Radiographic Procedures III Final Review
The human adult heart averages how many beat per minute?
70
How many carpal bones are found in the wrist?
8
sutural or wormian
A ______ bone is sometimes found in the sutures of an adult skull.
basal
A _______ skull fracture may produce an air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus.
4. osteoporosis.
A common condition of the femur that develops in elderly patients, leading to frequent fractures of the hip (proximal femur), is: 1. developmental dysplasia of the hip. 2. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. 3. congenital hip dysplasia. 4. osteoporosis.
3. pigeon breast.
A congenital defect characterized by anterior protrusion of the lower sternum is termed: 1. flail chest. 2. pectus excavatum. 3. pigeon breast. 4. sternal protrusion.
a. True
A correctly positioned AP 45-degree medial oblique ankle projection frequently may also demonstrate a fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal if present. a. True b. False
3. chance
A fracture through the vertebral body and posterior elements caused by lap seat belts during an auto accident involving sudden deceleration is a ____ fracture. 1. compression 2. teardrop burst 3. chance 4. Jefferson
B. False
A large "deep-chested" (hypersthenic) patient requires more obliquity for a frontal view of the sternum as compared with a "thin-chested" (asthenic) patient. A. True B. False
C. Lateral thoracic spine
A long exposure time (breathing technique) is necessary for which of the following positions? A. A.P. cervical spine B. 70 degree oblique thoracic spine C. Lateral thoracic spine D. Odontoid
dolichocephalic
A long, narrow skull is called _______.
3. Nothing; accept the initial radiograph.
A radiograph of a PA Caldwell projection reveals that the petrous ridges are projected into the lower one third of the maxillary sinuses. Which of the following modifications should be made during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image? 1. Increase the extension of the head and neck. 2. Decrease the extension of the head and neck. 3. Nothing; accept the initial radiograph. 4. Angle the CR 10 degrees caudad.
4.. None of the above; positioning was correct.
A radiograph of a PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the cranium reveals that the petrous ridges are located at the level of the lower one-third of the orbits. The technologist performed this projection with the CR angled 15 degrees caudal to the OML. How must positioning be altered if a repeat exposure is performed? 1. Increase the extension of the skull. 2. Increase the flexion of the skull. 3. Increase the CR angulation 4.. None of the above; positioning was correct.
1. Increase extension of the head and neck slightly.
A radiograph of a PA projection of the sinuses reveals that the petrous ridges are projected over the ethmoid sinuses. Which of the following modifications will eliminate this superimposition, while not compromising diagnostic quality? 1. Increase extension of the head and neck slightly. 2. Angle the CR 5 to 10 degrees caudad. 3. Increase flexion of the head and neck slightly. 4. Have the patient open his mouth.
4. None of the above; centering and image receptor placement were correct.
A radiograph of a lateral cranium reveals that the mentum was cut off from the bottom of the radiograph. A 10 ´12-inch (24 ´ 30 cm) image receptor was used and it was placed crosswise. What must be altered if a repeat exposure is performed? 1. Center the CR at the EAM. 2. Use a 14 ´ 17-inch (35 ´ 43 cm) cassette. 3. Place the 10 ´ 12-inch (24 ´ 30 cm) cassette lengthwise. 4. None of the above; centering and image receptor placement were correct.
4. Tilt
A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cranium reveals that the orbital plates are not superimposed, one is slightly superior to the other. Which of the following positioning errors led to this radiographic outcome? 1. Rotation 2. Excessive extension 3. Excessive flexion 4. Tilt
4. Rotation
A radiograph of a lateral projection of the facial bones reveals that the mandibular rami are not superimposed. What specific positioning error is present on this radiograph? 1. Excessive extension 2. Tilt 3. Excessive flexion 4. Rotation
1. Decrease the extension of the head and neck.
A radiograph of a parieto-orbital projection for the optic foramen reveals that the optic foramen is projected into the inferior orbital rim. Which of the following modifications is needed to produce a more diagnostic image? 1. Decrease the extension of the head and neck. 2. Increase the extension of the head and neck. 3. Increase the CR angulation. 4. Decrease the CR angulation.
1. Excessive flexion
A radiograph of a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection for sinuses reveals that the petrous pyramids are projected over the maxillary sinuses. What positioning error is present on this radiograph? 1. Excessive flexion 2. Excessive extension 3. Excessive CR angulation 4. Rotation of the head
1. Insufficient extension
A radiograph of a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection reveals that the petrous ridges are superimposed over the lower 30% of the maxillary sinuses. What specific positioning error (if any) led to this radiographic finding? 1. Insufficient extension 2. Excessive extension 3. No error; accept initial radiograph 4. Excessive CR angulation
2. Increase the rotation of the skull to 45 degrees
A radiograph of a posterior profile projection of the petrous bone reveals that the petrous bone is foreshortened. The following positioning factors were used: 35-degree rotation of skull (from PA position), 12-degree cephalad angle, IOML perpendicular to film, 75 kV, CR centered to the downside petrous bone. Which of the following modifications needs to be made to produce a more diagnostic image? 1. Increase the CR angulation to 20 degrees cephalad 2. Increase the rotation of the skull to 45 degrees 3. Place the AML perpendicular to the film 4. Center the CR to upside petrous bone
2. Increase the extension of the skull.
A radiograph of a submentovertex projection of the cranium reveals that the mandibular condyles are projected into the petrous pyramids. What must be altered during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic radiograph? 1. Increase the flexion of the skull. 2. Increase the extension of the skull. 3. None of the above; it is an acceptable image. 4. Decrease the CR angulation.
1. Increase the extension of the head and neck.
A radiograph of a submentovertex projection reveals that the mandible is superimposed over the ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses. Which of the following modifications will eliminate this problem? 1. Increase the extension of the head and neck. 2. Increase the flexion of the head and neck. 3. Perform the projection with the patient supine. 4. Perform the axiolateral oblique instead of the submentovertex.
4. Excessive CR angulation
A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the cranium reveals that the dorsum sellae is projected below the foramen magnum but the anterior arch of C1 is visible within the foramen. Which of the following positioning errors led to this radiographic outcome? 1. Insufficient flexion of the head and neck 2. Insufficient CR angulation 3. Tilt of the skull 4. Excessive CR angulation
2. Increase the CR angulation.
A radiograph of an axiolateral (Schuller) projection of the mastoids reveals that the upside mastoid is superimposed on the downside mastoid. What modification is needed to prevent this superimposition during the repeat exposure? 1. Rotate the skull 15 degrees toward the film. 2. Increase the CR angulation. 3. Rotate the skull 15 degrees away from the film. 4. Extend the skull to place the OML perpendicular to the film.
2. Increase the rotation of skull toward the image receptor
A radiograph of an axiolateral projection of the mandible with the head in a lateral position reveals that the mandibular body is greatly foreshortened. Which of the following modifications is needed to produce a more diagnostic image? 1. Decrease the rotation of skull toward the image receptor. 2. Increase the rotation of skull toward the image receptor. 3. Increase the CR angulation. 4. Decrease the CR angulation
A. True
A recommended practice is to decrease the SID to less than 40 inches (102cm) for the oblique sternum to increase the magnification and resultant unsharpness of overlying ribs. A. True B. False
B. False
A right or left marker may be taped over the area of interest to indicate the location of the trauma to the ribs. A. True B. False
a. anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and the medial meniscus.
A tear of the tibial (medial) collateral ligament (MCL) due to a trauma injury is frequently associated with tears of the: a. anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and the medial meniscus. b. fibular (lateral. collateral ligament (LCL) and the patella ligament. c. posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and the lateral meniscus. d.None of the above
pituitary adenoma
A(n) ______ is a tumor that may produce an enlarged sella turcica.
depressed
A(n) _______ skull fracture is also called a "ping pong" fracture.
linear
A(n) _______ skull fracture may appear as a jagged or straight lucent line.
A patient comes from the ER with a possible cervical spine fracture. The preliminary radiographic image that should be obtained for this purpose is: A. A later projection in the dorsal decubitus position B. A lateral projection in extension with the patient supine C. A lateral projection in flexion with the patient erect D. A lateral projection in the erect position holding weights
A. A later projection in the dorsal decubitus position
A.P. stress studies (projections) of the ankle joint are made to verify the presence of: A. A ligamentous tear B. Tibial fracture C. All of the above D. None of the above
A. A ligamentous tear
Situation: A patient enters the ED (emergency department) with a possible ascites. The patient is ambulatory. Which of the following positions of the abdomen will best demonstrate this condition? A. AP erect B. AP supine C. PA prone D. PA erect chest
A. AP erect
Situation: A 16-year-old female patient enters the ED with a possible kidney stone. She complains of pain in the right lower pelvis region. Which of the following options should be taken in regard to gonadal shielding? A. Don't use it. B. Use it on all projections if correctly placed. C. Use it on the preliminary projection only. D. Ask the patient or her parents for their permission to not shield the gonads.
A. Don't use it.
On a supine abdomen radiograph the ________ aspect of the patient is in contact with the image receptor? A. Dorsal B. Ventral C. Lateral D. Decubitus
A. Dorsal
Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following abdominal projections would best demonstrate this condition? A. Dorsal decubituts B. Left lateral decubitus C. Right lateral decubitus D. AP erect
A. Dorsal decubituts
For the camp-coventry projection of the knee the patient's (body) is: A. Prone B. Supine C. Lateral recumbent D. Upright
A. Prone
For the holmblad projection of the knee the patient's torso (body) is: A. Prone B. Supine C. Lateral recumbent D. Upright
A. Prone
A radiographic image of the upper thoracic and lateral (Twining) projection. The CR is directed 5 degrees caudal with the arm closet to the image receptor: A. Raised above the head B. Lowered to the side C. Extended at a right angle
A. Raised above the head
Which of the following radiographic projections is most often requested to provide the best demonstration of the left atrium? A. Right PA oblique projection in the RAO position B. Left PA oblique projection in the LAO position C. Left lateral projection with the patient supine D. PA projection with the patient erect
A. Right PA oblique projection in the RAO position
In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the gallbladder be found? A. Right upper quadrant B. Left upper quadrant C. Right lower quadrant D. Left lower quadrant
A. Right upper quadrant
A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the PA oblique projection. The patient is placed in a right lateral recumbent position and rotate anteriorly 20 degrees. The CR is directed through T7. The structures best demonstrated would be the: A. Right zygapophyseal articulation B. Last lumbar spinous process C. L5-S1 interspace D. Last lumbar intervertebral foramen
A. Right zygapophyseal articulation
Mastoid Air Cells (or Sinuses)
Air spaces in the mastoid process of the temporal bone that communicate with the middle ear cavity
Base of the skull (mastoid tips)
Along with the upper incisors, what other bony landmark must be aligned for the AP open-mouth projection?
4. Horizontal x-ray beam
Along with the use of erect positions, what other technical factor is important to demonstrate air/fluid levels in paranasal sinuses? 1. Use of medium kV 2. Use of IR without a grid 3. Small focal spot 4. Horizontal x-ray beam
depressed skull fracture
Also called "ping-pong" fracture
4. scoliosis.
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is a congenital condition termed: 1. lordosis. 2. spondylolisthesis. 3. spina bifida. 4. scoliosis.
2. a compression fracture.
An anterior wedging of vertebrae with a loss of body height but rarely causing neurologic symptoms is called: 1. spondylolysis. 2. a compression fracture. 3. a teardrop burst fracture. 4. a chance fracture.
mesocephalic
An average shaped skull is called ________.
B. Townes or AP axial
An excellent projection to demonstrate the occipital bone is the: A. Lateral projection B. Townes or AP axial C. Waters or Parietalacanthial D. Submentovertex or SMV
D. Waters
An excellent projection to demonstrate the superimposed halves of the cranium is the: A. Submentovertex B. PA C. Lateral D. Waters E. AP
A. Above
An injury to the region of the 8th or 9th rib would require the _____ diaphragm technique. A. Above B. Below
d. os calcis
An older term for the calcaneus is: a. os magnum b. sinus tarsi c. obturator foramen d. os calcis
b. hallux
Another name for the great toe is the: a. calculus b. hallux c. hamulus d. hamate
a. patellar surface.
Another term for the intercondylar sulcus is the: a. patellar surface. b. intercondylar recess. c. articular facets. d. femoropatellar joint space.
Lesser wing
Anterior and superior to greater wing on the inferior of the sphenoid bone
linear skull fracture
Appears as jagged or irregular lucent line
The "vermiform" refers to which structure located in the abdomen?
Appendix
Temporal Process
Arch of bone extending posteriorly from the zygomatic bone
Glabella
Area between Supercilliary Arch
2. 40 years old
At approximately what age does the xiphoid process become totally ossified? 1. The xiphoid process never becomes ossified. 2. 40 years old 3. 21 years old 4. 12 years old
Which of the following is necessary to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? A. CR perpendicular to femur B. CR perpendicular to lower leg C. CR parallel to patella D. Knee fully relaxed
B. CR perpendicular to lower leg
A radiographic image of the vertebral arch of the cervical region is obtained in the AP axial projection. The CR should be directed to enter the neck at the level of the thyroid cartilage at a: A. Cephalic angle of 10-20 degrees B. Caudal angle of 20-30 degrees C. Caudal angle of 10-15 degrees D. Cephalic angle of 45-55 degrees
B. Caudal angle of 20-30 degrees
A radiographic image of the sternoclavicular joints is obtained in the axiolateral (Kurz Bauer) projection. The patient is placed in the lateral recumbent position on their affected side with the arm raised. The CR is directed through the sternoclavicular joint closest to the IR at a: A. Caudal angulation of 35 degrees B. Caudal angulation of 15 degrees C. Cephalic angulation of 25 degrees D. Cephalic angulation of 12 degrees
B. Caudal angulation of 15 degrees
The axial projection of the pelvis that gives you a tangential view of the pelvis and the heads of the femurs in relationship to the acetabulum is: A. Danelius-Miller B. Chassard-Lapine Method C. Fractures D. Lorenz Method
B. Chassard-Lapine Method
Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds to L2-3 vertebral level? A. Xiphoid tip B. Inferior costal margin C. Jugular notch D. ASIS
B. Inferior costal margin
Coronal Suture
Between frontal and parietal bone
Lamboidal Suture
Between occipital and perietal bones
Squamosal Suture
Between parietal bone and temporal bone on side of the skull, bordered in back by occipital bone
C. Floor
Blow-out fractures are demonstrated on the ______ of the orbit. A. Superior margin B. Nasal septum C. Floor D. None of the above
Malleus
Bone in middle ear attached to the ear drum (hammer)
Nasal bone
Bones forming the bridge of the nose (2)
Superior Nuchal Line
Bony ridge that extends latterally from each side of external occipital protuberance
Inferior Nuchal Line
Bony ridge that runs latteral and under the external occipital protuberance
Mastoid Process
Bump of the temporal bone behind the ear at the base of the skull
External Occipital Protuberance
Bump on back of occipital bone
A KUB radiograph on a hypersthenic patient reveals that the entire abdomen is not included on the 14 x 17 image receptor. What can be done to correct this on the repeat radiograph? A. Use two cassettes placed lengthwise B. Use two cassettes placed crosswise C. Expose during deep inspiration D. Perform KUB with patient in the erect position.
B. Use two cassettes placed crosswise
The axial projection of the patella is taken primarily to demonstrate: A. A foreign body B. Vertical fracture C. A horizontal fracture D. Dislocation
B. Vertical fracture
The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the beclere projection is: A. 80 degrees B. 90 degrees C. 120 degrees D. 45 degrees
C. 120 degrees
When radiographing the AP hip projection, the foot and leg should be inverted _____ degrees internally. a. 40-45 b. 80-90 C. 15-20 D. None of the above
C. 15-20
When radiograping the AP projection, the foot and leg should be inverted _____ degrees internally. A. 40-45 B. 80-90 C. 15-20 D. None of the above
C. 15-20
The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the anterior-posterior projection of the knee is: A. 90 degrees B. 120 degrees C. 180 degrees D. 45 degrees
C. 180 degrees
A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the AP projection. In order to maintain a uniform optical density, which of the following conditions should be employed? 1. The anode should be placed over the region having the greatest thickness 2. The anode should be placed over the Bucky side of the table 3. The cathode should be placed over the region having the greatest thickness A. 1 only C. 3 only B. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 3 only
For the Danelius-Miller projection of the hip, the central ray will enter at a _____ angle to the neck of the femur. A. Parallel B. 45 degrees C. 90 degrees D. Oblique
C. 90 degrees
A kite position is taken for: A. Ruling out fracture B. Weight bearing C. Club feet D. None of the above
C. Club feet
A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the lateral projection. A SID receptor distance of 180 (72") cm should be employed to: A. Reduce exposure received by the patient B. Increase the magnification of the vertebrae C. Decrease the magnification of the vertebrae D. Improve radiographic contrast on the image
C. Decrease the magnification of the vertebrae
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. Unwanted rotation of the chest is best detected by evaluating the: A. Rotation of the scapulae B. Dimensions of the costophrenic angle C. Dimensions of the sternoclavicular joint spaces D. rotation of the sternum
C. Dimensions of the sternoclavicular joint spaces
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. In order to demonstrate the maximum amount of lung tissue, the patient would be instructed to suspend respiration at the: A. End of shallow expiration B. End of shallow inspiration C. End of the second breath inspiration D. End of the first breath expiration
C. End of the second breath inspiration
What is another name for a P.A. projection of the foot? A. Subtalar B. Dorsoplantar projection C. Plantodorsal projection D. Semi-axial projection
C. Plantodorsal projection
Which of the following muscles must be seen on a well-exposed abdomen projection? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Erector spine C. Psoas major D. Quadratus lumborum
C. Psoas major
In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found? A. Right upper quadrant B. Left upper quadrant C. Right lower quadrant D. Left lower quadrant
C. Right lower quadrant
A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the AP projection. The CR should be directed perpendicular to the: A. Second thoracic vertebra B. Fourth thoracic vertebra C. Seventh thoracic vertebra D. Tenth thoracic vertebra
C. Seventh thoracic vertebra
An air fluid level cannot be seen on which of the standard positions or projections? A. Upright abdomen B. Erect abdomen C. Supine abdomen D. Lateral decubitus
C. Supine abdomen
The breathing technique for an erect abdomen radiograph is: A. Suspended respiration B. Suspended inspiration C. Suspended expiration D. Does not matter
C. Suspended expiration
The instrument used to assist with sleep apnea is a(n):
CPAP
Which of the following imaging modalities often requires the use of oral and intravenous contrast media for studies of the abdomen?
CT
Which of the carpal bones is considered to be the largest?
Capitate
Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior?
Carina
Frontal Sinus
Cavity in the frontal bone towards the forehead
Sphenoid Sinus
Circular shaped indentions on the sphenoid bone
A patient suffering from emphysema would cause you to make what adjustment for density?
