Chapter 14-16-16 Microbiology Exam 2

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Flu Shot for 2012/13

-California/7/2009 (H1N1) virus -Victoria/361/2011 (H3N2)-like virus -Wisconsin/1/2010-like virus Trivalent or 3 Viral antigens

Found on the cell surface of all nucleated cells in the body. Their function is to display peptide fragments of non-self proteins from within the cell to cytotoxic T cells

-MHC-I -Because MHC class I molecules present peptides derived from cytosolic proteins, the pathway of MHC class I presentation is often called cytosolic or endogenous pathway

A family of molecules normally found only on antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes, some endothelial cells, thymic epithelial cells, and B cells.

-MHC-II -The antigens presented by class II peptides are derived from extracellular proteins (not cytosolic as in class I); hence, the MHC class II-dependent pathway of antigen presentation is called the endocytic or exogenous pathway.

Antigen presenting cells

-Macrophages -B cells -Dendritic cells

Haptens (General to PowerPoint)

-Non-antigenic -When bound to protein to be antigenic -Penicillin acts as a Hapten

Characteristics of antigens

-Perceived as foreign, not a normal constituent of the body -Foreign cells and large complex molecules -Antigenic determinant, epitope -Has many antigenic determinants

Neutralization (General to PowerPoint)

-Prevents Virus attachment -Inactivates toxins

Antibody Functions (General to PowerPoint)

-Protective mechanisms of binding antibodies to antigens. -Agglutination -Activation of Complement -Opsonization -Ab-dependent, cell-mediated, cytotoxicity (ADCC) -Neutralization

Clonal Selection of B cells (General to PowerPoint)

-Receptors are IgM each clone is specific for an antigen. -Expansion of clone (ag induces) -Antibody to specific ag -Clone makes either IgG, IgM. IgA, IgE to a specific ag.

Types of T cells

-T helper cells -Cytotoxic T cells -Natural killer cells

septicemia

growth of bacteria in the blood

artificial immunity

immunizations with pathogens or their antigens

caution must be used when vaccinating individuals who are

immunocompromised, pregnant

Artificial passive immunity

immunotherapy; injecting immune serum from viral patient; no memory

dimeric form

in mucus and secretions IGA exist

antigen presenting cells

in order to be activated, T cells require antigen presenting cells which display antigen plus MHC

morbidity

incidence of a specific notifiable disease

T-independent antigens

include polysaccharides.

activated B cell undergoes

increase in organelles increase in DNA synthesis increase in overall size

Histamine causes all of the following except constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine. relaxes vascular smooth muscle. pruritis and headache. increased sensitivity to pain. wheal and flare reaction in skin.

increased sensitivity to pain

Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process? convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline

incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence

Enzymes are useful as

industrial catalysts. Produce only one stereoisomer. High substrate specificity

vaccines are for use by

infants, children and adults

example of epidemic disease

influenza

example of syndrome

influenza symptoms and signs

Transient microbiota

inhabit temporarily It can make you sick.

Airborne environmental allergen such as pollen

inhalent

primary infection

initial infection caused by one pathogen

The plant pathogen Agrobacterium tumefaciens can be used to

introduce DNA into plants

Apoptosis

is a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells.

attenuation

is a process, such as subculturing, that is used to reduce the virulence of a pathogen so it can be used in a live vaccine preparation

A female who is Rh- can never have an Rh+ baby. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status. All of the choices are correct. inherited two dominant genes.

is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn

dimeric iga

is called secretory iga

IGM

is the class of antibodies that comprise the majority of antibodies produced early in the primary immune response

herd immunity

is the collective protective immunity exhibited by a population exhibited which confers indirect protection to nonimmune members

FAB

is the name for the antigen binding fragment of an antibody moecule

symbiosis

is the relationship between normal microbiota and the host

ISG - immune serum globulin

is used for passive immunization and contains immunoglobulin extracted from the pooled blood of at least 1000 human donors

Graft between identical twins

isograft

When a potential allergen passes through a portal of entry, it enters the ______ fluid and travels to the lymph nodes where it is exposed to the B cell that recognizes and binds to the epitopes. The B cell is activated and proliferates into a clone of _____ cells that produce _____ antibodies against the allergen. This initial encounter is considered the ______ dose.

lymphatic, plasma, IgE, sensitizing

hemolysins

lyse red blood cells

Clone

mature lymphocyte which responds to a unique antigen

transient microbiota

may be present for days, weeks, or months

carriers

may have inapparent infections or latent diseases

example of systemic infection

measles

pathogenic microbes use

multiple strategies for entering/infecting host cell

Infection

multiplication of a parasitic organism

A patient who has been hospitalized with uncontrolled muscle spasms has probably been infected with bacteria that secrete a(n) enterotoxin. membrane disrupting toxin. superantigen. neurotoxin.

neurotoxin.

specifically interfere with nerve cell function

neurotoxins

antigen synthesis, gene cloning recombinant dna

new strategies are constantly being investigated in vaccine production

A person is exposed to desert air containing fungus spores and develops valley fever as a result. Valley fever is an example of a ________ disease. contagious latent noncommunicable chronic subacute

noncommunicable

non infectious diseases

not directly caused by pathogens

pathogenicity of fungi

not very well developed most pathogens produce toxins (mycotoxins)

10) Proteins produced by the innate immune response to fight virus infection are (complement/interferons/opsonins).

nterferons

mortality rate

number of deaths from a disease in relation to the population in a given time

morbidity rate

number of people affected in relation to the total population in a given time period

contact inhibition

occurs in normal animal cells that stop dividing when they touch; the loss of this results in unregulated cell growth

The variable region of an antibody occurs

on all four chains.

where are adhesins found on many pathogenic bacteria?

on fimbriae, flagella, & glycocalyces

APCs present antigen

on mhc II molecules to activate T helper cells

opa

outer membrane protein

example of symptoms

pain, headache, fatigue

if an epidemic occurs simultaneously on more than one continent

pandemic

a parasite derives benefit from its host while harming it, though some hosts sustain only slight damage

parasitism

the 4th entry point for pathogens

parenteral route - not a portal but a way of circumventing the usual portals

any parasite that causes disease is called a

pathogen

biological transmission

pathogen reproduces in the vector; transmitted via bites or feces

toxins

pathogenic produced poisons that cause most of the symptoms and signs of a disease

2. The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called antibodies. sensitized T cells. activated macrophages. plasma cells. Bursa cells.

plasma cells

The cells that actually secrete antibodies are

plasma cells

example of secondary infection

pneumonia or bronchitis

What is a toxin?

poison released by an organism

Toxin

poison that is produced by an organism

Venom

poison/toxin that is delivered by a bite or sting

Toxins

poisonous substances that are produced by certain microbes; often primary factor contributing to the pathogenic properties of those microbes

Pathogens leave host through --------- -- ----

portals of exit - Many portals of exit are the same as portals of entry - Pathogens often leave hosts in materials the body secretes ( earwax, tears, nasal secretions, saliva, sputum, & respiratory droplets), in blood (arthropod bites, hypodermic needles, or wounds), in vaginal secretions or semen, in milk produced in mammary glands, & in bodily wastes (urine & feces)

fit to drink

potable

LD50

potency of a toxin lethal dosage for 50% of sample population;

skin, mucous membranes, parenteral route

preferred portals of entry (specific portals of entry)

Allergies run in families because All of the choices are correct. relative production of IgE is inherited. immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus. immunoglobulins pass through breast milk. the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined.

relative production of IgE is inherited

siderophores

released into the medium where they take the iron away form iron transport proteins by binding the iron even more tightly; once iron-sidephore complex is formed, it is taken up by siderophore receptors on bacterial surface; iron brought to bacterium

memory cells

remain for long periods to be ready to respond to the same antigen encountered at a later time

32. Cytotoxic T cells stimulate B cell proliferation. lack specificity for a target cell. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells. All of the choices are correct.

secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.

Once a B Cell becomes a plasma cell, what is its only job?

secretion of immunoglobulin

MHC class I proteins allow for the recognition of ____molecules

self

pathophysiology

structural and functional changes caused by the disease

disease has durations and severities between acute & chronic

subacute disease

secondary infection

subsequent infection caused by another pathogen before the primary infection is cleared

superantigens

such as some bacterial toxins, are potent stimulators of T cells and are responsible for diseases such as toxic shock

Measles viruses are capable of inactivating host defenses by suppressing the immune system. destroying complement proteins. producing leukocidins. producing superantigens.

suppressing the immune system.

adhesins (ligands)

surface molecules (lipoproteins, glycoproteins) in the pathogen that attach to specific molecules on the cell membrane of host cells called receptors

invasins

surface proteins produced by microbes that rearrange nearby actin filaments of cytoskeleton

the third step in Koch's postulates

the pathogen from the pure culture must cause the same disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible laboratory animal

the second step in Koch's postulates

the pathogen must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture

the fourth and final step in Koch's postulates

the pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the original organism

bacteremia

the presence of bacteria in blood

toxemia

the presence of microbial-produced poisons in blood

septicemia

the presence of pathogens (ex. bacteria in blood), actively multiplying

viremia

the presence of viral particles in blood

reservoir

the source of infection (pathogens)

Serological testing relies upon the specificity of the Fc region of antibodies. a patient who is not immunocompromised. very high viral or bacterial load in the patient. None of the choices is correct. the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies.

the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies

pathology

the study of disease

Epidemiology

the study of where and when a disease occurs

epidemiology

the study of where and when diseases occur and how they are transmitted in populations

vaccination`

the term originated from the latin word for cow because the cowpox virus was used against smallpox as a preparation for active immunization

T cell maturation in the thymus is directed by

the thymus gland, hormones

ID 50

the virulence of a microbe expressed as this; infection dose for 50% of a sample population; smaller ID 50, better portal of entry ex. Anthrax (inhalation is 10,000 +, where skin is 10 to 50), skin is desired portal of entry

cytopathic effects

the visible effects on a host cell by a virus that may result in host cell damage (noncytocidal effects) or death (cytocidal effects); may diagnose viral infections

Which of the following is not a theory to explain the origin of autoimmune diseases? All of the choices are possible theories. theory of immune deficiency sequestered antigen theory clonal selection theory viral infection theory

theory of immune deficiency

when looking at pathogenic microbes

there are many that lack a vaccine

They are usually functionally inactive (not performing effector functions) until

they are stimulated by an antigen

What is resident microbiota?

this is part of the normal microbiota throughout life; most are commensal.

The function of the secretory component of the IgA molecule is

to protect IgA from being destroyed by proteolytic enzymes.

antibody principal activity

to unite with, immobilize, call attention to, or neutralize the antigen which is complementary to its receptor

What was the first genetically modified (GM) plant to be grown commercially

tobacco

toxemia

toxins in the blood

Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives. True or False

true

Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death. True or False

true

T-independent antigens can activate B cells directly.

true

The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment.

true

When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur. True or False

true

Koch proved that Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes

tuberculosis

Septic shock due to gram-positive bacteria is caused by A. Membrane-disrupting toxins. B. A-B toxins. C. Lipid A. D. Superantigens. E. All of the above.

D. Superantigens.

9) Neutrophils use their own (DNA/RNA/TLR) in the formation of NETs to trap bacteria.

DNA

cell wall components

waxy cell walls of Mycobacterium

Protein synthesis in a foreign host is subject to which problems

Degradation by intracellular proteases, Toxicity to prokaryotic host, Formation of inclusion bodies

A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens are A. Dendritic cells B. Macrophages C. Mast cells D. Platelets E. Eosinophils

Dendritic cells

Cytotoxic T cells

Destroy foreign or abnormal cells by secreting perforins that lyse cells (CD8 or Tc)

Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis? A. Ingestion B. Diapedesis C. Phagolysosome formation D. Destruction E. Chemotaxis

Diapedesis

Usually involves body contact between hosts Transmission within a single individual can also occur

Direct contact transmission

Cell-mediated immunity requires

Direct involvement of T lymphocytes

B-cell maturation

Directed by bone marrow sites that harbor stromal cells, which nurture the lymphocyte stem cells and provide hormonal signals

--------- results if the invading pathogen alters normal body functions, also referred to as morbidity

Disease

toxic shock syndrome

Staphylococcus aureus

dust particles can carry

Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, & Hantavirus

1. To prepare instrument for surgery. 2. For inanimate objects.

Sterilization methods are often used:

Form of virulence factor

Superantigens

Toxins that stimulate proliferation of T cells non-specifically and provoke intense immune responses are called _________.

Superantigens

Difficulties in satisfying Koch's postulates

Diseases that can be caused by more than one pathogen (pneumonia, meningitis, & hepatitis) Pathogens that are ignored as potential causes of disease

Immunocompetence

Dual system of B and T lymphocytes

1. Staining Techniques 2. Chemotherapeutic Drugs 3. Selective and Differential Media

Dyes are important for:

Where do you find IgE? IgA? IgG?

E: connective tissue below skin A: anywhere with Mucosa G: blood

The release of endotoxins as bacteria are destroyed by phagocytes causes the phagocytes to release tumor necrosis factor (TNF) the life-threatening loss of blood pressure occuring due to the action of TNF is called __________.

