper breathing instructions. A. True B. False

A. True

The most common type of involuntary motion in the abdomen is peristalsis. A. True B. False

A. True

At what level should the CR be placed for an AP lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen? A. Iliac crest B. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest C. ASIS D. Umbilicus

B. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest

A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the lateral projection. The patient's arms should be elevated no more than 90 degrees from the body. Any more than this will cause: 1. The correction of an abnormal amount of kyphosis 2. The scapulae to obscure the upper thoracic vertebrae 3. Unwanted discomfort to the patient A. 1 only C. 3 only B. 2 only D 1, 2, and 3

B. 2 only

When doing a lateral projection of the knee, the joint is flexed approximately: A. 5-10 degrees B. 20-30 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 45 degrees

B. 20-30 degrees

A radiographic image of the right sacroiliac (SI) joint is to be obtained in the AP oblique projection. The joint space is best visualized when the patient is rotated: A. 15 degrees to the plane of the IR B. 25 degrees to the plane of the IR C. 45 degrees to the plane of the IR D. 70 degrees to the plane of the IR

B. 25 degrees to the plane of the IR

For an oblique view of the foot, how many degrees should the foot be rotated? A. 15 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 90 degrees

B. 30 degrees

To obtain a semiaxial projection of the calcaneus, the number of degrees the central ray is directed cephalad to the long axis of the foot is: A. 30 degrees B. 40 degrees C. 50 degrees D. 25 degrees

B. 40 degrees

Which of the following is the preferred distance for radiography of the abdomen? A. 36 inches B. 40 inches C. 60 inches D. 72 inches

B. 40 inches

A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in teh AP axial oblique projection to demnstrate open intervertebral foramina. This projection requires the cervical spine be rotated: A. 20 degrees away from the IR B. 45 degrees away from the IR C. 60 degrees away from the IR D. 90 degrees away from the IR

B. 45 degrees away from the IR

In the anterior posterior projection of the knee joint the central ray is directed: A. Perpendicularly B. 5 degrees cephalad C. 10 degrees cephalad D. 25 degrees caphalad

B. 5 degrees cephalad

Which of the following radiographic images are most often obtained to evaluate a patient with lateral scoliosis of the thoracic spine? A. An Ap projection with the patient supine B. A PA projection with the patient erect C. A lateral projection with the patient recumbent D. A lateral projection with the patient erect

B. A PA projection with the patient erect

Which projection of the spinal column will most likely demonstrate a kyphotic curve of the spine? A. An AP axial projection of the cervical spine B. A lateral projection of the thoracic spine C. An AP projection of the lumbar spine D. A lateral projection of the cervical spine

B. A lateral projection of the thoracic spine

Which projection of the chest is most commonly used for the demonstration of the interlobar effusions and to give an unobstructed view of the pulmonary apices? A. PA oblique projection with the patient RAO B. AP axial (Lindholm) projection C. AP projection with the patient in the ventral decubitus position D. Axiolateral (Twining) projection

B. AP axial (Lindholm) projection

A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the lateral projection. What action can be taken to prevent the ribs from obscuring the intervertebral foramina? A. Directing the CR 15 degrees caudal B. Adjusting the arms to right angles C. Taking the exposure on full inhalation D. Directing the CR 5 degrees caudal

B. Adjusting the arms to right angles

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the space between the patella and the femur? A. A.P. B. Axial C. Internal oblique D. External oblique

B. Axial

What is another name for an A.P. projection of the foot? A. Subtalar projection B. Dorsoplantar projection C. Plantodorsal projection D. Semi-axial projection

B. Dorsoplantar projection

B. A.P.

Which of the following projections would best demonstrate the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae? A. Lateral B. A.P. C. 45 degree oblique D. 70 degree oblique

Which of the following views would show the os calcis best? A. A.P. foot B. Lateral foot C. Metatarsal projection D. Oblique projection of foot

B. Lateral foot

In a correctly positioned radiograph of the AP pelvis the _____ should not be demonstrated (seen). A. Greater Trochanters B. Lesser Trochanters C. Necks of femur D. All of the above

B. Lesser Trochanters

The answer to question #4 is performed to place the femur _____ to the film surface. A. Head, perpendicular B. Neck, parallel C. Coracoid, perpendicular D. Acetabulum, parallel E. None of the above

B. Neck, parallel

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. If the thoracic viscera and the heart are of primary interest, the patient should be asked to suspend respiration at the end of: A. Full inspiration B. Normal inspiration C. Full expiration D. Normal expiration

