Treatment and Rehabilitation
A cross-country runner comes to you because he would like to begin a strength-training program for general body development. He informs you that he "has never really lifted weights before". How would you instruct him regarding his breathing pattern during a lift? A. Have the athlete inhale deeply at the beginning of the lift and then forcefully exhale at the end of the lift B. Have the athlete hold his breath during the lift C. Have the athlete inhale during the lift and hold his breath at the end of the lift D. Have the athlete breathe in, blow out, and breathe in again at the end of the lift E. Breathe normally
A
A moist heat pack offers what type of thermotherapy? A. Superficial B. Deep C. Cutaneous D. Surface E. None of the above
A
A patient is seen by the AT 4 weeks post-op after shoulder arthroscopy. During the AT's assessment, it is found that the patient has limited abduction secondary to capsular stiffness. Which of the following joint glides would be appropriate to improve this motion? A. Inferior humeral glide B. Anterior humeral glide C. Posterior humeral glide D. Superior humeral glide E. All of the above/combined glides
A
According to Maitland's 5 grades of joint motion, which grade would be most appropriate when joint movement is limited by pain and spasm? A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V
A
All of the following muscles form the pes anserinus muscle group except: A. Semimembranosus B. Semitendinosus C. Gracilis D. Sartorius E. B and D
A
Although no cure exists for myasthenia gravis, medical treatment to minimize the symptoms include which of the following? A. Medications that act on the neuromuscular junction B. Cold laser C. Skeletal muscle relaxants D. Radiation E. Antipyretic drugs
A
During a D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity, what is the proper timing sequence? A. Shoulder extension, forearm pronation, finger flexion B. Shoulder flexion, scapular retraction, finger extension C. Shoulder abduction, forearm supination, finger extension D. Shoulder extension, forearm supination, finger flexion E. None of the above
A
Electric stim currents are classified into 3 categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories? A. Interferential current B. Direct current C. Pulsed current D. Alternating current E. Galvanic current
A
Heat is dissipated in the body by all of the following except: A. Shivering B. Convection C. The lungs D. Sweat evaporation E. Vasodilation
A
Herpes simplex labialis is caused by which of the following? A. Virus B. Fungus C. Bacterial D. Parasite E. None of the above
A
High voltage puled stimulation may be used as an adjunct treatment in controlling acute and chronic pain through which 2 mechanisms? A. Gate control and opiate release mechanisms B. Gate control and histamine release mechanisms C. Analgesia production and counterirritation D. Edema control and spasm reduction E. Stimulation of both motor and sensory nerves
A
If hyperventilation does not adequately increase the oxygen supply in the blood during aerobic exercise, what must occur to meet the gas exchange demands? A. Increased cardiac output B. Decreased cardiac output C. Supplemental iron pills must be provided D. The activity must be discontinued E. None of the above
A
It is important to set specific short and long term goals when developing a treatment program. Goals serve all the following purposes except: A. Insure full reimbursement from a third-party payer B. Identify outcomes C. Measure the effectiveness of the treatment protocol D. Establish timelines of the treatment program E. Allows the athlete to be a part of the treatment
A
One of your patients has been diagnosed with Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease. Which of the following is not appropriate when advising the patient in regard to minimizing his symptoms? A. To increase the strength of the vastus medialis obliquus muscle with isotonic quad strengthening exercises B. Use ice packs frequently to minimize pain and swelling C. Avoid stressful activities, such as running, for approx. 6 months D. Avoid deep squatting E. All of the above
A
Physiologic adaptations of the respiratory system during aerobic endurance training include all of the following except: A. Reduced submaximal heart rate B. Enhanced oxygen exchange within the lungs C. Decreased submaximal pulmonary ventilation D. Improved circulation throughout the lungs E. B and D
A
The female athlete triad describes the simultaneous presence of which of the following? A. An eating disorder, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis B. Depression, premenstrual syndrome, and osteoporosis C. A MCL and ACL sprain with meniscus tear D. Menstrual cramping, overeating, and premenstrual syndrome E. Dysmenorrhea, eating disorder and osteoporosis
A
The most common form of hyperthyroidism identified by tremors, weakness, difficulty in swallowing/speaking, and facial/eye tics is known as: A. Graves' disease B. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease C. Paget's disease D. Reye's syndrome E. Sarcoldosis
A
Treatment for cystic fibrosis includes which of the following? A. Nutritional counseling/modifications, pulmonary therapies to clear secretions, antibiotics B. Regular exercise, nutritional counseling/modifications, expectorants C. Bed rest, daily suction to clear secretions, antihistamines D. Bed rest, daily suction to clear secretions, antibiotics and expectorants E. Bronchodilators, antihistamines and expectorants
A
Upper extremity closed kinetic chain exercises are used primarily for strengthening and improving proprioception of which of the following structures? A. Muscles that stabilize the shoulder girdle B. Ligaments that stabilize the glenohumeral joint C. Tendons that support the joints of the cervical spine, shoulder and elbow D. The articular surfaces of the glenohumeral and AC joints E. The articular surfaces of the acetabulum and femoral heard
A
What does the production of black tar-like stools indicate? A. Upper GI bleeding B. Infection C. Lower GI bleeding D. A diet that is too high in iron E. Colon cancer
A
What is a primary indication for cervical traction? A. Muscle spasm B. Hemorrhage C. Muscle weakness D. Vertigo E. None of the above
A
What is a stretching exercise that consists of a "stretch and hold" position? A. Static stretch B. PNF pattern C. Ballistic stretch D. Warm-up E. B and C
A
What is one of the most serious adverse reactions during iontophoresis treatment? A. Galvanic burns B. Anaphylactic shock C. Dermatitis D. Histamine reaction E. None of the above
A
What must the athletic trainer establish with the athlete prior to and during the rehabilitation in order for the rehabilitation of an injured athlete to be successful? A. A good rapport B. A position of dominance C. A deadline by which the athlete must return to full-time participation in his or her sport D. The understanding that the coach has the final decision in his or her rehabilitation sessions E. B and C
A
What occurs during a joint mob technique when a convex surface moves on a concave surface? A. Roll and glide occur in opposite directions B. Glide and spin occur in opposite directions C. A shearing force occurs at the joint surface D. Roll and glide occur in the same direction E. Straight glide in same direction
A