Endotoxic shock

Most pathogens that gain access through the skin by _________

Entering through hair folicles and sweat ducts

Exoenzymes

Enzymes that are excreted into the medium instead of being held within the cell; they are extracellular. Can digest insoluble polymers such as cellulose, protein, and starch

Extremozymes

Enzymes that function at some environmental extreme (e.g., pH or temperature). Produced by extremophiles

The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are A. Basophils B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. Monocyte E. Lymphocytes

Eosinophils

Active Immunity

Exposed to Antigens Antigen activates B and T cells Memory cells Long-term protection

10) Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration of phagocytes to the area.

FALSE

T/F Infectious disease is the leading cause of worldwide deaths.

False. Other causes are a result--cardiovascular alone is 16.7 million

Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test for HIV? Quellung radioimmunoassay (RIA) Western blot Ouchterlony double diffusion immunelectrophoresis

western blot

immunocompetence-1

what a person displays if they have the ability to react to antigen and form a protective immune response even without previous exposure

two identical heavy chains two identical light chains

what an antibody molecule is made of

symptoms

what is felt by a patient

T helper cells

when activatied, can help activate B cells

The ____ portion of the allergen-specific IgE antibodies have a high affinity for mast cells and _______. They bind to receptors embedded in the membranes of these cells, up to 100,000 antibodies, exposing their variable regions.

Fc, basophils

What cell structure does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use to attach and enter host epithelial cells?

Fimbriae

Clonal selection

First introduction of each type of antigen into the immune system selects a genetically distinct lymphocyte causing it to expand into a clone of cells that can react to that antigen

Preparation of a viral subunit vaccine

Fragmentation of viral DNA by restriction enzymes, Cloning of viral coat protein genes into a suitable vector, Provision of proper conditions for expression (promoter, reading frame, and ribosome-binding site) Reinsertion and expression of the viral genes in a microbe

Cause of the exposure to environmental microbes

Frequency of memory cells increases with age

Sapremia

Fungal infection---includes the fungi waste in blood

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed A. Antigen binding site B. Hapten C. None of the choices are correct D. Epitope E. Variable region

Hapten

An incomplete or partial antigen. Although it constitutes the determinative group and can bind antigen, it cannot stimulate a full immune response without being carried by a larger protein molecule.

Haptens

Not antigenic unless attached to a larger carrier

Haptens

infections acquired by patients or health care workers while they are in health care facilities

Healthcare associated infections (HAIs) nosocomial infections or diseases

Immunization

-Vaccination Programs: Prophylactic -Artificial actively acquired immunity -Types of vaccines Attenuated whole-agent Inactivated whole-agent Toxoids Subunit vaccines

What are four types of exotoxins, and what cells do they harm?

Hemolysins---destroy RBC Leukocidins---destroy WBC Neurotoxins----destroy nerve cells Enterotoxins---destroy intestinal cells

examples of chronic disease

Hepatitis B, AIDS, tuberculosis

Sterilization

The goal of __ is to remove or destroy all viable microorganisms including viruses.

Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by

The limulus amoebocyte lysate test

Clonal Deletion

• Any clones that react to self are destroyed during development through clonal deletion. self-recognizing clones are eliminated

Side Effects of Vaccines

• Local reactions at the injection site • Fever • Allergies • Some patients experience reactions to the medium rather than the antigens

5 Main Stages of Immunologic Development and Interaction

• Lymphocyte development and differentiation • The presentation of antigens • The challenge of B and T lymphocytes by antigens • B lymphocytes and the production and activities of antibodies • T lymphocyte responses

Immune Serum Globulin

• Made from blood of people who had Measles, Rubella, Hepatitis - specific serum for people who have one of these diseases

Secondary Lymphoid organs

-Where lymphocytes are Activated. *Lymph nodes *Tonsils *Spleen *Peyer's Patches

what are factors that determine distribution and composition of normal microbiota?

-nutrients -chemical factors -host's defense -mechanical factors

What are the four stages of pathogenesis?

1. Exposure/Contact/Entry---somehow pathogen enters 2. Adhesion/Colonization---surface 3. Invasion--must invade to cause disease 4. Exit--and find a new host

the time between infection and occurrence of 1st symptoms or signs of disease

1. Incubation period

Types of non-infectious diseases

1. Inhererited 2. Conogential 3. Idiopathic 4. Iatrogenic

A delayed-type hypersensitivity such as the tuberculin reaction is an example of a type ____ hypersensitivity.

IV

Which of these terms is most inclusive, and which is least inclusive?

If it is a toxin, it is also a poison=inclusive Poison in the most inclusive ***__________is least inclusive

Which disease is correctly matched with the common portal of entry? 1. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract 2. chlamydia; skin 3. influenza; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract 4. measles; parenteral route 5. hookworm; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract

1. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract

Types of Superantigens

1. systemic inflammation 2. Cytokine storm

How long after initiation of a primary response do significant amounts of antibody appear in the blood?

10-14 days

tears

13- The flow of __________ flushes microbes from the eyes. sebum saliva urine tears

urine

14- The flow of __________ flushes the urethra.

respiratory

15- Ciliated epithelium and nasal hair are first-line defense adaptations that guard the ____________ tract.

Undifferentiated lymphocytes have ___ different genes for the Variable region of light chains

150

typical human body contains about (blank) of body cells and (blank) of bacterial cells

3 x 10^13 and 4 x 10^13

23. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.

IgA.

Specific B-cell receptor

Immunoglobulin

Specific genes of B cells govern what?

Immunoglobulin (Ig) synthesis

the most severe stage of an infectious disease. Signs & symptoms are most evident during this time. Typically patient's immune system has not fully responded to pathogens, and their presence is harming the body, this stage is usually when Dr. 1st sees the patient

3. illness

neutrophils basophils eosinophils

31- Which of the following are granulocytic white blood cells? lymphocytes....monocytes....neutrophils basophils........eosinophils

Microbes, dust, and dead cells

39- Which is engulfed by phagocytes? Microbes and dead cells Dead cells Dust Microbes, dust, and dead cells

Which of these viral cytopathic effects is most likely to be associated with the development of cancer? 1. cell fusion 2. stimulation of interferon production 3. inclusion bodies 4. loss of contact inhibition 5. cell death

4. loss of contact inhibition

TRUE

42- True or false: In phagocytosis, the phagosome forms prior to the phagolysosome.

Clonal Selection and Expansion

•Second stage of development •Requires stimulation by an antigen •Antigen contact with a lymphocyte stimulates the clone to undergo mitotic divisions

1-Initiation 2-Amplification 3-Polymerization 4-Membrane attack

64-Give the correct order for the stages of complement activation.

Interleukin-1 Interferon Histamine TNF

65- which of the following are NOT exogenous pyrogens? LPS Interleukin-1 Interferon Histamine TNF

skin

7- __________ is/are an external, confluent protective barrier. inflammation skin antibodies phagocytosis

Liters of ethanol produced yearly for industrial purposes

>50,000,000,000

Which cells' direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunity? A. T-cells B. B-cells C. Bacterial cells D. Viral components E. Neutrophils

A

Kills

A bactericide __ bacteria.

An example of natural passive immunity would be A. None of the choices are correct B. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease C. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta D. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity E. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox

A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta

The most recognized infection-induced secondary immunodeficiency today is ______.

AIDS

Process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells

Adhesion

Precipitation

Aggregation of particulate antigen

disease

An abnormal state in which the body is not functioning normally

Steam under pressure.

An autoclave is a sterilization chamber that allows the use of __ to sterilize materials.

What would be an appropriate response if an antigen is presented on MHC class II molecules?

An effector CD4 cell activates the presenting cell.

Secondary Infection

An infection resulting from the primary infection---Ear infection

Sterile

An object is __ if it is free of all viable microorganisms including viruses.

Specificity

Antibodies produced, function only against the antigen that they were produced in response to

Antitoxins

Antibodies that neutralize toxins. Kill bacteria with antibiotics but you need to also deal with the toxins that are circulating • Eliminate circulating toxins with antitoxins (which are antibodies) • Examples: Tetanus & Botulism toxins

Identify the role(s) of natural killer cells.

Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity AND negative selection of lymphocytes that recognize normal "self" molecules AND regulation and direction of certain immune responses. Correct

A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a/an A. Marker B. PAMP C. Antibody D. Antigen E. Hapten

Antigen

Fab interacts with...

Antigen

A substance that provokes an immune response in specific lymphocytes

Antigen (Ag)

Two arm arrangement FAB

Antigen binding (variable) • Site where epitope binds

Allergen

Antigen that evokes allergic reactions

Aqueous, Tinctures

Antimicrobial solutions with water as the solvent are called __ solutions, whereas antimicrobial solutions with alcohol or water-alcohol mixtures as the solvent are called __.

------------ infections lack symptoms but may still have signs of infection

Asymptomatic, or subclinical,

Acquired specific immunity involves the response of A. B and C lymphocytes B. Skin barriers C. Lysozyme D. Interferon E. Mucus membrane

B and C lymphocytes

antigens stimulate

B and T cells that have specific receptors for that antigen

specific immune response

B and T lymphocytes cooperate to produce this

Higher

In most cases, an agent with a __ concentration will be more germicidal.

What is a toxoid?

Inactive toxin--some vaccines---tetanus

Pathogens are spread from host to host by fomites

Indirect contact transmission

The mechanism by which gram-negative bacteria can cross the blood-brain barrier

Inducing TNF

Who activates the B and other T cells?

Inerleukin-2 produced by TH cells

IgD

Is the receptor for antigen on B-cells

IgM-

It mainly circulates in blood

A whole cell or intact virus preparation in which the microbes are dead or preserved an cannot multiply, but are still capable of conferring immunity.

Killed or Inactivated Vaccine

Formalin

Kills the pathogen but does not change the shape or antigenicity

Natural killer cells

Lack specificity; circulate through the spleen, blood and lungs looking for Ag

Which of the following do not induce a strong immune response?

Lipids AND simple sugars.

Perforin is produced by

NK cells.

13) Intracellular PAMPs are detected by (C1/NOD/TLR) proteins. (Be sure to use capital letters in your answer.)

NOD

The formation of antibodies and memory cells after exposure to a microbe

Natural active immunity

Do B Cells have very high specificity for what they bind to?

No! They can bind to anything.

Antiendotoxins?

No, do not promote formation of effective antitoxins

Does physical contact with a pathogenic microbe always result in an infection and/or disease?

No, it does not. For example, food poisoning. You have to ingest it to become ill.

57. Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations? Autism Diabetes Asthma All of the choices are correct. None of the choices are correct.

None of the choices are correct.

Opportunistic pathogens

Normal microbiota that cause disease under certain circumstances

signs

OBJECTIVE changes a doctor, nurse, healthcare worker can see and measure (temperature, blood pressure, WBC count, rash, swelling)

Parasitism

One organism benefits and the other is harmed

21. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response

Opsonization

One of the outcomes of antibody-antigen binding IgG molecules opsonize antigens, leaving the antigens easier to be phagocytized

Opsonization

The process of stimulating phagocytosis by affixing molecules to the surfaces of foreign cells or particles.

Opsonization

Normal Microbiota in Hosts

Organisms that colonize the body's surfaces without normally causing disease Also termed normal flora and indigenous microbiota Two types

What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances? A. BALTs B. PAMPs C. Lysosomes D. RES E. MALTs

PAMPs

A needlestick is an example of what portal of entry

Parenteral

Epitope-

Part of an antigen molecule where antibody attaches itself.

Passive immunity

Performed antibodies are donated to an individual through some form of heredity

The numerous areas of lymphoid tissue in the wall of the small intestine that are involved in the development of immunity to antigens present there.

Peyer's Patches

It would be useful if antigens were delivered directly to

Peyer's patches AND M cells.

Hypertonic

Plasmolysis of bacteria in foods occur when high concentrations of salt or sugar are added to the foods creating a __ environment.

Major Histocompatibility complex (MHC)

Plays a role in recognition of self by the immune system and in rejection of foreign tissue

Name some examples of sequelae.

Polio--unable to walk Ebola-hearning loss

What are two substances on the outside of bacteria?

Polysaccharides and Lipids.

Sites through which pathogens enter the body

Portals of Entry

Primary metabolite

Produced during exponential growth. Example: alcohol

Properties of a useful industrial microbe include:

Produces spores or can be easily inoculated, Grows rapidly on a large scale in inexpensive medium, Produces desired product quickly, Should not be pathogenic, Amenable to genetic manipulation

Antigenicity

Property of behaving as an antigen

Filtration

The staining of a fluid or air through a membrane to trap microorganisms is known as __.

Aging of red and white win

Red wine is aged for months or years. White wine is often sold without aging

Microbicidal, Microbistatic

Regarding the use of the terms microbicidal and microbistatic, higher temperatures are usually __, whereas lower temperatures are usually __.

T helper cells

Regulate immune reaction to antigens, including other T and B cells

Functions of Class 2 MHC

Regulatory receptors found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

The binding of Fc may result in..

Release of cytokines

Sites where pathogens are maintained as a source of infection

Reservoirs of infection

Two types of normal flora

Resident microbiota Transient microbiota

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the A. Respiratory tract B. Eyes C. Urinary tract D. Digestive tract E. Skin

Respiratory tract

Active immunity

Results when aperson is challenged with antigen that stimulates production of antibodies

Antigens on red blood cells include ______.

Rh, Mn, Kell

Microbes can also produce

Riboflavin

example of commensalism

S. epidermidis of the skin, and Corynebacterium of the ear bring no harm to the host

Name some examples of emerging diseases.