Decrease
Mandibular Fossa
Deep impression in the petrous portion of the temporal bone to where the mandible seats
The instrument that provides an electrical shock to the heart to establish a normal rhythm is a(n):
Defibrillator
Jugular Fossa
Depression in skull allowing for jugular to pass through lying close to the Foramen magnum
The crest of the ilium is at the level of the vertebral interspace between lumbar vertebrae #_____ and #_____. A. 1, 2 B. 2, 3 C. 3, 4 D. 4, 5
D. 4, 5
Which of the following require a lateral rotation for its oblique position? A. Foot B. 1st toe C. Ankle D. 5th toe
D. 5th toe
A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the AP oblique projection. In order to demonstrate the zygapophyseal articulations between the thoracic vertebrae, the patient should be rotated so the midcoronal plane forms an angle of: A. 15 degrees with the plane of the IR B. 25 degrees with the plane of the IR C. 45 degrees with the plane of the IR D. 70 degrees with the plane of the IR
D. 70 degrees with the plane of the IR
According to the Bontrager presentation, the KVP technique for an abdomen radiograph should be within one of the following limitations: A. 30-60 KVP B. 100-120 KVP C. 10 MAS D. 70-80 KVP
D. 70-80 KVP
Which of the following radiographic projections of the thoracic spine is most commonly employed to demonstrate the intervertebral disc spaces? A. An anteroposterior projection B. A 45 degree AP oblique projection C. A 15 degree PA oblique projection D. A lateral projection
D. A lateral projection
A true lateral x-ray of the hip is also referred to as: a. Surgical lateral b. Crosstable lateral C. Danelius-Miller D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which of the following pathologic indications would suggest the need for a dorsal decubitus abdomen position? A. Aneurysms B. Umbilical hernias C. Calcification of the aorta D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which of the following structures should be seen on a good supine abdominal radiograph? A. Lumbar transverse processes B. Psoas muscles C. Kidney outline D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which of the following would not be demonstrated on a medial oblique projection of the foot? A. Intertarsal joints B. Intermetatarsal spaces C. Tarsal bones D. Ankle joint
D. Ankle joint
To ensure that the diaphragm is included on the erect abdomen projection, the top of the image receptor should be placed at the level of the: A. Inferior costal margin. B. Jugular notch. C. Xiphoid process. D. Axilla.
D. Axilla.
The C-loop is another name for the:
Duodenum
Which aspect of the small intestine is considered the shortest?
Duodenum
Which portion of the small intestine is the widest?
Duodenum
Situation: A patient enters the ED (emergency department) with a possible perforated duodenal ulcer. The patient is ambulatory. Which of the following projections/position will best demonstrate intraperitoneal air in the abdomen? A. AP supine B. Right lateral decubitus C. Dorsal decubitus D. Erect
D. Erect
A radiographic image of the trachea is obtained in the AP projection. The CR should be directed perpendicular to the midsagittal plane and adjusted to enter at the: A. Level of the tip of the xiphoid process B. Level of the sixth thoracic vertebra C. Level of the AC joints D. Level of the manubrium
D. Level of the manubrium
Which body plane is centered to the midline of the table on an AP supine abdomen? A. Mid transverse B. Mid lambdoidal C. Mid coronal D. Mid sagittal
D. Mid sagittal
Superior Orbital Fissure
Fissure between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone that transmits structures from the cranial cavity to the orbit
Inferior Orbital Fissure
Fissure in the orbit floor between maxilla and greater wing of sphenoid for maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
Inferior Nasal Concha
Flakey bone located inside the nose, one on each side, roughly shell shaped
Temporal Bones
Flatish bones forming the sides of the head in the ear and temple region
What is the name for the structure that serves as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food or fluid?
Epiglottis
Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior?
Esophagus
A. Zygoma
For the Lateral Facial bones projection the central ray enters at the _______. A. Zygoma B. Glabella C. Inion D. Mentum
A. 15, caudal
For the Law's position of the TMJ's the central ray should be angled ______________degrees to the film surface. A. 15, caudal B. 30, cephalic C. 45, caudal D. 60, caudal
C. 15 degrees
For the Law's position of the TMJ's the head should be rotated ___________ towards the film. (From the lateral position) A. 30 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 15 degrees D. 100 degrees
D. 37
For the Water's position the OML is positioned at a_________Degree angle to the film surface. A. 45 B. 90 C. 20 D. 37 E. 57
C. Mento-meatal line
For the Water's position the__________will be at a perpendicular angle to the film surface. A. Orbito-meatal line B. Infraorbito-meatal line C. Mento-meatal line D. Mid sagital line E. More than one, but not all of the above
A. Submentovertex projection
For the Zygomatic Arches examination, the "jughandles view" is known as the: A. Submentovertex projection B. Waters projection C. AP axial projection D. Lateral projection
Orbits
Formed by Frontal (roof), Ethmoid (posterior medial), Lacrimal (anterior medial), Sphenoid (posterior lateral), Zygomatic (anterior lateral), Maxillary (anterior floor) Palatine (posterior floor)
Nasal Septum
Formed by perpendicular blade ofh ethmoid bone and the vomer
Palatine Process
Forms the anterior portion of the hard palate (roof) of the mouth also forms parts of the nasal cavity and eye orbits
Vomer
Forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum (1)
4. flail chest rib fractures.
Fracture of adjacent ribs in two or more places with associated pulmonary injury is known as: 1. compression rib fractures. 2. acute rib fractures. 3. compound rib fractures. 4. flail chest rib fractures.
b. plantar flexion.
Extending the ankle joint or pointing the foot and toes downward is called: a. dorsiflexion. b. plantar flexion. c. inversion. d. eversion.
The hip joint is best demonstrated in a radiograph of the AP distal femur. TRUE / FALSE
FALSE
The knee joint is best visualized by angling the central ray 5-7 degrees caudal. TRUE / FALSE
FALSE
When a patient has a transverse fracture of the patella a settegast projection must be done. TRUE / FALSE
FALSE
A. Cephalic 15 - 20 degrees B. Cephalic 15 - 20 degrees C. Perpendicular D. Caudad 15 - 20 degrees E. Perpendicular F. Perpendicular
Give the direction and degree of angulation of the central ray for the following projections: (For example: Cephalic, degrees 25) A) A.P. Cervical B) LPO Cervical C) A.P. Thoracic D) RAO Cervical E) Lat. Cervical F) Lat. Swimmers
(A) A.P. Lumbar: Perpendicular, 90° (B) A.P. Coccyx: Caudal, 10° (C) A.P. Sacrum: Cephalic, 15° (D) Lat. Lumbar: Perpendicular, 90° (E) A.P. L5-S1: Caudal, 30° - 35°
Give the direction and the degrees of angulations of the central ray for the following projections: (Example: Cephalic, degrees 25) (A) A.P. Lumbar ___________, ____________Degrees (B) A.P. Coccyx ___________, ____________Degrees (C) A.P. Sacrum ___________, ____________Degrees (D) Lat. Lumbar ___________, ____________Degrees (E) A.P. L5-S1 ___________, ____________Degrees
What is another common term for the greater omentum?
Fatty apron
1. True
Gonadal shielding should be used on both males and females of childbearing age for AP hip projections, if correctly placed. 1. True 2. False
The greater omentum extends from the transverse colon to the:
Greater curvature of the stomach
Which carpal articulates with both the fourth and fifth metacarpals?
Hamate
Incisive Fossa (foramen)
Hole or indentation on the front of the roof of the mouth
The type of instrument that measures cardiac activity over a period of time is a(n):
Holter monitor
26
How many bones make up the adult vertebral column?
1. 26
How many bones make up the adult vertebral column? 1. 26 2. 28 3. 31 4. 33
A. 15 degrees cephalad
How many degrees and in what direction should the tube be angled for an A.P. projection of the cervical spine? A. 15 degrees cephalad B. 15 degrees caudad C. 30 degrees cephalad D. 30 degrees caudad
A. 30 degrees posteriorly & 45 degrees axillary
How many degrees of rotation are needed for a routine oblique projection of the ribs? A. 30 degrees posteriorly & 45 degrees axillary B. 15 degrees posteriorly & 20 degrees axillary
c. Three
How many facets make up the subtalar joint? a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four
b. 7
How many tarsal bones are found in the foot? a. 5 b. 7 c. 26 d. 14
3. 25 degrees
How much cephalad CR angulation is required for the axiolateral projection of the mandible? 1. 45 degrees 2. 10 to 15 degrees 3. 25 degrees 4. 30 degrees
2. 7 to 8 degrees
How much difference is there between the OML and IOML positioning lines? 1. 10 to 11 degrees 2. 7 to 8 degrees 3. 8 to 9 degrees 4. 5 to 6 degrees
D. 70 degrees
How much must the patient be obliqued in order to visualize the apophyseal joints of the thoracic spine? A. 30 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 70 degrees
A. 15 degrees LAO
How much rotation and which oblique is required to best demonstrate the left sternoclavicular joint? A. 15 degrees LAO B. 35 - 45 degrees LAO C. 15 degrees RAO D. 5 - 10 degrees RAO
B. 15 degrees
How much rotation of the thorax is recommended for an anterior oblique of the sternoclavicular joints? A. 10 degrees B. 15 degrees C. 20 degrees
C. 15 degrees
How much rotation should be used for the oblique position of the sternum for a large, "deep-chested" patient? A. 20 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 15 degrees
3. None
How much skull rotation (from a lateral position) is required to place the ramus parallel to the image receptor for the axiolateral projection of the mandible? 1. 45 degrees 2. 53 degrees 3. None 4. 30 degrees
What is the proper abbreviation for the study that demonstrates the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder in the presence of contrast media?
IVU
B. AP axial/ Towne PA axial
If the occipital bone, petrous ridges and dorsum sella within the foramen magnum are best demonstrated in what position? A. Lateral skull B. AP axial/ Towne PA axial C. SMV
Which portion of the small intestine is the longest?
Ileum
B. 10 degrees caudad
Which of the following is the proper tube angle for an A.P. projection of the coccyx? A. 10 degrees cephalad B. 10 degrees caudad C. 25 degrees cephalad D. 25 degrees caudad
3. Ninth
Which of the following ribs is considered to be a false rib? 1. None of the above 2. First 3. Ninth 4. Seventh
3. Submentovertex
Which of the following skull projections results in the highest thyroid dose? 1. PA axial (Haas method) 2. Lateral 3. Submentovertex 4. AP axial (Towne method)
3. They do not possess costocartilage.
Which of the following statements is true about floating ribs? 1. They do not possess a head. 2. They do not possess a costovertebral joint. 3. They do not possess costocartilage. 4. They are ribs 10 through 12.
A. Suspend respiration upon inspiration
Which of the following statements is true about radiography of ribs located above the diaphragm? A. Suspend respiration upon inspiration B. Perform the study with the patient recumbent C. Use a medium kV range of 75-85 D. Always include an AP projection as part of the routine
2. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae.
Which of the following statements is true for a typical adult vertebra? 1. The spinous process extends posteriorly from the body of the vertebra. 2. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae. 3. All of the above 4. The transverse processes are present only on thoracic vertebrae containing rib connections.
3. All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rib articulation.
Which of the following statements is true? 1. All of the above 2. The intervertebral disks are tightly bound to the vertebral bodies to prevent movement within the vertebral column. 3. All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rib articulation. 4. All adult vertebrae are separated by intervertebral disks.
1. Costocartilage
Which of the following structures connects the anterior aspect of the ribs to the sternum? 1. Costocartilage 2. Sternal tendons 3. Costotransverse joints 4. Costovertebral joints
2. Lesser trochanter
Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior or distal? 1. Fovea capitis 2. Lesser trochanter 3. Greater trochanter 4. Neck
3. S1-2
Which of the following structures is located at the level of the ASIS? 1. L4-5 2. Tip of coccyx 3. S1-2 4. Promontory of sacrum
4. Obturator foramen
Which of the following structures is not an aspect of the proximal femur? 1. Lesser trochanter 2. Fovea capitis 3. Intertrochanteric crest 4. Obturator foramen
4. Obturator foramen
Which of the following structures is not an aspect of the proximal femur? 1. Lesser trochanter 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Fovea capitis 4. Obturator foramen
c. Glenoid process
Which of the following structures is not part of the proximal humerus? a. Intertubercular groove b. Lesser tubercle c. Glenoid process d. Anatomic neck
4. All of the above apply.
Which of the following technical factors do not apply to lateral nasal bone projections? 1. The technologist should use a small focal spot. 2. The technologist should not use AEC. 3. The technologist should use low to medium kV. 4. All of the above apply.
D. Use a breathing technique
Which of the following techniques is most effective in preventing lung markings from obscuring the sternum? A. Use a high kV B. Oblique as much as needed to not superimpose the sternum over the hilum C. Decrease the SID to magnify the sternum D. Use a breathing technique
B. Gonion
Which of the following terms describes the angle or lower posterior portion of the mandible? A. Nasion B. Gonion C. Vertex D. Inion
T11 - T12
Which of the following thoracic vertebra(e) possess no facets for costotransverse joints?
2. T11-12
Which of the following thoracic vertebra(e) possess no facets for costotransverse joints? 1. T1 2. T11-12 3. None of the above 4. T10-12
3. Iliac crest
Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds with the L4-5 vertebral level? 1. Lower costal margin 2. Xiphoid process 3. Iliac crest 4. ASIS
1. ASIS
Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds with the second sacral segment? 1. ASIS 2. Symphysis pubis 3. Greater trochanter 4. Iliac crest
e. C
Which of the labeled structures is the adductor tubercle? a. B b. D c. A d. E e. C
2. N
Which of the labeled structures is the ischial tuberosity? 1. P 2. N 3. M 4. E 5. F
d. B
Which of the labeled structures is the lateral condyle? a. D b. A c. C d. B e. E
a. C
Which of these labeled structures or bones identifies the lateral cuneiform? a. C b. D c. I d. B
b. E
Which of these labeled structures or bones identifies the metatarsophalangeal joint? a. G b. E c. H d. F
3. Submentovertex
Which one of the following projections of the mandible results in the greatest thyroid dose? 1. Axiolateral 2. AP axial 3. Submentovertex 4. PA axial
3. Lateral projection
Which one of the following projections will best demonstrate a compression fracture of the thoracic spine? 1. Anterior oblique positions 2. Posterior oblique positions 3. Lateral projection 4. AP projection
1. Median sacral crest
Which one of the following structures of the sacrum is considered to be the most posterior? 1. Median sacral crest 2. Promontory 3. Spinous processes 4. Superior articular processes
e. A
Which one of the labeled structures is the medial condyle? a. D b. B c. E d. C e. A
Lateral projection
Which one of the projection will best demonstrate a compression fracture of the thoracic spine?
3. Second
Which pair of ribs attaches to the sternum at the level of the sternal angle? 1. First 2. Fourth and fifth 3. Second 4. Third
C. LPO
Which position can replace the RAO of the sternum if the patient cannot lie prone? A. LAO B. Left lateral decubitus C. LPO D. RPO
2. Lateral
Which position or projection is best for linear tomography of the TMJ? 1. Submentovertex 2. Lateral 3. AP axial 4. AP
45° oblique position combined with a cephalad angle RPO or LAO (15° caudual)
Which position will demonstrate the left intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine?
AP open mouth technique
Which position/projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1 and C2?
3. AP open mouth
Which position/projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1 and C2? 1. 45-degree obliques 2. Lateral 3. AP open mouth 4. AP axial
2. Infraorbitomeatal
Which positioning line is parallel to the image receptor for the oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection of the zygomatic arches? 1. Midsagittal plane 2. Infraorbitomeatal 3. Orbitomeatal 4. Glabelloalveolar
1. OML
Which positioning line is perpendicular to the image receptor for a PA projection of the mandible? 1. OML 2. GAL 3. AML 4. IOML
2. MML
Which positioning line is perpendicular to the image receptor for a parietoacanthial projection? 1. AML 2. MML 3. OML 4. IOML
2. AML
Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the image receptor for the parieto-orbital projection of the optic foramina? 1. MML 2. AML 3. OML 4. IOML
3. Mentomeatal
Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor for the parietoacanthial projection? 1. Lips-meatal 2. Orbitomeatal 3. Mentomeatal 4. Acanthiomeatal
2. Interpupillary
Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor with a true lateral nasal bone projection? 1. Midsagittal 2. Interpupillary 3. AML 4. OML
A. Infraorbitomeatal line
Which positioning line must be parallel to the IR for the SMV projection of the cranium? A. Infraorbitomeatal line B. Midsagittal plane C. Interpupillary line
4. OML
Which positioning line must be used with a 30-degree caudad angle for an AP axial projection of zygomatic arches? 1. IOML 2. AML 3. GAL 4. OML
2. Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters)
Which projection best demonstrates the floor of the orbits? 1. Parietoacanthial (Waters) 2. Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) 3. PA axial (Caldwell) 4. Lateral facial bones
4. Axiolateral oblique (modified Law) projection
Which projection for the mastoids requires a double 15-degree angle (head rotation and CR angle)? 1. AP axial (Towne) projection 2. Axioanterior oblique, posterior profile position (Stenvers) 3. Axiolateral (Schuller) projection 4. Axiolateral oblique (modified Law) projection
3. Submentovertex
Which projection will best demonstrate the entire mandible with one exposure? 1. AP axial 2. Axiolateral 3. Submentovertex 4. Tomography
d. AP oblique, 45 degrees medial rotation
Which projection/position of the foot is represented by this drawing of the foot? a. AP projection, no rotation b. AP oblique, 15 to 20 degrees medial rotation c. AP oblique, 45 degrees lateral rotation d. AP oblique, 45 degrees medial rotation
3. 1st through 7th ribs
Which ribs are considered to be true ribs? 1. 11th and 12th ribs 2. 1st through 9th ribs 3. 1st through 7th ribs 4. 1st and 2nd ribs
3. Sphenoid
Which sinus is projected through the oral cavity with a parietoacanthial transoral projection? 1. Ethmoid 2. Maxillary 3. Sphenoid 4. Frontal
1. Maxillary only
Which sinuses are best demonstrated with a parietoacanthial projection? 1. Maxillary only 2. Sphenoid and maxillary 3. Frontal and maxillary 4. Frontal, maxillary, and ethmoid
1. Frontal and ethmoid
Which sinuses are best demonstrated with the PA projection? 1. Frontal and ethmoid 2. Frontal and maxillary 3. Sphenoid and ethmoid 4. Maxillary and sphenoid
2. Auricular surface
Which specific aspect of the sacrum articulates with the ilium to form the sacroiliac joint? 1. Inferior articular processes 2. Auricular surface 3. Promontory 4. Cornu
B. LAO
Which specific oblique position best demonstrates the left sternoclavicular joint next to the spine? A. RAO B. LAO
c. Calcaneus
Which structure or bone contains the sustentaculum tali? a. Tibia b. Base of the fifth metatarsal c. Calcaneus d. Talus
a. Patellar
Which tendon attaches directly to the tibial tuberosity? a. Patellar b. Quadriceps c. Collateral d. Soleus
the atlas
Which term best defines or describes the vertebral body of C1?