What physiological effects occur under the cathode of an electrical stimulator? I. Vasodilation II. Vasoconstriction III. Tissue softening IV. Irritation A. I, III, IV B. II, III, IV C. I, II, III D. I, II, IV E. None of the above
A
What types of medications are most commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy? A. Tranquillizers and sedatives B. COX-2 inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Vasopressors E. Psychogenic drugs
A
When is the best time to begin a rehabilitation program after an injury? A. Immediately B. After the injured part is "healed" C. After the inflammation is under control D. Once the pain subsides E. All of the above
A
When rehabilitating a musculoskeletal injury, what is the proper progression of treatment? A. Range of motion, strength, endurance, proprioception B. Pain relief, agility, range of motion, strength C. Range of motion, pain relief, endurance, proprioception D. Proprioception, range of motion, strength, endurance E. Range of the motion, endurance, strength, proprioception
A
When rehabilitating a patient, it is important that the area being rehabilitated is stressed with a variety of intensities and durations during conditioning. The body responds to these stresses by adapting to the specific demands imposed on it. What is this principle known as? A. SAID principle B. DAPRE principle C. RICE principle D. SITS principle E. None of the above
A
When rehabilitating an athlete following a lumbar strain, the AT should emphasize the significance of having the athlete improve the flexibility of all of the following structures except: A. The abdominals B. The iliopsoas C. The paraspinals D. The hamstrings E. The hip extensors
A
When rehabilitation a cervical strain, what must the AT maintain the integrity of? A. Shoulder girdle B. Lower back C. Upper arm D. Hand E. Kyphosis of the thoracic spine
A
When stretching during a warm-up routine, which type of stretching should not be encouraged because it may lead to injury? A. Ballistic B. Active C. Static D. Plyometric E. PNF
A
Where is the primary location for adenosine triphosphate production in skeletal muscle? A. Sarcomere B. Sarcoplasm C. Sarcolemma D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum E. Mitochondria
A
Which of the following actions may help to decrease skin-electrode resistance when performing an electrotherapy treatment? A. Moisten the electrode with water B. Cool the skin first with an ice pack C. Place the electrodes on skin that has excessive hair D. Use a plastic-meshed cloth electrode E. Apply body lotion on the skin
A
Which of the following are braces used after rehabilitation? A. Functional B. Prophylactic C. Patellofemoral D. Rehabilitative E. Postoperative
A
Which of the following conditions is not indicated for mechanical traction? A. An acute interspinous sprain B. Degenerative joint disease C. Herniated discs or protrusions D. Degenerative disc disease E. Muscle spasm
A
Which of the following describes a neurapraxia? A. Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to a conduction block. Usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks B. Loss or disruption of the axon and myelin sheath. The epineurium is still in tact C. An injury to the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium with a permanent neurological deficit D. A crush injury to a nerve causing damage to the epineurium. The perineurium is intact E. None of the above
A
Which of the following exercises does not address proprioception? A. Recumbent stationary bicycling B. Mini-trampoline exercises C. Stork-standing exercises with the eyes open D. Treadmill exercises E. All of the above
A
Which of the following exercises should be avoided in the early stages of ACL reconstruction rehab? A. Full knee extension exercises B. Resisted hip abduction C. Toe raises D. Hamstring curls E. Isometric contraction of the quads
A
Which of the following is a common adverse effect of an opioid analgesic? A. Constipation B. Headache C. Stomach upset D. Diarrhea E. Anxiety
A
Which of the following is not a contraindication or precaution for the use of ultrasound? A. Scarring B. Acute hemorrhage C. Anesthesia D. Treating over the endocrine gland E. Open wounds
A
Which of the following is the correct sequence of tissue healing? A. Cellular response, regeneration, remodeling B. Remodeling, regeneration, cellular response C. Rejection, regeneration, resolution D. Regeneration, resolution, remodeling E. None of the above
A
Which of the following is the lease occurring type of shoulder subluxation/dislocation? A. Superior B. Inferior C. Anterior D. Posterior E. C and D
A
Which of the following is the only NSAID used topically in the US? A. Salicylate B. Ibuprofen C. Meloxicam D. Celebrex E. Naproxen NA
A
Which of the following may occur as a result of a puncture wound that has not been properly treated? A. A tetanus infection B. A strep infection C. A spirochete infection D. A staph infection E. Dissemination of the wound
A
Which of the following modalities results in the movement of ions into the body through the use of electrical current? A. Iontophoresis B. Pulsed diathermy C. Phonophoresis D. Direct coupling E. Ultrasound
A
Which of the following sequences contains the appropriate steps in rehabilitating a grade II ankle sprain? A. RICE, stretching the Achilles tendon, isometric exercises, proprioceptive exercises, isotonic exercises B. RICE, isotonic exercises, hopping exercises, stretching the Achilles tendon, active range of motion exercises C. RICE, isotonic exercises, isokinetic exercises, active range of motion exercises D. RICE, treadmill ambulation, active range of motion exercises, figure-8 exercises, stretching of the Achilles tendon, foot intrinsic exercises E. None of the above
A
Which of the following types of exercise can produce a spike in systolic blood pressure that can result in a potentially life-threatening cardiovascular accident? A. Isometric B. Plyometric C. Isotonic D. Eccentric E. Isokinetic
A
Why is the repair response so limited in the articular cartilage of a joint after an injury in the adult athlete? A. Articular cartilage cells do not undergo mitosis in the mature athlete B. Articular cartilage has a poor venous supply C. Articular cartilage has a low water content D. There are fewer mitochondria present in articular cartilage than in hyaline cartilage E. All of the above
A
_________ and _________ are important qualities that an athletic trainer must possess when counseling a patient during a time of distress. A. Honesty, respect B. Sympathy, pity C. Confidence, logic D. Objectivity, decisiveness E. Logic, detachment
A
"Like charges repel while unlike charges attract each other". This is known as what law? A. Ohm's B. Coulomb's C. Murphy's D. Wolff's E. Horner's
B
A dynamic program of prescribed exercise for preventing or reversing the destructive effects of inactivity while returning an individual to his or her former level of competition is known as what? A. Pilates B. Rehabilitation C. A DAPRE program D. Cardiovascular program E. Yoga
B
A moist heat pack causes all of the following effects except: A. Higher superficial tissue temperature B. Increases in muscle tissue temperature C. Sedation D. Reduction of muscle spasms E. Vasodilation
B