SARS virus Ebola virus H5N1 avian influenza Zika virus

antibody titer

SIG has the higher titer

Point

The thermal death __ is the lowest temperature that achieves sterilization in a given volume within 10 minutes.

Describe how the third line of defense is different than other defense mechanisms

The third line of defense is specific to a particular antigen and has memory of the encounter with the antigen

Scale-up

The transfer of a process from a small laboratory scale to large-scale commercial equipment. Major task of the biochemical engineer. Requires knowledge of the biology of producing organism and the physics of fermentor design and operation. Flask → laboratory fermentor → pilot plant → commercial fermentor

1. Enveloped Viruses 2. Fungi

The two microbial agents that at least resistant to physical and chemical control methods include:

Antimicrobial

There are many factors that may influence the action of __ agents besides time.

Select the statements that apply to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Check all that apply. This occurs due to Rh incompatibility between an Rh+ mom and Rh- baby. Fetal RBC leakage sensitizes the mother to make anti-Rh antibodies. Anti-Rh antibodies that are IgG can cross the placenta and induce complement-mediated lysis of fetal RBCs. After sensitization with Rh+ fetal RBCs, all subsequent pregnancies (Rh+ and Rh- fetuses) are at risk for hemolytic disease. Hemolytic disease is a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

This occurs due to Rh incompatibility between an Rh+ mom and Rh- baby. Fetal RBC leakage sensitizes the mother to make anti-Rh antibodies. Hemolytic disease is a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

Animals are required for the cultivation of Treponema pallidum. Clostridium. Streptococcus. Pseudomonas. Salmonella.

Treponema pallidum

T/F There are more bacterial cells on or in a human body than cells that make up an individual.

True

Recombinant vaccines

Vector vaccine. Subunit vaccine. DNA vaccine.

animals that transmit disease among hosts

Vectors

...

Viricides __ viruses.

Degree of pathogenicity, the relative ability of a pathogen to infect a host & cause disease

Virulence

Viremia

Virus in blood--replicating==septicemia and viremia

1. Filtration 2. Heat 3. Radiation 4. Cold

Which of the following are examples of physical agents or mechanical means used to control microbes?

1. Endospores 2. Heat-resistance Microbes

Which of the following are not usually destroyed or inactivated with regular pasteurization methods?

1. Ethylene Oxide 2. Chlorine Dioxide

Which of the following compounds are commonly used as gaseous sterilants or disinfectants?

1. Viruses 2. Endospores

Which of the following microbial forms are relatively resistant to heat?

1. Is it cost and labor-efficient? 2. Is sterilization needed? 3. Can it withstand physical or chemical treatments? 4. Is the item reusable or disposable? 5. Is it safe? 6. Will it penetrate effectively?

Which of the following should be considered when initially choosing a method of microbial control?

Vaccine Preparation- 1st Generation

Whole cell or virus • Live, attenuated (weakened) cells or viruses • Killed cells or inactivated viruses

dolor

With respect to inflammation, ___________ is Latin for pain, is caused by the stimulation of nerve endings

Immunoglobulins

Y shaped arrangement with 4 polypeptide chains connected by disulfide bonds

Incineration

__ of loops and needles in the laboratory is an example of using dry heat to sterilize materials.

Sterilization

__ of surgical instruments may not be achieved by boiling in water.

UV

__ radiation only penetrates slightly through liquids.

Boiling

__ water only disinfects items; Surgical instruments should be sterilized using other means.

antigen / II

___presenting cells are involved in the activation of T helper cells through the displaying of immunogen fragments on the MHC ____molecules

1) The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) species resistance. D) microbial antagonism. E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity.

a

21) Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream? A) monocyte B) lymphocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil E) neutrophil

a

23) Which of the following proteins are part of the first line of defense against microbial invasion? A) dermcidins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) C3 and C5 E) interferons

a

26) Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is true? A) TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes. B) TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins. C) Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors. D) NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs. E) MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins.

a

28) What are NOD proteins? A) cytoplasmic receptors of microbial molecules B) cellular signals triggering inflammation C) receptors of microbial molecules in phagocyte cell membranes D) activators of complement E) chemotactic factors

a

33) How does aspirin act to decrease the symptoms of inflammation? A) it acts as an antiprostaglandin. B) it is an antitoxoid for most microbial toxins. C) it prevents complement activation. D) it interferes with the action of interferons. E) it blocks the release of histamine.

a

Which of the following is not a target for TC cells? A. Cancer B. Bacteria C. Human transplanted liver D. Pig transplanted heart E. Virus infected cells

Bacteria

Bacteremia

Bacteria in your blood--do not have to replicate

example of subacute disease

Bacterial endocarditis

The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are A. Basophils B. Neutrophils C. Eosinphils D. Monocyte E. Lymphocytes

Basophils

37) Opsonization is A) the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis. B) the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the blood vessels at the site of infection. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. E) phagocyte receptors detecting PAMPs.

a

42) TLRs are A) phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs. B) the coatings of pathogens by complement. C) molecules that damage cells, resulting in cell lysis. D) present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

a

mechanical transmission

a PASSIVE vector transmission - the insect (ex. fly) lands on untreated sewage, carries pathogens on their feet and mouth parts. then the vector flies and lands on food which is ingested by the host

clonal selection theory

a conceptual explanation for the development of lymphocyte specificity and variety during immune system maturation

acute disease

a disease that develops quickly, very strong symptoms, lasts a short time

endemic disease

a disease that is constantly present within a population

non- communicable disease

a disease that is not spread from one host to another

communicable disease

a disease that is spread from one host to another

pathogen

a disease-causing microorganism

the ID50 is _______

a dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population

false

a given host cell can express only one type of receptor

primary immune response

a latent period occurs at the beginning of the response and it is marked by a lack of antibodies to the activating antigen

septic shock

a life-threatening decrease in blood pressure (sudden) due to massive release of endotoxins

vehicle transmission

a medium (water, food, body fluids, air) carries and transmits pathogens

saxitoxin

a neurotoxin that, when ingested, cause symptoms similar to botulism; produced by dinoflagellates

all microbes have

a preferred portal of entry

symbiosis

a relationship between two organisms; at least one must benefit

Koch's postulates

a series of 4 experimental steps that links a suspected pathogen to a specific disease

6. The major histocompatability complex is a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system. a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors. also known as the complement system. located in the thymus gland. All of the choices are correct.

a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.

interferons

a specific group of cytokines; antiviral proteins produced by certain animal cells in response to viral infection; protects neighboring uninfected cells from viral infection

syndrome

a specific group of signs and symptoms that accompany a disease

lysogeny

a state in which bacteriophage DNA is incorporated into the host cell without lysis

droplet transmission

a type of contact transmission - mucus droplets from talking, sneezing, coughing, etc. traveling LESS THAN 1 meter

criteria to be a reservoir

a) a continual source of the pathogen b) must supply all the requirements for growth c) must have opportunity for transmission

fimbriae

and opa are used to attach to host cells, host cell takes in the bacteria

vectors

animals that carry and transmit pathogens

y shape

antibody symmetrical shape

specific immunity

any exposed or released protein or polysaccharide is a potential antigen

Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response? A. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B cells. B. Lymphocyte development, challenge of B cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens. C. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production. D. Antibody production, lymphocyte production, B cell challenge, presentation of antigens. E. Presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production, lymphocyte development.

C

antigen specific receptors

b cells are different from almost all other cell types

independently

b cells can ____recognize antigens, that is they do not need an antigen presenting cell

coagulases

bacteria enzymes that coagulate (clot) the fibrongen in blood; Fibrogen (plasma protein)is converted into fibrin the threads that form a blood clot Fibrin clot may protect bacterium from phagocytosis and isolate it from other defenses of the host Staphylococcus

bacteriemia

bacteria in the blood

septicemia

bacterial growth in the blood with or without toxin production

why can't transient microbiota persist long in our body?

because of - competition from other miroorganisms - elimination by the body's defense cells - chemical and physical changes in the body that dislodge them

when did normal microbial population begin to establish?

before birth from placental microbiome

The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except A. Warmth B. Redness C. Chills D. Pain E. Swelling

Chills

All nucleated cells contain___. A. Class II MHC B. Secretory antibodies C. Class I MHC D. IgE receptors

Class I MHC

A conceptual explanation for the development of lymphocyte specificity and variety during immune maturation.

Clonal Selection

Genetic engineering is achieved by

Cloning the gene via mRNA. Finding the gene via the protein

Which of these organisms does not produce an enterotoxin? 1. Shigella spp. 2. Clostridium botulinum 3. Vibrio cholerae 4. Staphylococcus aureus

Colostridium botulinum

Antibiotics

Compounds that kill or inhibit the growth of other microbes. Typically secondary metabolites. Assayed for products that inhibit growth of test bacteria. Still discovered by laboratory screening

Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen? binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability histamine acts on smooth muscle degranulation

binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

the activation of B cells involves

binding of antigen clonal selection

What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time? bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils histamine acts on smooth muscle binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils degranulation prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

T cells and B cells are produced in the

bone marrow

ligands

called adhesions on bacteria and attachment proteins on viruses

active immunity

can be natural through the acquisition of antibody in breast milk or artificial by the injection of preformed antibody

IgA proteases

can destroy IgA antibodies

example of communicable disease

chicken pots, tuberculosis

examples of contagious diseases

chicken pox, measles

Mosaic antigens:

complex with numerous parts, each of which elicit a separate lymphocyte response

titer

concentration of antibodies in serum

hyaluronan

connects/glues

Allergens that enter through the skin

contactant

4) Which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms? A) basophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) lymphocytes

d

main antigen presenting cells

dendritic cells, B cells, macrophages

Antigen Presenting Cells

dendritic cells, macrophages, B lymphocytes • MHC-II Molecules on their surface • Present antigen in the MHC-II molecule to CD-4 (T-helper) cells

cytotoxic T

destroys cells from other animals and humans based on the peptides they display on their surface with MHC class I

Saxitoxin is produced by ________.

dinoflagellates

Natural active immunity

direct exposure due to infection; develop a specific response; may suffer consequences

epidemic disease

disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short time

endemic disease

disease constantly present in a population

zoonoses

diseases people can get from animals/animal products (wild and domestic)

congenital disease

diseases that are present at or before birth ex: down syndrome

Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests. None of the choices is correct. indirect fluorescent antibody direct fluorescent antibody ELISA Western blot

elisa

Class III genes (MHC)

encode proteins involved with the complement system

lipid A

endotoxin - can be released when gram-negative bacteria divide, die naturally, or are digested by phagocytic cells - many types stimulate the body to release chemicals that cause fever, inflammation, diarrhea, hemorrhaging, shock, & blood coagulation

dendritic cells

engulf antigen and modify it so that it will be more immunogenic and recognizable to T lymphocytes

affect cells lining the gastrointestinal tract

enterotoxins

granzymes

enzymes that attack proteins of target cells

kinases

exoenzymes that dissolves blood clots made by the host's immune system to isolate and contain an infection

The peptides presented by MHC class II peptide molecules are

exogenous antigens.

Test a hypothesis concerning the cause of a disease Apply Koch's postulates

experimental epidemiology

Stages of Pathogenesis

exposure (contact), adhesion (colonization), invasion, and infection

Genetic engineering allows

expression of eukaryotic genes in prokaryotes (e.g., insulin)

virulence

extent of disease

Exoenzymes

extracellular enzymes

exoenzymes

extracellular enzymes

What are some common portals of exit?

eye(tears)-mammary glands--placenta--vagina--skin flakes--urethra--nose secretions--earwax-broken skin/blood--insect bite--anus--needle

Secondary lymphoid organs

facilitate interactions between cells.

material that serve good antigens

glycoproteins, nucleoproteins, proteins, lipoproteins

4) The (epithelial/goblet/mucous) cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus.

goblet

Denaturation

The disruption of proteins from their native state is known as __.

What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?

Sign is a Can be observed by examining the patient Symptom--can only be felt by the patient

Objective manifestations of disease observed or measured by others

Signs = swelling, vomiting, shivering, rash, redness, & fever

Monoclonal antibodies

Single specificity antibodies formed by fusing a mouse B cell with a cancer cell

Superantigen Fab

Site on the antibody where the epitope binds and is composed of a hypervariable regions.

This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota A. Urinary tract B. Digestive tract C. Respiratory tract D. Skin E. Eyes

Skin

1st Portal of Entry

Skin - Outer layer of dead skin cells acts as a barrier to pathogens - Some pathogens can enter through openings or cuts - Others enter by burrowing into or digesting outer layers of skin

Three major portals of entry for pathogens

Skin Mucous membranes Placenta

Haptens

Small foreign molecules that consist only of a determinant group

Epitope

Small molecular group that is recognized by lymphocytes

8) The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature.

TRUE

9) Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms.

TRUE

1. Contamination with organic matter. 2. Nature of microbial population. 3. Time of exposure to germicide. 4. Material being treated. 5. Chemical action of germicide. 6. Concentration of germicide.

The effect of a germicide is affected by which of the following factors?

The basis for most immune responses

The encounter between antigens and white blood cells

Mechanisms of streptokinase and how it helps in invasion

Toxin--dissolves the clot and breaks down blood.

Virulence Factor of Infectious Agents that are chemicals that harm tissues or trigger host immune responses that cause damage.

