Chapter 12: Adaptive Immunity

C) production of antibodies

Consider a genetic mutation which causes T helper cells to be unable to respond to stimulation by the cytokines which lead to TH2 differentiation. This mutation would cause a patient to be deficient in which activity? A) action of cytotoxic T cells B) action of macrophages C) production of antibodies D) production of memory cells E) decrease of the immune response once the pathogen is eliminated

E) 10

Consider the structural features of an antibody molecule. How many antigen binging sites does the pentameric form of IgM have? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 10

D) artificially acquired passive immunity

Convalescent plasma was obtained from the serum of individuals who recovered from COVID-19. This plasma was infused into the blood of those with a serious case of the illness. What type of immunity is being acquired by those receiving the infusion? A) naturally acquired active immunity B) naturally acquired passive immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) both natural and artificially acquired passive immunity

A) releasing chemicals which cause infected or cancerous cells to undergo apoptosis.

Cytotoxic T cells eliminate pathogens by: A) releasing chemicals which cause infected or cancerous cells to undergo apoptosis. B) releasing chemicals which are toxic to cellular pathogens. C) ingesting and digesting cellular pathogens. D) ingesting and digesting infected or cancerous cells. E) coordinating the activities of other immune cells.

A) primary antigen exposure.

42) The graph shows: A) primary antigen exposure. B) secondary antigen exposure. C) immunological memory. D) natural passive immunity. E) likely immune response upon exposure to a pathogen for which the patient has been vaccinated.

A) It is signaled for destruction via apoptosis.

A newly generated B cell in the bone marrow is being screened for self-tolerance. It has the potential to make antibodies that will cross-react with self-antigens. What is its fate? A) It is signaled for destruction via apoptosis. B) It will migrate to the lymphoid tissues to await activation by its antigen. C) It will migrate to the thymus for further maturation and screening. D) It will undergo genetic shuffling to change its receptor to increase self-tolerance. E) It will become part of an autoimmune attack in the body's tissues at some time in the future.

B) It will migrate to the lymphoid tissues to await activation by its antigen.

A newly generated T cell can recognize MHCs and is not self-reactive. What is its fate? A) It is signaled for destruction via apoptosis. B) It will migrate to the lymphoid tissues to await activation by its antigen. C) It will migrate to the bone marrow for screening for the ability to make antibodies against self-antigens. D) It will undergo genetic shuffling to change its receptor to increase self-tolerance. E) It will become part of an autoimmune attack in the body's tissues at some time in the future.

A) the patient is in the early stages of developing an immune response.

A patient antibody titer which shows an increasing level of IgM but very little IgG would likely indicate that: A) the patient is in the early stages of developing an immune response. B) the patient was vaccinated against this pathogen rather than having the infection. C) the patient has nearly recovered from the infection. D) the patient is having an allergic reaction. E) the patient is currently a nursing mother.

D) tapering off of the immune response once the pathogen is eliminated

A researcher has identified a genetic mutation that causes T helper (TH) cells to be unable to respond to the cytokines that lead to differentiation into regulatory T (Treg) cells. This would cause a patient to be deficient in which activity? A) action of cytotoxic T cells B) action of macrophages C) production of antibodies D) tapering off of the immune response once the pathogen is eliminated E) production of memory cells

B) antigen

A substance that may trigger an immune response, if presented in the right context is termed a(n): A) antibody. B) antigen. C) cytokine. D) effector. E) hapten.

B) expanded antibody response as different isotypes predominate in different areas of the body.

Advantages of isotype switching include A) ability to respond to multiple epitopes of the same antigen with the same B cell. B) expanded antibody response as different isotypes predominate in different areas of the body. C) rapid response when a pathogen engages in antigen variation. D) ability to respond to multiple epitopes of the same antigen with the same B cell and rapid response when a pathogen engages in antigen variation. E) ability to respond to multiple epitopes of the same antigen with the same B cell, expanded antibody response as different isotypes predominate in different areas of the body, and rapid response when a pathogen engages in antigen variation.

D) coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies.

All of the following apply to T cells except: A) originate in the bone marrow. B) mature in the thymus. C) reside in the lymphoid tissue. D) coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies. E) have the capacity to recognize virtually any type of antigen.