3. There is no vertebral body at C1
Which term best defines or describes the vertebral body of C1? 1. A large bony mass 2. The smallest of all vertebral bodies 3. There is no vertebral body at C1. 4. A column of bone supported by an intervertebral disk
C. Infraorbitomeatal line
Which term describes the line between the infra-orbital margin and the E.A.M? A. Orbitomeatal line B. Midsagital plane C. Infraorbitomeatal line D. Acanthiomeatal line
B. Orbitomeatal line
Which term describes the line connecting the outer canthus of the eye to the E.A.M? A. Interpupillary line B. Orbitomeatal line C. Infraorbitomeatal line D. Acanthiomeatal line
b. Sternal extremity
Which term describes the medial end of the clavicle? a. Acromion b. Sternal extremity c. Acromial tuberosity d. Acromial extremity
b. Dorsum
Which term describes the top or anterior surface of the foot? a. Palmar b. Dorsum c. Volar d. Plantar
A. AP and LPO
Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the left posterior lower ribs? A. AP and LPO B. AP and RAO C. PA and LPO D. PA and RAO
A. PA and LAO
Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the right anterior upper ribs? A. PA and LAO B. PA and RAO C. AP and RAO D. AP and LPO
B. AP/RPO
Which two rib projections should be performed for an injury to the right posterior ribs? A. PA/LPO B. AP/RPO C. AP/RAO
d. External rotation, AP projection
Which view and projection of the proximal humerus is represented in the Figure? a. Neutral rotation, oblique projection b. Internal rotation, lateral projection c. External rotation, lateral projection d. External rotation, AP projection
1. Less thyroid and breast dose
Why are the anterior obliques (RAO/LAO) preferred over the posterior obliques of the cervical spine? 1. Less thyroid and breast dose 2. More comfortable for the patient 3. Place the zygapophyseal joints closer to the image receptor 4. Prevent overlap of the mandible over the spine
B. The RAO projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart
Why is the RAO sternum preferred to the LAO position? A. The RAO produces less magnification of the sternum B. The RAO projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart C. The RAO reduces dose to the thyroid gland D. The RAO projects the sternum away from the hilum and heart
3. To prevent superimposition upon the cervical spine
Why is the chin extended for an axiolateral projection of the mandible? 1. To open up the TMJ 2. To profile the condylar process 3. To prevent superimposition upon the cervical spine 4. To better visualize the mentum
D. To remove the mandible from spine area
Why is the patients chin extended for A.P. projection of the cervical spine? A. To stretch the neck B. To increase kyphotic curve C. To increase lordotic curve D. To remove the mandible from spine area
2. To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor
Why must the lower limb be rotated 15 to 20 degrees internally for AP hip projections? 1. To separate the greater trochanter from the lesser trochanter 2. To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor 3. To place the fovea capitis into a profiled position 4. To open up the femoroacetabular joint
Stapes
The final bone in the series of small bones or ossicles of the middle ear. (stirrup)
1. Osteomyelitis
The following disease or condition may be associated with postoperative complications of open heart surgery. 1. Osteomyelitis 2. Spondylitis 3. Flail chest 4. Osteoblastic metastases
Which of the carpal bones is considered to be the largest? a .Capitate b. Triquetrum c. Trapezium d. Hamate
a .Capitate
Alveolar Process
a ridge that forms the borders of the upper and lower jaws and contains the sockets of the teeth
4
The frontal bone articulates with _______ (number) cranial bones.
4. C3.
The gonion corresponds to the level of: 1. C7. 2. C1. 3. C4-5. 4. C3.
2. 90 degrees
The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at an angle of _____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. 1. 45 degrees 2. 90 degrees 3. 30 to 35 degrees 4. 70 to 75 degrees
3. cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial.
The intervertebral joints in the lumbar spine are classified as: Student Response Correct Answer Student Response 1. synovial/diarthrodial. 2. fibrous/amphiarthrodial. 3. cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial. Student Response 4. fibrous/synarthrodial.
zygapophyseal joints
The joints between articular processes of vertebra are termed:
D. Nose & forehead
In a PA projection of the cranium, head rests on the: A. Nose & mental point B. Vertex C. Nose, cheek, & chin D. Nose & forehead
B. Zygomatic arch
In evaluating the anatomy of the Water's projection radiograph, the Elephant trunk is the: A. Zygoma (Malar) B. Zygomatic arch C. Maxilla D. Nasal Spine
C. 30
In order to demonstrate the lowest zygapophyseal joint (L5-S1), the patients mid-coronal plane must be rotated to form an angle of degrees to the film surface. A. 60 B. 45 C. 30 D. 15
A. Nose and forehead
In positioning the patient for the Caldwell projection, you would ask the patient to rest his _____ on the table. A. Nose and forehead B. Chin C. Vertex D. Nose and Chin E. None of the above
C. Nose & chin
In positioning the patient for the Modified Water's projection, you would ask the patient to rest his ______ on the table. A. Nose & forehead B. Chin C. Nose & chin D. Nose, chin, & cheek
C. Vertex
In positioning the patient for the SMV projection, you would tilt the head back and rest the patients ________ on the table. A. Chine B. Nose C. Vertex D. Forehead
D. Chin
In positioning the patient for the Water's projection, you would ask the patient to rest his ______ on the table. A. Forehead & nose B. Zygoma C. Nose forehead & cheek D. Chin
A. Perpendicular to film
In radiography of a routine skull series the lateral projection will have the interpupillary line: A. Perpendicular to film B. Parallel to film C. Diagonal to the table D. Cattycorner to the table top
B. 25, cephalic
In the Axial lateral oblique of the mandible, the central ray is angle at a __________angle to the film surface. A. 45, cephalic B. 25, cephalic C. Perpendicular D. 60, caudal
B. Nose and forehead
In the Caldwell position the _____________are resting on the table surface. A. Chin and forehead B. Nose and forehead C. Chin and nose
D. Nasion
In the Caldwell position the central ray exits at the ___________. A. Parietal bone B. Acanthion C. Mentum D. Nasion
A. 15, caudal
In the Caldwell position the central ray is angled ___________degrees to the surface of the film. (No this is not a trick question!!) A. 15, caudal B. 25, caudal C. 25, cephalic D. 45, caudal
C. Interpupillary
In the Lateral nasal bone projection, the ______ line forms a 90 degree angle to the image receptor. A. Midsagittal B. Transverse C. Interpupillary D. None of the above E. Both A & C
C. 55
In the Modified Water's projection of the Facial bones, the orbito-metal line forms a _____ degree angle to the image receptor. A. 37 B. 45 C. 55 D. 67
D. Zygoma, chin, & nose
In the Rhese method (parieto-orbital oblique Projection), the head rests on the: A. Zygoma, forehead, & nose B. Zygoma, chin, & ear C. Zygoma, chin, & eyebrow D. Zygoma, chin, & nose
A. 53
In the Rhese position the mid-sagittal plane forms an angle of _____ degrees to the image receptor. A. 53 B. 45 C. 17 D. 00
A. 25, caudal
In the Schuller Laterals of the TMJ's the central ray is angled__________to the film surface. A. 25, caudal B. 35, caudal C. Perpendicular D. 15, caudal
A. IOML
In the Submento-vertico projection the ____________ lies parallel to the film surface. A. IOML B. OML C. MSP D. MML
C. Sub-mentum
In the Submento-vertico projection the central ray enters at the____________. A. Vertex B. Acanthion C. Sub-mentum D. Zygoma
C. MSP
In the Submento-vertico projection the___________ lies perpendicular to the film surface. A. IOML. B. OML C. MSP D. MML
B. Infraorbital-meatal
In the Submentovertex Projection the _________ line is positioned parallel to the image receptor. A. Mid-sagittal B. Infraorbital-meatal C. Interpupillary D. Mentomeatal
B. Acanthion
In the Water's position the central ray exits at the ___________ . A. Parietal bone B. Acanthion C. Mentum D. Nasion
D. 37
In the Water's projection the Orbitomeatal line will form a _____ degree angle to the image receptor. A. 45 B. 90 C. 55 D. 37
C. Acanthion
In the Water's projection, the central ray should exit at the: A. Glabella B. Nasion C. Acanthion D. Mentum
D. Below
In the Water's projection, the petrous ridges should be demonstrated ______ the maxillary sinuses. A. Mid-point B. Above C. Lateral D. Below E. None of the above
1. 3 to 5 inches (7.5 to 12.5 cm)
In the erect adult bony thorax, the posterior portion of a typical rib is ____ higher or more superior to the anterior portion. 1. 3 to 5 inches (7.5 to 12.5 cm) 2. 1 to 2 inches (2.5 to 5 cm) 3. 6 to 8 inches (15 to 20 cm) 4. 10 to 12 inches (25 to 30 cm)
C. Interpupillary Line
In the lateral projection of the Facial bones series the following line/plane is perpendicular to the image receptor: A. International Base line B. Mid-Sagittal Plane C. Interpupillary Line D. None of the above E. All of the above
D. 5-8 degrees caudal
In the lateral projection of the L5-S1 junction where the lumbar spine region is sagging and not parallel to the film surface, the central ray should be angled: A. 20 degrees cephalic B. 40 degrees caudal C. 5-8 degrees cephalic D. 5-8 degrees caudal
A. Interpupillary line
In the lateral projection of the Sinus series the___________will be at a perpendicular angle to the film surface. A. Interpupillary line B. Midsagittal line C. Orbito-meatal line D. Mento-meatal line
1. zygapophyseal joints.
The joints between articular processes of vertebra are termed: 1. zygapophyseal joints. 2. synarthrodial joints. 3. intervertebral joints. 4. fibrous joints.
Foramen Magnum
The large opening at the base of the cranium through which the spinal cord passes
What percentage of polyps will convert into cancer? a. 1% b. 5% c. 2% d. 10%
a. 1%
According to Ballinger, for the original Cleaves Method the central ray is angled _____ to the film surface. a. 40 degrees cephalic b. 20-30 degrees caudal c. Perpendicular d. None of the above e. More that one but not all the above
a. 40 degrees cephalic
The liver weights how many pounds? a. 7 b. 5 c. 10 d. 2
a. 7
The survival rate for liver transplant is about what percent? a. 90 b. 50 c. 20 d. 10
a. 90
In positioning the patient for an AP hip projection, the following anatomical reference points are used to center the hip joint to the center of the film. a. Anterior superior iliac spine & the symphysis pubis b. Femoral epicondyles & knee joint c. Coracoid process & acromion process d. Epicondyles & malleoli
a. Anterior superior iliac spine & the symphysis pubis
The laryngeal prominence is a positioning landmark located at the level of: a. C5. b. C3. c. T1. d. C7.
a. C5
Ear = (D) Superior Articular process Front leg = (A) Inferior Articular process Neck = (E) Pars Interarticularus Rump (Butt) = (C) Spinous process Eye = (B) Pedicle Nose = (F) Transverse process
In the oblique position of the lumbar spine radiograph "SCOTTY DOG" are demonstrated: Match the parts of the "SCOTTY DOG" in column (A) with the anatomical structures in column (B): COLUMN (A) COLUMN (B) _____Ear (A) Inferior Articular process _____Front leg (B) Pedicle _____Neck (C) Spinous process _____Rump (Butt) (D) Superior Articular process _____Eye (E) Pars interarticularus _____Nose (F) Tranverse process
C. 45
In the oblique projection of the cervical spine the mid-coronal plane is rotated at a degree to the film surface. A. 70 B. 30 C. 45 D. 90
A. 45
In the oblique projection of the lumbar spine the midcoronal plane is positioned at a degree angle to the film surface. A. 45 B. 30 C. 90 D. 60
D. Cervico-thoracic region
The lateral Swimmer's projection is done to demonstrate a lateral view of the: A. C-1 & C-2 B. T-7 C. Axis & atlas D. Cervico-thoracic region
B. Outer canthus
The lateral junction where the upper and lower eyelids meet, is termed the: A. Inner canthus B. Outer canthus C. Infraorbital margin D. Canthus of the THIRD KIND
A. Closest
The left anterior posterior oblique (lapo) projection of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint to the film surface. A. Closest B. Farthest
B. Left
The left anterior posterior oblique (lapo) projection of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint. A. Right B. Left C. None of the above D. All of the above
B. Left
The left posterior oblique position of the lumbar spine best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints. A. Right B. Left
F
The left zygapophyseal joint is labeled _____.
f
The left zygapophyseal joint is labeled _____.
1. ischium.
The lesser sciatic notch is an aspect of the: 1. ischium. 2. pubis. 3. sacrum. 4. ilium.
b. a short female
The long axis of the femur would have a greater angle on which of the following patients? a. a short male b. a short female c. a tall male d. a tall female
c. a tall male
The long axis of the femur would have less of an angle with which of the following patients? a. a tall female b. a short female c. a tall male d. a short male
C. Lateral projection
The mandibular rami superimposed and the orbital roofs superimposed are evaluation criteria for the: A. PA projection B. Towne or AP Axial C. Lateral projection D. Submentovertex projection
asterion
The mastoid fontanel becomes the ______ in an adult skull.
d. tibia.
The medial malleolus is part of the: a. talus. b. fibula. c. calcaneus. d. tibia.
B. Acantion
The mid-line point junction of the upper lip & nose is termed the: A. Inion B. Acantion C. Glabella D. Gonion
a. shoulder
The most frequently dislocated joint in the body occurs at the: a. shoulder b. ankle c. hip d. wrist
Spinous process
The most posterior aspect of a typical vertebra is the:
3. spinous process.
The most posterior aspect of a typical vertebra is the: 1. pedicle. 2. lamina. 3. spinous process. 4. body.
Which of the following topographic landmarks corresponds to L2-3 vertebral level?
Inferior costal margin
Which topographic landmarks corresponds to L2-3 vertebral level?
Inferior costal margin
Internal Auditory Meatus
Inside temporal bone opening of ear
Incus
Intermediate ear bone (anvil)
What is the name of the joint found between the proximal and distal phalanges of the first digit?
Interphalangeal
Organs that are located within the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as:
Intraperitoneal
Wormian Bones
Irregular shaped bones that appear within sutures
Ethmoid Sinuses
Irregular shaped cells seperated from the orbital cavity by a very thin layer of bone
Ethmoid Bone
Irregularly shaped bone between the eye sockets and between the frontal and sphenoid bones
Palatine Bone
Irregularly shaped bone that forms the back of the hard palate and helps to form the nasal cavity and the floor of the orbits (2)
Lateral Masses
Irregularly shaped,thin walled bony regions flanking the perpendicular plate laterally
A. Erect
It is preferred to do an AP/PA ribs above the diaphragm _____ . A. Erect B. Supine
A. True
It is virtually impossible to visualize the sternum with a direct PA or AP projection? A. True B. False
2. False
The only bony connection between the shoulder girdle and the bony thorax is the acromioclavicular joint. 1. True 2. False
D. Rhese
The optic foramen is best demonstrated on which of the following projections? A. Sternvers B. Owens C. Schuller Lateral D. Rhese
Which portion of the small intestine has a "feathery" appearance in the presence of barium?
Jejunum
abnormal or exaggerated thoracic "humpback" curvature with increased convexity.
Kyphosis is defined as:
2. abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity.
Kyphosis is defined as: 1. normal or abnormal lumbar swayback curvature. 2. abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity. 3. normal compensatory curve of thoracic spine. 4. normal or abnormal convex sacral curvature.
The iliac crest corresponds with the ____ vertebral level.
L4-5
o
The part vertebral foramen is labeled _____.
paget's
The pathology that begins with a destructive stage and is followed by a reparative stage resulting in a "cotton-wool" appearance is called _______disease.
B. 35 degrees cephalic
The patient is a female and in the supine position, to demonstrate the L5-S1 junction the central ray should be angled: A. 30 degrees cephalic B. 35 degrees cephalic C. 30 degrees caudal D. 35 degrees caudal
Squamous Portion
Large flat area of the temportal bone
Greater Wing
Large lobe on shpenoid that looks like top of butterfly wing
Foramen Ovale
Large oval holes at base of the sphenoid which allow mandibular nerves to pass through
Frontal Bone
Large singular bone of skull (1 Sometimes 2)
Occiptal Condyles
Lateral parts of the occipital bone are situated at the sides of the foramen magnum - smooth surface for the skull to rock on the atlas vertebrae
C. 30 degrees caudal
The patient is a male and in the prone position, to demonstrate the L5-S1 junction the central ray should be angled: A. 30 degrees cephalic B. 35 degrees cephalic C. 30 degrees caudal D. 35 degrees caudal
1. sphenoid 2. occiptal 3. temporal 4. frontal 5. temporal 6. temporal 7. sphenoid 8. ethmoid 9. ethmoid 10. occiptal 11. frontal 12. sphenoid 13. ethmoid
List the bone that each process can be found: 1. sella turcica 2. foramen magnum 3. external auditory meatus 4. superciliary arch 5. petrous ridge 6. styloid process 7. foramen rotundum 8. crista galli 9, superior nasal conchae 10. inion 11. ethmoid notch 12. optic foramen 13. perpendicular plate
1. inion 2. supercillary ridge 3. glabella 4. supraorbital groove 5. vertex 6. supraorbital margin 7. frontal tuberosity
List the surface landmark with its correct description. 1. external occipital protuberance 2. ridge of bone at the eyebrow 3. smooth flat surface between eyebrows 4. depression in bone above eyebrow 5. most superior surface of cranium 6. superior rim of orbit 7. rounded prominence on forehead
The only organ in the body capable of regeneration is the:
Liver
What solid organs is the largest found in the abdomen?
Liver
Which of the following solid organs is the largest found in the abdomen?
Liver
Carotid Canal
Located on petrous portion of the temporal bone, anterior to the jugular foramen
Mandible
Lower jawbone in vertebrates
Hyoid
Main neck bone that supports tongue muscles; Adam's Apple
Mandible Body
Main part of the jaw bone
pituitary adenoma
May cause erosion of dorsum sellae
B. PA with central angled 15 degrees caudal
The petrous ridges are demonstrated in the lower 1/3 of the orbits on the: A. PA central ray perpendicular B. PA with central angled 15 degrees caudal C. PA with central ray angled 10 degrees caudal D. PA with central ray angled 25 degrees caudal
basal skull fracture
May produce air-fluid level in sphenoid sinus
osteitis Deformans
May result in "cotton-wool" appearance
sella turcica / sphenoid
The pituitary gland is associated with and protected by the _______ of the _______ bone.
lambda
The point where the sagittal suture and the lambdoidal suture meet is called the _________.
B. Closest to the film surface
The posterior oblique positions of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints. A. Farthest from the film surface B. Closest to the film surface
Mastoid Portion
The posterior part of the temporal bone. Includes air cells that communicate with the tympanic antrum
2. form the actual birth canal
The primary function of the true pelvis is to: 1. support the lower abdomen 2. form the actual birth canal 3. provide for a gynecoid-shaped pelvis 4. support the pregnant uterus
A. Lateral
The projection that will best demonstrate all the sinus cavities on one shot is: A. Lateral B. Caldwell C. Smv D. Water's
Pterygoid Medial
Medial- elevates and moves jaw it from side to side
Which of the following structures helps stabilize and support the small intestine?