A patient needs instruction on how to properly perform an abdominal sit-up. What should the athletic trainer recommend? A. Place his hands behind his head, take a deep breath and hold it, and pull his torso up toward his bent knees B. Cross his arms across his chest, tuck in his chin, bend his knees, inhale, and then exhale as he pulls his torso up toward his knees C. Place his hands behind his head, bend his knees, exhale completely first, and inhale deeply as he pulls his torso up toward his knees D. Keeping his arms down by his sides, bend his knees, inhale deeply, and hold it as he pulls his torso up toward his knees E. None of the above
B
A patient presents with insidious pain along the posterior aspect of the thigh. Which of the following steps should be performed first by the AT? A. Palpate the muscle bellies of the posterior thigh B. Ask how and when the pain started C. Manual muscle test of the hamstring muscle D. Perform a functional test E. Assess sensation of the hip
B
A stretch injury to a nerve resulting in transient symptoms of paresthesia and weakness is known as what? A. Neurotmesis B. Neurapraxia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Nerve gliding E. Myopraxia
B
A swimmer reports to the ATR complaining of symptoms related to Scheuermann's disease. Which type of exercises are beneficial in trying to diminish the symptoms during the early stages of the disease? A. Cervical ROM exercises B. Extensions and postural exercises C. William's flexion exercises D. Hughston exercises E. Deep breathing exercises
B
A type of training that employs a series of stations that consist of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and brief aerobic exercise is known as which of the following? A. Isokinetic training B. Circuit training C. Plyometrics D. Progressive resistance exercises E. Specificity training
B
All of the following are contraindications for using cryotherapy except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Inflammation C. Vasculitis D. Cold uticaria E. A and D
B
An AT working in a sports medicine clinic may have to read a SOAP note. In what section would a finding such as a positive Lachman's test be recorded A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan E. Special tests
B
An athlete experiences a catastrophic injury in which she is permanently unable to return to playing the only sport which she is familiar. What would be the AT's appropriate response when discussing the injury with the athlete? A. Tell her it is not appropriate to deny her condition and that is is best to accept her limitations B. Tell her is is OK for her to feel a variety of emotions and to openly express her needs and concerns C. Tell her to speak to her coach about her future in athletics D. Tell her to seek psychological counseling until she is no longer angry about her injury E. Tell her it happens all of the time and eventually she will get used to her situation
B
An excessive valgus force to the knee may result in an injury to which ligament? A. LCL B. MCL C. ACL D. PCL E. Arcuate ligament
B
Articular cartilage has limited ability to heal because of which of the following reasons? A. Constant movement of the joint does not allow for healing B. Cartilage has limited or no direct blood supply C. The high incidence of aseptic necrosis D. Poor results with NSAID treatment E. None of the above
B
At what concentrations is topical hydrocortisone available over the counter? A. 1% and 5% B. 0.25% and 1% C. 1.5% and 2% D. 10% and 15% E. 2% and 5%
B
Before returning an athlete to full activity, all of the following criteria should equal those taken from the uninvolved side at the end of the rehabilitation program except: A. Strength of each muscle group B. Girth measurements at 6 inches above and below the joint line C. Proprioception of both extremities D. Flexibility of the involved muscle groups E. C and D
B
Circuit training is an effective training technique if the AT desires to improve ____ and _________. A. Agility and endurance B. Strength and flexibility C. Agility and proprioception D. Power and endurance E. Strength and power
B
Conventional TENS unes a frequency in the ____ pulses per second range with a phase duration of _____ A. 50-100, 250 B. 50-100, 2-50 C. 2-4, >150 D. >100, 20-30 E. <10, 50
B
During the acute phase of an ankle injury, the water temperature of a whirlpool should be set at what temperature? A. 37C-37.7C B. 55F-65F C. 30F-35F D. 70F-80F E. 40C-50C
B
External muscular force available for useful work is the result of which factors? A. The velocity of muscular shortening B. Whether the muscle is fast or slow twitch C. The angle of the pull of the muscle D. The length of the muscle E. C and D
B
Hans Selye's phenomenon of the general adaptation syndrome, which occurs when an individual responds to a stressful situation, includes which 3 stages of the stress response? A. Fright, flight, exhaustion B. The alarm, stage, resistance stage, exhaustion C. The alarm stage, flight stage, acceptance stage D. Anger stage, bargaining stage, acceptance stage E. The alarm stage, flight, exhaustion
B
Joint mechanoreceptors are found in all of the following structures except: A. Ligaments B. The brain C. Menisci D. Fat pads E. Musculotendinous junction
B
One of your basketball platers often complains about localized lumbar "backaches". After performing your eval on this patient, it appears his primary problem is postural. All of the following are actions that the patient can take to prevent low back pain except: A. When standing for long periods of time, rest one foot on a stool if it is available B. Avoid sleeping in side-lying position with the knees slightly bent C. Carry objects at waist level when possible D. Sit on chairs with a firm seat and straight back E. Keep his abdominals strong
B
Pain occurring at a site distant to damaged tissue that does not follow the course of a peripheral nerve describes what type of pain? A. Muscular B. Referred C. Radicular D. Visceral E. Parasympathetic
B
The D2 flexion pattern of the hip works which group of muscles? A. Abductors, flexors, internal rotators B. Abductors, flexors, external rotators C. Adductors, flexors, internal rotators D. Adductors, extensors, external rotators E. The abductors and flexors only
B
The rate at which a drug disappears from the body through metabolism, excretion, or both is known as which of the following? A. Biotransformation B. Half-life C. Efficacy D. Bioavailability E. Expiration rate
B
The therapeutic conversion of electrical energy into high-frequency sound energy above the audible range to create heat in the tissues is the definition of what modality? A. Diathermy B. Ultrasound C. Electric stim D. TENS E. Interferential current
B
What is a protective spasm of the muscular abdominal wall called? A. Gas pains B. Rigidity C. Myositis D. Splinting E. Very painful
B
What is the efferent response to sensory information called? A. Kinesthesia B. Neuromuscular control C. Proprioception D. Coordination E. Parathesia
B
What should the athletic trainer do when teaching a patient how to properly use crutches? A. Make sure the patient's weight is fully supported on his or her hands and armpits B. Caution the patient not to lean on the crutches so that his or her weight is on the crutches axillary pads C. Teach him or her how to use a cane first D. Teach the patient 4 point gait E. Teach the patient 5 point gait
B
What would be a functional skill for a patient in an ankle rehabilitation program? A. Gastrocnemius flexibility B. Single-leg hopping C. Lifting tolerance D. Anterior tibialis strengthening E. All of the above
B
