AWS Practitioner Exam: Knowledge Check Questions
What are the contract length options for Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances? (Select TWO.) A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 3 years D) 4 years E) 5 years
A) 1 year C) 3 years
Which component or service enables you to establish a dedicated private connection between your data center and virtual private cloud (VPC)? A) AWS Direct Connect B) Internet gateway C) Amazon CloudFront D) Virtual private gateway
A) AWS Direct Connect
Which component can be used to establish a private dedicated connection between your company's data center and AWS? A) Private subnet B) DNS C) AWS Direct Connect D) Virtual private gateway
C) AWS Direct Connect
Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on the ability of a workload to consistently and correctly perform its intended functions? A) Operational Excellence B) Performance Efficiency C) Security D) Reliability
D) Reliability
Which statement best describes DNS resolution? A) Launching resources in a virtual network that you define B) Storing local copies of content at edge locations around the world C) Connecting a VPC to the internet D) Translating a domain name to an IP address
D) Translating a domain name to an IP address
In the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 moves objects between a frequent access tier and an infrequent access tier. Which storage classes are used for these tiers? (Select TWO.) A) Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive B) Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval C) Amazon S3 One Zone-IA D) Amazon S3 Standard-IA E) Amazon S3 Standard
D, E
Which Cloud job role oversees database and developer teams? A) System Administrator B) DevOps Administrator C) Cloud Architect D) Security Administrator
B) DevOps Administrator
Which statement best describes Amazon Lex? A) A service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text B) A machine learning service that automatically extracts text and data from scanned documents C) A document database service that supports MongoDB workloads D) A service that enables you to identify potentially fraudulent online activities
A) A service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text
Which statement best describes security groups? A) They are stateful and deny all inbound traffic by default. B) They are stateful and allow all inbound traffic by default. C) They are stateless and deny all inbound traffic by default. D) They are stateless and allow all inbound traffic by default.
A) They are stateful and deny all inbound traffic by default.
What isolates databases containing customer's personal information ? A) private subnet B) virtual private gateway C) public subnet D) AWS Direct Connect
A) private subnet
Which actions can you perform in Amazon Route 53? (Select TWO.) A) Connect user requests to infrastructure in AWS and outside of AWS. B) Manage DNS records for domain names. C) Access AWS security and compliance reports and select online agreements. D) Automate the deployment of workloads into your AWS environment. E) Monitor your applications and respond to system-wide performance changes.
A, B
Which actions can you perform using Amazon CloudWatch? (Select TWO.) A) Monitor your resources' utilization and performance B) Receive real-time guidance for improving your AWS environment C) Compare your infrastructure to AWS best practices in five categories D) Access metrics from a single dashboard E) Automatically detect unusual account activity
A, D
What are the benefits of cloud computing? (Select TWO.) A) Increase speed and agility. B) Benefit from smaller economies of scale. C) Trade variable expense for upfront expense. D) Maintain infrastructure capacity. E) Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers.
A, E
Which tasks can you complete in AWS Artifact? (Select TWO.) A) Access AWS compliance reports on-demand. B) Consolidate and manage multiple AWS accounts within a central location. C) Create users to enable people and applications to interact with AWS services and resources. D) Set permissions for accounts by configuring service control policies (SCPs). E) Review, accept, and manage agreements with AWS.