Toxins

Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal ________

Transferrin

Vector vaccine

Vaccine made by inserting genes from a pathogenic virus into a relatively harmless carrier virus (e.g., vaccinia virus)

toxoids

altered exotoxins to stimulate antibody production ex. tetanus

biological transmission

an ACTIVE, more complex form of vector transmission - vector first bites an infected animal, ingests blood. the pathogen reproduces in the gut or salivary glands of the vector. then the vector bites a host (person) and infects them with the pathogen

Third stage of lymphocyte development

Both T and B cells migrate to secondary lymphoid tissue

How is the central portion of a T cell receptor complex functionally analogous to the center of the B cell receptor complex?

Both receptors bind epitopes (small amino acid sections of antigen molecules).

29. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are A. IgM only. B. IgG only. C. IgD only. D. IgM and IgG. E. IgE and IgA.

C

• CD4

CD4 expressed on T helper cells and binds to MHC-II molecules

MHC I molecules

CD8 cells recognize antigen

class I molecules

CD8 cells recognize antigen bound to

require doctors & hospitals to report certain infectious diseases

CDC

WASH YOUR HANDS

CDC says the most effective way to prevent nosocomial infections is to...

Are used in diagnosis of disease, identification of microbes and therapy

Monoclonal antibodies

pathogenicity of algae

"Red Tide" - toxic algal blooms not very well developed disease is due to toxins

IgA

Monomer; circulates in blood, dimer in mucous and serous secretions

IgG

Monomer; produced by plasma cells and memory cells

List characteristics of antigens that optimize their immunogenicity

Shape Size 10,000 DA or higher Foreign Accessibility

Acquisition of normal microbiota

- Fetus in womb is free of microorganisms - Microbiota begin to develop during birthing process - Much of one's resident microbiota are established during first months of life

arthropods

"joint-footed" animals that are the most important and largest group of vectors - insects

Cellular Immunity

-Lymphocytes: CD4 cells or Th CD8 cells or Tc and CTL Tm cells Nk cells (innate) -APC: Dendritic cells Macrophages

Exceptions to Koch's postulates

- Some pathogens cannot be cultured in the laboratory - Some diseases are caused by a combination of pathogens and other cofactors - Ethical considerations prevent applying Koch's postulates to pathogens that require a human host

FALSE

29-True or false: All white blood cells are called lymphocytes.

The two identical arms of an antibody (AKA immunoglobulins). The _____ region binds the antigen (fragments that were antigen binding)

-Fab region -Light chain

The stem of the antibody. (fragments that could be crystallized)

-Fc region -Heavy Chain

T-cell receptor (TCR)

-Found on all T-cells -Holds specific antigen -CD4, CD3, CD8

Exists as a dimer; found in saliva, tears, and breast milk

-IgA -Dimer (4 Binding sites) -Body secretions

What is the only isotype from the TI B Cells?

-IgM

Lymphocyte types (2)

1) B-Lymphocytes (B-cells) Humoral Immunity (macromolecules) 2) T-Lymphocytes (T-cells) Cellular Immunity (phagocytes)

B-cells: 1) site of maturation 2) specific surface markers 3) circulation in blood 4) receptors for antigen 5) Distribution in Lymphatic organs 6) Require Antigen presented with MHC? 7) Product of Antigen stimulation

1) Bone Marrow 2) Immunoglobulin (Ig) 3) Low Numbers 4) B-cell receptor (Ig) 5) Cortex (in follicles) 6) No 7) Plasma cells and Memory cells

1) What is the costimulatory signal for TD antigens? 2) TI? and 3) Which one produces memory B cells?

1) Helper T-cells 2) Only requires the antigen 3) TD antigens

What are the 3 products of differentiation after clonal expansion? (i.e., what are the 3 types of plasma cells that are produced)

1) IgM expressing cells 2) IgG expressing cells 3)High Affinity IgG B Cells (stay in lymph node)

What are the three types of T cells?

1) T helper cells 2) T cytotoxic cells 3) T suppressor cells

T-cells: 1) site of maturation 2) specific surface markers 3) circulation in blood 4) receptors for antigen 5) Distribution in Lymphatic organs 6) Require Antigen presented with MHC? 7) Product of Antigen stimulation

1) Thymus 2) T-cell receptor, several CD molecules 3) High numbers 4) T-cell receptor 5) Paracortical sites (interior to follicles) 6) Yes 7) Several types of sensitized T cells and Memory Cells

Antibody production

1- Which of the following is NOT a nonspecific host defense? Physical barrier....Chemical barrier Genetic differences....Antibody production

TRUE

2- True or false: The first and second lines of host defense are nonspecific protections.

Viruses can evade host defenses by ________. 1. producing enzymes that destroy antibody molecules 2. "hiding" inside host cells where they cannot be detected by the host's immune system 3. producing leukocidins that actively destroy white blood cells 4. inhibiting phagocytosis due to the presence of the viral envelope

2. "hiding" inside host cells where they cannot be detected by the host's immune system

Which of these effects is most likely to occur if a pathogen enters the body by a portal of entry other than the preferred one? 1. A more severe disease will result. 2. A milder disease will result. 3. A different disease of the same severity will result. 4. Pathogens cannot enter by alternate routes.

2. A milder disease will result

The pathogenicity of which of the following is not the result of lysogeny? 1. Clostridium botulinum 2. Clostridium tetani 3. Vibrio cholerae 4. Streptococcus pyogenes 5. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

2. Clostridium tetani

a short time of generalized, mild symptoms (such as malaise & muscle aches)

2. Prodromal period

Which of these substances are most important in the establishment of biofilms? 1. exotoxins 2. adhesins 3. siderophores 4. hemolysins 5. invasins

2. adhesins

saliva tears sebum

20-The hydrolytic enzyme is found in: saliva tears lymph sebum blood

innate acquired

4- Host defenses can be divided into __________ or inborn, nonspecific protections; and ____________ or adaptive, specific immunities.

during this time the body gradually returns to normal as the patient's immune response /or medical treatment vanquish pathiogens

4. Decline

Polyvalent vaccine

A single vaccine that immunizes against two different diseases

Antigen

A toxin or other foreign substance that induces an immune response in the body, especially the production of antibodies.

Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal? A. Release of enzymes from lysosomes B. Inclusion bodies C. Antigenic changes D. Giant cells E. Transformation

A. Release of enzymes from lysosomes

B-cells and T-Cells types of immunity

B-cells: Humoral Immunity T-cells: Cell-mediated Immunity

Which organism most easily causes an infection? A. Treponema pallidum ID50-57 B. Legionella pneumophila ID50-1 C. E. coli O157:H7 ID50-20 D. Shigella ID50-10 E. Can't tell

B. Legionella pneumophila ID50-1

B cell receptors

Bind free antigens; phagocytose

T-cell receptors

Bind processed antigens together with the MHC molecules on the cells that present antigens to them; can not phagocytose

Transmit pathogens and serve as host for some stage of the pathogen's life cycle

Biological vectors (Biting arthropods, including mosquitoes, ticks, lice, fleas, bloodsucking flies, bloodsucking bugs & mites transmit many diseases to humans)

Bodily fluids such as blood, urine, saliva can carry pathogens (Prevent contact with conjunctiva or breaks in the skin or mucous membranes)

Bodily fluid transmission

Three ways to immobilize an enzyme

Bonding of enzyme to a carrier. Cross-linking of enzyme molecules. Enzyme inclusion

Mixed Infection

More than 1 pathogen causing the infection---dental carries

Superantigen Fc

Can bind to receptors on the membranes of the cell

What factors contribute to a pathogens ability to invade a host?

Capsul, cell wall components, enzymes, membrane ruffling, antigenic variation

Action of cells primarily T lymphocytes that make cytokines but sometimes natural killer (NK) cells make cytokines too

Cell mediated immunity

Once synthesized, where is immunoglobulin transported and inserted?

Cell membrane to act as a receptor

LD50 of endotoxin

HIGH

mosquitoes can spread

Malaria, Yellow Fever, Elephantiasis, Dengue, & viral encephalitis

Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their A. Cell processes B. Cell wall C. Markers D. Biota E. Skin

Markers

Functions of Class 1 MHC

Markers that display unique characteristics of self molecules and regulation of immune reactions

T-cell maturation

Maturation is directed by the thymus gland and its hormones and are then migrated to lymphoid organs

Passively transmit pathogens present on their feet or other body parts to new hosts. House flies & cockroaches may introduce pathogens such as Salmonella & Shigella into drinking water & food

Mechanical vectors

Generated from the progeny of antigen-stimulated lymphocytes. They survive for long periods of time in the absence of antigen

Memory cells

The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are A. Lysozymes B. Pyrogens C. Interferons D. Leukotrines E. Complement

Pyrogens

Class II MHC genes code for A. All of the choices are correct B. All HLA antigens C. Receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells D. Certain secreted complement components E. Self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes

Receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells

The histocompatibility complex proteins function in A. Recognition of self B. T cell maturation C. B cell maturation D. Antibody proliferation E. None of the choices are correct

Recognition of self

Proteins

The __ in vegetative cells are vulnerable to heat denaturation.

T cell response Activated

The activated T cells then transform in preparation for mitotic divisions and differentiate into one of the subsets

Membrane

The cell __ is responsible for preventing the loss of important molecules and stopping the entry of damaging substances.

A. tumefaciens contains the ________ which is responsible for ________

Ti plasmid, virulence

Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation? A. Destroy microbes B. Start tissue repair C. To cause a fever D. Block further invasion E. Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site

To cause a fever

What is the purpose of Koch's Postulates?

To identify the etiologic agents of disease (which organism specifically causes a disease)

(first line of defense) induce cytokines that regulate the intensity and duration of immune responses

Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

What happens when a helper T cell is activated?

Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells.

The 2 toxins that are carried beyond the site of infection

Two types Exotoxins Endotoxins

Which type of hypersensitivity Includes anaphylaxis, a systemic fatal reaction with airway obstruction and respiratory collapse

Type 1

Select the type of hypersensitivity that results in the lysis of foreign cells due to the actions of complement and antibodies.

Type 2

Which type of hypersensitivity involves complement assisted lysis of cells coated with antibodies which often results in autoimmune reactions

Type 2

Which type of hypersensitivity involves Immune complexes form and become lodged in various basement membranes

Type 3

Which type of hypersensitivity has T cell-mediated delayed hypersensitivity reactions including contact dermatitis and graft rejection reactions

Type 4

Graves' disease is due to a _____ hypersensitivity and the action of autoantibodies.

Type II

Myasthenia gravis is due to type ____ hypersensitivity and the action of autoantibodies.

Type III

Type I diabetes is an example of a _____ hypersensitivity that develops due to the action of autoreactive NK cells.

Type IV

1. Liquids 2. Solid Surfaces 3. Air

UV radiation is effective at disinfecting which types of materials? 0

Disinfection

UV radiation usually results in the __ of a material or environment.

Recombination causes which two genes to be active in the mature cell?

V and D

Many challenges in scale-up arise from

aeration and mixing.

can come from sneezing & coughing, or be generated by air-conditioner, sweeping, mopping, changing clothes or bed linens, even from flaming inoculating loops in micro labs

aerosols

focal infection

agents from a local infection are carried (by blood, lymph) to create other local infections

A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is agammaglobulinemia. AIDS. SCID. DiGeorge syndrome. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.

aids

involves the spread of pathogens farther than 1 meter to respiratory mucous membranes of new host via aerosol

airborne transmission

Vehicle Transmission

airborne, waterborne, foodborne & bodily fluid

syndrome

all the symptoms and signs of a specific disease

immunization

clinical process that produces immunity in an individual

Critical in adaptive immune response with both B and T cells, as they will only develop and divide if the receptors on the Bcell meets with a corresponding antigen

clonal selection

IGA

clostrum and breast milk provides contains the antibody class

extracellular enzyme that causes blood proteins to clot, providing a "hiding place" for bacteria within a clot

coagulase

example of acute disease

common cold

Leukocidins

kill phagocytic leukocytes

example of signs

lesion, swelling, fever, paralysis

Microbial antagonism (competitive exclusion)

prevention of growth is a competition between microbes

______ immunodeficiency diseases are present at birth and usually stem from genetic errors, whereas _______ immunodeficiency diseases are acquired after birth and are due to agents such as infections, irradiation, or steroids.

primary, secondary

Type IIII is caused by

processed antigens

Yeast is used to

produce beer

acute disease

symptoms develop rapidly but the disease lasts only a short time

chronic disease

symptoms develop slowly

A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is T-cell mediated. atopic. antibody mediated. systemic anaphylactic. delayed.

systemic anaphylactic

focal infection

systemic infection that began as a local infection and enters blood, then spread to make a new location site

sepsis

systemic inflammatory response to the pathogen or it's toxin

Which of these organisms does not produce a neurotoxin? 1. Clostridium botulinum bacteria 2. Clostridium tetani bacterium 3. rabies virus 4. Alexandrium algae

Rabies virus

Based on these LD50 values, which microbe is the most virulent? Assume each bacterium enters through the appropriate portal of entry. 1. Cryptosporidium-50 cells 2. Shigella-10 cells 3. E. coli O157-1000 cells 4. Vibrio cholerae-108 cells

Shigella 10 cells

Which of these substances does not protect a bacterium from phagocytosis? 1. leukocidins 2. siderophores 3. capsule 4. M protein

Siderophores

The presence of endotoxins in a sterile fluid indicates ________. 1. gram-positive bacteria are growing 2. gram-negative bacteria are growing 3. the fluid is not sterile 4. the presence of gram-negative cell walls

The presence of gram-negative cell walls

_____ are toxins modified to retain their ability to induce antibody formation but lose their toxicity.

Toxoids

Adhesin molecules can vary in structure among strains of a given bacterial species. T/F

True

Although some pathogens cause disease after entering the body via food and water consumption, many such microbes are killed by chemicals involved in the digestive process. T/F

True

Patient symptoms may worsen after antibiotic treatment of infections caused by gram-negative bacteria due to the sudden release of endotoxins. T/F

True

The glycocalyx (capsule/slime layer) can affect bacterial virulence by allowing attachment and by hindering phagocytosis. T/F

True

Adherence

adhesion, necessary step in pathogenicity almost all pathogens have some means of attaching themselves to host tissues at their portal of entry

The scum that builds up on shower doors, the formation of dental plaque on teeth, and the algae growth on the walls of swimming pools are all examples of _______.

biofilms

Parenteral route

gain access when they are directly deposited into the tissues beneath the skin or into mucous membranes when these barriers are penetrated or injured Punctures, injections, bits, cuts, wounds, surgery, splitting of the ski due to swelling or drying can establish these routes HIV, Hepatitis, tetanus

Numbers of invading microbes

if only a few microbes enter the body, they will probably be overcome by host's defenses; if large numbers enter, the stage is probably set for disease

Skin

most preferred mode of entry Skin is the largest organ, unbroken skin is impenetrable by most microbes (some go through sweat glands/hair follices)

Which of these events leads to all of the others in a pyrogenic (fever) response? 1. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. 2. The hypothalamus releases prostaglandins. 3. IL-1 is released by macrophages. 4. The body's thermostat is set to a higher level, and fever occurs. 5. IL-1 travels via the blood to the hypothalamus.

1. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria.

Which statement is not true of endotoxins? 1. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production. 2. They are more heat-resistant than exotoxins are. 3. They can lyse amoebocytes found in crab hemolymph. 4. They can induce chills, fever, aches, clotting, shock, and miscarriage. 5. Endotoxins are produced by Neisseria meningitidis and E. coli.

1. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production.

Which one of these pairs is not correctly matched? 1. collagenase; breaks down connective tissue 2. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots 3. leukocidin; lyses WBC membranes 4. siderophore; traps iron 5. IgA protease; digest antibodies

2. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots

Which of these statements is not true for bacterial capsules? 1. For Streptococcus pneumoniae, the encapsulated strain is more virulent. 2. Pathogenic and nonpathogenic bacteria can produce capsules. 3. Antibodies produced against a capsule cannot affect whether disease will occur. 4. The importance of the capsule to virulence for Streptococcus pneumoniae can be determined because there are strains both with and without the capsule. 5. Capsules related to virulence are produced by the causative agents of anthrax and bubonic plague.

3. Antibodies produced against a capsule cannot affect whether disease will occur.

The LD50 of Vibrio choleraeis 108 cells through the oral route. If the bacterial cells are ingested with bicarbonate, the LD50 drops to 104. Which of these explanations is the most likely? 1. Vibrio cholerae makes toxin only in the presence of stomach acid. 2. Stomach acid increases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. 3. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. 4. Sodium bicarbonate inactivates Vibrio cholerae. 5. Sodium bicarbonate decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.

3. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.

All of these answers are true of A-B exotoxins except ________. 1. Many exotoxins are A-B toxins. 2. They consist of two polypeptide components. 3. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria. 4. The A portion of the toxin is the active component. 5. The B portion of the toxin binds to surface receptors on host cells.

3. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria.

The ID50 for cutaneous anthrax due to Bacillus anthracis is 10-50 endospores, while the ID50 for inhalation anthrax is 10,000 to 20,000 endospores. This means that ________. 1. not enough information is available to answer this question 2. neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired. 3. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax 4. inhalation anthrax is easier to acquire than cutaneous anthrax 5. both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired

3. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax

Which of these conditions would not affect the ability of Streptococcus mutans to attach to teeth? 1. the lack of a glycocalyx 2. the lack of the enzyme glucosyltransferase 3. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque 4. the inability to form dextran 5. the lack of sucrose

3. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque

All of the following are examples of cytopathic effects of viruses except ________. 1. cell surface antigens change 2. host cells fuse to form multinucleated syncytia 3. inclusion bodies are found in the cytoplasm or nucleus 4. None of these choices. There are no exceptions here.

4. None of these choices. There are no exceptions here.

Capsules play a role in the virulence of all of the following except ________. 1. Bacillus anthracis 2. Klebsiella pneumoniae 3. Yersinia pestis 4. Haemophilus influenzae 5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which statement is true of endotoxins? 1. They are disease specific. 2. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. 3. They are proteins. 4. They increase blood pressure. 5. They are released upon cell lysis.

5. They are released upon cell lysis.

Which of these eukaryotic molecules/structures can be responsible for movement of bacteria within host cells? 1. invasins 2. cilia 3. flagella 4. pseudopods 5. actin molecules

5. actin molecules

In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes

A decrease in blood pressure

A newly identified bacterial pathogen has been shown to cause disease in humans, disrupting the production of some proteins by interfering with the function of the endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells. Under specific growth conditions, this bacterial strain secretes a protein that appears to be responsible for the pathology of the disease. This protein is composed of two polypeptide chains, one of which binds to a receptor on the surface of liver cells, stimulating the uptake of the protein by endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the other polypeptide component interferes with the activity of ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum. This bacterial protein will most likely be classified as a/an ________.

A-B toxin

The symptoms of tetanus are due to

An exotoxin produced by clostridium tetani

Endotoxins are A. Specific in their method of action. B. Part of the gram-negative cell wall. C. Associated with gram-positive bacteria. D. Excreted from the cell. E. None of the above.

B. Part of the gram-negative cell wall.

Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally not true? A. They are more potent than endotoxins. B. They are not inactivated by heat. C. They are composed of proteins. D. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. E. They have specific methods of action.

B. They are not inactivated by heat

Botulism is caused by an exotoxin, therefore it could easily be prevented by _________

Boiling food prior to consumption

Which of the following organisms doesn't produce an exotoxin? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium tetani C. Salmonella typhi D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae E. Clostridium botulinum

C. Salmonella typhi

Given the following LD50 values for Bacillus anthracis, through which portal of entry is it easiest to get anthrax? 1. All are equally easy portals of entry. 2. Cutaneous-50 endospores 3. Inhalation-20,000 endospores 4. Ingestion-1,000,000 endospores

Cutaneous 50 endospores

Which of the following does not contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness? A. Capsule B. Hyaluronidase C. Cell wall D. Ligands E. Exotoxins

E. Exotoxins

All of the following are true about M protein except A. It is heat- and acid-resistant. B. It is a protein. C. It is found on fimbriae. D. It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. E. It is readily digested by phagocytes.

E. It is readily digested by phagocytes.

A cell wall can increase a bacterium's virulence because cell wall lipid A A. All bacteria have a cell wall and all are not pathogenic; therefore, cell walls do not contribute to virulence. B. Helps the bacterium attach. C. Resists phagocytosis. D. Destroys host tissues. E. None of the above.

E. None of the above.

Which of the following organisms causes the most severe disease? A. Shigella disenteria ID50-10 B. Treponema pallidum ID50-57 C. Salmonella enteriditis ID50-20 D. Parainfluenza virus ID50-200 E. Can't tell

E. can't tell

Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat

Gram-negative bacterial infections

Which one of these is not an example of the parenteral route? 1. insect bite 2. cut 3. injection 4. hair follicle

Hair follicle

Which of these statements is true regarding portals of exit? 1. In most cases, a microbe uses the same portal for both entry and exit. 2. The urinary tract is the most common portal of exit. 3. The portal of exit for chicken pox, measles, and smallpox is the skin. 4. Polioviruses most often use the respiratory portal of exit.

In most cases, a microbe uses the same portal for both entry and exit

Fibrin clots can be dissolved by enzymes called _________.

Kinase

Which of these is a cell wall component that contributes to invasiveness? 1. endotoxin 2. hemolysin 3. M protein 4. coagulase

M protein

The symptoms of protozoan diseases are usually due to ________.

Metabolic waste products

Commodity chemicals

Inexpensive chemicals produced in bulk. Include ethanol, citric acid, and many others

--------- is the invasion of the host by a pathogen

Infection

Organism evades body's external defenses, multiplies, and becomes established in the body

Infection

Germ theory of disease-by Louis Pasteur, Robert Koch

Infections by pathogenic microorganisms cause disease

Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins? A. Histamine B. Interferon C. Albumin D. Complement

Interferon

Who activates the TH cells?

Interleukin-1 secreted by APC

An activated TH cell produces ___ which is a growth factor for T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells. A. Antiserum B. Interleukin-2 C. Complement D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-12

Interleukin-2

Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function? A. Intracellular fluid B. Reticuloendothelial system C. Lymphatic system D. Blood stream E. Extracellular fluid

Intracellular fluid

Artificial Immunity

Involve medical intervention

IgE

Involved in allergic responses and parasitic worm infections

Microbicidal

Iodine compounds display __ activity on target organisms if used properly.

51. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make adjuvant. booster. antibodies to toxin. gamma globulin. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make A. Adjuvant B. Booster C. Antibodies to toxin D. Gamma globulin E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

Each of the following are benefits of fever except A. It increases phagocytosis B. It stimulates hematopoiesis C. It reduces the ability of temperature sensitive organisms to multiply D. It increases the availability of iron E. It increases metabolism

It increases the availability of iron

Vaccine Preparation- 2nd Generation

(Acellular or Subunit) • Antigenic molecules derived form bacterial cells or viruses • Acellular are from cultured cells - acellular Pertussis (DTaP vaccine) • Subunit vaccines are from viruses (Influenza) • Synthesized subunits

deathcap mushroom

(Amanita phalloides) - a very deadly mycotoxin

normal microbiota

(residents, normal flora), those microorganisms normally found in and on the human body, and which under normal conditions do not cause infection and disease *always present *in huge numbers

Also, describe the relevance of acme, fulmination, and pyrogens in the invasive phase of diseases.

**Acme- **Fulmination Pyrogens--Can be released by pathogens and they cause fever during invasive phase

skin

*portal of entry -largest organ of the body in terms of surface area, an important defense against diseases -unbroken _______ is impenetrable by most microorganisms -physical barrier (epidermis; keratin is a waterproof protein), chemical barrier (pH is 5-6, fatty acids are toxic), and a biological barrier (dendrtitic macrophage WBC) -- nonspecific immune functions -diseases include scalded skin syndrome, boils, carbuncles, ringworm, necrotizing fascitis

parenteral route

*portal of entry -microorganisms are deposited usually by bites, cuts, punctures, injections, splits (skin) in tissues beneath the skin (or mucous membranes) -diseases include tetanus

mucous membranes

*portal of entry -soft, most tissues open to the external environment -physical barrier, chemical barrier (viscous, sticky mucus catches microbes, also contains lysozyme, IGA antibodies, cili action removes this bacteria-laden mucus) -diseases include pneumonia, anthrax, plague, cholera, typhoid fever, salmonella, staphylococcal food poisoning

Humans acquire zoonoses through what routes?

- Direct contact with animal or its waste - Consumption of animals - Bloodsucking arthropods

Types of healthcare associated infections (HAIs)

- Exogenous = Pathogen acquired from the health care environment - Endogenous = Pathogen arises from normal microbiota as a result of factors within the health care setting - Iatrogenic = Results from modern medical procedures - Superinfections = Use of antimicrobial drugs reduces competition from some resident microbiota, allowing other microbes to thrive

Vaccine Preparation- 3rd generation

- Recombinant DNA technology • Trojan horse vaccine • Genetic material from an infectious agent is inserted into a live carrier microbe that is nonpathogenic • The recombinant microbe multiplies and expresses the foreign genes

B-cell activation (General to PowerPoint)

-(T-dependent) -B-cell is Ag Presenting cell (APC) -MHC class II -T-helper cell required

The 4 polypeptide chains of immunoglobulins

-2 identical heavy chains (H) -2 identical light chains (L)

Plasma and Memory Cells (General to PowerPoint)

-Activation of B-cell by antigen (ag) -IL activates B-cells -B-cells> Regulatory B-cells, Memory B-cells, or plasma cells. -Memory B-cells eady for next exposure to (ag) -Plasma Cells secrete specific antibody

Categories of antigens

-Alloantigens -Superantigens -Allergen -Autoantigens

Immunoglobulins (Ig) (General to PowerPoint)

-Also called antibodies -Light Chains: Antigen binding sites V=Variable region (Fab Region) -Heavy Chains: Stem of Antibody C=Constant Region (Fc Region)

Memory of exposure to Ag

-Anamnestic (2nd response) -IgG mostly -Greater than 1st (faster and higher amounts)

Artificial Passive Immunization

-Antibodies injected into patient -Gamma globulin : All antibodies are pooled -Antitoxins (Ig from horse): Antivenoms -Rhogam is IgG

Cellular Immunity

-Inactivate and clears pathogens Virus-infected cells Bacteria-infected cells -Rejection of tumor cells (cancer) -Some allergic reactions -Transplantation tissue rejection

Primary Lymphoid Organs

-Where lymphocytes are formed and mature. *Red bone Marrow: both B&T cells form. (Only B-cells Mature here) *Thymus: Where T-cells move to mature

examples of cytopathic effects

1) the macromolecules, metabolic processes, of the host cell stop, even mitosis stops. 2) the host cell can explode (lysis) and be destroyed. 3) viral particles being made and assembled can appear as granular bodies in the cytoplasm of infected cells. These bodies, called inclusion bodies, have unique staining properties and are used to diagnose diseases. 4) adjacent infected cells fuse together to form huge multinucleated giant cells called syncytium. 5) animal cells infected by viruses cause the infected host cell to make and release interferons (proteins coded for by the host cell's chromosome), which are secreted outside the infected cell and attach to uninfected cells that now can produce proteins (enzymes) to destroy viral DNA, interfere with attachment of viral particles to a host cell. 6) Loss of contact inhibition

What are some challenges to controlling infectious disease?