B. Normal inspiration

The projection of the chest that is commonly employed for the demonstration of free fluid in the costophrenic recess is the: A. AP projection with the patient supine B. PA projection with the patient erect C. AP axial projection with the patient erect D. Lateral projection with the patient recombinant

B. PA projection with the patient erect

A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP axial oblique projection. The projection is commonly used for the evaluation of the: A. Pedicles closest to the IR B. Pedicles farthest from the IR C. Sinus processes closest to the IR D. Sinus process farthest from the IR

B. Pedicles farthest from the IR

According to Ballinger, for the AP frogleg pelvis projection the central ray is angled ______ the the film surface. A. 40 degrees cephalic B. Perpendicular C. 10-15 degrees cephalic D. None of the above

B. Perpendicular

Why is the right kidney usually lower than the left? A. Presence of right colic flexure B. Presence of the liver C. Presence of the stomach D. Presence of right suprarenal gland

B. Presence of the liver

If one wished to demonstrate the distal tibio-fibular articulation of the lower leg, he would: A. Rotate the leg laterally B. Rotate the leg medially C. Leave it in the P.A. projection D. Angle the tube laterally and caudally 15 degrees E. None of the above

B. Rotate the leg medially

A radiograph of an AP projection of the abdomen reveals that the right iliac wing is wider than the left. What type of positioning error was involved? A. Rotation toward the left B. Rotation toward the right C. No rotation

B. Rotation toward the right

A radiographic image of the atlas and axis is obtained in the AP (open mouth) projection. In order to keep the tongue in the floor of the mouth the patient is instructed to: A. Breath rapidly during the exposure B. Softly phonate "ah" during the exposure C. Slowly expire during the exposure D. Suspend respiration during the exposure

B. Softly phonate "ah" during the exposure

The axial projection of the patella is also referred to as: A. Oblique B. Sunrise C. Dorsoplantar D. Tunnels

B. Sunrise

For the beclere projection of the knee the patient's torso (body) is: A. Prone B. Supine C. Lateral recumbent D. Upright

B. Supine

What are the breathing instructions for a patient who is having an AP supine abdomen radiograph? A. Suspended inspiration B. Suspended expiration C. Shallow respiration D. Suspended respiration

B. Suspended expiration

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the lateral projection. With the patient erect in the left lateral position, the CR should be directed perpendicular to the midcoronal plane at the level of the: A. T-5 B. T-7 C. T-8 D. T-10

B. T-7

The A.P. projection of the ankle will NOT clearly demonstrate the: A. Distal tibia B. Inferior tibio-fibular articulation C. Lower end of the femur D. Upper portion of the astragalus

C. Lower end of the femur

In order to best demonstrate the stability of the longitudinal arch of the foot in the weight feet radiographs, the _________ aspect of the foot should be placed closest to the film. A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Medial D. Lateral

C. Medial

Why is the left lateral decubitus preferred over the right lateral decubitus abdomen? A. It is more comfortable for the patient. B. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the spleen. C. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin away from gastric bubble. D. It allows any gas in the large intestine to move toward the liver.

C. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin away from gastric bubble.

What is the best method to control voluntary motion during abdominal radiography? A. Long exposure time B. Second breath hold C. Careful instructions to patient D. Use of small focal spot

C. Careful instructions to patient

A radiographic image is obtained in the lateral (Twining) projection or swimmer's position. This projection is most commonly employed for the evaluation of the: A. Atlanto-occipital region of the spine B. Atlanto-axial region of the spine C. Cervicothoracic region of the spine D. Lumbosacral region of the spine

C. Cervicothoracic region of the spine

A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the lateral projection. The use of a radiographic grid is generally NOT required because of the scatter reduction that occurs: A. From the use of the anode heel effect B. From the use of a cylinder or cone C. From the use of the natural air gap D. From the use of a high kVp technique

C. From the use of the natural air gap

What bony landmark is used to center a supine abdomen radiograph? A. Lumbar vertebrae 4-5 B. Symphasis pubis C. Iliac crest D. Xyphoid process

C. Iliac crest

The tunnel (homblad) projection of the knee demonstrates the: A. Glenoid fossa B. Knee joint C. Intercondyloid fossa D. Patella

C. Intercondyloid fossa

A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP axial oblique projection. This projection is commonly used for the evaluation of the: A. Vertebral foramina farthest from the IR B. Transverse foramina farthest from the IR C. Intrevertebral foramina farthest from the IR D. Zygpophyseal articulations farthest from the IR

C. Intrevertebral foramina farthest from the IR

In the AP pelvis projection, the feet & legs must be _____. A. Everted B. Flexed C. Inverted D. Extended

C. Inverted

A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. This projection is preferred over the AP projection because: A. The diaphragms are in their lowest position B. It opens the aortic arch C. It places the heart closer to the IR D. It places the clavicles above the apices