Mesentery
Hypophyseal Fossa
Middle indent of the Sella Turcia
Middle Nasal Concha
Middle scroll-shaped projections lateral to the nasal septum
D. Submentovertex
Midpoint of the angles of the mandible to the center of the film is the CRPR reference for the _____ projection. A. Waters B. Townes C. Rhese D. Submentovertex
C. 25 degrees caudal
On the PA skull projection, to place the petrous ridges below the orbits, the central ray is directed _____. A. 15 degrees caudal B. Perpendicular C. 25 degrees caudal D. 10 degrees caudal
Mandibular Foramen
Opening in the ramus portion of the mandible
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA axial projection. In order to demonstrate the apices free of the superimposition with the shadows of the clavicles, the central ray should be directed: a. Cephalic at an angulation of 10-15 degrees b. Caudal at an angulation of 10-15 degrees c. Cephalic at an angulation of 35-40 degrees d. Caudal at an angulation of 35-40 degrees.
a. Cephalic at an angulation of 10-15 degrees
Which of the following joints displays a "hinge" type of movement? a. Ginglymus b. Sellar c. Trochoid d. Ellipsoidal
a. Ginglymus
What is the proper abbreviation for the study that demonstrates the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder in the presence of contrast media? a. IVU b. IVP c. KUB d. UGI
a. IVU
For the AP hip projection, the foot and leg are inverted to place the _____ parallel to the film surface. a. Neck of femur b. Epicondyles C. Malleoli D. Coracoid
a. Neck of femur
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the lateral projection. If the patient is erect, it is important to place the midsagittal plane: a. Parallel to the image receptor and vertical to the floor b. Perendicular to the image receptor and horizontal to the floor c. Parallel to the image receptor and horizontal to the floor d. Perpendicular to the image receptor and vertical to the floor
a. Parallel to the image receptor and vertical to the floor
Which carpal bone is the smallest? a. Pisiform b. Hamate c. Scaphoid d. Capitate
a. Pisiform
Which of the following structures is considered to be most distal? a. Styloid process b. Radial head c. Capitulum d. Radial tuberosity
a. Styloid process
In the AP internal projection of the shoulder the greater tuberosity is: a. Superimposed over the humerus b. In profile c. Oblique d. All of the above
a. Superimposed over the humerus
The jugular notch corresponds which vertebral level? a. T2-T3 b. C7-T1 c. T9-T10 d. T5-T6
a. T2-T3
Which abdominal pathology is associated with a radiographic "ground glass" appearance? a. ascites b. intussusception c. ulcerative colitis d. Crohn's disease
a. ascites
A fracture that occurs at the neck of the 5th metacarpal, usually from the fist striking a hard object is called a: a. boxer's fracture b. Colle's fracture c. Bennet's fracture d. Monteggia's fracture
a. boxer's fracture
Examples of "flat" bones are the: a. calvaria, ribs, scapulae, and sternum. b. ribs, sternum, patella, and ilia of pelvis. c. sternum, scapulae, ilia of pelvis, and base of cranium. d. sternum and ilia of pelvis only.
a. calvaria, ribs, scapulae, and sternum.
What is a painful disorder of the wrist and hand resulting from compression of the median nerve, as it passes through the center of the wrist? a. carpal tunnel syndrome b. osteoarthritis c. rheumatoid arthritis d. Paget's disease
a. carpal tunnel syndrome
The joint found between the base of the third metacarpal and carpal bone is the: a. carpometacarpal. b. intercarpal. c. proximal metacarpophalangeal. d. interphalangeal.
a. carpometacarpal.
The large intestine begins at the: a. cecum b. rectum c. ileum d. sigmoid
a. cecum
Which pathological conditions might cause a physician to order a soft tissue radiograph of the neck? a. either C or D b. croup c. pneumonia d. MRSA e. epiglottitis
a. either C or D
The first metacarpophalangeal joint has a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. ellipsoidal b. trochoidal c. sellar d. plane
a. ellipsoidal
The radiocarpal joint possesses a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. ellipsoidal b. plane c. ginglymus d. trochoidal
a. ellipsoidal
A chest radiograph reveals a diaphragm that is flat instead of dome shaped. The patient is most likely suffering from: a. emphysema b. bronchitis c. MRSA d. pneumonia
a. emphysema
An ellipsoidal joint allows movement in ____ directions. a. four b. all c. two d. six
a. four
The interphalangeal joints have a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. ginglymus b. sellar c. ellipsoidal d. plane
a. ginglymus
Ninety-five percent (95%) of the body's seratonin is located in the: a. gut b. liver c. blood d. brain
a. gut
Which bacteria is usually present with gastric ulcers? a. h. pylori b. MRSA c. streptococcus e. e.coli
a. h. pylori
The bacteria that is usually present with gastic ulcers is: a. h.pylori b. streptococcus c. MRSA d. e. coli
a. h.pylori
An accumulation of blood in the pleural space that causes a partial or complete collapse of the lung is call a: a. hemothorax b. pneumothorax c. hemoptysis d. pyothorax
a. hemothorax
Organs that are located below the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as: a. infraperitoneal b. intraperitoneal c. supraperitoneal d. retroperitoneal
a. infraperitoneal
What is the anatomical landmark that may be palpated with the patient in the prone position? a. ischial tuberosity b. symphysis pubis c. ASIS d. iliac crest
a. ischial tuberosity
How does the appearance of the large intestine differ with the presence of barium from the small intestine? a. large intestine contains haustra b. small intestine has sacculations c. there is no difference d. large intestine looks "feathery"
a. large intestine contains haustra
Air or gas that escapes into the pleural cavity results in a condition known as: a. pneumothorax. b. air bronchogram. c. hemothorax. d. hemidiaphragm.
a. pneumothorax.
The prefix pyelo refers to: a. renal pelvis. b. urinary bladder. c. ureter. d. renal cortex.
a. renal pelvis.
The instrument used to measure the output when a patient exhales is called a: a. spirometer b. CPAP c. bronchoscope d. pulmonary function test
a. spirometer
If all the alveoli were flattened out, it would equal the surface area of a: a. tennis court b. basketball court c. football field d. golf course
a. tennis court
A pivot joint is also referred to as a: a. trochoid joint b. ginglymus. c. sellar joint. d. plane joint.
a. trochoid joint
The term for the abdominal region found directly in the middle of the abdomen is: a. umbilical b. pubic c. epigastric d. inguinal
a. umbilical
The inferior-superior true lateral projection of the hip is known as the _____. a.. Danelius-Miller b. Johnson's Method c. Leonard-George d. Clements-Nakayama
a.. Danelius-Miller
The prominent protuberance found on the anterior aspect of the ilium is the:
anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
Chiasmatic Groove
anterior to the sella turcica, between the optica foramina. Lodges the optic chiasm (crossing of the optic nerves).
In the Clements-Nakayanna method of the hip the central-ray has a double angle _____ degrees superiorly and _____ degrees posteriorly. a. 10, 20 b. 15, 15 C. 25, 25 D. 45, 45
b. 15, 15
The xiphoid process generally doesn't calcify until the age of: a. 12 years b. 40 years c. 65 years d. 21 years
b. 40 years
The human adult heart averages how many beat per minute? a. 40 b. 70 c. 150 d. 100
b. 70
How must the patient's arm be positioned for a good AP projection of the scapula? a. Adducted b. Abducted c. Internally rotated d. Externally rotated
b. Abducted
The thyroid gland is located at the approximate level of: a. the epiglottis. b. C5-7. c. the carina. d. C1-3.
b. C5-7.
The instrument used to assist with sleep apnea is a(n): a. asthma inhaler b. CPAP c. spirometer d. bronchoscope
b. CPAP
Which of the following structures is considered to be most lateral? a. Proximal radioulnar joint b. Capitulum c. Trochlea d. Coronoid tubercle
b. Capitulum
In the posterior anterior semi-axial projection of the clavicle the direction of the central ray is: a. Oblique b. Caudal c. Cephalic d. Perpendicular
b. Caudal
Which of the following body systems helps to regulate body temperature? a. Endocrine b. Circulatory c. Nervous d. Urinary
b. Circulatory
The CRPR for the AP shoulder projection is: a. Acromion process to center of film b. Corocoid process to center of film c. Epicondyles to center of film d. None of the above
b. Corocoid process to center of film
A chronic inflammation of the intestinal wall that is characterized by "skip" lesions where diseased bowel is seperated by normal bowel is: a. fibrous adhesions b. Crohn's disease c. volvulus d. intussusception
b. Crohn's disease
Which of the following views will best demonstrate the greater tuberosity of the humerus? a. Internal rotation b. External rotation c. Transthoracic Lateral d. Transaxillary
b. External rotation
Which of the following bony structures is found on the distal aspect of the ulna? a. Coronoid process b. Head c. Olecranon process d. All of the above
b. Head
The type of instrument that measures cardiac activity over a period of time is a(n): a. cardiac catheter b. Holter monitor c. cardiac stent d. tethoscope
b. Holter monitor
In the anterior posterior axial projection of the clavicle the degree of the angle would_________ with thinner patients. a. Decrease b. Increase c. Remain the same d. None of the above
b. Increase
Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior? a. Trochlea b. Olecranon process c. Coronoid process d. Radial tuberosity
b. Olecranon process
For the best recorded detail, which of the following projections of the clavicle would be used? a. A.P. b. PA c. Lateral d. Oblique
b. PA
What is the name of the two small depressions found on the anterior aspect of the distal humerus? a. Olecranon and coronoid fossa b. Radial and coronoid fossa c. Olecranon and radial fossa d. Trochlea and capitulum
b. Radial and coronoid fossa
Hypoglossal canal
Paired canal anterior to occipital condyle-Allows hypoglossal nerve to pass through
Optic Foramen
Paired opening through lesser wing of the sphenoid for optic nerve
The organ that produces insulin is the:
Pancreas
b. True
Part 4 refers to the greater tubercle. a. False b. True
d. All of the above
Part 7 refers to the: a. scapulohumeral joint. b. glenohumeral joint. c. glenoid cavity or fossa. d. All of the above
Zygomatic process
Part of bone on temporal / frontal bone going towards the cheek bone
Which special projection of the wrist will open up the interspaces on the ulnar side of the wrist? a. Carpal canal b. Radial deviation c. Ulnar deviation d. Carpal bridge
b. Radial deviation
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the right lateral projection. This projection is most commonly taken to improve the visualization of the lesions involving the: a. Mediastinal region b. Right lung c. Left ventrical of the heart d. Left hemidaphragm
b. Right lung
What is the name of the fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement, usually a FOSH injury from falling backward or with the wrist flexed? a. Monteggia's b. Smith's c. Colle's d. Bennet's
b. Smith's
Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? a. Hip bone b. Sternum c. Clavicle d. Radius
b. Sternum
Which two structures primarily form the hingelike structure and movement of the elbow joint? a. Capitulum and trochlea b. Trochlea and olecranon process c. Coronoid fossa and trochlea d. Coronoid process and coronoid fossa
b. Trochlea and olecranon process
Which one of the following structures is not part of the ulna? a. Coronoid tubercle b. Ulnar notch c. Radial notch d. Styloid process
b. Ulnar notch
Which disease would cause a patient to have an excess of saline in their sweat? a. epiglottitis b. cystic fibrosis c. croup d. emphysema
b. cystic fibrosis
The instrument that provides an electrical shock to the heart to establish a normal rhythm is a(n): a. pacemaker b. defibrillator c. cardiac catheter d. cardiac stent
b. defibrillator
The C-loop is another name for the: a. sigmoid colon b. duodenal bulb c. ileocecal valve d. jejunum
b. duodenal bulb
The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstructions, where a growth of tissue causes two adjacent structures to "stick" together is called a(n): a. intussusception b. fibrous adhesion c. volvulus d. Crohn's disease
b. fibrous adhesion
An abnormal communication between two structures that are normally separate is called a(n) a. metastasis b. fistula c. adhesion d. scar
b. fistula
The greater omentum extends from the transverse colon to the: a. inferior margin of the liver b. greater curvature of the stomach c. posterior abdominal wall d. proximal portion of the duodenum
b. greater curvature of the stomach
An accumulation of blood in the pleural space that causes a patial or complete collapse of a lung is called a(n): a. pneumothorax b. hemothorax c. hemoptysis d. pyothorax
b. hemothorax
A ginglymus joint can also be referred to as a: a. pivot joint. b. hinge joint c. trochoid joint. d. saddle joint.
b. hinge joint
The peritoneum that attaches the colon to the posterior abdominal wall is the: a. lesser omentum b. mesocolon c. mesentery d. greater omentum
b. mesocolon
The animal that is being tested to help "sniff" for tuberculosis is: a. cats b. rats c. rabbits d. dogs
b. rats
Organs that are located posteriorly to, or behind the serous lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are reffered to as: a. infraperitoneal b. retroperitoneal c. intraperitoneal d. supraperitoneal
b. retroperitoneal
A chronic disease involving inflammation of the colon that begins in the rectosigmoid region and results in a loss of haustra giving a characteristic "stovepipe" sign is: a. fibrous adhesion b. ulcerative colitis c. Crohn's disease d. intussusception
b. ulcerative colitis
The lower concave area of the lung is termed the:
base
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA oblique in the LAO position. The patient is placed with their left shoulder in contact with the IR and their right hand on the hip . In order to demonstrate the heart and descending aorta, the patient should be rotated: a. 10-20 degrees from the plane of the IR b. 25-35 degrees from the plane of the IR c. 45-60 degrees from the plane of the IR d. 75-85 degrees from the plane of the IR
c. 45-60 degrees from the plane of the IR 35-45 degrees to evaluate esophagus 10-20 degrees to evaluate pulmonary diseases
The source to image distance for the acromio-clavicular joints is: a. 40 inches b. 36 inches c. 72 inches d. 6 inches
c. 72 inches
Which radiographic projection of the chest is most often used to evaluate the presence of free air in the left pleural cavity? a. A PA projection with the patient erect b. An AP projection with the patient supine c. An AP projection with the patient in the right lateral decubitus position d. An AP projection with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position
c. An AP projection with the patient in the right lateral decubitus position
A common fracture that occurs when a patient experiences a FOSH injury that results in a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement is called a: a. Smith's fracture b. Monteggia's fracture c. Colle's fracture d. boxer's fracture
c. Colle's fracture
Whenever possible, radiographic images of the chest should be performed with the patient erect in order to: a. Prevent engorgement of the great vessels b. Reduce the amount of magnification of the heart c. Demonstrate the presence of free fluids d. Reduce the amount of focal spot blur in the image
c. Demonstrate the presence of free fluids
What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the elbow? a. Trochlea and capitulum b. Radial and ulnar styloid processes c. Humeral epicondyles d. Humeral condyles
c. Humeral epicondyles
In the lateral projection of the scapula the CRPR is____________ to center of the film. a. Corocoid process b. Acromion process c. Mid- vertebral border d. Crest of ilium
c. Mid- vertebral border
Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior? a. Radial tuberosity b. Trochlea c. Olecranon process d. Coronoid process
c. Olecranon process
In the AP external projection of the shoulder the epicondylar plane is_________ to the film surface. a. Perpendicular b. 45 degrees c. Parallel d. None of the above
c. Parallel
What is the name of the two small depressions found on the anterior aspect of the distal humerus? a. Trochlea and capitulum b. Olecranon and radial fossa c. Radial and coronoid fossa d. Olecranon and coronoid fossa
c. Radial and coronoid fossa
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. a 180 centimeter (72") SID receptor distance is employed in order to: a. Reduce the amount of motion due to respiration b. Blur the shadows of the scapulae from the lung fields c. Reduce the amount of magnification in the heart shadow d. Project the clavicles above the top of the thoracic cavity
c. Reduce the amount of magnification in the heart shadow
Which of the following organs is not considered an accessory organ for digestion? a. Pancreas b. Gallbladder c. Spleen d. Liver
c. Spleen
The breathing technique for the lateral scapula would be: a. Suspended inspiration b. Suspended expiration c. Suspended respiration d. Shallow breathing
c. Suspended respiration
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the lateral projection. If the patient is erect, the CR is directed horizontal to the floor to enter at the midcoronal plane at the level of the: a. T-2 b. T-4 c. T-7 d. T-9
c. T-7
The xiphoid process corresponds to which vertebral level? a. L2-L3 b. C7-T1 c. T9-T10 d. T2-T3
c. T9-T10
Two radiographic images of the chest are obtained in the PA projection. Separate images are taken with the patient suspending their respiration at the end of full inspiration and one at full expiration. These projections are commonly used to evaluate: a. The presence of vascular bleeding b. The movement of foreign bodies of the lungs c. The excursion of the diaphragms d. The presence of mediastinal lesions
c. The excursion of the diaphragms
Which two structures primarily form the hingelike structure and movement of the elbow joint? a. Coronoid process and coronoid fossa b. Coronoid fossa and trochlea c. Trochlea and olecranon process d. Capitulum and trochlea
c. Trochlea and olecranon process
An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen, usually caused by chronic conditions is called: a. peritonitis b. mechanical bowel obstruction c. ascites d. Crohn's disease
c. ascites
An inherited disease in which heavy mucus is secreted causing progressive "clogging" of the bronchioles and digestive ducts is called: a. epiglottitis b. dyspnea c. cystic fibrosis d. emphysema
c. cystic fibrosis
Which condition of the upper respiratory tract is caused by a viral infection and is a medical emergency that may result in death if not treated quickly? a. croup b. cystic fibrosis c. epiglottitis d. emphysema
c. epiglottitis
A fatty liver may result from a diet high in fats and/or: a. prolonged hypertention b. metastatic cancers c. excessive alcohol d. Type II diabetes
c. excessive alcohol
The function of which organ is to store and concentrate bile? a. pancreas b. spleen c. gall bladder d. liver
c. gall bladder
The interphalangeal joints have a(n) ____ type of joint movement. a. sellar b. ellipsoidal c. ginglymus d. plane
c. ginglymus
A bowel obstruction that occurs when the bowel telescopes into itself is called: a. volvulus b. Crohn's disease c. intussusception d. fibrous adhesions
c. intussusception
The only organ in the body capable of regeneration is the: a. gall bladder b. brain c. liver d. pancreas
c. liver
A common primary bone cancer characterized by "punched out" lesions in the bone is called: a. osteochondroma b. osteoarthritis c. multiple myeloma d. rheumatoid arthritis
c. multiple myeloma
The most common type of arthritis is: a. osteomyeloma b. rheumatoid arthritis c. osteoarthritis d. pyogenic arthritis
c. osteoarthritis
The double walled tissue that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is called the: a. omentum b. mesentery c. peritoneum d. viscera
c. peritoneum
A portable chest radiograph is taken and is noted that there are no lung markings in one of the lungs.The patient is most likely suffering from: a. lung cancer b. MRSA c. pneumothorax d. pneumonia
c. pneumothorax
An accumulation of air in the pleural space causing a partial or complete collapse is called a: a. pleural effusion b. pyothorax c. pneumothorax d. hemothorax
c. pneumothorax
An accumulation of air in the pleural space that causes a partial or complete collapse of a lung is called a(n): a. hemoptysis b. pyothorax c. pneumothorax d. hemothorax
c. pneumothorax
The two fat stripes of the wrist demonstrated radiographically are known as the scaphoid fat stripe and the: a. pisiform fat stripe. b. anterior fat stripe. c. pronator fat stripe. d. abductor fat stripe.
c. pronator fat stripe.
The kidneys are connected to the urinary bladder by way of the: a. urethra b. renal vein c. ureter d. renal artery
c. ureter
The upper margin of the lungs is at the level of the: a. laryngeal prominence. b. jugular notch. c. vertebra prominens. d. sternal angle.
c. vertebra prominens
The inner membrane of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the: a. pericardial sac b. parietal pleura. c. visceral pleura. d. pleural cavity.
c. visceral pleura.