A, E
Which statement best describes an IAM policy? A) An authentication process that provides an extra layer of protection for your AWS account B) A document that grants or denies permissions to AWS services and resources C) An identity that you can assume to gain temporary access to permissions D) The identity that is established when you first create an AWS account
B) A document that grants or denies permissions to AWS services and resources
Which statement best describes Amazon DynamoDB? A) A service that enables you to run relational databases in the AWS Cloud B) A serverless key-value database service C) A service that you can use to migrate relational databases, nonrelational databases, and other types of data stores D) An enterprise-class relational database
B) A serverless key-value database service
Which statement best describes Amazon GuardDuty? A) A service that helps protect your applications against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks B) A service that provides intelligent threat detection for your AWS infrastructure and resources C) A service that lets you monitor network requests that come into your web applications D) A service that checks applications for security vulnerabilities and deviations from security best practices
B) A service that provides intelligent threat detection for your AWS infrastructure and resources
Which statement best describes an Availability Zone? A) A geographical area that contains AWS resources B) A single data center or group of data centers within a Region C) A data center that an AWS service uses to perform service-specific operations D) A service that you can use to run AWS infrastructure within your own on-premises data center in a hybrid approach
B) A single data center or group of data centers within a Region
Which pricing tool enables you to receive alerts when your service usage exceeds a threshold that you have defined? A) Billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console B) AWS Budgets C) AWS Free Tier D) AWS Cost Explorer
B) AWS Budgets
What is best for data that requires retention? A) Instance stores B) Amazon EBS volumes
B) Amazon EBS volumes
When stopping or terminating an EC2 instance, data remains available in... A) Instance stores B) Amazon EBS volumes
B) Amazon EBS volumes
You want to store data in a volume that is attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. Which service should you use? A) Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) B) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) C) Amazon ElastiCache D) AWS Lambda
B) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
You want Amazon S3 to monitor your objects' access patterns. Which storage class should you use? A) Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval B) Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering C) Amazon S3 One Zone-IA D) Amazon S3 Standard-IA
B) Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering
Which Cloud job role must be proficient with programming scripting languages? A) System Administrator B) DevOps Administrator C) Cloud Architect D) Security Administrator
B) DevOps Administrator
Your company wants to receive support from an AWS Technical Account Manager (TAM). Which support plan should you choose? A) Developer B) Enterprise C) Basic D) Business
B) Enterprise
Which on-premises IT job role maps to the AWS Cloud Architect job role? A) Desktop Administrator B) IT Solutions Architect C) Applications Administrator D) Security Administrator
B) IT Solutions Architect
Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework includes the ability to run workloads effectively and gain insights into their operations? A) Cost Optimization B) Operational Excellence C) Performance Efficiency D) Reliability
B) Operational Excellence
Which pricing tool is used to visualize, understand, and manage your AWS costs and usage over time? A) AWS Pricing Calculator B) AWS Budgets C) AWS Cost Explorer D) AWS Free Tier
C) AWS Cost Explorer
What is the storage capacity of Snowball Edge Storage Optimized? A) 40 TB B) 60 TB C) 80 TB D) 100 TB
C) 80 TB
Which statement is TRUE for the AWS global infrastructure? A) A Region consists of a single Availability Zone. B) An Availability Zone consists of two or more Regions. C) A Region consists of two or more Availability Zones. D) An Availability Zone consists of a single Region.
C) A Region consists of two or more Availability Zones.
Which statement best describes an Availability Zone? A) The server from which Amazon CloudFront gets your files B) A site that Amazon CloudFront uses to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location C) A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure D) A separate geographical location with multiple locations that are isolated from each other
C) A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure
Which service enables you to review details for user activities and API calls that have occurred within your AWS environment? A) Amazon Inspector B) AWS Trusted Advisor C) AWS CloudTrail D) Amazon CloudWatch
C) AWS CloudTrail
Which tool is used to automate actions for AWS services and applications through scripts? A) AWS Snowball B) Amazon Redshift C) AWS Command Line Interface D) Amazon QLDB
C) AWS Command Line Interface
Which action can you perform with consolidated billing? A) Review how much cost your predicted AWS usage will incur by the end of the month. B) Create an estimate for the cost of your use cases on AWS. C) Combine usage across accounts to receive volume pricing discounts. D) Visualize and manage your AWS costs and usage over time.
C) Combine usage across accounts to receive volume pricing discounts.
You want to use an Amazon EC2 instance for a batch processing workload. What would be the best Amazon EC2 instance type to use? A) General purpose B) Memory optimized C) Compute optimized D) Storage optimized
C) Compute optimized
Which task can AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) perform? A) Configure multi-factor authentication (MFA). B) Update the AWS account root user password. C) Create cryptographic keys. D) Assign permissions to users and groups.