C. It places the heart closer to the IR

Which aspect of the foot is normally closest to the film for a lateral projection? A. Plantar B. Dorsal C. Lateral D. Medial

C. Lateral

The projection to demonstrate the stability of the longitudinal arch of the foot is: A. Dorsoplantar B. Oblique dorsoplantar C. Lateral weight-bearing D. Axial

C. Lateral weight-bearing

The medial oblique position of the ankle radiograph is also known as the _______ view. A. Thomas B. Jones C. Mortise D. None of the above

C. Mortise

For the Shoot-thru Lateral of the hip, the film should be positioned vertically and parallel to the _____ of the femur. a. Greater trochanters b. Shaft C. Neck D. Epicondyles

C. Neck

The answer to question #4 is performed to best demonstrate the _____ of the femur. a. Heads b. Acetabulum C. Necks D. Lesser trochanters

C. Necks

With the foot and lower leg rotated medially 45 degrees what position of the ankle would be obtained? A. A.P. B. Semi-axial C. Oblique D. Steep lateral

C. Oblique

An acute abdominal series (3 way series) consists of the following positions/projections. A. AP, PA, oblique abdomen B. AP,PA, and lateral abdomen C. PA chest erect, AP supine abdomen, AP erect abdomen D. None of the above

C. PA chest erect, AP supine abdomen, AP erect abdomen

Which one of the following projections involves a kV setting of 110 to 125? A. Erect abdomen for ascites B. Supine abdomen for intra-abdominal mass C. PA, erect chest for free air under diaphragm D. Dorsal decubitus abdomen for calcified aorta

C. PA, erect chest for free air under diaphragm

In the AP external projection of the shoulder, the epicondylar plane is _________ to the film surface. A. Perpendicular B. 45 degrees C. Parallel D. 90 degrees

C. Parallel

A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP axial projection to demonstrate the lower cervical vertebrae. The CR should be directed 15 degrees cephalic to enter at the: A. Mental point B. Gonion C. Thyroid cartilage D. Hyoid bone

C. Thyroid cartilage

Situation: A 3-year-old patient comes to radiology for an abdominal study. Even with careful instructions and immobilization, the patient is having difficulty holding still. Which of the following should be done to minimize motion on the radiograph? A. Increase kV. B. Decrease SID. C. Use a shorter exposure time. D. Ask an older experienced radiographer to hold patient.

C. Use a shorter exposure time.

According to Ballinger, the AP frogleg pelvis, when done on newborns will demonstrate: A. Ilium best B. Greater trochanters C. fractures D. Congenital hip defects

D. Congenital hip defects

Situation: A patient comes to radiology with possible bleeding within the abdomen. The patient is unable to stand or sit for any projections. Which of the following projections would be most effective in demonstrating bleeding within the stomach for this patient? A. AP KUB B. AP supine chest C. Right lateral dorsal decubitus D. Left lateral decubitus

D. Left lateral decubitus

Situation: A patient is in ICU after abdominal surgery. The surgeon is concerned about a possible perforated bowel. The patient can't stand or sit. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate any possible intra-abdominal free air? A. Right lateral decubitus B. Prone KUB C. Ventral decubitus D. Left lateral decubitus

D. Left lateral decubitus

According to the textbook Ballinger (I'm sure you read it!) the Modified Cleaves Method of the pelvis is also known as the: A. Danelius-miller B. Leonard george pelvis C. AP hip D. Frogleg pelvis

D. Frogleg pelvis

If the patient that is scheduled to have an abdomen radiograph informs you that she is pregnant, you should: A. Disregard information and continue with the study B. Cancel the study and let the patient leave C. Perform the study and tell Mr. Narvaez in class D. Inform the radiologist and wait for further instructions

D. Inform the radiologist and wait for further instructions

A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP axial projection. A 15-20 degree cephalic angulation of the CR should be employed to better define the: A. Cervical rib facets B. Cartilage of the larynx C. Atlanto-occipital joint D. Intervertebral disk spaces

D. Intervertebral disk spaces

A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the PA axial oblique projection. This projection is commonly employed to demonstrate: A. Vertebral foramina closest to the IR B Transverse foramina closest to the IR C. Zygapophyseal articulations closest to the IR D. Intervertebral foramina closest to the IR

D. Intervertebral foramina closest to the IR

What do the letters K.U.B. stand for? A. Dr. Kub B. Kidneys, uterus, bladder C. Kidneys, umbilicus, bowel D. Kidneys, ureters, bladder