When rehabilitating a patient diagnosed with "jumper's knee," which muscle group should eventually be stronger? A. Hamstrings B. Quadriceps C. Hip adductors D. Hip extensors E. Triceps surae
B
When rehabilitating a patient with a recent herniated lumbar disc, which of the following exercises are most appropriate? A. Williams' flexion exercises B. McKenzie extension exercises C. Lumbar stabilization exercises D. Posterior pelvic tilts and knee-to-chest exercises E. PNF stretching exercises
B
When rehabilitating the lateral epicondylitis, which muscle group needs to be strengthened? A. Wrist flexors B. Wrist extensors C. Elbow flexors D. Elbow extensors E. Shoulder abductors
B
When the length of a muscle prevents full range of motion at the joint or joints over which the muscle crosses, it is known as what? A. Adhesive capsulitis B. Passive insufficiency C. Hypomobility D. Muscle contracture E. None of the above
B
When treating a patient with trochanteric bursitis, flexibility should be increased in which of the following muscles? A. Gluteus maximums B. Tensor fasciae latae C. Iliacus D. Piriformis E. Lumbar
B
When using massage to reduce edema in an extremity, the AT should begin the technique _________ and move ____________. A. Medially, laterally B. Proximally, distally C. Distally, proximally D. Deeply, superficially E. Superficially, deeply
B
Where is a Morton's neuroma most commonly located? A. Between the first and second metacarpals B. Between the third and fourth metatarsals C. Between the second and third metacarpals D. Between the second and third metatarsals E. Plantar surface of the heel
B
Which of the following are contraindication to massage? I. Inflammation II. Pregnancy III. Hemorrhage IV. Infection V. Phlebitis A. I, II, III, IV B. I, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV D. II, III, IV, V E. All of the above
B
Which of the following describes a grade III joint mobilization technique? A. Small amplitude movement at the end range B. Large amplitude movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint C. Small amplitude movement in the beginning of the range of motion D. Thrusting movement done at the anatomical limits of the joints E. None of the above
B
Which of the following exercises improves proprioceptive feedback when rehabilitating a lower extremity injury? A. Stationary bike B. Single-leg standing on a mini trampoline C. Using a knee extension machine D. Bilateral calf raises E. All of the above
B
Which of the following involves the use of ice or a cold spray before performing a stretch? A. Cryokinetics B. Cryostretch C. Cold therapy stretching D. Dynamic stretching E. Crygenics
B
Which of the following is a cardinal signs of inflammation? A. Cyanosis B. Loss of function C. Cold skin D. Numbness E. None of the above
B
Which of the following is a manual technique in which an injured patient's muscles are actively contracted against a counterforce in a specific position? A. Myofascial release B. Muscle energy technique C. Joint mobilization D. Strain-counterstrain E. Multi-angle isokinetics
B
Which of the following is not a contraindication to the use of diathermy? A. Acute inflammation and joint effusion B. Muscle spasm C. Pregnancy D. Open wounds E. C and D
B
Which of the following pairs are chemically identical? A. Diazepam, Skelaxin B. Cimetidine, Tagamet C. Triacetin, Tinactin D. Tetracain, Lanacane E. Ibuprofen, Naprosyn
B
Which of the following proton pump inhibitors is an over-the counter medication? A. Nexium B. Prilosec C. Prevacid D. Prontonix E. Aciphex
B
Which of the following statements accurately describes isokinetic training? A. Generation of a muscular force with no visible joint movement B. Generation of a muscular force with visible joint movement that occurs at a constant speed but with variable external resistance C. Generation of a muscular force with visible joint movement at a variable speed but with a fixed external rotation D. Generation of a muscle force during muscular lengthening E. None of the above
B
Which of the following structures is responsible for relaying information regarding muscle dynamics to the conscious and subconscious parts of the central nervous system? A. Muscle spindle B. Proprioceptors C. Golgi tendon organs D. Type III muscle fibers E. Brain stem
B
Which of the following types of electric stimulators are considered "subsenory" A. Interferential B. Low intensity C. TENS D. Diathermy E. High intensity
B
Which physical law is applied with the use of an infrared lamp? A. Joule's law B. Inverse square law C. Wolff's law D. Ohm's law E. Newton's law
B
__________ is a type of electrotherapy used to re-educate muscle. A. Interferential B. Russian C. Iontophoresis D. Premodulated E. Low intensity
B
____________ and ____________ are 2 medications that can be combined when utilizing iontophoresis. A. Acetic acid, lidocaine B. Dexamethasone, lidocaine C. Dexamethasone, epinephrine D. Hydrocortisone, Medrol E. Antibiotic creams, lidocaine
B
what kind of heating method does a warm whirlpool utilize? A. Conduction B. Convection C. Radiation D. Evaporation E. All of the above
B
A basketball player who has sprained her ankle of the second time in 3 months reports to the ATR for her third treatment session. The AT notices she is demanding and wants to know why the AT "didn't fix her ankle right the first time". She becomes somewhat threatening, stating that she will find someone else to help her if she is not successfully helping this time. What would be the best response to the attention-seeking athlete? A. Give up and let her seek help elsewhere B. Work with the athlete as long as necessary to satisfy her need for attention C. Set specific but reasonable time limits with the athlete per treatment session so the AT is not overtaxed D. Encourage the athlete to take a more positive position on her rehabilitation and use humor to divert her attention away from the injury E. None of the above
C
A dry, nonproductive cough is most often caused by which of the following? A. Lung infection B. Bronchitis C. Allergies D. Pneumothorax E. Cancer
C
All of the following are contraindications for electric stim electrode placement except: A. Stim across the heart B. Stim over an acute thrombophlebitis C. Control of labor pain by stimulation of the lower back D. Stim over the temples E. Directly over the spine
C
All of the following are contraindications for the use of aquatic therapy except: A. An excessive fear of water B. An open wound C. An athlete who is unable to tread water D. Urinary tract infection E. A skin infection
C
All of the following are indications for the use of a warm whirlpool except: A. Cleaning large, open wounds B. Relieving pain C. Initial edema reduction D. Increasing range of motion E. Reflexation
C
All of the following are indications of ice massage application except: A. Subacute injuries B. Contusions C. Anesthetized skin D. Muscle spasm E. Overuse injuries
C
All of the following principals must be considered before the AT begins an activity designed to improve balance except: A. Multiple planes of motion must be stressed B. The activities must progress to sport-specific activities C. The activity should incorporate a unisensory approach D. The exercises must be safe but challenging E. A and B
C
Although ice bags are the most commonly used modality in the treatment of acute injuries, a drawback of this modality may be which of the following? A. They leak easily B. They take longer to cool the skin than reusable ice packs C. Ice machines are expensive and their cost may be too prohibitive D. Ice takes a long time to make on a regular basis E. Ice machines tend to be unreliable