1. Available medical expertise is not always applied 2. Pathogens are adaptable (arms race) 3. Changing human activities (emergent diseases) 4. International travel/immigration

Be able to name, order, and describe the five different stages of infectious disease.

1. Incubation Period 2. Prodromal Phase--Microbes start replicating 3. Invasive/Illness Phase--Microbes rapidly produce Acme Fulminating Pyrogens 4. Decline Phase--THe number of microbes goes down--declining symptoms 5. Convalescence Period---Body repairs itself

What are the five different types of infectious diseases that are descriptive of the duration of a disease?

1.Acute--sudden--resolve fast 2.Chronic--slow-leprocy 3.Subacute--middle--has middle duration couple months--done--gingivitis 4.Latent---HIV--Herpes__always have 5.Inapparent---(subclinical)---you don't know you have it ---Zika--Whooping cough

How can an infectious disease be non-communicable?

1.Environmental ---tetnus 2.Bacteria already in your body--appendix rupture 3. Food poisoning---eat the toxin you get sick--cannot transmit.

saliva mucus

16-The flow of fluids such as __________ and __________ carries microbes away from respiratory tract

first

17-Coughing and sneezing are __________ line defenses that expel air from the respiratory tract. third second fourth first

biota

18-Resident __________ are commensal microbes that compete with pathogens for space and nutrients.

sebum, saliva and tears

19-Which of the following have an antimicrobial effect? sebum and saliva tears sebum, saliva, and tears tears and saliva

self

24-Natural markers of the body that are recognized by the immune system are called: self nonself

marker

25- A(n) __________ is any trait, factor, or receptor of a cell, virus, or molecule that makes it distinct and recognizable. landmark marker antigen

Undifferentiated lymphocytes have ___ different genes for the variable and diversity region of heavy chains

250

leukocytes

28- The primary infection-fighting blood cells are called: leukocytes erythrocytes monocytes macrophages phagocytes

monocytes lymphocytes

34-The agranulocytic leukocytes are composed of two general types, the ____________ and ____________ .

Lymphocytes

35- __________ are the second most common of the leukocytes and include B cells, NK cells, and T cells. Erythrocytes..Basophils..Eosinophils Neutrophils..Lymphocytes..Mast cells

Phagocytosis

40- ____________ is a type of endocytosis in which the cell membrane actively engulfs large particles or cells into vesicles.

neutrophils macrophages monocytes

41-The 3 main types of phagocytes are: eosinophils....NK cells....basophils neutrophils....macrophages....monocytes

calor

43- With respect to inflammation, __________ is Latin for warmth, is caused by increased blood flow to the area

rubor

44- With respect to inflammation, __________ is Latin for redness, is caused by increased circulation in the injured tissues .

Phagosome

47- In which vacuole does a phagocyte initially enclose a foreign material? Phagosome Lysosome Phagolysosome

phagolysosome

48- During phagocytosis, a(n) _______________ forms from the union of a phagosome with a lysosome.

Second

49- Inflammation and phagocytosis are nonspecific functions that are a part of which lines of immune defense? First....Second....Third

skin

6- Which of the following is a first line of defense? inflammation skin antibodies phagocytosis

intestinal villi meninges

9-Which is NOT a cutaneous barrier? intestinal villi hair follicles meninges skin glands

62. Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except A. Malaria. B. Botulism. C. Cholera. D. Yellow fever. E. Rabies.

A

Which kind of T cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy bacteria, viral infected cells, and cancer cells? A. TC B. TH C. CD4 D. MHC

A

The main function of the reticuloendothelial system is to provide A. Filtration of extracellular fluid B. All of the choices are correct C. A connection between tissues and organs D. Surveillance cells E. Filtration of blood

A connection between tissues and organs

What is a naive lymphocyte?

A lymphocyte that has an antigen receptor but has not yet encountered the antigen recognized by the receptor.

What is virulence, and how does it compare to pathogenicity?

A pathogen is the capacity to produce a disease, while virulence is the intensity of the disease.

example of pandemic disease

AIDS and influenza at times

Presentation of Antigen to Lymphocytes

APCs activate CD4 T helper cells in the lymph nodes • Interact with the APC which Binds to MHC class II and Binds to a piece of the antigen • Once identification has occurred, a molecule on the APC activates the T helper cell • TH produces interleukin-2 (IL-2) • The T helper cells can now help activate B cells

Agglutination

Ab aggregation; cross-linking cells or particles into large clumps

Neutralization

Abs fill the surface receptors on a virus or the active site on a microbial enzyme to prevent it from attaching

Natural immunity

Acquired as a part of life experiences

Specific Immunity: Third Line of Defense

Acquired only after an immunizing event such as an infection or vaccination • Specificity • Memory

Artificial immunity

Acquired through a medical procedure such as a vaccine

Third line of defense

Acquired; adaptive

Helper T cells A. Activate B cells and other T cells B. Secrete antibodies C. Suppress immune reactions D. Function in allergic reactions E. Directly destroy target cells

Activate B cells and other T cells

Complement fixation

Activation of the classical complement pathway can result in the specific rupturing of cells and some viruses

Creates memory, takes time and long lasting

Active immunity

_______ are molecules on bacterial cell surfaces that enable them to adhere to the surface of host cells.

Adhesins

Virulence factors that contribute to virulence

Adhesion factors Biofilms Extracellular enzymes Toxins Antiphagocytic factors

52. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? Adjuvant Booster Antibodies to toxin Gamma globulin "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

Adjuvant

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. Adjuvant B. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine C. Antibodies to toxin D. Gamma gobulin E. Booster

Adjuvant

What is sequelae?

After effects remaining after the recovery from certain disease.

Primary antigen response

After first exposure to an Ag , immune system produces IgM and a gradual increase in Ab titer with the production of IgG

20. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response

Agglutination

The aggregation by antibodies of suspended cells or similar-sized particles into clumps that settle.

Agglutination

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A. Agglutination B. Complement fixation C. Neutralization D. Anamnestic response E. Opsonization

Agglutination

-CHO

Aldehydes are organic substances that contain a __ functional group on a terminal carbon.

"Clonal selection" and "clonal expansion"

All of the answer choices are correct. -imply that each individual lymphocyte produces a single antibody. -describe how a single lymphocyte proliferates in a population of effector cells. -depend on an antibody recognizing a specific epitope. -explain how an antigen stimulates the production of matching antibodies.

12. Lymphocyte maturation involves hormonal signals that initiate development. B cells maturing in bone marrow sites. T cells maturing in the thymus. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

16. Antigen presenting cells include dendritic cells. include macrophages. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

17. T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires typically a protein antigen. binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell. binding of T cell to a site on the antigen. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

48. Live, attenuated vaccines include the Sabin polio vaccine. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR). contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

Uniform populations of like microbes.

All of the following describe the typical microbial population targeted by antimicrobial drugs EXCEPT:

Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances? A. Nitric oxide B. Superoxide anion C. All of these are used D. Hydrogen peroxide E. Lactic acid

All of these are used

Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called A. Allergens B. Heterophilic antigens C. Autoantigens D. None of the choices are correct E. Superantigens

Allergens

Sterile

An object is either __or not sterile.

Transgenic organism

An organism that contains a gene from another organism

Genetically modified organism (GMO)

An organism whose genome has been altered.

Seeks to determine the probable cause, mode of transmission, and methods of prevention. May be used when Koch's postulates can't be applied, Often retrospective, investigation occurs after an outbreak has occurred, morbidity

Analytical epidemiology

22. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response

Anamnestic response

Three types of reservoirs of infection

Animal reservoir Human carriers Nonliving reservoir

Prevent fusion of lysosome and phagocytic vesicles ans some bacteria produce Leukocidins which directly destroy phagocytic white blood cells

Antiphagocytic chemicals

Factors that prevent phagocytosis by the host's phagocytic cells. Allow pathogens to remain in a host for longer time

Antiphagocytic factors

Resident microbiota

Are a part of the normal microbiota throughout life Are mostly commensal

Endotoxins.

Are part of the outer portion of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria. They are liberated when the bacteria die and the cell wall breaks apart.

Exotoxin

Are produced inside mostly gram positive bacteria as part of their growth and metabolism. They are then secreted or released following lysis into the surrounding medium.

The formation of antibodies and memory cells after exposure to a vaccine (Flu Shot)

Artificial active immunity

Temporary protection by receiving an injection of antibodies in order to combat infection. Gamma Globulin (RHOGAM)

Artificial passive immunity

Human Carriers

Asymptomatic infected individuals can be infective to others Some individuals eventually develop illness whereas others never get sick Healthy carriers may have defensive systems that protect them Some people remain both asymptomatic & infective for years (tuberculosis, syphilis, & AIDS)

56. Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? Killed, inactivated vaccines Attenuated vaccines Toxoids Immune serums Subunit vaccines

Attenuated vaccines

Summarize the process of B cell activation and list the types of B cells produced

B cell is activated by the binding of antigen to receptors on its cell surface which causes the cell to divide and proliferate.

IG receptors

B cell recognize antigen via

antibody

B cell recognize antigen via ____receptors

B lymphocytes; in humoral immune system lymphocytes that produce antibodies which neutralize various bacteria, fungi, or parasite

B cells

Receptors & Antigen Specificity for B cells

B cells have receptors that bind antigens

Antibodies are made by

B cells/plasma cells.

Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to A. Bacterial infections. B. Viral infections. C. Protozoan and helminthic infections. D. Fungal infections. E. All of the above.

B. Viral infections.

effective virulence factor because many are composed of chemicals normally found in body, so not recognized as foreign, and they are slippery and difficult for phagocytes to engulf

Bacterial capsule

Superantigens are A. Those that evoke allergic reactions B. Bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens C. Body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign D. None of the choices are correct E. Cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members

Bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens

Super antigens are A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign. B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members. C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. D. those that evoke allergic reactions. E. None of the choices are correct.

C

All of the following may be used for adherence except A. Glycoproteins. B. Lipoproteins. C. Cell membrane mannose. D. Fimbriae. E. Capsules.

C. Cell membrane mannose.

Thirty-two people in San Francisco who ate jackfish caught at Midway Island developed malaise, nausea, blurred vision, breathing difficulty, and numbness from 3 to 6 hours after eating. The most likely cause of this food intoxication is A. Staphylococcal enterotoxin. B. Cholera toxin. C. Ciguatera. D. Aflatoxin. E. A mycotoxin.

C. Ciguatera.

2 polypeptide chains for T-cells

CD4 and CD8

epitope / II

CD4 cells have antigen specific receptors that recognize a ____of a specific antigen, and a CD4 coreceptor that recognized MHC class ____molecules

Class II

CD4 coreceptor on CD4 T cells binds to MHC class II molecules on antigen presenting cells

mature T cells can express

CD4 coreceptors, CD8 coreceptors

Alloantigens

Cell surface markers and molecules that occur in some members of the same species but not in others

Steps III & IV: T-Cell Response

Cell-Mediated Immunity • Require the direct involvement of T lymphocytes throughout the course of the reaction • T cells require some type of MHC recognition before they can be activated • T cells stimulate other T cells, B cells, and phagocytes • Cytokine Production

T-cell general function

Cells function in helping other immune cells, supressing, killing abnormal cells, hypersensitivity; synthesize cytokines

An immune response that does not involve antibodies, but rather involves the activation of phagocytes, antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen.

Cellular mediated immunity

Cytotoxic T cells

Chemical message;Destruct infected host cells and foreign cells.

An example of natural active immunity would be A. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease B. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity D. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E. None of the choices are correct

Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity

An example of artificial active immunity would be A. None of the choices are correct B. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta C. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox E. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity

Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox

What process provides many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens? A. Antigen expression B. Antibody production C. Opsonization D. Clonal expansion E. Antigen presentation

Clonal expansion

Industrial Fermentors

Closely monitored during production run. Growth and product formation must be measured.

What are some prominent sites for microbiota?

Colon Skin Vagina Mouth Nose Throat

What is a syndrome?

Combination of signs and symptoms that are characteristic of a certain disease.