D. Kidneys, ureters, bladder

Which of the following radiographic projections of the cervical spine should be obtained to demonstrate articulations between the superior and inferior articulating processes of the cervical vertebrae? A. Anteroposterior axial projection B. AP axial (Pillar) projection C. AP axial oblique projection D. Lateral projection

D. Lateral projection

Which radiographic projection of the cervical spine will most clearly demonstrate the spinous process of the cervical vertebra? A. AP axial projection B. PA oblique projection C. Axiolateral projection D. Lateral projection

D. Lateral projection

In the lateral projection of the ankle routine, the malleolar plane is positioned _________ to the film surface. A. Horizontal B. Parallel C. Oblique D. Perpendicular

D. Perpendicular

A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP (Ottonello) projection while the patient is asked to open and close their mouth during the exposure. This maneuver is employed in the evaluation of: A. Basilar fractures B. Cervical instability C. Cervical tumors D. The entire cervical spine

D. The entire cervical spine

A radiographic image of the odontoid process is obtained in the AP (Fuchs) projection. The chin should be extended until: A. The infra-orbital margin is parallel to the IR B. The acanthion and glabella are vertical C. The lower incisors are perpendicular to the IR D. The tip of the chin and mastoid process at vertical

D. The tip of the chin and mastoid process at vertical

A radiograph of an AP KUB reveals that the obturator foramina are cut off from the bottom of the image receptor. The kidneys and symphysis pubis are demonstrated. What centering adjustments should the technologist make to improve this image? A. Use two 35 x 42 cm (14 x 17 inch) cassettes crosswise. B. Center the cassette 2 inches (5 cm) below the iliac crest. C. Open up the collimators to include the ischial tuberosities. D. This radiograph is correctly centered. No centering adjustments are needed.

D. This radiograph is correctly centered. No centering adjustments are needed

If a patient is in traction for a cervical spine injury, the radiographic image should normally be obtained: A. After removing the patient from the traction apparatus B. After removing the weights from the traction apparatus C. With patient in acute flexion and extension D. Without adjusting the traction apparatus

D. Without adjusting the traction apparatus

3. Axiolateral (Schuller)

Which of the following projections requires a 25- to 30-degree caudad CR angle with the head in a true lateral position? 1. AP axial (Towne) 2. Posterior profile (Stenvers) 3. Axiolateral (Schuller) 4. Axiolateral oblique (modified Law)

D. Nasal Septum

During routine radiography of the Nasal Bones, the Water's projection is taken to demonstrate the: A. Anterior Nasal Spine B. Nasal Turbinates C. Nasal Conchae D. Nasal Septum

C. Submentovertex or SMV

Which of the following projections requires the central ray to enter below the mentum and exit at the vertex? A. Townes or AP axial B. Lateral C. Submentovertex or SMV D. PA or Caldwell

frontal

The ethmoid notch is part of the ______ bone.

d. AP scapula

Which of the following projections should be performed using a breathing technique? a. AP clavicle b. Inferosuperior axiolateral projection c. Scapular Y lateral projection d. AP scapula

1. Parietoacanthial

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the bony nasal septum? 1. Parietoacanthial 2. Lateral nasal bone 3. AP axial projection 4. Lateral facial bone

C. Lower outer quadrant

The evaluation criteria for the projection mentioned on question 04 the optical canal (foramen) should lie in _______ of the orbit. A. Lower inner quadrant B. Upper outer quadrant C. Lower outer quadrant D. Upper inner quadrant

a. True

The female clavicle is usually shorter and less curved than that of the male. a. True b. False

2. Submentovertex

Which of the following projections of the mandible results in the highest skin dose? 1. AP axial 2. Submentovertex 3. PA axial 4. Axiolateral

b. fibrous.

The distal tibiofibular joint is classified as: a. synarthrodial. b. fibrous. c. synovial. d. diarthrodial.

Bregma

The anterior fontanel becomes the ___________ in the adult skull.

2. promontory of the sacrum.

The anterior projecting bony process of the sacrum that forms part of the inlet of the true pelvis is the: 1. apex of coccyx. 2. promontory of the sacrum. 3. sacral foramina. 4. body of S1.

b. costal surface.

The anterior surface of the scapula is referred to as the: a. supraspinous and infraspinous fossa. b. costal surface. c. scapular surface. d. dorsal surface.

Zygomatic Bone (malar)

The arch of bone beneath the eye that forms the prominence of the cheek (2)

D

The body of C2 is labeled _____.

Occipital Bone

The bone found at the back and base of the skull

2. pedicles.

The bony structures connected directly to the vertebral body are the: 1. transverse processes. 2. pedicles. 3. laminae. 4. articular processes.