C
Bracing for scoliosis of the spine may be effective with all ages except: A. 5 B. 10 C. 18 D. 14 E. Bracing is not effective at any age
C
Contraindications to cervical traction include all of the following except: A. A positive vertebral artery test B. A positive alar ligament test C. Disc herniation D. Increased radicular symptoms with treatment E. Nystagmus
C
Delayed-onset muscle soreness normally occurs how long after a strenuous exercise session? A. 1 hour after exercise B. 12 hours after exercise C. 24-72 hours after exercise D. 4-6 hours after exercise E. Immediately after exercise
C
During rehab, closed chain exercises are recommended because they do all of the following except: A. Stimulate proprioceptors B. Increase joint stability C. Isolate a specific muscle group for strengthening D. Reduce shear forces E. Increase muscle co-contractions
C
During the rehabilitation of a knee injury, the AT decides the use of neuromuscular stimulation is indicated. As the AT is applying the electrodes to the patient's thigh, the patient says he has never had electric stim and is scared of electricity. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the AT? A. Tell him he is being childish B. Demonstrate how it works C. Teach him about the general principles of electric stim D. Tell a joke about electricity to relax him E. Do not use an electrotherapeutic modality on the patient
C
How quickly may the adaptations in skeletal muscle reverse if strength training is discontinued or interrupted during rehab? A. 24 hours B. 36 hours C. 48 hours D. 1 week E. 4 weeks
C
If the patient complains of a burning sensation during an ultrasound treatment, all of the following may be the source of the problem except: A. The intensity is too high B. Not enough ultrasound medium is being used C. Too much ultrasound gel is being used D. The movement of the transducer head is too slow E. B and D
C
In which of the following sports would plyometric training be beneficial? A. Rock climbing B. Cross-country C. Volleyball D. Archery E. Swimming
C
Indications for ultrasound include all of the following except: A. Bursitis B. Fasciitis C. Acute hemorrhage D. Plantar warts E. Tendinitis
C
Injury or disease of the pancreas creates pain in which quadrant of the abdomen? A. Lower right B. Upper right C. Upper left D. Lower left E. Central
C
Knee braces can be classified as either functional, prophylactic, or rehabilitative. Which type of brace might be worn for 1 to 2 weeks after a grade II medial collateral ligament tear? A. Functional B. Prophylactic C. Rehabilitative D. Custom fit E. No brace is necessary for this injury
C
Paraffin bath therapy is commonly used on the hands and feet as a method of superficial heating. To keep the paraffin mixture in a molten state, the temperature should be maintained between: A. 100-115 B. 80-105 C. 126-130 D. 118-125 E. 140-150
C
Sensory receptors located at the musculotendinous junction, which monitor active tension generated by the muscle during a contraction, are called: A. Pacinian corpuscles B. Ruffini receptors C. Golgi tendon organs D. Muscle spindles E. Contractile sensory receptors
C
The term dexamethasone is the _________ name of this medication A. Secondary B. Brand C. Generic D. FDA approved E. Trade
C
Two exercises that are designed to stabilize the lumbar spine during low back rehabilitation include _______ and _______. A. Single knee-to-chest exercise, double knee to chest B. Hamstring stretching, bridging exercise C. Partial sit ups, active trunk extension in prone D. Resisted hip abduction exercise, iliotibial band stretching E. Hamstring stretching, piriformis strengthening
C
What are the heath producing currents in the body that are formed by a magnetic field that is externally applied in short-wave diathermy called? A. Induction currents B. Magnetic currents C. Eddy currents D. Alternating currents E. Interferential currents
C
What conditioning component is needed to perceive the position of the foot as it lands on the ground after the swing phase of gait? A. Agility B. Balance C. Proprioception D. Kinesthesia E. Eccentric stretching
C
What is a vascular reaction to cold that results in a white, red or blue discoloration of the extremities? A. Neurapraxia B. Analgesia C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Hypothermia E. Cyanosis
C
What is the internal reaction or resistance of tissue to an external load called? A. Mechanical failure B. Strain C. Stress D. Yield point E. Threshold
C
What type of exercises may be safely initiated immediately after knee surgery? A. Closed-chain eccentric exercises B. Isotonic exercises C. Isometric exercises D. Functional exercises E. None of the above
C
When a muscle is stretched to a point where a mild discomfort is felt and the limb is held in one position, it is known as what type of stretch? A. Ballistic B. PNF C. Static D. Dynamic E. None of the above
C
When palpating the knee joint after an injury, the AT should be sure to palpate which of the following structures? A. ASIS B. The navicular C. Medial condyle of the femur D. The tibial crest E. Dorsalis pedis
C
When rehabilitating a patient with patellofemoral pain syndrome, which muscle groups should be strengthened? A. Quadriceps, hamstrings B. Hip abductors, hamstrings C. Hip adductors, quads D. Hip flexors, hip external rotators E. Iliotibial band, hip external rotators
C
When rehabilitating a shoulder, in what area should strengthening exercises be initiated first? A. Rotator cuff musculature B. Cervical musculature C. Scapular musculature D. Shoulder abductors, flexors, and internal rotators E. A and D
C
When using fluidotherapy, the tx temp. range is normally set at what temperature? A. 60-70 degrees B. 85-100 degrees C. 100-113 degrees D. 75-96 degrees E. 40-60 degrees
C
Which of the following PNF techniques is not a strengthening technique? A. Slow reversal B. Rhythmic stabilization C. Slow-reversal-hold-relax D. Rhythmic initiation E. All of the above
C
Which of the following components of a rehabilitation program is most often overlooked by the athletic trainer during rehabilitation? A. Endurance B. Flexibility C. Proprioception D. Functional testing prior to returning to the sport E. Strength
C
Which of the following electrode placement techniques is most commonly used when treating an individual with "brief-intense" TENS? A. Direct placement B. Dermatome placement C. Stimulation point placement D. Continuous placement E. Bracket method
C
Which of the following is a term that refers to a group of techniques used for the purpose of relieving soft tissue from the abnormal grip of tight fascia? A. Glides B. Traction C. Myofascial release D. Therapeutic massage E. Joint mobilization
C
Which of the following is an example of muscle spindle activity? A. Nystagmus B. Babinski's reflex C. Knee-jerk reflex D. Moro's reflex E. None of the above
C
Which of the following is defined as an uninterrupted direct current? A. Interferential B. Microcurrent C. Galvanic D. Pulsed E. None of the above
C
Which of the following muscle groups are involved during a full squat with weights? I. Quads II. Hamstrings III. Erector spinae IV. Middle delts V. Glute max VI. Serratus anterior A. I,II,IV,V B. II, III, IV, V C. I,II,III,V D. II,III,V,VI E. All of the above
C