C) play a critical role in both the cellular and humoral responses.

All the following apply to B cells except A) coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies. B) mature in the bone marrow. C) play a critical role in both the cellular and humoral responses. D) reside in the lymphoid tissue. E) originate in the bone marrow.

B) activate killing by T cytotoxic cells.

Antibodies do all the following except A) activate the complement cascade. B) activate killing by T cytotoxic cells. C) neutralize antigens to prevent binding to host cells. D) increase phagocytosis by agglutination of antigens. E) increase phagocytosis by opsonization.

E) two light and two heavy protein chains.

Each antibody molecule consists of A) a "light" protein chain. B) a ‟heavy" protein chain. C) various combinations of light and heavy protein chains. D) one light and one heavy protein chain. E) two light and two heavy protein chains.

E) IgM.

Generally, the first antibody class made upon a primary antigen exposure is A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.

D) Adaptive immunity generates immunological memory and is specific to each pathogen.

How does adaptive immunity differ from innate immunity? A) Adaptive immunity generates immunological memory. B) Adaptive immunity's effects are immediate upon exposure to a pathogen. C) Adaptive immunity is specific to each pathogen. D) Adaptive immunity generates immunological memory and is specific to each pathogen. E) Adaptive immunity generates immunological memory and its effects are immediate upon exposure to a pathogen.

B) While each lymphocyte carries receptors that recognize only one type of epitope, the immune system produces a wide variety of lymphocytes each of which carries unique receptors.

How is the immune system able to recognize a limitless number of different antigens and epitopes? A) Each lymphocyte is coated with many different receptors, each of which recognizes a different epitope. B) While each lymphocyte carries receptors that recognize only one type of epitope, the immune system produces a wide variety of lymphocytes each of which carries unique receptors. C) If a lymphocyte encounters an antigen it does not recognize, it immediately switches receptors until it finds one that is a match. D) Each lymphocyte is coated with many different receptors, each of which recognizes a different epitope AND the immune system produces a wide variety of lymphocytes. E) A genetic ‟memory" of the pathogens your parents encountered (and their parents and so on) is passed on to each generation, increasing the number of possible responses over time.

C) encourages mast cells and basophils to release chemicals such as histamine and leukotrienes.

IgE antibody, which is associated with allergic responses, A) is usually found circulating in the bloodstream. B) is passed from mother to child through breastfeeding and may prevent the development of allergies in the child. C) encourages mast cells and basophils to release chemicals such as histamine and leukotrienes. D) is resistant to destruction by stomach acid. E) can be found bound to B cells.

E) provides a rapid reactivation of both cellular and humoral responses including generating higher antibody titers and antibodies with increased affinity for its antigen.

In contrast to a primary immune response, immunological memory: A) provides a rapid reactivation of both cellular and humoral responses. B) generates higher antibody titers. C) generates antibodies with enhanced affinity for its antigen. D) provides a rapid reactivation of humoral responses only by generating higher antibody titers and antibodies with increased affinity for its antigen. E) provides a rapid reactivation of both cellular and humoral responses including generating higher antibody titers and antibodies with increased affinity for its antigen.

C) a B cell changes which antibody class it is producing.

Isotype switching occurs when: A) a B cell switches which epitope it recognizes. B) activated B cells differentiate into either plasma or memory cells. C) a B cell changes which antibody class it is producing. D) an antibody changes epitope it can recognize. E) an antibody changes which class it is.

B) antibodies harvested from a host who has developed an immune response to the rabies virus

Postexposure prophylaxis, a form of artificial passive immunity, is often given when a person is bitten by an animal that is suspected of having rabies, or if the rabies status of the animal cannot be confirmed. What specifically, is being given to the patient in this type of treatment? A) antigens from the rabies virus B) antibodies harvested from a host who has developed an immune response to the rabies virus C) memory cells from a host who has developed an immune response to the rabies virus D) effector B and T cells from a host who has developed an immune response to the rabies virus E) antigen-presenting cells which increase the rate at which the rabies antigens can be presented to T cells for activation

C) artificial active; natural passive

Pregnant women are usually advised to be vaccinated against influenza to protect themselves and the baby after birth. The mother will acquire ________ immunity from the vaccine while the baby will acquire ________ immunity. A) artificial active; artificial active B) artificial active; artificial passive C) artificial active; natural passive D) artificial passive; artificial passive E) natural active; natural passive

D) are usually polysaccharides and able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell.