The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells and viruses. A. Lymphoid B. None of the choices are correct C. Cell mediated D. Humoral immunity E. Complement

Complement

How Normal Microbiota Become Opportunistic Pathogens

Conditions that provide opportunities for pathogens - Introduction of normal microbiota into unusual site in body - Immune suppression - Changes in the normal microbiota - Changes in relative abundance may allow opportunity for a member to thrive and cause disease

Cell receptors or markers

Confer specificity and identity of a cell

Part of the antibody that does not vary , stem area, does not bind to antigens

Constant Region

Three groups of transmission

Contact transmission Vehicle transmission Vector transmission

All of the following pertain to platelets except A. Contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide B. They are not whole cells but are pieces of cells C. Function in blood clotting and inflammation D. Originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes E. They function primarily in hemostasis

Contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

Subunit vaccines

Contain only a specific protein or proteins from a pathogenic organism (e.g., coat protein of a virus)

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines A. Contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules B. Confer passive immunity C. Utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen D. Contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses E. Are always genetically engineered

Contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses

The mere presence of microbes in or on the body

Contamination

Carrier group

Contributes to the size of the complex and enhances the orientation of the antigen

Regulatory T cells

Control the T cell response

45. Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except A. diphtheria. B. botulism. C. snake bites. D. chickenpox. E. spider bites.

D

Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic disease are due to A. Waste products excreted by the parasite. B. Products released from damaged tissues. C. Tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal enterotoxin? A. It is an exotoxin. B. It causes diarrhea. C. It causes vomiting. D. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines. E. None of the above.

D. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.

All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies except A. IgA protease. B. Invasims. C. Antigenic change. D. Membrane-disrupting toxins. E. None of the above

D. Membrane-disrupting toxins.

They have no obvious vital signs.

Death of microorganism is hard to detects because:

Artificial active immunity

Deliberately exposing a person to material that is antigenic but not pathogenic

Exoenzyme

Dissolve extracellular barriers and penetrate through or between cells Ex--secreted-propholactic--pylori-urease--enzyme ammonia--increases pH and destroys the mucin layer.

Which of the following statements is false? A. Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells. B. Hemolysins lyse red blood cells. C. Kinase destroys fibrin clots. D. Leukocidins destroy neutrophils. E. Coagulase destroys blood clots.

E. Coagulase destroys blood clots.

Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect of viruses A. Cell death B. Increased cell growth C. Inclusion bodies form in the cytoplasm or nucleus D. Host cells fuse to form multinucleated syncytia E. None of the above

E. None of the above

example of mutualism

E.coli synthesize vitamin B and K providing nutrients to cells in the body and t bacteria living in the large intestine

What are some microbe-free areas?

Ear Sinus Internal eye Bone Marrow Muscles Glands Organs Circulatory Brain/spinal cord Ovaries and testes Urine Blood Semen

Plants can be genetically modified through several approaches including

Electroporation, Particle gun methods, Use of plasmids from bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Ethanol Biofuels

Ethanol is a major industrial commodity chemical. Gasohol and E-85

Study of the cause of disease

Etiology

Virulence Factor of Infectious Agents that is secreted by the pathogen, dissolves structural chemicals in the body & helps pathogen maintain infection, invade, and avoid body defenses (Mutant species that do not secrete the enzymes are often avirulent)

Extracellular enzymes

2) The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.

FALSE

4) The phenomenon known as species resistance is a highly specific defense against infectious agents.

FALSE

Antibody and antigen are held to one another by covalent bonds. T/F

False

Antibody molecules are very rigid in structure. T/F

False

Botulism is transmissible by direct contact. True False

False

If bacteria A and B have LD50 values of 109 and 1010, respectively, more cells of A than B will be needed to kill the host. T/F

False

Microbes are more likely to enter the body through the skin than through the mucous membranes. T/F

False

Most host damage resulting from bacterial infection is the result of direct damage by the microbe. T/F

False

The immune response is directed against an entire molecule. T/F

False

The same disease symptoms result, regardless of how a particular microbe enters the body. T/F

False

IgM

Five monomers; First class synthesized following Ag encounter

Spread of pathogens in and on foods that are inadequately processed, undercooked, or poorly refrigerated foods (Foods may become contaminated with feces)

Foodborne transmission

T cell receptors for antigen

Formed by genetic recombination, with variable and constant regions

protein purification

Fusion of a target protein with a carrier protein facilitates

The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A. GALT B. Thymus C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. Tonsils

GALT

Which of the following contribute to antibody diversity?

Gene rearrangement, imprecise joining AND combinatorial associations

Where does the preprogrammed lymphocyte specificity exist?

Genetic makeup before an antigen has ever entered the system

Clone

Genetically different type of lymphocyte expresses a single specificity

Examples of amino acids include

Glutamic acid (MSG), Aspartic acid and phenylalanine (aspartame [NutraSweet]), Lysine (food additives)

Which of these diseases cannot be prevented by toxoids? 1. botulism 2. tetanus 3. gram-negative septic shock 4. diphtheria

Gram negative septic shock

Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors. A. Leukocytes B. None of the choices are correct C. Agranulocytes D. Monocytes E. Granulocytes

Granulocytes

36. Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients? Cytotoxic T cells Helper T cells B cells Plasma cells Suppressor T cells

Helper T cells

Please select the CORRECT statement regarding MHC molecules.

Helper T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules.

What represses penicillin production

High levels of glucose

Microbicidal; Microbistatic

Higher temperatures are usually __, whereas lower temperatures are usually __.

if it's contaminated with organic material

How can water be a nonliving reservoir?

1. It does not require temperatures to be as high. 2. It requires shorter exposure times.

How does moist heat differ from dry heat?

Also called the antibody-mediated beta cellularis immune system, is the aspect of immunity that is mediated by macromolecules (as opposed to cells) found in extracellular fluids such as secreted antibodies, complement proteins, and certain antimicrobial peptides.

Humoral Immunity

What are the two types of immunity?

Humoral and cell mediated

B cells or B lymphocytes provide protection with antibiodies/immunoglobulins

Humoral immunity

Which one of the following virulence factors contributes most to the spread of disease in the body? 1. hyaluronidase 2. hemolysin 3. endotoxin production 4. siderophore production

Hyaluronidase

The dose of microbes required to produce a measurable infection in half of the animals tested is referred to by the abbreviated term __________.

ID- 50

in an antibody mocecule, the J chain is a protein component that joins monomers of

IGM, IGA

In opsonization with IgG, why would it be important that IgG react with the antigen BEFORE a phagocytic cell recognizes the antibody molecule?

If the IgG is bound to the phagocyte BEFORE opsonization, it would most likely be ingested by the phagocyte before it could bind to a pathogen (it would be "naked," so to speak).

40. Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens? IgD IgE IgG IgM IgA

IgA

Which of the following is the most abundant immunological class produced?

IgA

25. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.

IgE.

24. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.

IgG

Most prevalent immunoglobulin

IgG

Which class of antibody accounts for most of the circulating antibodies?

IgG

37. In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM. IgA.

IgM

Which is the first antibody class made during the primary response to an antigen?

IgM

27. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? IgM only IgG only IgD only IgM and IgG IgE and IgA

IgM and IgG

Type I

Immediate hypersensitivity, IgE mediated involving mast cells and basophils, anaphylaxis, allergies, asthma

Secondary antigen response

Immune system procudes a more rapid, stronger response due to memory cells (anamnestic response)

studied a cholera outbreak in London using descriptive epidemiology

John Snow

Immunoglobulins

Large Y-shaped glycoproteins that serve as specific receptors of B cells

Differentiate between a latent and a persistent viral infection.

Latent Disease--the casual pathogen goes dormant for extended periods of time with no active replication. Ie-herpes virus. Persistant--You never get rid of it-constant infection--always active---Hepatitus B of the liver

Endotoxins

Lipopolysaccharides differ from exotoxins, part of outer region of cell wall of gram negative bacteria (outer membrane surrounding the peptidogylcan layer of the cell wall, outer layer has lipoproteins, phospholipids, and LPS; lipid portion is called Lipid A, the endotoxin released when gram - bacteria die and their cell wall undergoes lysis, liberating hte endotoxin stimulate macrophages to release cytokines in high concentrations , produce same signs and symptoms also activate blood clotting proteins, obstruct capillaries and result in decreased blood supply and death of tissues

What is an abortive viral infection?

Little effect on cell and no change---something keeps it from replicating.

Antigen binding sites on immunoglobulins

Located at the ends of the forks formed by light and heavy chains

Host cells transformed by viral infection may ________.

Lose contact inhibition

List the qualities of an effective vaccine

Low level of adverse side effects and toxicity Protect against exposure to natural, wild forms of pathogen Stimulate both antibody (B-cell) response and (T-cell) response Should not require numerous doses or boosters Inexpensive, long shelf life, and be easy to administer

Which of the following is not typical of an antigen?

Low molecular weight

ticks can spread

Lyme disease & Rocky Mountain spotted Fever

What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin and neck? A. GALT B. Tonsils C. Thymus D. Spleen E. Lymph nodes

Lymph nodes

Who concentrates the antigens and circulates them ?

Lymph nodes and spleen

List the four stages of a specific immune response

Lymphocyte development Antigen processing and presentation Challenge/activation of the B and T lymphocytes Antibody/Humoral Mediated immunity and cell mediated immunity

Each of the following are granulocytes except A. All of the choices are granulocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Eosinophils D. Neutrophils E. Basophils

Lymphocytes

Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBC's and are the cells that function in the body's immune system? A. Eosinophils B. Lymphocytes C. Monocyte D. Neutrophils E. Basophils

Lymphocytes

Memory

Lymphocytes are programmed to recall their first encounter with an antigen and respond rapidly to subsequent encounters

First stage of lymphocyte development

Lymphocytic stem cells differentiate into either T or B cells, in the bone marrow

Lysogenic bacterial cells may express prophage DNA causing them to take on different characteristics in a process referred to as _______________.

Lysogenic conversion

The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A. Lysozyme B. Hydrochloric acid C. Histamine D. Lactic acid E. Bile

Lysozyme

Which receptor is involved in presenting antigen to T-cells?

MHC class 2 receptor

Please identify the incorrect definition.

MHC class II—molecules that cells use to present antigen to cytotoxic T cells.

MHC-I and MHC-II

MHC-I: CD8-T-Cell MHC-II: CD4-T-cell

Receptors found on all cells except RBCs

MHC1/HLA

Only found on antigen presenting cells

MHC2

When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into A. Killer T cells B. Neutrophils C. Macrophages D. Cytotoxic T cells E. Primary phagocytes

Macrophages

All the following are events of early inflammation except A. Macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis B. Brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation C. Exudate and pus can accumulate D. Capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema E. Chemical mediators and cytokines are released

Macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis

Which of the following is/are a(n) antigen-presenting cell(s)?

Macrophages, dendritic cells, AND B cells

Which of the following does NOT form a memory population after activation and differentiation?

Macrophages.

The beauty of specific immunity is the production of ____ that provides long-lasting protection A. Phagocytotic cells B. T helper cells C. Plasma cells D. Antibodies E. Memory cells

Memory cells

Septicemia

Microbes in the blood that are reproducing

Microbial products of industrial interest include:

Microbial cells, Enzymes, Antibiotics, steroids, alkaloids, Food additives, Commodity chemicals

What are opportunistic microbes, and what opportunities do they use to thrive?

Microorganisms that do not usually cause disease; only under special circumstances: 1. Disturbance of normal microflora (microbial antagonism) 2. Failure of host's normal defenses (immunocompromised) 3. Unusual location P.Vulgaris--colon--gets into the urinary tract--opportunist

Diapedesis is the A. Production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets B. Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging C. Production of only red blood cells D. Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E. Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues

Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues

Autoantigen

Molecules on self tissues for which tolerance is inadequate

What are leukocidins?

Molecules that are capable of destroying phagocytes

Antigen

Molecules that stimulate a response by T and B cells

Originate from a single clone and have a single specificity for antigen

Monoclonal antibodies

Route of Administration of vaccines

Most vaccines are injected by subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intradermal routes • Only a few oral vaccines available, even though they have advantages

2nd Portal of Entry

Mucous membranes - Line the body cavities that are open to the environment - Provide a moist, warm environment hospitable to pathogens * Respiratory tract is the most common site of entry - Entry is through the nose, mouth, or eyes * Gastrointestinal tract may be route of entry - Microbe must survive the acidic pH of the stomach

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

Mucous membranes of the respiratory tracts

_______ involves tissue destruction by both T cells and autoantibodies.

Multiple sclerosis

Types of symbiosis

Mutualism Commensalism Parasitism

both members benefit from their interaction

Mutualism (termites)

Cytotoxic T cell activity

NK cell releases perforins>Foreign cell dies from apoptosis>Macrophage engulfs dying cell

8) Nonphagocytic (eosinophils/monocytes/NK cells) are a type of lymphocyte which produce toxins to kill abnormal cells.

NK cells

Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A. Natural killer (NK) cells B. Cytotoxic T cells C. Suppressor T cells D. Delayed hypersensitivity T cells E. Helper T cells

Natural killer (NK) cells

Transfer of maternal antibodies across placenta or through breast milk

Natural passive immunity

Meningitis and gonorrhea are caused by measles virus. Neisseria species. Pseudomonas species.

Neisseria species.

19. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response

Neutralization

The process of combining an acid and a base until they reach a balanced proportion, with a pH value close to 7.

Neutralization

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A. Anamnestic response B. Agglutination C. Neutralization D. Opsonization E. Complement fixation

Neutralization

The most numerous WBC's, that have multi-lobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Monocytes E. Lymphocytes

Neutrophils

What is an emerging disease?