The internal prominence or ridge where the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchi is termed the:
carina
The joint found between the base of the third metacarpal and carpal bone is the:
carpometacarpal
The large intestine begins at the:
cecum
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. If the CR is directed perpendicular to the IR, the resulting image is most likely to show the shadows of the clavicles: a. At the level of the midscapula b. At the level of the costophrenic recesses c. About 2 cm above the apices of the lung d. About 5 cm below the apices of the lung
d. About 5 cm below the apices of the lung
Which of the following is a sign/symptom of liver disease? a. Fatigue b. Yellow skin and eyes c. Abdominal pain d. All of these e. Dark urine
d. All of these
Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior? a. Epiglottis b. Vocal cords c. Hyoid bone d. Carina
d. Carina
Which system of the human body is responsible for the elimination of solid waste? a. Urinary b. Circulatory c. Respiratory d. Digestive
d. Digestive
What is the name for the structure that serves as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food or fluid? a. Hyoid bone b. Uvula c. Oropharynx d. Epiglottis
d. Epiglottis
In the radiographic procedure of the acromic-clavicular joints the patient must be in the _______ position. a. Suspine b. Prone c. Decubitus d. Erect
d. Erect
Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Hyoid bone d. Esophagus
d. Esophagus
What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the elbow? a. Trochlea and capitulum b. Radial and ulnar styloid processes c. Humeral condyles d. Humeral epicondyles
d. Humeral epicondyles
For the transaxillary view of the shoulder the projection is: a. Superior-inferior b. Medial - lateral c. Lateral- medial d. Inferior superior
d. Inferior superior
In the trans-axillary projection of the shoulder, the central-ray travels in an_________ direction. a. Lateral b. Caudal c. Axial d. Inferior-Superior
d. Inferior-Superior
The transthoracic projection of the proximal humerus is also known as the _______ position. a. Jacobi b. Transaxillary c. Scobey d. Lawrence
d. Lawrence
On the AP projection of the scapula the breathing technique would be: a. Suspended respiration b. Suspended inspiration c. Suspended expiration d. Normal breathing
d. Normal breathing
In order to blurr out the lung markings that are superimposed over the proximal humerus on the transthoracic lateral view, the breathing technique would be: a. Suspended respiration b. Suspended inspiration c. Suspended expiration d. Normal breathing continued
d. Normal breathing continued
Which of the following structures is considered to be most proximal? a. Coronoid process b. Radial tuberosity c. Head of ulna d. Olecranon process
d. Olecranon process
Which of the following actions will lead to the proximal radius crossing over the ulna? a. Placing epicondyles parallel to image receptor b. External rotation of elbow c. Supination of the hand d. Pronation of the hand
d. Pronation of the hand
What is another term for the sellar joint? a. Ball and socket b. Hinge c. Pivot d. Saddle
d. Saddle
Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone? a. Lunate b. Trapezium c. Hamate d. Scaphoid
d. Scaphoid
Which of the following structures is considered to be most distal? a. Radial head b. Radial tuberosity c. Capitulum d. Styloid process
d. Styloid process
Which of the following positions would be used if there is an obvious fracture of the upper humerus? a. Internal rotation b. External rotation c. Transaxillary d. Transthoracic lateral
d. Transthoracic lateral
Which wrist ligament is attached to the styloid process of the ulna and continues to the triquetrum and pisiform? a. Radial collateral ligament b. Dorsal radiocarpal ligament c. Palmar radiocarpal ligament d. Ulnar collateral ligament
d. Ulnar collateral ligament
Which two structures form the distal radioulnar joint? a. Radial notch and radial head b. Coronoid tubercle and radial notch c. Radial tuberosity and ulnar notch d. Ulnar notch and head of ulna
d. Ulnar notch and head of ulna
The term "vermiform" refers to which structure located within the abdomen? a. cecum b. duodenum c. ileum d. appendix
d. appendix
The the "vermiform" refers to which structure located in the abdomen? a. duodenum b. ileum c. cecum d. appendix
d. appendix
An accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen caused by long term conditions such as cirrhosis is called: a. ulcerative colitis b. Crohn's disease c. fibrous adhesions d. ascites
d. ascites
C. Air fluid levels
Patient is in the erect position during a routine sinus examination to best demonstrate what? A. Dorsal aspect of sinus B. Sphenoid sinus best C. Air fluid levels D. Sinusitis
What is the name of the double-walled tissue that lines the abdominopelvic cavity?
Peritoneum
Which carpal bone is the smallest?
Pisiform
Ramus
Posterior part of the mandible that is more or less vertical
The internal prominence or ridge where the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchi is termed the: a. hilum. b. costophrenic angle. c. thyroid cartilage. d. carina.
d. carina.
The lower concave area of the lung is termed the: a. apex. b. hilum. c. base. d. costophrenic angle.
d. costophrenic angle.
Condylar Process (head)
Posterior upward projection of the ramus that fits into the temporomandibular joint, which is the hinge of the mandible
Why is the right kidney usually lower than the left?
Presence of the liver
Coronoid Process
Process anterior to the condylar process of the mandible
Crista Galli
Prominant ridge in the ethmoid bone
A patient suffering from emphysema would cause you to make what adjustment for density? a. increase b. no change c. not within the scope of practice d. decrease
d. decrease
A patient suffering from emphysema would cause you to make what adjustment for density? a. not within the scope of practice b. no change c. increase d. decrease
d. decrease
Which portion of the small intestine is the widest? a. ileum b. cecum c. jejunum d. duodenum
d. duodenum
The structure found at the junction between the small and large intestine is the: a. appendix b. ascending colon c. sigmoid colon d. ileocecal valve
d. ileocecal valve
Which portion of the small intestine is the longest? a. jejunum b. cecum c. duodenum d. ileum
d. ileum
Which muscles must be seen on a well-exposed abdomen projection?
Psoas major
Which of the following muscles must be seen on a well-exposed abdomen projection?
Psoas major
Organs that are located within the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as: a. supraperitoneal b. infraperitoneal c. retroperitoneal d. intraperitoneal
d. intraperitoneal
Which abdominal condition may be resolved by performing a barium enema? a. ulcerative colitis b. Crohn's disease c. volvulus d. intussusception
d. intussusception
Which anatomical landmark should be palpated with the patient in the prone position? a. symphysis pubis b. ASIS c. xiphoid process d. ischial tuberosity
d. ischial tuberosity
Which portion of the small intestine has a "feathery" appearance in the presence of barium? a. cecum b. ileum c. duodenum d. jejunum
d. jejunum
A common benign bone tumor found in young persons and located on the knee, pelvis and/or scapula is called a(n): a. multiple myeloma b. rheumatoid arthritis c. osteoarthritis d. osteochondroma
d. osteochondroma
The organ that produces insulin is the: a. gall bladder b. brain c. liver d. pancreas
d. pancreas
A portable chest radiograph is taken and it is noted that there are no lung markings in one of the lungs. The patient is most likely suffering from: a. lung cancer b. pneumonia c. MRSA d. pneumothorax
d. pneumothorax
The pathologic condition that results from an autoimmune disorder where the body doesn't recognize "self" cells is called: a. osteomalacia b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. osteoarthritis d. rheumatoid arthritis
d. rheumatoid arthritis
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. The patient is placed erect facing the IR with the arms flexed and the backs of the hands resting on the hips. The position of the arms is used to: a. Move the diaphragms to their highest position b. Move the diaphragms to their lowest position c. Direct the clavicles above the apices of the lungs d. rotate the scapulae laterally away from the chest
d. rotate the scapulae laterally away from the chest
The bending or forcing of the hand toward the lateral side of the forearm (with hand pronated, PA projection) is known as: a. radial deviation. b. radial abduction. c. ulnar extension. d. ulnar deviation.
d. ulnar deviation.
A bowel obstruction that occurs when a loop of intestine twists upon itself, resulting in a "kink" in the bowel is called a(n): a. intussusception b. fibrous adhesion c. Crohn's disease d. volvulus
d. volvulus
Patient comes in with bilateral fractures of the femurs, but you need a lateral right hip. Which projection would you need? a. Danelius-Miller b. Clements-Nakayama c. Johnson's Method d. None of the above e. More than one, but not all of the above
e. More than one, but not all of the above
What are the sign/symptoms of liver disease? a. yellow skin and eyes b. fatigue c. abdominal pain d. dark urine e. all of these
e. all of these
Which of the following is a sign/symptom of liver disease? a. abdominal pain b. dark urine c. yellow skin and eyes d. fatigue e. all of these
e. all of these
Which of the following is a sign/symptom of liver disease? a. dark urine b. yellow skin and eyes c. fatigue d. abdominal pain e. all of these
e. all of these
A nonvisible posterior fat pad on a well-exposed, correctly positioned lateral elbow radiograph generally suggests: a. a congenital defect. b. fracture of one of the bones of the elbow. d. injury to the synovial joint. e. negative study for injury.
e. negative study for injury.
A chest radiograph reveals a diaphragm that is flat instead of dome shaped. The patient is most likely suffering from:
emphysema
The suprarenal glands are part of the:
endocrine system
A fatty liver may result from a diet high in fats and/or:
excessive alcohol
3. spondylolysis
The radiographic appearance on an oblique lumbar spine in which the neck of the Scotty dog appears broken suggests the presence of ____. 1. spina bifida 2. compression fracture 3. spondylolysis 4. spondylolisthesis
2. 50 to 60
The recommended kV range for the superoinferior tangential projection of the nasal bones is: 1. 40 to 50. 2. 50 to 60. 3. 60 to 70. 4. 70 to 80.
superciliary
The ridge of bone inferior to the eyebrow is called the _______ ridge or arch.
A. Left
The right anterior oblique position of the lumbar spine best visualizes the zygapophyseal joints. A. Left B. Right
A. Right
The right anterior posterior oblique (rapo) projection of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint. A. Right B. Left C. None of the above D. All of the above
A. Closest
The right posterior oblique (rapo) projection of the lumbar spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint to the film surface. A. Closest B. Farthest
C. Erect
The routine Sinus Examination is normally done with the patient in the_____________position. A. Lateral decubitus B. Prone C. Erect D. Supine
1. pars interarticularis.
The small section of bone found between the superior and inferior articular processes of the lumbar spine is termed: 1. pars interarticularis. 2. articular facets. 3. transverse processes. 4. pillar.
a. sustentaculum tali
The small shelf of bone located on the medial surface of the calcaneus referers to the: a. sustentaculum tali b. peroneal trochlea c. calcaneal tuberosity d. sinus tarsi
pterion
The sphenoid fontanel becomes the _______ in the adult skull.
L1
The spinal cord tapers off to a point distally at the level of:
3. L1-L2.
The spinal cord tapers off to a point distally at the level of: 1. lower L5. 2. L2-3 intervertebral space. 3. L1-L2. 4. L4-5 intervertebral space.
temporal
The squamosal suture separates the parietal bone from the _______ bone.
3. T4-5.
The sternal angle is a palpable landmark at the level of: 1. T9-10. 2. T2-3. 3. T4-5. 4. T7.
a. humerus
The strongest bone of the upper limb is the: a. humerus b. scapula c. ulna d. clavicle
H
The structure "anterior arch" of the atlas is labeled _____.
M
The structure "lamina" is labeled _____.
A
The structure "lateral mass" is labeled _____.
h
The structure anterior arch of the atlas is labeled _____.
Left lateral mass of C1
The structure labeled "A," which should be well demonstrated on this projection, is the:
4. articular pillar (lateral mass).
The structure labeled "A," which should be well demonstrated on this projection, is the: 1. lamina. 2. inferior articular process. 3. pedicle. 4. articular pillar (lateral mass).
3. Costocartilage of the last true rib.
The structure labeled iii is: 1. Costocartilage of the 8th rib. 2. Costocartilage of the 10th rib. 3. Costocartilage of the last true rib. 4. Costocartilage portion of the first false rib.
m
The structure lamina is labeled _____.
a
The structure lateral mass is labeled _____.
L
The structure pedicle is labeled _____.
l
The structure pedicle is labeled _____.
K
The structure transverse process is labeled _____.
k
The structure transverse process is labeled _____.
2. T2-3.
The suprasternal, manubrial, or jugular notch all correspond to the level of: 1. T1. 2. T2-3. 3. C7. 4. T4-5.
1. labor and delivery.
The symphysis pubis provides limited movement during pelvic trauma and during: 1. labor and delivery. 2. voiding. 3. walking and running. 4. flexing and extending.
b. head
The thickest part of the scapula is in the area of the: a. neck b. head c. coracoid process d. spine
1. mid-teens
The three bones of the hip eventually fuse at what age? 1. mid-teens 2. 21 years 3. 40 years 4. 3 years
1. acetabulum
The three separate bones of the hip fuse at the: 1. acetabulum 2. symphysis pubis 3. ala of the ilium 4. ischial tuberosities
4. ASIS and the symphysis pubis.
The two bony landmarks that are palpated using the traditional hip localization method are the: 1. ASIS and the crest of ilium. 2. ischial spine and the symphysis pubis. 3. symphysis pubis and the greater trochanter. 4. ASIS and the symphysis pubis.
C3-6
The vertebra represented in the illustration is typical of _________ (choose one of the following: C3-6 or C7 or T1 or C2-7).
1. the 8th or 9th rib.
The widest aspect of the thorax occurs at the level of: 1. the 8th or 9th rib. 2. the 11th and 12th ribs. 3. the sternoclavicular joints. 4. T7.
parietal tubercles
The widest part of the skull is found between the ______.
2. T9-10.
The xiphoid process corresponds to the level of: 1. T7. Student Response 3. T4-5. 4. L1-2.
T10
The xiphoid tip corresponds to the level of:
70 - 75 degrees
The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.
2. 70 to 75 degrees
The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. 1. 90 degrees 2. 70 to 75 degrees 3. 45 degrees 4. 60 degrees
90 degrees true lateral
The zygapophyseal joints for the typical cervical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.
3. 90 degrees
The zygapophyseal joints for the typical cervical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane. 1. 70 to 75 degrees 2. 60 degrees 3. 90 degrees 4. 45 degrees
3. 50 degrees
The zygapophyseal joints of the upper lumbar vertebrae are ____ in relationship to the midsagittal plane. 1. 90 degrees 2. 45 degrees 3. 50 degrees 4. 30 degrees
6
There are a total of _______ (number) fontanels in an infant skull.
Mandible Neck
Thinner part of the mandible between the head and the body
C. Comparison, open & closed laterals
To best demonstrate a dislocation of the TMJ's you should do: A. Obliques B. Comparison lateral C. Comparison, open & closed laterals D. Owen's
a. dorsiflexion.
To decrease the angle between the anterior surface of the foot and anterior surface of the lower leg is described as: a. dorsiflexion. b. inversion. c. plantar flexion. d. eversion.
The function of which organ is to store and concentrate bile?
gall bladder
The greater omentum extends from the transverse colon to the:
greater curvature of the stomach
To ensure that the inferior margin of the abdomen is included on a KUB radiograph, the technologist should palpate the:
greater trochanter or symphysis pubis
To ensure that the inferior margin of the abdomen is included on a KUB radiograph, the technologist should palpate the:
greater trochanter or symphysis pubis.
Ninety-five percent (95%) of the body's seratonin is located in the:
gut
The bacteria that is usually present with gastic ulcers is:
h.pylori
An accumulation of blood in the pleural space that causes a patial or complete collapse of a lung is called a(n):
hemothorax
The structure found at the junction between the small and large intestine is the:
ileocecal valve
Organs that are located below the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as:
infraperitoneal
Organs that are located within the serous membrane lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are referred to as:
intraperitoneal
Which anatomical landmark should be palpated with the patient in the prone position?
ischial tuberosity
Which aspect of the large intestine is found between the left and right colic flexures?
Transverse colon
Which portion of the small intestine has a "feathery" appearance in the presence of barium?
jejunum
bregma
label d:
pterion
label e:
squamosal suture
label f:
lambdoidal suture
label g:
asterion
label h:
ethmoid bone
label i:
frontal bone
label ii:
parietal bone
label iii:
occipital bone
label iv:
temporal bone
label v:
sphenoid bone
label vi:
Mental Foramen
Twin holes in the front of the chin
Parietal Bone
Two bones between the frontal and occipital; on the side and top of the cranium (2)
Pterygoid Process
Two bony processes descending from the body of the sphenoid bone
Perpendicular Plate
Upper portion of thin bone (ethmoid) in the middle of the nasal cavity
Superior Concha
Upper, scroll like structure, extend from the ethmoid bone
The kidneys are connected to the urinary bladder by way of the:
Ureter
4. 42 degrees
What CR angle is required for the AP axial projection for the temporomandibular joints (TMJs) with the IOML perpendicular to the image receptor? 1. 25 degrees 2. 30 degrees 3. 37 degrees 4. 42 degrees
4. 25 to 30 degrees caudad
What CR angle is required for the Schuller method projection of the TMJs? 1. None; the CR should be perpendicular to the film. 2. 20 to 25 degrees cephalad 3. 15 degrees caudad 4. 25 to 30 degrees caudad
2. 25 to 30 degrees caudad
What CR angulation is required for the Schuller method? 1. 15 degrees caudad 2. 25 to 30 degrees caudad 3. 12 degrees cephalad 4. 10 degrees caudad
2. 12 degrees cephalad
What CR angulation is required for the posterior profile projection of the mastoids? 1. 20 degrees cephalad 2. 12 degrees cephalad 3. 1 degree caudad 4. 45 degrees caudad
E. All of the Above
What are some of the common errors made during skull radiography? A. Rotation B. Tilt C. Excessive flexion D. Excessive extension E. All of the Above
D. All of the above
What are the three points that must be included in the patients clinical history prior to a ribs series? A. The nature of the trauma or patient complaint B. The location of the rib injury or pain C. Whether or not the patient has been coughing up blood D. All of the above
b. Longitudinal and transverse
What are the two arches of the foot? a. Instep and cross-step b. Longitudinal and transverse c. Anterior and longitudinal d. Transverse and anterior
4. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to the IOML.
What can the technologist do if the patient cannot extend the head and neck adequately for the routine submentovertex projection of the zygomatic arches? 1. Rotate the skull 15 degrees away from the affected side. 2. Use a short SID to magnify the arches. 3. Perform the Haas method. 4. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to the IOML.
A. 7-8 degrees
What difference, in degrees, is there between the OML and the IOML positioning planes? A. 7-8 degrees B. 5-7 degrees C. 3-4 degrees D. 2-5 degrees
2. 37 degrees
What is the angle between the OML and the plane of the image receptor for the parietoacanthial (Waters) projection? 1. 15 to 20 degrees 2. 37 degrees 3. 42 degrees 4. 40 degrees
4. 53 degrees
What is the angle between the midsagittal plane and the image receptor for a parieto-orbital projection of the optic foramen? 1. 30 degrees 2. 12 degrees 3. 45 degrees 4. 53 degrees
How does the appearance of the large intestine differ with the presence of barium from the small intestine?
large intestine contains haustra
The only organ in the body capable of regeneration is the:
liver
The peritoneum that attaches the colon to the posterior abdominal wall is the:
mesocolon
Supraorbital Noth (sometimes Foramen)
notch on the frontal bone located on the medial portion of the supraorbital ridge and is where the supraorbital artery and nerve travel from the orbit to the forehead
The organ that produces insulin is the:
pancreas
The double walled tissue that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is called the:
peritoneum
A portable chest radiograph is taken and it is noted that there are no lung markings in one of the lungs. The patient is most likely suffering from:
pneumothorax
Air or gas that escapes into the pleural cavity results in a condition known as:
pneumothorax.