Which of the following positions must be avoided when rehabing an athlete who has a posterior instability of the glenohumeral joint? A. Abduction with external rotation B. Full forward flexion C. Internal rotation with horizontal adduction and flexion D. Internal rotation with shoulder extension E. A and B
C
Which of the muscle groups listed below are involved during a bench press? I. Anterior deltoid II. Rhomboids III. Triceps IV. Pec major V. Lats VI. Upper traps A. I, II, III, IV B. III, IV, V, VI C. I, III, IV, V D. II, III, IV, VI E. I, II, III, V
C
You suspect one of your soccer players is experiencing "training staleness". Which of the following should you assess when developing a counseling approach with the patient? A. The level of the patient's ability to play the sport B. The relationship between the patient and his family C. The patients training schedule and diet D. The patients competition schedule E. The relationship between the patient and coach
C
A patient presents with an acute injury of the foot and has an antalgic gait pattern. Which of the following should you do first? A. Have the patient run half speed on a treadmill for cardiorespiratory health B. Give the patient crutches C. Instruct the patient in a heel-to-toe gait pattern D. Observe/palpate the injured area for gross deformity and point tenderness E. Have the patient wear an open toe shoe
D
A tight Achilles tendon can cause _____ or _____ in order to allow the lower leg to move over the foot during running. A. Late heel-off, early heel strike B. Early heel-off, excessive supination C. Late heel-off, late toe-off D. Early heel-off, excessive pronation E. Early heel-off, early heel strike
D
An athlete is recovering from a partial meniscectomy performed 5 days ago. All of the following actions would be appropriate at this time except: A. Achilles stretching B. Four quadrant straight leg raises C. Stationary bike with minimal/no resistance D. Eccentric quad strengthening E. Hip flexor stretching
D
An involuntary muscle contraction characterized by alternate contraction and relaxation in rapid succession is known as which of the following? A. Tonic contraction B. Alternating contraction C. Eccentric contraction D. Clonic contraction E. Phasic contraction
D
Balance and coordination are critical for athletic performance. Feedback from the muscles as to what they are doing during a particular activity is known as _______. The area of the brain that assists in controlling movement is the _______. A. Proprioception, brain stem B. Muscle perception, medulla C. Kinesthesia, cortex D. Proprioception, cerebellum E. Kinesthesia, cerebrum
D
Bone grows via a process of apposition and resorption on its surface. Which cells are responsible for the resorption of bone during its growth or repair? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteophils D. Osteoclasts E. None of the above
D
Cognitive function may be affected by all of the following conditions except: A. Dehydration B. Malnutrition C. Abnormal body temperature D. Depression E. Medication
D
During a lower extremity D1 flexion PNF pattern, what movements are taking place at the hip? A. Extension, abduction, internal rotation B. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation C. Extension, adduction, external rotation D. Flexion, adduction, external rotation E. Flexion, abduction, external rotation
D
High-voltage pulsed monophasic generators deliver current to deep tissues without damaging superficial tissues and are used for pain modulation. What type of waveform is used with this type of simulator? A. Asymmetrical biphasic spiked pulse B. Monophasic squared pulse C. Symmetrical biphasic pulses D. Monophasic spike delivered in pairs E. None of the above
D
If an athlete needs to lose weight for health reasons, how many calories must his or her daily diet be reduced by in order to lose 1-2 lbs per week? A. 250-500 calories/day B. 1000-2000 calories/week C. 1000-2000 calories/day D. 500-1000 calories/day E. None of the above
D
Isotonic external rotation of the glenohumeral joint during shoulder rehab focuses on what muscles? A. Intraspinatus B. Teres minor C. Posterior delt D. All of the above E. None of the above
D
Massage can be used as an effective modality to control pain b/c it activates which of the following? A. Central nervous system and chemosensitive receptors B. Parasympathetic nervous system and mechanoreceptive receptors C. Parasympathetic nervous system and pacinain receptors D. Autonomic nervous system and the pacinian receptors E. Autonomic nervous system and chemosensitive receptors
D
One of your male patients notices a tingling sensation in his urethra followed by a discharge of greenish-yellow pus from his penis. He is also complaining of pain during urination. You suspect which sexually transmitted disease and recommend which of the following actions? A. Syphilis; have the patient take Zovirax for 7 to 10 days B. Trichomoniasis; have the patient drink acidic fluids, call his family physician, and have the patient refrain from all sexual contact C. Genital candidiasis; have the patient apply a fungicide to his penis D. Gonorrhea; refer the patient to a physician and have him refrain from all sexual contract E. Genital herpes; have the patient take Diflucan
D
The AT should look for all of the following features when purchasing a stationary bike except: A. A comfortable seat B. An easily modified workload C. Good construction D. An on-board computer for easy programming E. Adjustable to fit all athletes
D
The amount of power generated by an ultrasound unit is defined as what? A. Frequency B. Duty cycle C. Duration D. Intensity E. An ohm
D
The effects of treating a subacute musculoskeletal injury with a warm whirlpool include all of the following except: A. Analgesia B. Stimulation of local circulation C. Decreased muscle spasm D. Increased deep tissue temperature E. Decreased joint stiffness
D
The progression for strengthening exercises is usually in what order? A. Isometric, isokinetic, isotonic, plyometric B. Isokinetic, isometric, plyometric, isotonic C. Isotonic, plyometric, isokinetic, isometric D. Isometric, isotonic, isokinetic, plyometric E. Plyometric, isometric, isotonic, isokinetic
D
Treatment for facet dysfunction consists of all of the following except: A. Facet joint mobilization B. Passive rotation C. Pelvic rock exercises D. McKenzie extension exercises E. Abdominal strengthening
D
Treatment of "snapping hip" syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Ice and NSAIDS B. Biomechanical correction C. Flexibility exercises D. Excision of the greater tuberosity in severe cases E. Instruction in proper training techniques
D
Ultrasound waves are reflected by _____ and absorbed by _________ A. Bone, skin B. Skin, connective tissue C. Skin, blood D. Bone, muscle E. Nerve, muscle
D
What are the 4 sensations an athlete will experience with the application of cryotherapy? A. Cold, burning, cramping, numbness B. Pain, aching, stinging, cold C. Aching, burning, pain, numbness D. Cold, burning, aching, numbness E. Cold, burning, stinging, aching
D
What does "extension lag" mean? A. Ability to only flex the knee B. Inability to fully backward bend (lumbar movement) C. One leg drags behind the other during gait D. Inability to fully extend the hip E. Inability to fully extend the hip
D