C) Create cryptographic keys.
Which site does Amazon CloudFront use to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location? . A) Region B) Availability Zone C) Edge location D) Origin
C) Edge location
What Amazon EC2 instance type balances compute, memory, and networking resources? A) Memory optimized B) Storage optimized C) General purpose D) Compute optimized
C) General purpose
Which statement best describes the principle of least privilege? A) Adding an IAM user into at least one IAM group B) Checking a packet's permissions against an access control list C) Granting only the permissions that are needed to perform specific tasks D) Performing a denial of service attack that originates from at least one device
C) Granting only the permissions that are needed to perform specific tasks
An employee requires temporary access to create several Amazon S3 buckets. Which option would be the best choice for this task? A) AWS account root user B) IAM group C) IAM role D) Service control policy (SCP)
C) IAM role
Which statement best describes an AWS account's default network access control list? A) It is stateless and denies all inbound and outbound traffic. B) It is stateful and allows all inbound and outbound traffic. C) It is stateless and allows all inbound and outbound traffic. D) It is stateful and denies all inbound and outbound traffic.
C) It is stateless and allows all inbound and outbound traffic.
What supports the customer-facing website ? A) private subnet B) virtual private gateway C) public subnet D) AWS Direct Connect
C) public subnet
What is the storage capacity of AWS Snowmobile? A) 40 PB B) 60 PB C) 80 PB D) 100 PB
D) 100 PB
The AWS Free Tier includes offers that are available to new AWS customers for a certain period of time following their AWS sign-up date. What is the duration of this period? A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) 12 months
D) 12 months
Which statement best describes Amazon CloudFront? A) A service that enables you to run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach B) A serverless compute engine for containers C) A service that enables you to send and receive messages between software components through a queue D) A global content delivery service
D) A global content delivery service
Which statement best describes Elastic Load Balancing? A) A service that provides data that you can use to monitor your applications, optimize resource utilization, and respond to system-wide performance changes B) A service that enables you to set up, manage, and scale a distributed in-memory or cache environment in the cloud C) A service that monitors your applications and automatically adds or removes capacity from your resource groups in response to changing demand D) A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances
D) A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances
What establishes a dedicated connection between the on-premises data center and the VPC ? A) private subnet B) virtual private gateway C) public subnet D) AWS Direct Connect
D) AWS Direct Connect
What is the difference between Amazon EC2 Savings Plans and Spot Instances?
- Amazon EC2 Savings Plans are ideal for workloads that involve a consistent amount of compute usage over a 1-year or 3-year term. - With Amazon EC2 Savings Plans, you can reduce your compute costs by up to 72% over On-Demand costs. - Spot Instances are ideal for workloads with flexible start and end times, or that can withstand interruptions. With Spot Instances, you can reduce your compute costs by up to 90% over On-Demand costs. - Unlike Amazon EC2 Savings Plans, Spot Instances do not require contracts or a commitment to a consistent amount of compute usage.
Which service or resource is used to find third-party software that runs on AWS? A) AWS Marketplace B) AWS Free Tier C) AWS Support D) Billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console
A) AWS Marketplace
Which service is used to transfer up to 100 PB of data to AWS? A) AWS Snowmobile B) Amazon CloudFront C) Amazon Neptune D) AWS DeepRacer
A) AWS Snowmobile
You want to store data in a key-value database. Which service should you use? A) Amazon DynamoDB B) Amazon Aurora C) Amazon DocumentDB D) Amazon RDS
A) Amazon DynamoDB
Which service is used to run containerized applications on AWS? A) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) B) Amazon SageMaker C) Amazon Redshift D) Amazon Aurora
A) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)
Which service is used to query and analyze data across a data warehouse? A) Amazon Redshift B) Amazon Neptune C) Amazon DocumentDB D) Amazon ElastiCache
A) Amazon Redshift
You want to send and receive messages between distributed application components. Which service should you use? A) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) B) AWS Snowball C) Amazon ElastiCache D) Amazon Route 53
A) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
Which factors should be considered when selecting a Region? (Select TWO.) A) Compliance with data governance and legal requirements B) Proximity to your customers C) Access to 24/7 technical support D) Ability to assign custom permissions to different users E) Access to the AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)
A) Compliance with data governance and legal requirements B) Proximity to your customers
Which statement or statements are TRUE about Amazon EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems? A) EBS volumes store data within a single Availability Zone. Amazon EFS file systems store data across multiple Availability Zones. B) EBS volumes store data across multiple Availability Zones. Amazon EFS file systems store data within a single Availability Zone. C) EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems both store data within a single Availability Zone. D) EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems both store data across multiple Availability Zones.