The animal that is being tested to help "sniff" for tuberculosis is:
rats
Organs that are located posteriorly to, or behind the serous lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are reffered to as:
retroperitoneal
Styloid Process
sharp projection from the bottom of the temporal bone
The instrument used to measure the output when a patient exhales is called a:
spirometer
The jugular notch is located on the:
sternum
. If all the alveoli were flattened out, it would equal the surface area of a:
tennis court
Maxillae
the two fused bones forming the upper jaw (2)
Cribriform Plate
thin, medial portion of the ethmoid bone of the skull with many little foramen
Petrous Portion
triangle shaped. hardest part of temporal bone. located at base of skull between sphenoid bone & occipital bone
The term for the abdominal region found directly in the middle of the abdomen is:
umbilical
The kidneys are connected to the urinary bladder by way of the:
ureter
The upper margin of the lungs is at the level of the:
vertebra prominens
The inner membrane of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the:
visceral pleura
3. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement
What is the joint classification and type of movement for the costotransverse joint? 1. Cartilaginous with diarthrodial (ginglymus) movement 2. Synovial with amphiarthrodial, limited movement 3. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement 4. Cartilaginous with synarthrodial or no movement
3. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement
What is the joint classification and type of movement for the sternoclavicular joints? 1. Cartilaginous with diarthrodial (ginglymus) movement 2. Synovial with amphiarthrodial, limited movement 3. Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement 4. Cartilaginous with synarthrodial or no movement
4. Synovial/diarthrodial
What is the joint classification of the zygapophyseal joints? 1. Fibrous/synarthrodial 2. Cartilaginous/amphiarthrodial 3. Symphyses/amphiarthrodial 4. Synovial/diarthrodial
d. Deltoid tuberosity
What is the name of the insertion point for the deltoid muscle located on the shaft of the humerus? a. Surgical neck b. Deltoid protuberance c. Intertubercular groove d. Deltoid tuberosity
b. Subscapular fossa
What is the name of the large fossa found within the anterior surface of the scapula? a. Infraspinous fossa b. Subscapular fossa c. Supraspinous fossa d. Glenoid fossa
2. Sternoclavicular joint
What is the name of the part labeled i in this Figure? 1. Body 2. Sternoclavicular joint 3. Sternal angle 4. Facet for the first rib
1. Sternal angle
What is the name of the part labeled ii? 1. Sternal angle 2. Sternoclavicular joint 3. Xiphoid process 4. Body
2. Facet for the first rib attachment
What is the name of the part labeled iv? 1. Facet for the second rib attachment 2. Facet for the first rib attachment 3. Facet for the sternum attachment 4. Head of the sternum
3. Head
What is the name of the part of the rib that articulates with the thoracic vertebral body? 1. Facets 2. Neck 3. Head 4. Tubercles
B. Odontoid
What is the name of the process that projects upward from the body of the second cervical vertebrae? A. Spinous process B. Odontoid C. Transverse process D. Inferior articulating process
3. Manubrium
What is the name of the structure labeled v? 1. Head 2. Xiphoid 3. Manubrium 4. Body
a. bicipital groove
What is the older term for the intertubercular groove? a. bicipital groove b. Surgical neck c. anatomic neck d. humeral condyles
3. True lateral position
What is the position of the skull for a Schuller method projection of the TMJs? 1. Midsagittal plane at a 53-degree angle to the image receptor 2. Skull rotated 15 degrees toward the image receptor from the lateral position 3. True lateral position 4. OML is at a 37-degree angle to the image receptor
D. 72 inches
What is the preferable source to image distance (FFD) for a lateral position of the cervical spine? A. 36 inches B. 40 inches C. 60 inches D. 72 inches
2. Jugular notch
What is the primary or preferred term for the superior margin of the sternum? 1. Sternal notch 2. Jugular notch 3. Manubrial notch 4. Suprasternal notch
D. 72 inches (180cm)
What is the recommended SID for the lateral sternum position? A. 40 inches (102cm) B. 44 inches (112cm) C. 46 inches (117cm) D. 72 inches (180cm)
A. 20 degrees B. 15 degrees
What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic-type patient? A. 20 degrees B. 15 degrees C. 30 degrees D. 10 degrees
D. Thyroid cartilage
What is the technical name for the "Adam's apple"? A. Pharynx B. Larynx C. Epiglottis D. Thyroid cartilage
A. Suspended respiration on expiration
What type of breathing instructions should be given to the patient for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints? A. Suspended respiration on expiration B. Use a breathing technique C. Suspended breathing is not necessary
1. Plane
What type of joint movement occurs with the zygapophyseal joints? 1. Plane 2. Ellipsoidal 3. Trochoidal 4. Ginglymus
B. Kyphotic
What type of natural curve is found in the thoracic spine? A. Lordotic B. Kyphotic C. Scoliotic D. Myoptic
C. 37
When doing a Posterior - Anterior Rhese projection, one would rotate the head _____ degrees from the PA position. A. 45 B. 55 C. 37 D. None of the above
4. Acanthion
Where does the CR exit for a PA axial projection of the mandible? 1. Junction of the lips 2. Nasion 3. Mentum 4. Acanthion
3. Acanthion
Where does the CR exit for a modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) projection of the facial bones? 1. Nasion 2. Glabella 3. Acanthion 4. Midorbits
C. At the level of the jugular notch (T2-3)
Where is the CR centered for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints? A. At the level of the vertebra prominens (T1) B. At the level of the sternal angle (T4-5) C. At the level of the jugular notch (T2-3) D. At the level of the thyroid cartilage (T9)
4. Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus
Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the facial bones? 1. Acanthion 2. Outer canthus 3. Midway between the glabella and the EAM 4. Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus
4. Midway between the outer canthus and the EAM
Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the sinuses? 1. Upside EAM (side away from image receptor) 2. At the level of the nasion 3. Midway between the acanthion and the EAM 4. Midway between the outer canthus and the EAM
4. At the glabella
Where is the CR centered for an AP axial projection for the mandible? 1. 2 inches (5 cm) above glabella 2. At the mentum 3. At the nasion 4. At the glabella
Between the superior and inferior articular processes
Where is the articular pillar located on a cervical vertebra?
1. Between the superior and inferior articular processes
Where is the articular pillar located on a cervical vertebra? 1. Between the superior and inferior articular processes 2. Between the pedicle and the body 3. Are not present on cervical vertebrae 4. Between the spinous process and the lamina
A. 3 - 4 inches below the juigular notch at the level of T7
Where is the central ray centered for an AP projection of the ribs for an injury located above the diaphragm? A. 3 - 4 inches below the juigular notch at the level of T7 B. Level of T12 C. Level of T5
A. Midsternum
Where is the central ray centered for the oblique & lateral projections of the sternum? A. Midsternum B. At jugular notch C. ½ inch above xiphoid process
d. Between the phalanges of the first digit
Where would the interphalangeal joint be found in the foot? a. Between any of the metatarsals and phalanges b. Between the tarsal bones and phalanges c. Between the phalanges of the second through fifth digits d. Between the phalanges of the first digit
B. Down
Referring to the previous question this will move the diaphragm _____ . A. Up B. Down
D. Infraorbitomeatal line
Reid's base line is also used occasionally to describe the __________ line. A. Mentomeatal line B. Glabelloaveolar line C. Orbitomeatal line D. Infraorbitomeatal line
Organs that are located posteriorly to, or behind the serous lining of the abdominopelvic cavity are reffered to as:
Retroperitoneal
Superciliary Arch
Ridge above oritals
In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found?
Right lower quadrant
In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the gallbladder be found?
Right upper quadrant
Foramen Rotundum
Round holes in shpenoid inferior to supraorbital foramen
b. bursae.
Saclike structures found in the knee joint that allow smooth articulation between ligaments and tendons are called: a. synovial bodies. b. bursae. c. synovial membranes. d. menisci.
Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
Scaphoid
Which of the following carpals articulate with the radius?
Scaphoid
2. herniated nucleus pulposus.
Sciatic-type pain resulting from a "slipped disk" indicates: 1. spina bifida. 2. herniated nucleus pulposus. 3. ankylosing spondylitis. 4. spondylolisthesis.
lateral curvature
Scoliosis is defined as abnormal or exaggerated:
3. lateral curvature.
Scoliosis is defined as abnormal or exaggerated: 1. "swayback" lumbar curvature. 2. convex curvature. 3. lateral curvature. 4. concave curvature.
1. Male
Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Acute angle of pubic arch: 1. Male 2. Female
2. Male
Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. More oval or heart-shaped pelvic inlet: 1. Female 2. Male
2. Male
Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Narrower, deeper general shape of pelvis: 1. Female 2. Male
2. Female
Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Obtuse angle of pubic arch: 1. Male 2. Female
1. Female
Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Round and large pelvic inlet: 1. Female 2. Male
1. Female
Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Wider and shallow general shape of pelvis: 1. Female 2. Male
Maxillary sinus (antrum of highmore)
Sinus located in the upper jaw bone of the skull. Largest
2. AP axial, modified Law and Stenvers projections
Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a mastoid series. Which of the following routines would provide the most complete study of the mastoids? 1. AP axial, Stenvers and Arcelin projections 2. AP axial, modified Law and Stenvers projections 3. Stenvers, modified Law and Haas projections 4. Arcelin, AP axial and Haas projections
1. Use the IOML and increase the CR angulation by 7 degrees.
Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a routine study of the cranium. He is unable to flex his head and neck sufficiently to place the OML perpendicular to the IR for the AP axial projection. What should the technologist do to compensate for this problem without creating excessive magnification of the skull?
2. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to IOML.
Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a sinus series. She cannot fully extend her head and neck for the submentovertex projection. What else can the technologist do to produce a diagnostic submentovertex projection? 1. Perform the projection with the patient recumbent. 2. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to IOML. 3. Angle the CR to place it perpendicular to the OML. 4. Place sandbags on the forehead to extend the skull.
2. Horizontal beam lateral
Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a sinus series. She is unable to stand or sit erect for any of the projections. Which of the following projections will best detect any air/fluid levels present in the maxillary sinuses? 1. Parietoacanthial 2. Horizontal beam lateral 3. PA 4. Parietoacanthial transoral
1. AP axial and lateral
Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a study of the sella turcica. Which of the following routines would best demonstrate this structure? 1. AP axial and lateral 2. Haas method and submentovertex 3. PA axial with a 15-degree caudal angle and lateral 4. Submentovertex and lateral
4. MRI
Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of an acoustic neuroma. Which of the following imaging modalities will provide the best assessment for this tumor? 1. Nuclear medicine 2. Radiography 3. Ultrasound 4. MRI
2. PA axial with a 30-degree caudal angle to OML
Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a history of a possible erosion of the foramen rotundum. Which of the following projections would best demonstrate this structure? 1. AP axial with a 37-degree caudal angle to OML 2. PA axial with a 30-degree caudal angle to OML 3. Submentovertex 4. PA axial with a 15-degree caudal angle to OML
2. PA with no CR angulation to OML
Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a possible bone cyst within the squamous portion of the frontal bone. Which of the following projections would best demonstrate this region with a minimal amount of distortion of the frontal bone? 1. PA axial with a 30-degree caudal angle to OML 2. PA with no CR angulation to OML 3. PA axial with a 15-degree caudal angle to OML 4. AP axial with a 30-degree caudal angle to OML
4. Perform the axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection
Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a request for a right hip study. He is from an extended care facility and is confused about the cause of the injury. The technologist takes an AP pelvis, and when the lateral frog-leg projection is attempted, the patient complains loudly about the pain in his affected hip. What should the technologist do to complete the study? 1. Continue to position the patient, but move the affected limb more gently 2. Perform the anterior pelvis (Taylor) outlet projection 3. Perform the AP pelvis projection only 4. Perform the axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection
4. CT
Situation: A patient comes to radiology with severe mastoiditis. Which one of the following imaging modalities will best demonstrate possible bony destruction within the mastoid region? 1. MRI 2. Ultrasound 3. Nuclear medicine 4. CT
4. Lateral position
Situation: A patient comes with a clinical history of a possible pituitary adenoma. Because this is a rural hospital, CT and MRI are not available. Which radiographic projection or position would best demonstrate signs of erosion of the sella turcica due to the tumor? 1. SMV 2. PA-Caldwell method 3. AP axial-Towne method 4. Lateral position
1. Horizontal beam lateral projection
Situation: A patient enters the ED with a possible basilar skull fracture. Which of the following skull projections would best demonstrate any blood present in the sphenoid sinus? 1. Horizontal beam lateral projection 2. AP with a 15-degree cephalic angle 3. Haas method 4. Submentovertex
3. PA axial mandible projection, axiolateral projection with no rotation, and a 35-degree AP axial projection
Situation: A patient enters the ED with a possible fracture of the proximal ramus of the mandible. Which of the following routines would best diagnose this fracture? 1. Parietoacanthial projection, axiolateral projection with a 30-degree rotation toward film, and lateral facial bone projection 2. PA mandible projection, axiolateral projection with a 45-degree rotation, and 35-degree AP axial projection 3. PA axial mandible projection, axiolateral projection with no rotation, and a 35-degree AP axial projection 4. PA mandible projection, axiolateral projection with a 45-degree rotation toward film, and submentovertex projection
3. Submentovertex, bilateral oblique tangential, and AP axial projections
Situation: A patient enters the ED with a possible fracture of the right zygomatic arch. Which of the following routines would best diagnose a possible fracture of this structure? 1. Submentovertex, parietoacanthial, and bilateral tangential superoinferior projections 2. Parietoacanthial, parieto-orbital, and lateral facial bone projections 3. Submentovertex, bilateral oblique tangential, and AP axial projections 4. Modified parietoacanthial, 15-degree PA Caldwell, and lateral facial bone projections
1. Parietoacanthial, lateral nasal bone, and superoinferior (axial) projections
Situation: A patient enters the ED with a possible nasal bone fracture. The physician is concerned about a possible bony nasal septum deviation, as well as fractured nasal bones. Which of the following routines would best diagnose these injuries? 1. Parietoacanthial, lateral nasal bone, and superoinferior (axial) projections 2. Modified parietoacanthial and lateral nasal bone projections 3. Modified parietoacanthial, submentovertex, and oblique axial projections 4. 15-degree PA Caldwell and lateral facial bone projections
D. A&B only
Which are the two lines or planes that should be checked carefully to insure a true lateral skull position? A. Midsagittal plane parallel B. Interpupillary line perpendicular C. Mentomeatal line perpendicular D. A&B only E. B&C only F. A&C only
5. D
Which aspect of the Scotty dog is the pedicle? 1. C 2. B 3. E 4. A 5. D
5. A
Which aspect of the Scotty dog is the superior articular process? 1. E 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A
5. E
Which aspect of the Scotty dog is the transverse process? 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. E
nucleus pulposus
Which aspect of the intervertebral disk is composed of semigelatinous material?
4. Nucleus pulposus
Which aspect of the intervertebral disk is composed of semigelatinous material? 1. Cauda equina 2. Annulus fibrosus 3. Conus medullaris 4. Nucleus pulposus
1. Condyloid process
Which aspect of the mandible is best demonstrated with an AP axial projection? 1. Condyloid process 2. Body 3. Mentum 4. Ramus
1. Pubis
Which bone of the pelvic girdle forms the anterior inferior aspect? 1. Pubis 2. Ischium 3. Ilium 4. Sacrum
3. Ischium, pubis, and ilium
Which bones fuse to form the acetabulum? 1. Pubis, ilium, and sacrum 2. Ilium and ischium 3. Ischium, pubis, and ilium 4. Ischium and pubis
2. Hemothorax
Which of the following conditions may occur with trauma to the ribs? 1. Pneumonia 2. Hemothorax 3. Pulmonary embolus 4. Airway obstruction of the trachea
A. Airway obstruction of the trachea B. Pneumonia C. Hemothorax D. Pulmonary embolus
Which of the following conditions may occur with trauma to the ribs? A. Airway obstruction of the trachea B. Pneumonia C. Hemothorax D. Pulmonary embolus
C. Vertebrae prominens
Which of the following could not be demonstrated on a true lateral skull radiograph? A. Superimposed halves of the cranium B. Sella turcica C. Vertebrae prominens D. Anterior & posterior clinoids
B. The entire sternum should lie over the heart shadow & be adjacent to the spine
Which of the following criteria apply to a radiograph for an evaluation of the oblique sternum? A. The entire sternum should be adjacent to the spine & adjacent to the heart shadow B. The entire sternum should lie over the heart shadow & be adjacent to the spine C. The left sternoclavicular joint should be adjacent to the spinal column D. The 2nd rib should lie directly over the manibrium of the sternum
2. Cervical
Which of the following curves is classified as being compensatory? 1. Thoracic 2. Cervical 3. None of the above 4. Sacral
2. Cervical
Which of the following curves is classified as being compensatory? 1. Sacral 2. Cervical 3. Thoracic 4. None of the above
C. Acantiomeatal line
Which of the following describes a line drawn between the acanthion and the E.A.M? A. Orbitomeatal line B. Infraorbitomeatal line C. Acantiomeatal line D. Mentomeatal line
2. Transverse foramina and double (bifid) tips on spinous processes
Which of the following features makes the cervical vertebra unique as compared with other vertebrae of the spine? 1. Overlapping vertebral bodies 2. Transverse foramina and double (bifid) tips on spinous processes 3. All of the above 4. Presence of zygapophyseal joints
B. 1 inch anterosuperior to the T.E.A
Which of the following is the centering (CRPR) used to center the entire cranium on a lateral skull projection? A. ¾ inch anterior & ¾ inch superior to the E.A.M B. 1 inch anterosuperior to the T.E.A C. 1 inch above inion D. ¾ inch below mentum
A. ¾ inch anterior & ¾ inch superior to the E.A.M
Which of the following is the centering(CRPR) used to center the sella turcica to the film on a lateral? A. ¾ inch anterior & ¾ inch superior to the E.A.M B. 1 inch anterosuperior to the T.E.A C. 1 inch above inion D. ¾ inch below mentum
Lacrimal Groove
Small depressed inferior opening on the lacrimal bone. Provides passageway fo the nasolacrimal duct (drains tears into nasal cavity).
Sella Turcia
Small depression in the midline of the sphenoid - house petuitary galnd (Turks Saddle)
Lacrimal Bone
Small fragile bone making up part of the front inner walls of each eye socket and providing room for the passage of the lacrimal ducts (2)
Frontanels
Soft spots in fetal skull
Which of the following structures is part of the lymphatic system?
Spleen
The term "gastro" refers to the:
Stomach
I
Stress from a severe whiplash type of injury may cause a fracture of the structure labeled _____.
Sagittal Suture
Suture uniting the two parietal bones
Jugular notch
T2-3 disk space is found at the level of the:
2. jugular notch.