T-independent antigens A) are usually polysaccharides. B) are usually proteins. C) are able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell. D) are usually polysaccharides and able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell. E) may be polysaccharides or proteins, and generally bind a single B cell receptor on a given B cell.

E) titer

The amount of antibody present in the blood is termed the antibody ________. A) affinity B) effector C) isotype D) specificity E) titer

C) IgE.

The antibody class which is involved in fighting parasites is A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.

A) IgA.

The antibody found in breastmilk and coating mucous membranes is A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.

A) the cellular response and the humoral response.

The branches of adaptive immunity are: A) the cellular response and the humoral response. B) the antigen response and the memory response. C) the cellular response and the memory response. D) the humoral response and the memory response. E) the cellular response, the humoral response, and the memory response.

A) is organized by T helper cells and carried out by T cytotoxic cells.

The cellular branch of adaptive immunity A) is organized by T helper cells and carried out by T cytotoxic cells. B) is organized by T cytotoxic cells and carried out by T helper cells. C) is based on antibody production. D) is based on the activity of both T and B cells. E) does not involve a memory function.

E) are not processed and presented by APCs AND cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen.

The difference between T cell activation by normal antigens and T cell activation by superantigens is that superantigens A) are not processed and presented by APCs. B) cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen. C) suppress cytokine release. D) cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen AND suppress cytokine release. E) are not processed and presented by APCs AND cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen.

E) stimulation of macrophage, B and TC cells

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) selectively infects any cell which carries the CD4 surface glycoprotein. Which immune function will be impaired? A) stimulation of B cells and antibody production B) stimulation of macrophage activity C) stimulation of Tc cells and destruction of virally infected cells D) stimulation of B and Tc cells but not of macrophage E) stimulation of macrophage, B and TC cells

D) IgG.

The most abundant antibody class in the body, found in all body fluids, is A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.

C) interaction of the T cell receptor with the MHC-antigen complex on the APC AND binding between co-stimulatory proteins on the T cell and APC surfaces.

The two-signal activation process for T cells includes A) interaction of the T-cell receptor with the MHC-antigen complex on the APC AND the presence of a superantigen. B) the presence of antibodies AND binding between co-stimulatory proteins on the T cell and APC surfaces. C) interaction of the T cell receptor with the MHC-antigen complex on the APC AND binding between co-stimulatory proteins on the T cell and APC surfaces. D) the presence of a superantigen and the presence of appropriate antibodies. E) the presence of a superantigen AND binding between co-stimulatory proteins on the T cell and APC surfaces.

A) to recognize specific epitopes of an antigen

What is the role of B cell receptors (BCRs) and T cell receptors (TCRs) in the immune response? A) to recognize specific epitopes of an antigen B) to communicate with lymphocytes and other white blood cells C) to release the cytokines needs for immune cell stimulation D) to release chemicals which destroy pathogens E) to combine with haptens so they can stimulate an immune response

E) MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells AND presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells.

What is the role of MHC I in the immune response? A) MHC I is found only on antigen-presenting cells. B) MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells. C) MHC I presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells. D) MHC I is found only on antigen-presenting cells AND presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells. E) MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells AND presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells.

B) remain in the lymphoid tissue to rapidly proliferate and differentiate upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen

What is the role of memory cells? A) circulate in the body at elevated levels to maintain an active attack against any possible pathogen B) remain in the lymphoid tissue to rapidly proliferate and differentiate upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen C) suppress the cellular response once the infection has passed D) provide immune protection specifically for the central nervous system E) prevent an immune response against members of the normal microbiota

D) MHCs

When "matching" a donated organ or tissue to a recipient, it is necessary that the ________ of the donor and the recipient be as similar as possible. A) antibodies B) APCs C) blood type D) MHCs E) T helper cells

A) TC: attack other T cells during self-tolerance screening

Which T cell class is incorrectly matched with its description? A) TC: attack other T cells during self-tolerance screening B) TH1: stimulate TC cells C) TH2: stimulate B cells to make antibodies D) Treg: ensures that immune responses subside once a threat subsides E) TH: identified by the CD4 proteins on the cell surface

C) IgE

Which antibody class would be expected to be elevated in a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction? A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.