What is an upward force experienced by a body in a fluid that acts in the opposite direction of gravity and is responsible for the feeling of weightlessness in water? A. Specific gravity B. Viscosity C. Hydrostatic pressure D. Buoyancy E. None of the above
D
What is the best method of determining the recovery status of the hand and forearm after a flexor injury? A. Use of a KT-1000 arthrometer B. Assessing the strength of a handshake C. Manual muscle testing of the wrist D. Use of a hand dynamometer E. Electomyography testing
D
What is the temperature range of an ice bath? A. 35-50 degrees B. 70-75 degrees C. 65-70 degrees D. 50-60 degrees E. 60-80 degrees
D
What is the term used in ultrasound to describe the time that sound waves are being emitted during one pulse period? A. Ultrasound frequency B. Cavitation C. Attenuation D. Duty cycle E. Intensity
D
What should a postseason conditioning program specifically focus on? A. Endurance activities B. Strengthening and flexibility exercises C. Sport-specific activities D. Identifying and improving the areas of conditioning in which the athlete is deficient E. All of the above
D
What type of fracture fails to heal spontaneously within a normal time frame? A. Malunion B. Oblique C. Osteogenesis D. Nonunion E. Spiral
D
When advising a patient about his year long strength training program, the AT should have the patient limit his heavy lifting workouts to which periods? A. In season and post season B. Preseason and in season C. Post season and off season D. Off season and preseason E. None of the above
D
When counseling a patient about the proper way to self-administer a medication, it is important that the AT make the patient aware of what 2 factors? A. Any side effects and, in detail, how the drug works on the body B. If the drug may be addictive and how long the effects will last C. If the drug may cause depression and, in detail, how the drug works on the body D. When to take the medication and what foods/drugs not to mix with it E. B and C
D
When developing a functional progression for an athlete who is undergoing a rehab program, all of the following factors need to be considered except: A. The physician's expectations for the athlete's return to play B. The athlete's expectations for his or her return to play C. The severity of the athlete's disability D. The length of the rehab program E. The athlete's position in the sport
D
Which is not a thermal effect of ultrasound? A. Increased blood flow B. Secretion of chemotactics C. Reduction of muscle spasm D. Edema reduction E. Muscular heating
D
Which muscle does not need to be strengthened after a rotator cuff repair? A. Supraspinatus B. Biceps C. Teres minor D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Triceps
D
Which of the following acoustical interfaces is most reflective of ultrasound energy? A. Water-soft tissue B. Soft tissue - fat C. Soft tissue - bone D. Soft tissue - air E. None of the above
D
Which of the following devices is more effective in decreasing skin temperature during cryotherapy treatment? A. A microwaveable pack B. A chemical spray C. A cold towel D. An ice pack E. A fan
D
Which of the following exercises are appropriate in attempting to decrease the symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome? A. Cervical range of motion exercises, anterior shoulder strengthening B. Cervical range of motion exercises, cervical isometrics C. Anterior chest wall strengthening, cervical isometrics D. Stretching the anterior chest wall, strengthening the posterior midthoracic area E. None of the above
D
Which of the following is not a factor in designing an appropriate treatment program? A. The stage of tissue healing B. Pain with joint motion C. The severity of the injury D. How soon the coach feels the athlete should return to play E. A and B
D
Which of the following is not an indication for diathermy? A. To increase local circulation B. Reduction of spasms C. Pain relief D. Cardiac abnormalities E. Osteoarthritis
D
Which of the following massage techniques is a method of tapotement? A. Cupping B. Hacking C. Pinching D. All of the above E. None of the above
D
Which of the following medications is not a medication that could predispose an athlete to heat illness? A. Decongestants B. Antihistamines C. Diuretics D. NSAIDs E. Beta-adrenergic blockers
D
Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated military press? I. Traps II. Lats III. Pec major IV. Serratus anterior V. Post delt VI. Triceps A. II, III, VI B. I,III,IV,V C. I,IV,V,VI D. I,III,IV,VI E. All of the above
D
Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated row exercise? I. Lats II. Teres minor III. Teres major IV. Middle traps V. Rhomboids VI. Pec major A. I, III, IV, VI B. II, III, IV, V C. I, IV, V, VI D. I, III, IV, V E. I, II, III, IV
D
Which of the following muscles are the primary muscles involved when performing a resisted wrist curl (palms up)? I. Flexor digitorum longus II. Flexor digiti minimi III. Adductor pollicis IV. Flexor carpi radialis V. Flexor carpi ulnaris VI. Brachialis A. I, II, IV B. I, IV, V, VI C. II, III, IV, VI D. IV, V E. III, IV, V
D
Which of the following pieces of equipment is not considered closed kinetic chain? A. Treadmill B. Leg press machine C. Upper body ergometer D. Isokinetic knee extension machine E. BAPS board
D
________ and ________ are 2 means that deliver medication via sound waves and electricity. A. Ultrasound, iontophoresis B. Ultrasound, phonophoresis C. Micromassage, phonophoresis D. Phonophoresis, iontophoresis E. High volt electric stim, iontophoresis
D
A patient presents to the ATR complaining of a "sore spot" on the back of his neck. It appears as a dark red, hard area, which later develops as a lesion discharging yellowish-red pus from numerous areas. The AT suspects the patient has what type of infection? A. Viral B. Fungal C. Systemic D. Parasitic E. Bacterial
E
All of the following are routes of drug administration except: A. Oral B. Topical C. Parenteral D. Sublingual E. Pressurization
E
All of the following are tests for glenohumeral instability except: A. Clunk test B. Anterior apprehension C. Anterior glide D. Load and shift E. Neer's test
E
An injured athlete is led through a therapeutic mental process in which he pictures himself being evaluated by the athletic trainer and assured the injury is not serious. He then pictures himself moving through rehabilitation, recovering nicely, and, finally, returning to his sport fully healed. What is this therapeutic approach to the recovery process called? A. Regression B. Thought stopping C. Biofeedback D. Meditation E. Visualization
E
Contraindications for joint mobilizations include all of the following except: A. Acute inflammation B. Osteoporosis C. Malignancy D. Infection E. Joint hypomobility
E
Descending hills during running requires what type of muscular contraction by the quadriceps to decelerate the body? A. Positive B. Concentric C. Isokinetic D. Isometric E. Eccentric
E
Diaphoresis is also known as which of the following? A. Rapid heart beat B. Body odor C. Bad breath D. Slow heart beat E. Sweating
E
How long does it take for a patient's heartrate to plateau at a given level during a cardiorespiratory training session? A. 10 minutes B. 30 seconds C. 45 seconds D. 5 minutes E. 2-3 minutes
E
How often should an ultrasound unit be calibrated to ensure the safe application of ultrasound? A. Every 3 months B. Every month C. Every other year D. Every 5 years E. At least once per year
E