A) EBS volumes store data within a single Availability Zone. Amazon EFS file systems store data across multiple Availability Zones.
Which process is an example of Elastic Load Balancing? A) Ensuring that no single Amazon EC2 instance has to carry the full workload on its own B) Removing unneeded Amazon EC2 instances when demand is low C) Adding a second Amazon EC2 instance during an online store's popular sale D) Automatically adjusting the number of Amazon EC2 instances to meet demand
A) Ensuring that no single Amazon EC2 instance has to carry the full workload on its own
What is best for temporary data that is not kept long term? A) Instance stores B) Amazon EBS volumes
A) Instance stores
When stopping or terminating an EC2 instance, data is deleted in... A) Instance stores B) Amazon EBS volumes
A) Instance stores
What Amazon EC2 instance type is ideal for high-performance databases? A) Memory optimized B) Storage optimized C) General purpose D) Compute optimized
A) Memory optimized
What is another name for on-premises deployment? A) Private cloud deployment B) Cloud-based application C) Hybrid deployment D) AWS Cloud
A) Private cloud deployment
Which virtual private cloud (VPC) component controls inbound and outbound traffic for Amazon EC2 instances? A) Security group B) Network access control list C) Subnet D) Internet gateway
A) Security group
Which Cloud job role must be proficient with configuration management and changes? A) System Administrator B) DevOps Administrator C) Cloud Architect D) Security Administrator
A) System Administrator
Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework focuses on recovering IT workloads to meet the requirements of your business stakeholders? A) Governance Perspective B) Operations Perspective C) People Perspective D) Business Perspective
B) Operations Perspective
Your company has an application that uses Amazon EC2 instances to run the customer-facing website and Amazon RDS database instances to store customers' personal information. How should the developer configure the VPC according to best practices? A) Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a private subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a public subnet. B) Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a public subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet. C) Place the Amazon EC2 instances and the Amazon RDS database instances in a public subnet. D) Place the Amazon EC2 instances and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.
B) Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a public subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.
Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework helps you design, implement, and optimize your AWS infrastructure based on your business goals and perspectives? A) Business Perspective B) Platform Perspective C) Operations Perspective D) People Perspective
B) Platform Perspective
Which process is an example of benefiting from massive economies of scale? A) Deploying an application in multiple Regions around the world B) Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers' aggregated usage of services C) Paying for compute time as you use it instead of investing upfront costs in data centers D) Scaling your infrastructure capacity in and out to meet demand
B) Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers' aggregated usage of services
Which compute option reduces costs when you commit to a consistent amount of compute usage for a 1-year or 3-year term? A) Dedicated Hosts B) Savings Plans C) Reserved Instances D) Spot Instances
B) Savings Plans
Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework helps you structure the selection and implementation of permissions? A) Governance Perspective B) Security Perspective C) Operations Perspective D) Business Perspective
B) Security Perspective
You have a workload that will run for a total of 6 months and can withstand interruptions. What would be the most cost-efficient Amazon EC2 purchasing option? A) Reserved Instance B) Spot Instance C) Dedicated Instance D) On-Demand Instance
B) Spot Instance
What Amazon EC2 instance type is suitable for data warehousing applications? A) Memory optimized B) Storage optimized C) General purpose D) Compute optimized
B) Storage optimized
How does the scale of cloud computing help you to save costs? A) You do not have to invest in technology resources before using them. B) The aggregated cloud usage from a large number of customers results in lower pay-as-you-go prices. C) Accessing services on-demand helps to prevent excess or limited capacity. D) You can quickly deploy applications to customers and provide them with low latency.