T2-3 disk space is found at the level of the: 1. 2 inches (5 cm) below the jugular notch. 2. jugular notch. 3. xiphoid process. 4. sternal angle.
The jugular notch corresponds which vertebral level?
T2-T3
The xiphoid process is at the vertebral level of:
T9-10
The xiphoid process is at the vertebral level of:
T9-10.
The xiphoid process corresponds to which vertebral level?
T9-T10
Any anatomical structure that measures 9CMS or more should be done on screens or grids TRUE / FALSE
TRUE
In all the projections that demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa, the central ray is always perpendicular to the line of the lower leg. TRUE / FALSE
TRUE
In order to best demonstrate the patella, a PA projection should be done instead of an AP projection TRUE / FALSE
TRUE
The lateral projections of the knee are normally done with the lateral aspect of the knee in contact with the film surface. TRUE / FALSE
TRUE
External Auditory Meatus
Temporal bone openings for ear canal
Jugular Foramen
Temporal bone: foramen for jugular vein and crainial nerves 9, 10 and 11. Posterior to Carotid Canal
2. Glabelloalveolar
The CR must be placed parallel to the ____ positioning line for the superoinferior (tangential) projection of nasal bones. 1. Mentomeatal 2. Glabelloalveolar 3. Glabellomeatal 4. Lips-meatal
A. Glabella
The CRPR for the AP projection of the skull is _____ to the center of the film. A. Glabella B. Acanthion C. Inion D. Mentum
D. Frontal & ethmoid
The Caldwell position for the sinus series will best demonstrate the ____________sinus(es). A. Sphenoid & ethmoid B. Maxillary C. Ethmoid & maxillary D. Frontal & ethmoid
B. False
The LAO position of the sternum provides the best frontal image of the sternum with a minimal amount of distortion. A. True B. False
D. Floor of the orbits
The Modified Water's Projection of the facial bones is done to best demonstrate the: A. Supraorbital margin B. Maxillary sinuses C. Occipital bone D. Floor of the orbits E. None of the above
E. More than one, but not all of the above
The Submento-vertico projection is also known as the_________position. A. Lawrence B. Gaynor Hart C. Schuller's D. Bowen-Hirtz E. More than one, but not all of the above
petrous ridge
The TEA (top of ear attachment) corresponds to the level of the _______.
D. A&B only
The Townes projection is used to demonstrate which of the following? A. Occipital bone B. Dorsum sella within the foramen magnum C. Frontal portion D. A&B only E. A, B&C
C. Parito-Acanthial
The Water's is also known as the _________ projection. A. Fuchs B. Axillary C. Parito-Acanthial D. Vertico-Submental
B. Parieto-acanthial
The Water's position is also considered to be the _____________projection. A. Acanthio-parietal B. Parieto-acanthial C. Inferior-superior D. None of the above
B. Maxillary
The Water's position is done to demonstrate the _____________sinuses. A. Sphenoid B. Maxillary C. Ethmoid D. Frontal
sphenoid
The _______ bone acts as an anchor for all other cranial bones.
sphenoid
The _______ bone articulates with all other cranial bones.
sphenoid
The _______ bone contains the foramen ovale.
sagittal
The _______ suture separates the left and right parietal bones.
lambdoidal
The _______ suture separates the parietal bones from the occipital bone.
frontal, right parietal, left parietal, occiptal
The ________, _______, _______, and _______ are the four bones that make up the calvaria or skull cap.
atlanto-occipital or occipito-atlantal
The _________ joint is found between the lateral condylar processes of the skull and the superior articular process of C1.
coronal
The _________ suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones.
ethmoid, spheniod, left temporal, and right temporal
The _________, _________, _______ and ________ are the four bones that make up the floor of the cranium.
b. True
The adductor tubercle is located on the posterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle. a. False b. True
a. synovial; sellar
The ankle joint is a ____ joint with a ____ type of movement. a. synovial; sellar b. fibrous; ginglymus c. synovial; ginglymus d. fibrous; plane
b. B
Which of these labeled structures or bones identifies the navicular? a. C b. B c. A d. I
c. A
Which of these labeled structures or bones identifies the talus? a. J b. B c. A d. I
For the weight-bearing feet examination, the patient must be placed in the _________ position. A. Prone B. Supine C. Recumbent D. Erect
D. Erect
Pterygoid Lateral
Depresses and protracts the lower jaw
The prefix pyelo refers to:
Renal pelvis
3. Ultrasound
The imaging modality that has thankfully replaced cephalopelvimetry is: 1. Nuclear Medicine 2. MRI 3. Ultrasound 4. CT
On the AP semi-axial projection of the clavicle the central ray is directed: a. Perpendicular b. Horizontal c. 15-20 degrees caudal d. 15-20 degrees cephalic
d. 15-20 degrees cephalic
D. 30
19) In order to best demonstrate the body of the mandible in the Axial Lateral Oblique, the head must rotated ____________ degrees towards the film. A. 45 B. 90 C. 60 D. 30
Mandibular Notch
Notch / groove between the mandibular condyle and the coronoid process
C. C-4
On the A.P. cervical spine projection the central ray enters at the level of: A. T-7 B. C-1 C. C-4 D. C-7
A. T-7
On the A.P. thoracic spine projection the central ray enters at the level of: A. T-7 B. T-12 C. C-4 D. T-1
3. 15; 15
The modified Law method for TMJ requires a ____ -degree rotation of the skull and a ____-degree angle of the CR. 1. 10; 15 2. 5; 0 3. 15; 15 4. 0; 25- to 30
a. sinus tarsi
The opening in the middle of the talocalcaneal joint refers to the: a. sinus tarsi b. flabella c. nutrient foramen d. sustentaculum tali
O
The part vertebral foramen is labeled _____.
C4
The thyroid cartilage generally corresponds to the level of:
2. C4-6.
The thyroid cartilage generally corresponds to the level of: 1. C1-2. 2. C4-6. 3. C6-7. 4. C7-T1.
3. 50 to 100 mrad.
The thyroid dose range received for an AP axial (Towne method) skull is: 1. 0 to 5 mrad. 2. 250 to 500 mrad. 3. 50 to 100 mrad. 4. 10 to 20 mrad.
Mandible Angle
The turn of the mandible fromt the body to the ramus
B. Away
To properly elongate & visualize the axillary aspect of the ribs the patient's spine should be rotated _____ the area of interest. A. Toward B. Away
Where should the central ray enter for a dorsoplantar projection of the foot? A. 3rd metatarsophalangeal joint B. Base of the 3rd metatarsal C. Anterior talus D. 1st cuneiform
B. Base of the 3rd metatarsal
The survival rate for liver transplant is about what percent?
90
On the dorsoplantar projection of the foot the central ray is directed _________ cephalad. A. 10 degrees B. 20 degrees C. 25 degrees D. 45 degrees
A. 10 degrees
The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the settegast projection is: A. 80 degrees B. 120 Degrees C. 180 degrees D. 45 degrees
A. 80 degrees
Where should the central ray be directed for an A.P. projection of the knee joint? A. 1 CM proximal to the base of patella B. 1 CM distal to the apex of patella C. 1 CM distal to the base of patella D. Parallel to patellar surface
B. 1 CM distal to the apex of patella
The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the lateral projection of the knee is: A. 90 degrees B. 150-160 degrees C. 80 degrees D. 120 degrees
B. 150-160 degrees
Sphenoid Bone
Butterfly-shaped bone at the base of the skull (1)
In the Johnson's Method of the hip the central-ray has a double angle of _____ degrees superiorly and _____ degrees posteriorly. a. 10, 20 b. 15, 15 C. 25, 25 D. 45, 45
C. 25, 25
In order to demonstrate the S.I. joints the patient should be in this position: a. Prone b. Supine C. Oblique D. Lateral
C. Oblique
The xiphoid process is at the vertebral level of: A. L2-3. B. T2-3. C. T9-10. D. T5-6.
C. T9-10.
The degree of angle formed by the leg and thigh in the holmblad projection is: A. 120 degrees B. 80 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 110 degrees
D. 110 degrees
Infraorbital Foramen
Hole beneath eye sockets
C3
The gonion corresponds to the level of:
The C-loop is another name for the:
duodenal bulb
coronal suture
label c:
Supraorbital margin
the superior border, or margin, of the eye socket
C. Zygapophyseal joints
2. The oblique position of the lumbar spine is used to best demonstrate which of the following? A. Intervertebral spaces B. Intervertebral foramina C. Zygapophyseal joints D. Bodies
D. 15 degrees cephalad
. Which of the following angles is required for an A.P. projection of the sacrum? A. 5 degrees caudad B. 5 degrees cephalad C. 15 degrees caudad D. 15 degrees cephalad
What percentage of polyps will convert into cancer?
1
The superior margin of the greater trochanter is approximately ____ inches superior to the symphysis pubis.
1 to 1½ (2½ to 4 cm)
What percentage of polyps will convert into cancer?
1%
C. Flexed
1. The A.P projection of the lumbar Spine requires the legs to be to better visualize the disk spaces. A. Inverted B. Everted C. Flexed D. Abducted
The xiphoid process generally doesn't calcify until the age of
40 years
The settegast projection of the knee best demonstrates an axial view of the: A. Head of fibular B. Intercondyloid fossa C. Patella D. Tibial tuberosity
C. Patella
Which of the following factors must be observed for an AP erect abdomen projection? A. Collimate lower border to level of ASIS. B. Use a higher kV technique. C. Patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes prior to imaging. D. Increase SID to 72 inches (180 cm) to minimize magnification.
C. Patient needs to be upright a minimum of 5 minutes prior to imaging.
On a good radiograph of the hip the _____ should not be seen (demonstrated). a. Neck of the femur b. Greater trochanters C. Head of femur D. Lesser trochanters
D. Lesser trochanters
The right anterior oblique position will best demonstrate the sacro-iliac joint _____ to the film surface. A. Closest B. Farthest
A. Closest
4. Arcelin method
Which of the following projections will provide an anterior profile image of the petrous bone? 1. Modified Law method 2. Stenvers method 3. Schuller method 4. Arcelin method
A. Modified Waters
Which of the following projections would be used to demonstrate blow-out fractures? A. Modified Waters B. Rhese C. PA Mandible D. Lateral Facial Bones
D. Lateral projection
Which of the following projections would best demonstrate the intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine? A. LPO oblique B. RPO oblique C. A.P. projection D. Lateral projection
B. Lateral projection
Which of the following projections would best demonstrate the intervertebral spaces of the lumbar spine? A. A.P. projection B. Lateral projection C. Medial-lateral projection D. Lateral-medial projection
C. LPO
6. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the left ribs? A. AP B. PA C. LPO D. LAO
The liver weights how many pounds?
7
For the oblique position (radiograph) of the foot, the foot and leg should be rotated _________. A. Laterally B. Medially C. Dorsi-flexed D. None of the above
B. Medially
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. With the patient erect, an adequate inspiratory effort is indicated by the visualization of: A. 10 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms B. 8 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms C. 6 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms D. 4 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms
A. 10 pairs of ribs above the diaphragms
A radiographic image of the sternoclavicular joints is obtained in the PA oblique projection. The proper degree of obliquity to best evaluate an affected SC joint is a: A. 10-15 rotation B. 25-35 degree rotation C. 45-55 degrees rotation D. 60-70 degrees rotation
A. 10-15 rotation
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA oblique projection in the RAO position. The patient is placed with their right shoulder in contact with the IR and their left hand on the hip. In order to demonstrate pulmonary diseases the patient should be rotated: A. 10-20 degrees from the plane of the IR b. 25-35 degrees from the plane of the IR c. 45-60 degrees from the plane of the IR d. 75-85 degrees from the plane of the IR
A. 10-20 degrees from the plane of the IR
For the AP projection of the pelvis, the feet and legs should be rotated _____. A. 15-20 degrees internally B. 5-12 degrees externally C. 10-15 degrees externally D. parallel
A. 15-20 degrees internally
The malleoli are used as landmarks when making a radiograph of the: A. Ankle B. Knee C. Elbow D. Foot
A. Ankle
Which of the following must be done for a properly positioned A.P. projection of the ankle? A. Ankle joint dorsi-flexed B. Tube angled 10 degrees cephalad C. Plantar surface touching film D. All of the above
A. Ankle joint dorsi-flexed
A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the lateral projection. If the lower vertebral column is not elevated to the horizontal position, the CR should be directed to the level of T7 at a: A. Cephalic angulation of 10-15 degrees B. Caudal angulation of 25-35 degrees C. Caudal angulation of 10-15 degrees D. Cephalic angulation of 25-30 degrees
A. Cephalic angulation of 10-15 degrees
In order to obtain a lateral projection of the cervical spine in flexion, the patient is placed in the true lateral position with the: A. Chin lowered toward the chest B. Chin raised as much as possible C. Body of the mandible parallel to the floor D. Ramus of the mandible parallel to the floor
A. Chin lowered toward the chest
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the AP projection. With the patient supine, the scapulae can be rotated away from the lung fields by: A. Flexing the elbows and pronating the hands B. Raising the arms over the head of the patient C. Supinating the hands and elbows D. Abducting the upper arms 90 degrees
A. Flexing the elbows and pronating the hands
A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the AP projection. With the patient supine, the normal degree of kyphosis can be reduced by: A. Flexing the knees B. Fully extending the legs C. Inverting the toes by 15 degrees D. Raising the arms above the head
A. Flexing the knees
The suspended breathing technique on an erect abdomen is applied in order to demonstrate: A. Free air under the diaphragm B. Both apices of the lung field C. The urinary bladder D. Both iliac crests
A. Free air under the diaphragm
Choose the conversion factor that is used in converting from a non-cast technique to a cast technique. A. Increase 6-10 Kvp B. Decrease 6-10 Kvp C. Double Mass D. Decrease Mass
A. Increase 6-10 Kvp
Where should the central ray enter for an A.P. projection of the 1st toe? A. Interphalangeal joint B. Proximal interphalangeal joint C. Distal interphalangeal D. 1st metatarsal phalangeal joint
A. Interphalangeal joint
A radiographic image of the right sacroiliac (SI) joint is to be obtained in the AP oblique projection. The patient should be placed in the: A. LPO position with the affected joint farthest from the IR B. RPO position with the affected joint farthest from the IR C. LAO position with the affected joint closest to the IR D. RAO position with the affected joint closest to the IR
A. LPO position with the affected joint farthest from the IR
A radiographic image of the odontoid process is obtained in the AP projection open-mouth position. The patient should open the mouth as wide as possible with a line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisor to the: A. Mastoid tip placed perpendicular to the IR B. Mental process placed perpendicular to the IR C. External auditory meatus placed perpendicular to the IR D. Inion (EOP) placed perpendicular to the IR
A. Mastoid tip placed perpendicular to the IR
To demonstrate the tibio-fibular articulation of the proximal lower leg you would position the leg in a : A. Medial oblique B. External oblique C. Lateral D. Anterior Posterior
A. Medial oblique
A radiographic image of the odontoid process (dens) is obtained in the AP projection open mouth position. The resultant radiograph demonstrates the occipital bone obscuring the dens. in order to correct for this positioning error, the radiographer should: A. Tuck the patient's chin closer to the chest B. Raise the patient's chin farther away from the chest C. Oblique the patient's head by 10 degrees D. Place the head in the lateral position
A. Tuck the patient's chin closer to the chest
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. Which body position and phase of respiration will move the diaphragms to their lowest position? A. The erect position with inspiration B. The erect position with expiration C. The supine position with inspiration D. the supine position with expiration
A. The erect position with inspiration
In Which direction does the diaphragm move on expiration? A. Up B. Down C. Medial D. Lateral
A. Up
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA oblique projection. With the patient in the LAO position the maximum area of the lung demonstrated is on: A. The right side of the thorax B. The left side of the thorax
A. The right side of the thorax
Motion of the patient's diaphragm can be stopped by providing proper breathing instructions. A. True B. False
A. True
The most common type of involuntary motion in the abdomen is peristalsis. A. True B. False
A. True
At what level should the CR be placed for an AP lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen? A. Iliac crest B. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest C. ASIS D. Umbilicus
B. 2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest
A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the lateral projection. The patient's arms should be elevated no more than 90 degrees from the body. Any more than this will cause: 1. The correction of an abnormal amount of kyphosis 2. The scapulae to obscure the upper thoracic vertebrae 3. Unwanted discomfort to the patient A. 1 only C. 3 only B. 2 only D 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 only
When doing a lateral projection of the knee, the joint is flexed approximately: A. 5-10 degrees B. 20-30 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 45 degrees
B. 20-30 degrees
A radiographic image of the right sacroiliac (SI) joint is to be obtained in the AP oblique projection. The joint space is best visualized when the patient is rotated: A. 15 degrees to the plane of the IR B. 25 degrees to the plane of the IR C. 45 degrees to the plane of the IR D. 70 degrees to the plane of the IR
B. 25 degrees to the plane of the IR
For an oblique view of the foot, how many degrees should the foot be rotated? A. 15 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 60 degrees D. 90 degrees
B. 30 degrees
To obtain a semiaxial projection of the calcaneus, the number of degrees the central ray is directed cephalad to the long axis of the foot is: A. 30 degrees B. 40 degrees C. 50 degrees D. 25 degrees
B. 40 degrees
Which of the following is the preferred distance for radiography of the abdomen? A. 36 inches B. 40 inches C. 60 inches D. 72 inches
B. 40 inches
A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in teh AP axial oblique projection to demnstrate open intervertebral foramina. This projection requires the cervical spine be rotated: A. 20 degrees away from the IR B. 45 degrees away from the IR C. 60 degrees away from the IR D. 90 degrees away from the IR
B. 45 degrees away from the IR
In the anterior posterior projection of the knee joint the central ray is directed: A. Perpendicularly B. 5 degrees cephalad C. 10 degrees cephalad D. 25 degrees caphalad
B. 5 degrees cephalad
Which of the following radiographic images are most often obtained to evaluate a patient with lateral scoliosis of the thoracic spine? A. An Ap projection with the patient supine B. A PA projection with the patient erect C. A lateral projection with the patient recumbent D. A lateral projection with the patient erect
B. A PA projection with the patient erect
Which projection of the spinal column will most likely demonstrate a kyphotic curve of the spine? A. An AP axial projection of the cervical spine B. A lateral projection of the thoracic spine C. An AP projection of the lumbar spine D. A lateral projection of the cervical spine
B. A lateral projection of the thoracic spine
Which projection of the chest is most commonly used for the demonstration of the interlobar effusions and to give an unobstructed view of the pulmonary apices? A. PA oblique projection with the patient RAO B. AP axial (Lindholm) projection C. AP projection with the patient in the ventral decubitus position D. Axiolateral (Twining) projection
B. AP axial (Lindholm) projection
A radiographic image of the thoracic spine is obtained in the lateral projection. What action can be taken to prevent the ribs from obscuring the intervertebral foramina? A. Directing the CR 15 degrees caudal B. Adjusting the arms to right angles C. Taking the exposure on full inhalation D. Directing the CR 5 degrees caudal
B. Adjusting the arms to right angles
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the space between the patella and the femur? A. A.P. B. Axial C. Internal oblique D. External oblique
B. Axial
What is another name for an A.P. projection of the foot? A. Subtalar projection B. Dorsoplantar projection C. Plantodorsal projection D. Semi-axial projection