In terms of specificity of training, which type of exercises would be appropriate during the late phases of rehab of a soccer player? A. Stairmaster B. Swimming C. Stationary bike D. Leg press E. Treadmill exercise
E
Pediculosis is most effectively treated with which of the following? A. Mouthwash B. An antibiotic C. Time D. An antifungal E. A parasiticide
E
Polydipsia is also known as which of the following? A. Excessive urination B. Excessive hunger C. Excessive blood glucose D. Low urine pH E. Excessive thirst
E
Rehab includes all of the following components except: A. Assessment of level of function/dysfunction B. Organization and interpretation of results of the initial evaluation C. Formulation of patient problems D. Establish long and short term goals E. Diagnosis of the patients condition
E
Strengthening of which muscles is vital in the throwing athlete? A. Lower traps B. Pectineus C. Serratus posterior D. Obliques E. Rhomboids
E
The "half-life" of a drug refers to which of the following? A. The amount of time it takes for a drug to lose half its potency while it is in storage B. Half the amount of time it takes for a drug to reach its therapeutic level in the bloodstream C. The time required for the amount of the drug in the blood to be increased by one-half D. The time required for half the therapeutic drug level to be excreted in the urine E. The time required for the amount of the drug in the blood to be reduced by one-half
E
The AT of a collegiate women's swimming and diving team suspects one of his patients might have a severe eating disorder. After lengthy discussions with both the coach and the patient, the AT decides it would be best for the patient if she is referred for professional help. To which of the following professionals should the patient be initially referred? A. An endocrinologist B. A chiropractor C. A registered dietitian D. A registered nurse E. A psychologist
E
The AT should perform which of the following tests for PCL laxity? A. Apley distraction test B. Jerk test C. Apley compression test D. Pivot shift test E. Posterior drawer test
E
The condition intertrigo is treated by which of the following? A. Application of a topical astringent B. Application of a topical antibiotic C. There is no known treatment for intertrigo D. Application of a warm compress E. Application of a cold compress, cleaning the area with mild soap and water, followed by the application of a soothing ointment
E
The use of a reusable cold pack may significantly increase the possibility of frostbite because of which of the following? A. The chemicals in the packs that caustic to the skin B. Wet toweling significantly drops the skin temperature C. Reusable cold packs cause anesthesia after 10 minutes D. It decreases the cellular metabolic rate E. It may lower the skin temperature below the freezing point
E
Ultrasound is based on the ____ effect A. Resonance B. Sounding C. Cavitation D. Phoresor E. Reverse piezoelectric
E
What amount of time may it take for complete remodeling of tissues to occur after soft tissue injury? A. 1-3 months B. 6-9 months C. 4-6 weeks D. 12-24 months E. Up to 1 year
E
What are the most appropriate exercises for a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis? A. Kegal exercises B. McKenzie extension exercises C. Lumbar stabilization exercises D. Postural awareness exercises E. Williams' flexion exercises
E
What is a form of exercise that helps develop eccentric control during dynamic movements? A. Isometric B. PNF C. Hydraulic training D. Isokinetics E. Plyometrics
E
What is air hunger marked by labored or difficult breathing called? A. Dysuria B. Dystrophy C. Diaphresis D. Dysphagia E. Dyspnea
E
What medium does not transmit ultrasound waves? A. Water B. Gel C. Body lotion D. Steroid creams E. Air
E
When following the DAPRE technique of progressive resistive exercise, the first set of 10 reps is performed with a weight that is _____ of the weight that will be lifted in set 3 A. 10% B. 25% C. 100% D. 75% E. 50%
E
When massage is utilized to induce a sedative effect, which type of massage technique is indicated? A. Tapotement B. Vibration C. Petrissage D. Danish E. Effleurage
E
When rehabilitating a patient who has undergone an ACL reconstruction, which of the following muscle groups must be strengthened to support the graft? A. Triceps surae B. Hip adductors C. Quads D. Gluteals E. Hamstrings
E
When rehabilitating an athlete following a ligamentous wrist injury, once the ligament has healed enough where active motion can be initiated, it is important to educate the athlete to exercise only: A. Isometrically B. In water C. While using a prophylactic brace D. First thing in the morning E. In a pain free ROM
E
When rehabing an athlete, goal setting influences performance by increasing confidence levels and reducing anxiety. Which of the following is not a specific type of goal that is found in the goal-setting literature? A. Subjective goals B. General objective outcome goals C. Specific objective/performance goals D. Process goals E. Reward-based goals
E
When using short wave diathermy, which of the following objects should not be located within the treatment area? A. Towels B. Wooden treatment tables (metal free) C. A container of ultrasound gel D. Swiss balls and therabands E. Metal stools
E
When using ultrasound under water, a rubber-type basin should be used. Which of the following is the reason this technique should not be performed in a metal basin or whirlpool? A. Cavitation may occur B. The ultrasound transmission is significantly increased C. Minerals in the water block the transmission of the ultrasound energy D. Ultrasound energy is reflected off metal and may damage the transducer head E. Ultrasound energy is reflected off metal, increased the intensity in various areas near the metal
E
Which cells are active after an injury to begin building collagen? A. Osteocytes B. Osteoblasts C. Granulocytes D. Osteoclasts E. Fibroblasts
E
Which modality would be best utilized if the desired therapeutic effect is decreased pain, edema, and inflammation? A. Moist heat packs B. Ultrasound C. Diathermy D. Fluidotherapy E. Ice packs
E
Which of the following individuals should the AT advise and consult with when developing a reconditioning program for a patient following a muscloskeletal injury while playing football? A. The team physician B. The school nurse C. The head football coach D. The patient's parents if he is a minor E. The team strength and conditioning coach
E
Which of the following is not an example of an isotonic device? A. Free weights B. A total gym C. A squat rack D. Wall pulleys E. A wall
E
Which of the following is the most effective motivator for compliance to rehabilitation of an athletic injury? A. Coercion B. Bribery C. Fear D. Collaboration E. Goal setting
E
Which of the following is the trade or brand name of the drug hydrocodone? A. Darvocet-N 100 B. Percocet C. Demerol D. Codeine E. Vicodin
E
Which of the following medications has antipyretic properties? A. Tylenol B. Aspirin C. Benadryl D. Codeine E. A and B
E
Which of the following modalities should be used sparingly, if at all, with a patient who has been diagnosed with MS? A. Cold whirlpool B. Interferential current C. TENS D. Ice packs E. Moist heat packs
E
_________ is a method of massage that involves the lifting and kneading of the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle with the fingers or hand. A. Friction B. Tapotement C. Efflurage D. Rolfing E. Petrissage
E