B) The aggregated cloud usage from a large number of customers results in lower pay-as-you-go prices.
What creates a VPN connection between the VPC and the internal corporate network ? A) private subnet B) virtual private gateway C) public subnet D) AWS Direct Connect
B) virtual private gateway
Which tasks are the responsibilities of customers? (Select TWO.) A) Maintaining network infrastructure B) Patching software on Amazon EC2 instances C) Implementing physical security controls at data centers D) Setting permissions for Amazon S3 objects E) Maintaining servers that run Amazon EC2 instances
B, D
Which tasks can you perform using AWS CloudTrail? (Select TWO.) A) Monitor your AWS infrastructure and resources in real time B) Track user activities and API requests throughout your AWS infrastructure C) View metrics and graphs to monitor the performance of resources D) Filter logs to assist with operational analysis and troubleshooting E) Configure automatic actions and alerts in response to metrics
B, D
What are the scenarios in which you should use Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)? (Select TWO.) A) Running a serverless database B) Using SQL to organize data C) Storing data in a key-value database D) Scaling up to 10 trillion requests per day E) Storing data in an Amazon Aurora database
B, E
Which Amazon S3 storage classes are optimized for archival data? (Select TWO.) A) Amazon S3 Standard B) Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval C) Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering D) Amazon S3 Standard-IA E) Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive
B, E
Which categories are included in the AWS Trusted Advisor dashboard? (Select TWO.) A) Reliability B) Performance C) Scalability D) Elasticity E) Fault tolerance
B, E
Which strategies are included in the six strategies for application migration? (Select TWO.) A) Revisiting B) Retaining C) Remembering D) Redeveloping E) Rehosting
B, E
Which tool enables you to visualize, understand, and manage your AWS costs and usage over time? A) AWS Pricing Calculator B) AWS Artifact C) AWS Cost Explorer D) AWS Budgets
C) AWS Cost Explorer
Which service is used to quickly deploy and scale applications on AWS? A) AWS Snowball B) AWS Outposts C) AWS Elastic Beanstalk D) Amazon CloudFront
C) AWS Elastic Beanstalk
Which service enables you to review the security of your Amazon S3 buckets by checking for open access permissions? A) Amazon CloudWatch B) AWS CloudTrail C) AWS Trusted Advisor D) Amazon GuardDuty
C) AWS Trusted Advisor
Which service enables you to build the workflows that are required for human review of machine learning predictions? A) Amazon Aurora B) Amazon Textract C) Amazon Augmented AI D) Amazon Lex
C) Amazon Augmented AI
You want to store data that is infrequently accessed but must be immediately available when needed. Which Amazon S3 storage class should you use? A) Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering B) Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive C) Amazon S3 Standard-IA D) Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval
C) Amazon S3 Standard-IA
Which AWS service is the best choice for publishing messages to subscribers? A) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) B) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling C) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) D) Elastic Load Balancing
C) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
Which Support plan includes all AWS Trusted Advisor checks at the lowest cost? A) Basic B) Developer C) Business D) Enterprise
C) Business
Which Cloud job role is the AWS Cloud Subject Matter Expert (SME) for your business? A) System Administrator B) DevOps Administrator C) Cloud Architect D) Security Administrator
C) Cloud Architect
Which statement is TRUE for AWS Lambda? A) Before using AWS Lambda, you must prepay for your estimated compute time. B) To use AWS Lambda, you must configure the servers that run your code. C) You pay only for compute time while your code is running. D) The first step in using AWS Lambda is provisioning a server.
C) You pay only for compute time while your code is running.