B) binding of the antigen to a T helper cell receptor

Which is not a step in the process of B cell activation by a T-dependent antigen? A) binding of the antigen to the B cell receptor B) binding of the antigen to a T helper cell receptor C) processing and displaying the antigen with MHC II on the B cell D) interaction between co-stimulatory proteins on the B and T cells E) release of cytokines by the T helper cell provide the second activation signal for the B cell

A) cytotoxic T cell

Which lymphocyte type is shown attacking the infected cell in the figure? A) cytotoxic T cell B) helper T cell C) memory T cell D) B cell E) antigen-presenting cell

A) active

Which means of acquiring immunity is likely to produce the longest lasting protection? A) active B) artificial C) natural D) passive E) active, artificial, natural, and passive all provide equally long-lasting protection.

D) 4

Which number on the diagram is labeling the portion of the antibody that makes it specific for the antigen it binds to? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

A) antibody

Which of the following is not required for T cell activation? A) antibody B) bound antigen C) co-stimulatory proteins D) involvement of CD4 or CD8 E) MHC I or II

A) B cell activation by a T-independent antigen

Which stage of the humoral response is pictured? A) B cell activation by a T-independent antigen B) B cell activation by a T-dependent antigen C) B cell proliferation D) B cell differentiation E) isotype switching

E) Haptens are any nonpathogenic substance, rather than a microorganism, which can stimulate an immune response.

Which statement does not apply to haptens? A) Haptens are generally too small to be immunogenic on their own. B) Haptens must bind to a more complex molecule to stimulate an immune response. C) Haptens are also known as incomplete antigens. D) Antibiotics such as penicillin are often haptens. E) Haptens are any nonpathogenic substance, rather than a microorganism, which can stimulate an immune response.

D) MHC II interacts with both the CD4 and CD8 receptors on T helper and T cytotoxic cells.

Which statement is not true about MHC II? A) MHC II primarily displays extracellular antigens which have been phagocytized. B) MHC II is present only on antigen-presenting cells. C) MHC II interacts with the CD4 receptor on T helper cells. D) MHC II interacts with both the CD4 and CD8 receptors on T helper and T cytotoxic cells. E) When displaying an antigen, MHC II serves a key role in activation of the appropriate T cells.

C) Regardless of which T helper cell subclass develops during an immune response, the humoral response is not impacted.

Which statement is not true about T cell subclass differentiation? A) Each subclass will include both effector and memory cells. B) Particular combinations of cytokines will favor the development of some T cell subclasses over others. C) Regardless of which T helper cell subclass develops during an immune response, the humoral response is not impacted. D) The release of cytokines that cause T cell subclass differentiation is influenced by the nature and amount present of the antigen. E) The specific T helper cell subclass that develops may impact the progression and outcome of an infectious disease.

A) The process which generates the vast array of diverse antigen receptors is a random process that could produce receptors which will bind to the body's own tissues.

Which statement provides the best explanation of the need for self-tolerance screening of lymphocytes? A) The process which generates the vast array of diverse antigen receptors is a random process that could produce receptors which will bind to the body's own tissues. B) The process which generates the vast array of diverse antigen receptors is a highly controlled process, so the generation of receptors which can bind to the body's own tissues is a rare occurrence due to a genetic mutation. C) Self-tolerance involves "self" lymphocytes which bind to and form a protective layer over all body tissues. D) It is necessary to have some lymphocytes with receptors that are self-tolerant to respond to intracellular infections by viruses. E) Lymphocytes which would attack the body's own tissues are never generated.

C) proteins > polysaccharides > lipids > haptens

While not a hard-and-fast rule, molecules may be ranked from more immunogenic to less immunogenic. Which shows the correct ranking form more immunogenic to less immunogenic? A) haptens > lipids > polysaccharides > proteins B) polysaccharides > lipids > proteins > haptens C) proteins > polysaccharides > lipids > haptens D) haptens > proteins > lipids > polysaccharides E) Only haptens are less immunogenic; lipids, polysaccharides, and proteins have about equal immunogenicity.