Pedicles

The bony structures connected directly to the vertebral body are the: Paragraph

a. cuboid.

The calcaneus articulates with the talus and the: a. cuboid. b. navicular. c. medial cuneiform. d. lateral cuneiform.

ethmoid

The cribiform plate is part of the ________ bone.

A. True

The degree of rotation for the RAO projection of the sternum is dependent on the size of the thoracic cavity. A. True B. False

D. Nasion

The depression at the bridge of the nose or the junction of two nasal bones and frontal bone is termed: A. Gonion B. Vertex C. Inion D. Nasion

2. Modified Law method

Which of the following projections of the mastoids provides a lateral view of the mastoids? 1. Towne method 2. Modified Law method 3. Arcelin method 4. Stenvers method

2. Pectus excavatum

Which condition of the sternum is often termed "funnel chest?" 1. Flail chest 2. Pectus excavatum 3. Pectus deforminens 4. Pectus eruptus

MRI

Which imaging modality will best demonstrate HNP in the cervical spine?

1. MRI

Which imaging modality will best demonstrate HNP in the cervical spine? 1. MRI 2. CT 3. Nuclear medicine 4. Hyperflexion and hyperextension lateral projections

1. E

Which labeled structure in the Figure corresponds to the ear of the Scotty dog on an oblique projection of the lumbar spine? 1. E 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B

5. D

Which labeled structure in the Figure corresponds to the nose of the Scotty dog on an oblique lumbar spine projection? 1. A 2. C 3. E 4. B 5. D

1. B

Which labeled structure is the inferior articular process? 1. B 2. E 3. D 4. C 5. A

4. C

Which labeled structure is the pars interarticularis? 1. A 2. E 3. D 4. C 5. B

a. Fifth

Which metatarsal bone of the foot has a prominent tuberosity frequently fractured? a. Fifth b. Third c. Fourth d. First

D. Seventh

Which of the cervical vertebrae has the most prominent spinous process? A. First B. Third C. Fifth D. Seventh

A. Lateral & PA or Caldwell

Which of the following are usually included in a routine skull series? A. Lateral & PA or Caldwell B. Townes C. Submentovertex D. Waters and Rhese E. A&B only F. A&C only

d. None of the above

Which of the following arm positions demonstrates the greater tubercle in profile medially? a. Neutral rotation b. External rotation c. Internal rotation d. None of the above

c. Internal rotation

Which of the following arm positions demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially? a. Neutral rotation b. External rotation c. Internal rotation d. None of the above

1. Ischial spine

Which of the following bony structures cannot be palpated? 1. Ischial spine 2. Symphysis pubis 3. ASIS 4. Ischial tuberosity

4. Ischial spine

Which of the following bony structures cannot be palpated? 1. Symphysis pubis 2. Ischial tuberosity 3. ASIS 4. Ischial spine

d. Scapulohumeral joint

Which of the following joints is considered to have a spheroidal type of movement? a. Bicipital joint b. Acromioclavicular joints c. Sternoclavicular joints d. Scapulohumeral joint

4. A grid should be used.

Which of the following points is not true about the oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection of the zygomatic arches? 1. It requires both rotation and tilt of the skull. 2. A small focal spot should be used. 3. The AEC should not be used. 4. A grid should be used.

B. A.P. open mouth

Which of the following positions is usually used to demonstrate the odontoid process? A. A.P. B. A.P. open mouth C. 45 degree oblique D. Lateral

1. Lateral

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine? 1. Lateral 2. Posterior obliques 3. Anterior obliques 4. AP axial

2. Lateral

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine? 1. Posterior obliques 2. Lateral 3. Anterior obliques 4. AP axial

D. Flexion and extension laterals

Which of the following positions would be required to demonstrate the mobility of the cervical spine? A. A.P. and P.A. projections B. Inversion and eversion obliques C. Internal and external rotation D. Flexion and extension laterals

B. PA or Caldwell

Which of the following projections are used to best demonstrate the frontal bone and a general survey of the cranium? A. Towne or PA axial B. PA or Caldwell C. AP projection D. None of the above E. All of the above

3. AP axial, CR 30 degrees caudal to IOML

Which of the following projections for the sella turcica best visualizes the anterior clinoid processes? 1. PA, CR 0 degrees to OML 2. PA axial, CR 25 degrees cephalad to OML 3. AP axial, CR 30 degrees caudal to IOML 4. AP axial, CR 37 degrees caudal to IOML

C. Lateral projection

Which of the following projections is used to demonstrate the superimposed halves of the cranium & sella turcica? A. Waters projection B. Submentovertex C. Lateral projection D. AP projection