Which Support plans include access to all AWS Trusted Advisor checks? (Select TWO.) A) AWS Free Tier B) Developer C) Business D) Enterprise E) Basic
C, D
Which tasks are the responsibilities of AWS? (Select TWO.) A) Configuring security groups on Amazon EC2 instances B) Training company employees on how to use AWS services C) Maintaining virtualization infrastructure D) Creating IAM users and groups E) Configuring AWS infrastructure devices
C, E
You are configuring service control policies (SCPs) in AWS Organizations. Which identities and resources can SCPs be applied to? (Select TWO.) A) IAM users B) IAM groups C) An individual member account D) IAM roles E) An organizational unit (OU)
C, E
Which statement best describes AWS Marketplace? A) A resource that provides guidance, architectural reviews, and ongoing communication with your company as you plan, deploy, and optimize your applications B) An online tool that inspects your AWS environment and provides real-time guidance in accordance with AWS best practices C) A resource that can answer questions about best practices and assist with troubleshooting issues D) A digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors
D) A digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors
Which service enables you to consolidate and manage multiple AWS accounts from a central location? A) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) B) AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) C) AWS Artifact D) AWS Organizations
D) AWS Organizations
Which service helps protect your applications against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks? A) Amazon GuardDuty B) Amazon Inspector C) AWS Artifact D) AWS Shield
D) AWS Shield
You want to deploy and manage containerized applications. Which service should you use? A) AWS Lambda B) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) C) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) D) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)
D) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)
Which service is used to manage the DNS records for domain names? A) Amazon Virtual Private Cloud B) AWS Direct Connect C) Amazon CloudFront D) Amazon Route 53
D) Amazon Route 53
Which service enables you to quickly build, train, and deploy machine learning models? A) Amazon Textract B) Amazon Lex C) AWS DeepRacer D) Amazon SageMaker
D) Amazon SageMaker
You want to store data in an object storage service. Which AWS service is best for this type of storage? A) Amazon Managed Blockchain B) Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) C) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) D) Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
D) Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
What Amazon EC2 instance type offers high-performance processors? A) Memory optimized B) Storage optimized C) General purpose D) Compute optimized
D) Compute optimized
Which action can you perform in Amazon CloudFront? A) Provision an isolated section of the AWS Cloud to launch resources in a virtual network that you define. B) Provision resources by using programming languages or a text file. C) Run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach. D) Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations.
D) Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations.
Which action can you perform with AWS Outposts? A) Automate actions for AWS services and applications through scripts. B) Access wizards and automated workflows to perform tasks in AWS services. C) Develop AWS applications in supported programming languages. D) Extend AWS infrastructure and services to your on-premises data center.
D) Extend AWS infrastructure and services to your on-premises data center.
You are running an Amazon EC2 instance and want to store data in an attached resource. Your data is temporary and will not be kept long term. Which resource should you use? A) Amazon S3 bucket B) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume C) Subnet D) Instance store
D) Instance store
Which component is used to connect a VPC to the internet? A) Public subnet B) Edge location C) Security group D) Internet gateway
D) Internet gateway
What is cloud computing? A) Backing up files that are stored on desktop and mobile devices to prevent data loss B) Deploying applications connected to on-premises infrastructure C) Running code without needing to manage or provision servers D) On-demand delivery of IT resources and applications through the internet with pay-as-you-go pricing
D) On-demand delivery of IT resources and applications through the internet with pay-as-you-go pricing
Which AWS Trusted Advisor category includes checks for high-utilization EC2 instances? A) Fault Tolerance B) Cost Optimization C) Security D) Performance
D) Performance
Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on using computing resources in ways that meet system requirements? A) Security B) Operational Excellence C) Reliability D) Performance Efficiency
D) Performance Efficiency
Which migration strategy involves changing how an application is architected and developed, typically by using cloud-native features? A) Rehosting B) Repurchasing C) Replatforming D) Refactoring
D) Refactoring
Which migration strategy involves moving to a different product? A) Refactoring B) Retiring C) Replatforming D) Repurchasing
D) Repurchasing