B. Dorsoplantar projection
B. A.P.
Which of the following projections would best demonstrate the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae? A. Lateral B. A.P. C. 45 degree oblique D. 70 degree oblique
Which of the following views would show the os calcis best? A. A.P. foot B. Lateral foot C. Metatarsal projection D. Oblique projection of foot
B. Lateral foot
In a correctly positioned radiograph of the AP pelvis the _____ should not be demonstrated (seen). A. Greater Trochanters B. Lesser Trochanters C. Necks of femur D. All of the above
B. Lesser Trochanters
The answer to question #4 is performed to place the femur _____ to the film surface. A. Head, perpendicular B. Neck, parallel C. Coracoid, perpendicular D. Acetabulum, parallel E. None of the above
B. Neck, parallel
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. If the thoracic viscera and the heart are of primary interest, the patient should be asked to suspend respiration at the end of: A. Full inspiration B. Normal inspiration C. Full expiration D. Normal expiration
B. Normal inspiration
The projection of the chest that is commonly employed for the demonstration of free fluid in the costophrenic recess is the: A. AP projection with the patient supine B. PA projection with the patient erect C. AP axial projection with the patient erect D. Lateral projection with the patient recombinant
B. PA projection with the patient erect
A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP axial oblique projection. The projection is commonly used for the evaluation of the: A. Pedicles closest to the IR B. Pedicles farthest from the IR C. Sinus processes closest to the IR D. Sinus process farthest from the IR
B. Pedicles farthest from the IR
According to Ballinger, for the AP frogleg pelvis projection the central ray is angled ______ the the film surface. A. 40 degrees cephalic B. Perpendicular C. 10-15 degrees cephalic D. None of the above
B. Perpendicular
Why is the right kidney usually lower than the left? A. Presence of right colic flexure B. Presence of the liver C. Presence of the stomach D. Presence of right suprarenal gland
B. Presence of the liver
If one wished to demonstrate the distal tibio-fibular articulation of the lower leg, he would: A. Rotate the leg laterally B. Rotate the leg medially C. Leave it in the P.A. projection D. Angle the tube laterally and caudally 15 degrees E. None of the above
B. Rotate the leg medially
A radiograph of an AP projection of the abdomen reveals that the right iliac wing is wider than the left. What type of positioning error was involved? A. Rotation toward the left B. Rotation toward the right C. No rotation
B. Rotation toward the right
A radiographic image of the atlas and axis is obtained in the AP (open mouth) projection. In order to keep the tongue in the floor of the mouth the patient is instructed to: A. Breath rapidly during the exposure B. Softly phonate "ah" during the exposure C. Slowly expire during the exposure D. Suspend respiration during the exposure
B. Softly phonate "ah" during the exposure
The axial projection of the patella is also referred to as: A. Oblique B. Sunrise C. Dorsoplantar D. Tunnels
B. Sunrise
For the beclere projection of the knee the patient's torso (body) is: A. Prone B. Supine C. Lateral recumbent D. Upright
B. Supine
What are the breathing instructions for a patient who is having an AP supine abdomen radiograph? A. Suspended inspiration B. Suspended expiration C. Shallow respiration D. Suspended respiration
B. Suspended expiration
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the lateral projection. With the patient erect in the left lateral position, the CR should be directed perpendicular to the midcoronal plane at the level of the: A. T-5 B. T-7 C. T-8 D. T-10
B. T-7
The A.P. projection of the ankle will NOT clearly demonstrate the: A. Distal tibia B. Inferior tibio-fibular articulation C. Lower end of the femur D. Upper portion of the astragalus
C. Lower end of the femur
In order to best demonstrate the stability of the longitudinal arch of the foot in the weight feet radiographs, the _________ aspect of the foot should be placed closest to the film. A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Medial D. Lateral
C. Medial
Why is the left lateral decubitus preferred over the right lateral decubitus abdomen? A. It is more comfortable for the patient. B. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the spleen. C. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin away from gastric bubble. D. It allows any gas in the large intestine to move toward the liver.
C. Any intraperitoneal air will be visualized along the lower liver margin away from gastric bubble.
What is the best method to control voluntary motion during abdominal radiography? A. Long exposure time B. Second breath hold C. Careful instructions to patient D. Use of small focal spot
C. Careful instructions to patient
A radiographic image is obtained in the lateral (Twining) projection or swimmer's position. This projection is most commonly employed for the evaluation of the: A. Atlanto-occipital region of the spine B. Atlanto-axial region of the spine C. Cervicothoracic region of the spine D. Lumbosacral region of the spine
C. Cervicothoracic region of the spine
A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the lateral projection. The use of a radiographic grid is generally NOT required because of the scatter reduction that occurs: A. From the use of the anode heel effect B. From the use of a cylinder or cone C. From the use of the natural air gap D. From the use of a high kVp technique
C. From the use of the natural air gap
What bony landmark is used to center a supine abdomen radiograph? A. Lumbar vertebrae 4-5 B. Symphasis pubis C. Iliac crest D. Xyphoid process
C. Iliac crest
The tunnel (homblad) projection of the knee demonstrates the: A. Glenoid fossa B. Knee joint C. Intercondyloid fossa D. Patella
C. Intercondyloid fossa
A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP axial oblique projection. This projection is commonly used for the evaluation of the: A. Vertebral foramina farthest from the IR B. Transverse foramina farthest from the IR C. Intrevertebral foramina farthest from the IR D. Zygpophyseal articulations farthest from the IR
C. Intrevertebral foramina farthest from the IR
In the AP pelvis projection, the feet & legs must be _____. A. Everted B. Flexed C. Inverted D. Extended
C. Inverted
A radiographic image of the chest is obtained in the PA projection. This projection is preferred over the AP projection because: A. The diaphragms are in their lowest position B. It opens the aortic arch C. It places the heart closer to the IR D. It places the clavicles above the apices
C. It places the heart closer to the IR
Which aspect of the foot is normally closest to the film for a lateral projection? A. Plantar B. Dorsal C. Lateral D. Medial
C. Lateral
The projection to demonstrate the stability of the longitudinal arch of the foot is: A. Dorsoplantar B. Oblique dorsoplantar C. Lateral weight-bearing D. Axial
C. Lateral weight-bearing
The medial oblique position of the ankle radiograph is also known as the _______ view. A. Thomas B. Jones C. Mortise D. None of the above
C. Mortise
For the Shoot-thru Lateral of the hip, the film should be positioned vertically and parallel to the _____ of the femur. a. Greater trochanters b. Shaft C. Neck D. Epicondyles
C. Neck
The answer to question #4 is performed to best demonstrate the _____ of the femur. a. Heads b. Acetabulum C. Necks D. Lesser trochanters
C. Necks
With the foot and lower leg rotated medially 45 degrees what position of the ankle would be obtained? A. A.P. B. Semi-axial C. Oblique D. Steep lateral
C. Oblique
An acute abdominal series (3 way series) consists of the following positions/projections. A. AP, PA, oblique abdomen B. AP,PA, and lateral abdomen C. PA chest erect, AP supine abdomen, AP erect abdomen D. None of the above
C. PA chest erect, AP supine abdomen, AP erect abdomen
Which one of the following projections involves a kV setting of 110 to 125? A. Erect abdomen for ascites B. Supine abdomen for intra-abdominal mass C. PA, erect chest for free air under diaphragm D. Dorsal decubitus abdomen for calcified aorta
C. PA, erect chest for free air under diaphragm
In the AP external projection of the shoulder, the epicondylar plane is _________ to the film surface. A. Perpendicular B. 45 degrees C. Parallel D. 90 degrees
C. Parallel
A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP axial projection to demonstrate the lower cervical vertebrae. The CR should be directed 15 degrees cephalic to enter at the: A. Mental point B. Gonion C. Thyroid cartilage D. Hyoid bone
C. Thyroid cartilage
Situation: A 3-year-old patient comes to radiology for an abdominal study. Even with careful instructions and immobilization, the patient is having difficulty holding still. Which of the following should be done to minimize motion on the radiograph? A. Increase kV. B. Decrease SID. C. Use a shorter exposure time. D. Ask an older experienced radiographer to hold patient.
C. Use a shorter exposure time.
According to Ballinger, the AP frogleg pelvis, when done on newborns will demonstrate: A. Ilium best B. Greater trochanters C. fractures D. Congenital hip defects
D. Congenital hip defects
Situation: A patient comes to radiology with possible bleeding within the abdomen. The patient is unable to stand or sit for any projections. Which of the following projections would be most effective in demonstrating bleeding within the stomach for this patient? A. AP KUB B. AP supine chest C. Right lateral dorsal decubitus D. Left lateral decubitus
D. Left lateral decubitus
Situation: A patient is in ICU after abdominal surgery. The surgeon is concerned about a possible perforated bowel. The patient can't stand or sit. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate any possible intra-abdominal free air? A. Right lateral decubitus B. Prone KUB C. Ventral decubitus D. Left lateral decubitus
D. Left lateral decubitus
According to the textbook Ballinger (I'm sure you read it!) the Modified Cleaves Method of the pelvis is also known as the: A. Danelius-miller B. Leonard george pelvis C. AP hip D. Frogleg pelvis
D. Frogleg pelvis
If the patient that is scheduled to have an abdomen radiograph informs you that she is pregnant, you should: A. Disregard information and continue with the study B. Cancel the study and let the patient leave C. Perform the study and tell Mr. Narvaez in class D. Inform the radiologist and wait for further instructions
D. Inform the radiologist and wait for further instructions
A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP axial projection. A 15-20 degree cephalic angulation of the CR should be employed to better define the: A. Cervical rib facets B. Cartilage of the larynx C. Atlanto-occipital joint D. Intervertebral disk spaces
D. Intervertebral disk spaces
A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the PA axial oblique projection. This projection is commonly employed to demonstrate: A. Vertebral foramina closest to the IR B Transverse foramina closest to the IR C. Zygapophyseal articulations closest to the IR D. Intervertebral foramina closest to the IR
D. Intervertebral foramina closest to the IR
What do the letters K.U.B. stand for? A. Dr. Kub B. Kidneys, uterus, bladder C. Kidneys, umbilicus, bowel D. Kidneys, ureters, bladder
D. Kidneys, ureters, bladder
Which of the following radiographic projections of the cervical spine should be obtained to demonstrate articulations between the superior and inferior articulating processes of the cervical vertebrae? A. Anteroposterior axial projection B. AP axial (Pillar) projection C. AP axial oblique projection D. Lateral projection
D. Lateral projection
Which radiographic projection of the cervical spine will most clearly demonstrate the spinous process of the cervical vertebra? A. AP axial projection B. PA oblique projection C. Axiolateral projection D. Lateral projection
D. Lateral projection
In the lateral projection of the ankle routine, the malleolar plane is positioned _________ to the film surface. A. Horizontal B. Parallel C. Oblique D. Perpendicular
D. Perpendicular
A radiographic image of the cervical spine is obtained in the AP (Ottonello) projection while the patient is asked to open and close their mouth during the exposure. This maneuver is employed in the evaluation of: A. Basilar fractures B. Cervical instability C. Cervical tumors D. The entire cervical spine
D. The entire cervical spine
A radiographic image of the odontoid process is obtained in the AP (Fuchs) projection. The chin should be extended until: A. The infra-orbital margin is parallel to the IR B. The acanthion and glabella are vertical C. The lower incisors are perpendicular to the IR D. The tip of the chin and mastoid process at vertical
D. The tip of the chin and mastoid process at vertical
A radiograph of an AP KUB reveals that the obturator foramina are cut off from the bottom of the image receptor. The kidneys and symphysis pubis are demonstrated. What centering adjustments should the technologist make to improve this image? A. Use two 35 x 42 cm (14 x 17 inch) cassettes crosswise. B. Center the cassette 2 inches (5 cm) below the iliac crest. C. Open up the collimators to include the ischial tuberosities. D. This radiograph is correctly centered. No centering adjustments are needed.
D. This radiograph is correctly centered. No centering adjustments are needed
If a patient is in traction for a cervical spine injury, the radiographic image should normally be obtained: A. After removing the patient from the traction apparatus B. After removing the weights from the traction apparatus C. With patient in acute flexion and extension D. Without adjusting the traction apparatus
D. Without adjusting the traction apparatus
3. Axiolateral (Schuller)
Which of the following projections requires a 25- to 30-degree caudad CR angle with the head in a true lateral position? 1. AP axial (Towne) 2. Posterior profile (Stenvers) 3. Axiolateral (Schuller) 4. Axiolateral oblique (modified Law)
D. Nasal Septum
During routine radiography of the Nasal Bones, the Water's projection is taken to demonstrate the: A. Anterior Nasal Spine B. Nasal Turbinates C. Nasal Conchae D. Nasal Septum
C. Submentovertex or SMV
Which of the following projections requires the central ray to enter below the mentum and exit at the vertex? A. Townes or AP axial B. Lateral C. Submentovertex or SMV D. PA or Caldwell
frontal
The ethmoid notch is part of the ______ bone.
d. AP scapula
Which of the following projections should be performed using a breathing technique? a. AP clavicle b. Inferosuperior axiolateral projection c. Scapular Y lateral projection d. AP scapula
1. Parietoacanthial
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the bony nasal septum? 1. Parietoacanthial 2. Lateral nasal bone 3. AP axial projection 4. Lateral facial bone
C. Lower outer quadrant
The evaluation criteria for the projection mentioned on question 04 the optical canal (foramen) should lie in _______ of the orbit. A. Lower inner quadrant B. Upper outer quadrant C. Lower outer quadrant D. Upper inner quadrant
a. True
The female clavicle is usually shorter and less curved than that of the male. a. True b. False
2. Submentovertex
Which of the following projections of the mandible results in the highest skin dose? 1. AP axial 2. Submentovertex 3. PA axial 4. Axiolateral
b. fibrous.
The distal tibiofibular joint is classified as: a. synarthrodial. b. fibrous. c. synovial. d. diarthrodial.
Bregma
The anterior fontanel becomes the ___________ in the adult skull.
2. promontory of the sacrum.
The anterior projecting bony process of the sacrum that forms part of the inlet of the true pelvis is the: 1. apex of coccyx. 2. promontory of the sacrum. 3. sacral foramina. 4. body of S1.
b. costal surface.
The anterior surface of the scapula is referred to as the: a. supraspinous and infraspinous fossa. b. costal surface. c. scapular surface. d. dorsal surface.
Zygomatic Bone (malar)
The arch of bone beneath the eye that forms the prominence of the cheek (2)
D
The body of C2 is labeled _____.
Occipital Bone
The bone found at the back and base of the skull
2. pedicles.
The bony structures connected directly to the vertebral body are the: 1. transverse processes. 2. pedicles. 3. laminae. 4. articular processes.
Pedicles
The bony structures connected directly to the vertebral body are the: Paragraph
a. cuboid.
The calcaneus articulates with the talus and the: a. cuboid. b. navicular. c. medial cuneiform. d. lateral cuneiform.
ethmoid
The cribiform plate is part of the ________ bone.
A. True
The degree of rotation for the RAO projection of the sternum is dependent on the size of the thoracic cavity. A. True B. False
D. Nasion
The depression at the bridge of the nose or the junction of two nasal bones and frontal bone is termed: A. Gonion B. Vertex C. Inion D. Nasion
2. Modified Law method
Which of the following projections of the mastoids provides a lateral view of the mastoids? 1. Towne method 2. Modified Law method 3. Arcelin method 4. Stenvers method
2. Pectus excavatum
Which condition of the sternum is often termed "funnel chest?" 1. Flail chest 2. Pectus excavatum 3. Pectus deforminens 4. Pectus eruptus
MRI
Which imaging modality will best demonstrate HNP in the cervical spine?
1. MRI
Which imaging modality will best demonstrate HNP in the cervical spine? 1. MRI 2. CT 3. Nuclear medicine 4. Hyperflexion and hyperextension lateral projections
1. E
Which labeled structure in the Figure corresponds to the ear of the Scotty dog on an oblique projection of the lumbar spine? 1. E 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B
5. D
Which labeled structure in the Figure corresponds to the nose of the Scotty dog on an oblique lumbar spine projection? 1. A 2. C 3. E 4. B 5. D
1. B
Which labeled structure is the inferior articular process? 1. B 2. E 3. D 4. C 5. A
4. C
Which labeled structure is the pars interarticularis? 1. A 2. E 3. D 4. C 5. B
a. Fifth
Which metatarsal bone of the foot has a prominent tuberosity frequently fractured? a. Fifth b. Third c. Fourth d. First
D. Seventh
Which of the cervical vertebrae has the most prominent spinous process? A. First B. Third C. Fifth D. Seventh
A. Lateral & PA or Caldwell
Which of the following are usually included in a routine skull series? A. Lateral & PA or Caldwell B. Townes C. Submentovertex D. Waters and Rhese E. A&B only F. A&C only
d. None of the above
Which of the following arm positions demonstrates the greater tubercle in profile medially? a. Neutral rotation b. External rotation c. Internal rotation d. None of the above
c. Internal rotation
Which of the following arm positions demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially? a. Neutral rotation b. External rotation c. Internal rotation d. None of the above
1. Ischial spine
Which of the following bony structures cannot be palpated? 1. Ischial spine 2. Symphysis pubis 3. ASIS 4. Ischial tuberosity
4. Ischial spine
Which of the following bony structures cannot be palpated? 1. Symphysis pubis 2. Ischial tuberosity 3. ASIS 4. Ischial spine
d. Scapulohumeral joint
Which of the following joints is considered to have a spheroidal type of movement? a. Bicipital joint b. Acromioclavicular joints c. Sternoclavicular joints d. Scapulohumeral joint
4. A grid should be used.
Which of the following points is not true about the oblique inferosuperior (tangential) projection of the zygomatic arches? 1. It requires both rotation and tilt of the skull. 2. A small focal spot should be used. 3. The AEC should not be used. 4. A grid should be used.
B. A.P. open mouth
Which of the following positions is usually used to demonstrate the odontoid process? A. A.P. B. A.P. open mouth C. 45 degree oblique D. Lateral
1. Lateral
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine? 1. Lateral 2. Posterior obliques 3. Anterior obliques 4. AP axial
2. Lateral
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine? 1. Posterior obliques 2. Lateral 3. Anterior obliques 4. AP axial
D. Flexion and extension laterals
Which of the following positions would be required to demonstrate the mobility of the cervical spine? A. A.P. and P.A. projections B. Inversion and eversion obliques C. Internal and external rotation D. Flexion and extension laterals
B. PA or Caldwell
Which of the following projections are used to best demonstrate the frontal bone and a general survey of the cranium? A. Towne or PA axial B. PA or Caldwell C. AP projection D. None of the above E. All of the above
3. AP axial, CR 30 degrees caudal to IOML
Which of the following projections for the sella turcica best visualizes the anterior clinoid processes? 1. PA, CR 0 degrees to OML 2. PA axial, CR 25 degrees cephalad to OML 3. AP axial, CR 30 degrees caudal to IOML 4. AP axial, CR 37 degrees caudal to IOML
C. Lateral projection
Which of the following projections is used to demonstrate the superimposed halves of the cranium & sella turcica? A. Waters projection B. Submentovertex C. Lateral projection D. AP projection