New disease or rapid increase of a disease in incidence or in geographic range

Parenteral route

Not a true portal of entry Means by which portals of entry can be circumvented Pathogens are deposited directly into tissues beneath the skin or mucous membranes

What are the causes of non-infectious diseases?

Not caused by pathogens--caused by other factors such as environmental to name one.

1. They drive the production of proteins. 2. They must be replicated prior to binary fission.

Nucleic acids play which role(s) in microbial function?

Differentiate between the median infectious dose

Number of pathogen cells or virions required to cause active infection in 50% of inoculated animals Pathogens to cause infections--50% will 50% won't be infected---low is worse. Organisms must be replicating.

median infectious dose (ID50)

Number of pathogens required to cause active infection in 50% of the test population

median lethal dose (LD50)

Number of pathogens required to kill 50% of the test population

Infections acquired by bites, cuts, wounds, punctures, or surgery occur via the __________ route.

Parenteral

If a patient has a deep tissue infection as the result of an animal bite on the arm, the portal of entry is described as the ________.

Parenteral route

Hepatitis B virus transmitted by a finger-stick device is transmitted by which portal of entry?

Parentral

Does not create memory, acts immediatly and is short term

Passive immunity

Ability of a microorganism to cause disease

Pathogenicity

Tissues in the intestinal wall that inspect samples of intestinal contents. M cells transfer material from intestinal lumen to the __________, dendrite cells also bring in material part of the mucosa associated lymphoid tissue MALT - part of lymph

Peyer's Patches

T cell dependent antigens must be processed by who?

Phagocytes called Antigen Presenting Cells

Components of the first line of defense include all the following except A. Phagocytic white blood cells B. Flushing action of tears and blinking C. The tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin D. Nasal hairs E. Flushing action of urine

Phagocytic white blood cells

Each of the following is involved in the migration of white blood cells except A. Vasodilatation B. Chemotaxis C. Diapedesis D. Phagocytosis E. Motility

Phagocytosis

3rd Portal of Entry

Placenta Typically forms effective barrier to pathogens Pathogens may cross the placenta and infect the fetus = Can cause spontaneous abortion, birth defects, premature birth

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A. Plasma cells B. Bursa cells C. Sensitized T cells D. Antibodies E. Activated macrophages

Plasma cells

What type of cells secrete antibodies? A. Helper T-cells B. Plasma cells C. Antigen-presenting cells D. Cytotoxic T-cells E. B cells

Plasma cells

3 types of B-cells

Plasma, memory, immunoglobulins

Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on the target cell. If the gangliosides were removed

Polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells

Artificial Passive Immunization: Immunotherapy- GAMMA GLOBULIN

Pooled from several blood donors - "shot gun" approach - hope one of the donors had the antibodies needed to protect

Superantigens

Potent T cell stimulators who provoke an overwhelming response

During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis? A. Tertiary B. Primary C. Secondary D. Quaternary

Primary

What are the four different types of infectious diseases in relation to multiple infections?

Primary infection Secondary infection Superinfection Mixed infection

Heat

Prions are very resistant to inactivation by __ and chemicals.

Resistant to heat and chemicals.

Prions are:

What are some problems with, and exceptions to, Koch's Postulates?

Problems--What if it is a human only disease? You cannot ethically practice on humans Some diseases have multiple agents When you take out of humans the disease many not grow easily like---leprocy.

Opsonization (the yummy factor)

Process of coating microorganisms or other particles with specific antibodies so they are more readily recognized by phagocytes

Live attenuated cells or viruses

Process that substantially lessens or negates the virulence of viruses or bacteria-eliminates virulence factors

Plasma cells A. All of the choices are correct B. Function in cell-mediated immunity C. Function in blood clotting D. Are derived from T-lymphocytes E. Produce and secrete antibodies

Produce and secrete antibodies

Secondary metabolite

Produced during stationary phase, Not essential for growth, Formation depends on growth conditions, Produced as a group of related compounds. Often significantly overproduced. Often produced by spore-forming microbes during sporulation. Often large organic molecules that require a large number of specific enzymatic steps for production. Synthesis of tetracycline requires at least 72 separate enzymatic steps. Starting materials arise from major biosynthetic pathway

B-Cell general function

Production of antibodies to inactivate, neutralize, and target antigens

Petroleum Biofuels

Production of butanol. Synthesis of petroleum from green algae

Hematopoiesis is the A. Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding B. Production of only red blood cells C. Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging D. Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues E. Production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets

Production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets

symptoms

SUBJECTIVE changes a patient feels (pain, fatigue, nausea, malaise [feeling of uneasiness])

Superinfection

Secondary--caused when an antibiotic kills host normal flora, making additional space and nutrients available for pathogenic organisms to grow unchecked. Strep throat--c diff

Cytotoxic T cells A. Lack specificity for antigen B. All of the choices are correct C. Are activated by antigens D. Secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells E. Secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells

Secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells

What are the four different types of infectious diseases that describe pathogenic microbes in the blood?

Septicemia Bacteremia Viremia Sapremia

Which of the following molecules would be expected to be immunogenic?

Serum albumin, a large protein.

Nonliving Reservoirs

Soil, water, and food can be reservoirs of infection Presence of microorganisms is often due to contamination by feces or urine

A widely produced growth hormone

Somatotropin. Cloned as cDNA from the mRNA

Why did the 19th-century conclusion that Haemophilus influenzae causes influenza contradict Koch's postulates? H. influenzae cannot grow in the lungs. H. influenzae could not be grown in 19th-century laboratories. It was unethical to purposely infect humans with H. influenzae. Some flu victims had no H. influenzae in their lungs.

Some flu victims had no H. influenzae in their lungs.

comparison of exotoxin & endotoxin

Source Exotoxins = mainly Gram + & - bacteria Endotoxins = mainly Gram - bacteria chemical nature Exotoxins = protein or short peptide (amino acids) Endotoxins = lipid portion of lipopolysaccharide (lipid A) of outer (cell wall) membrane toxicity Exotoxins = high Endotoxins = low but may have fatal doses heat stability Exotoxins = typically unstable at temperatures above 60 degrees c Endotoxins = stable for up to 1 hr at autoclave temp (121 degree c) effect on host Exotoxins = variable Endotoxins = fever, lethargy, malaise, shock, blood coagulation fever producing? Exotoxins = no Endotoxins = yes antigenicity Exotoxins = strong: stimulates antitoxin (antibody) product Endotoxins = weak

Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A. Spleen B. Lymph nodes C. Tonsils D. GALT E. Thymus

Spleen

Which of the following is/are secondary lymphoid organ(s)?

Spleen AND lymph nodes

How are superantigens different from other types of exotoxins? Superantigens only act against host neurons. Superantigens comprise two functional domains. Superantigens cause an overstimulation of the host immune system. Superantigens must be endocytosed into a target cell before becoming active.

Superantigens cause an overstimulation of the host immune system

"to live together"

Symbiosis

Subjective characteristics of disease felt only by the patient alone

Symptoms = pain, nausea, chills, headache, dizziness & fatigue

A group of symptoms and signs that collectively characterize a disease or abnormal condition

Syndrome

Which kind of cell activates B Cells?

T Cells! (B activates T which activates B!)

Type IV

T cell mediated, delayed hypersensitivity, contact dermatitis, graft rejections

antigen / MHC

T cell receptors recognize process ____that is presented by ____molecules on the surface of another cell

cell mediated immunity

T cells are responsible for

CD8 cells are

T cytotoxic cells

Destroys cancer cells, transplanted tissue, or viral infected cells

T cytotoxic cells

CD4 coreceptor is found on the surface of this cell type

T helper cell

CD4 cells are also known as

T helper cells

Macrophages, dendritic cells, AND B cells

T helper cells

Turns the immune system on

T helper cells

Most prevalent type of T cells

T helper cells (CD4 and TH)

antigen that is presented with MHC on APCs is now accessible to

T helper cells, Cyotoxic T cells

The stimulation of B cells to divide and mature is provided by

T helper cells.

cell type does not express MHC class II molecules on its surface

T lymphocytes

Turns the immune system off

T suppressor cells

The segment of the Ti plasmid that is transferred to the plant is called the

T-DNA

How is a T-cell receptor different from a B-cell receptor?

T-cell receptors must have antigen broken down inside a cell and presented to them by a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule.

1) Interferons alpha and beta are effective against viruses.

TRUE

3) Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme.

TRUE

5) Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules.

TRUE

7) Acute inflammation is normally beneficial.

TRUE

In the sixth segment of the animation, why is the disease epidemic in North America? The disease occurs at a higher rate than what would normally be expected in this region. The disease occurs at a lower rate than what would normally be expected in this region. The disease has spread to North America from Europe. Only a few cases are occurring in this region.

The disease occurs at a higher rate than what would normally be expected in this region.

The Stages of Infectious Disease

The disease process occurs following infection Many infectious diseases have five stages following infection 1. Incubation period 2. Prodromal period 3. Illness 4. Decline 5. Convalescence

Disinfection

The goal of regular pasteurization methods is the __ of the liquid.

Pasteurization

The heat treatment of perishable liquids to destroy heat-sensitive vegetative cells and prevent infection and spoilage is called __.

Reproduce

The inability to __ is the practical definition of microbial death.

Slow

The main effect of cold treatment is to __ the activity of microbes.

Reproduce

The most practical way to identify if a microbe is dead is by determining if it can still __ when it is exposed to a suitable environment.

a) introduced into regions of the body where they are not normally found b) a weakened (compromised) immune system

The normal microbiota can and will cause infection and disease if:

Median lethal dose

The number of pathogenic cells, virions, or amount of toxin required to kill 50% of infected animals. Median number when people die We want it to be high--the lower the more virulent.

Symptoms of helminthic diseases are usually due to ________.

The presence of the parasite

1. Disease 2. Food Spoilage

The primary targets of microbial control are microorganisms that cause __ or __.

Which of the following is the definition of clonal selection?

The process in which a lymphocyte's antigen receptor binds to an antigen, allowing the lymphocyte to multiply.

Pathway engineering

The process of assembling a new or improved biochemical pathway using genes from one or more organisms (e.g., indigo)

Gene mining

The process of isolating potentially useful novel genes from the environment without culturing the organism. DNA (or RNA) is directly isolated from the environment and cloned into appropriate expression vectors, and the library is screened for activities of interest

Death Time

The shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specified temperature is referred to as the thermal __ __.

Ribosomes

The synthesis of proteins involves organelles known as __ in a process called translation.

Describe the importance of the microflora/microbiota.

There are many good bacteria that keep other pathogens out and even make vitamins such as E.coli in the colon-vitamin K.

Why are these diseases usually very virulent?

They are virulent because they have had no time to co-evolve with humans and keep the virus in check. They usually jump suddenly from animals to humans and cause this problem. Our bodies have never seen anything like it and cannot adapt quick enough.

How do superantigens enable pathogens to hide from the immune system if they actually stimulate the immune system? They cause fever, which destroys the complement proteins. They cause the immune system to destroy IgA antibodies. They cause the immune system to turn on itself. They cause the immune system to produce an exaggerated response, distracting it from the actual pathogen.

They cause the immune system to produce an exaggerated response, distracting it from the actual pathogen.

Explain the role of Th cells in human immunity

They help the activity of other immune cells by releasing T cell cytokines.

What are Koch's postulates?

To prove that a given infectious agent causes a given disease, a scientist must satisfy all of these 1. suspected germ must be present in every case of disease 2. That agent must be isolated & grown in pure culture. 3. The cultured agent must cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible experimental host. 4. The same agent must be reisolated from the diseased experimental host

Why would a person who has their tonsils removed be more susceptible to certain types of infections of the throat and respiratory tract?

Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs; they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the oral cavity, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas.

Two main types of brewery yeast strains

Top fermenting — ales. Bottom fermenting — lagers

--------- refers to the presence of toxins in the bloodstream

Toxemia

Differentiate between toxemia and intoxication.

Toxemia---bacteria produce toxin in the body---tetanus Intoxication---ingested preformed toxin--food poisoning

Mechanisms of coagulase and how they help in invasion

Toxin---a pathogen forms a wall around the cell that our system cannot detect, creating a blood clot. Coagulase will eventually secrete streptokinase.

47. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by removal of virulence genes from the microbe. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. long-term subculturing of the microbe. All of the choices are correct.

Treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation

61. Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids. True False

True

Accumulations of viral proteins and nucleic acids inside infected host cells are called inclusion bodies. T/F

True

Gene rearrangement is responsible for the generation of the various antibody molecules. T/F

True

IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin made by the body. T/F

True

True

True or False: Cold treatment and dessication cannot be reliably used for sterilization or disinfection.

True

True or False: Death involves the permanent termination of a particular organism's vital processes.

False

True or False: The effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent is only governed by time.

False

True or False: There are several degrees of sterility, based on the destruction of endospores.

Clonal Selection Theory

Undifferentiated lymphocytes undergo a continuous series of divisions and genetic changes that generate millions of different cell types

What is the principle antibody activity?

Unite with the Ag, to call attention to, or neutralize the Ag for which it was formed

Biotechnology

Use of living organisms for industrial or commercial applications

Amino acids

Used as feed additives in the food industry. Used as nutritional supplements in nutraceutical industry. Used as starting materials in the chemical industry

Cross-streak method

Used to test new microbial isolates for antibiotic production. Most isolates produce known antibiotics. Most antibiotics fail toxicity and therapeutic tests in animals. Time and cost of developing a new antibiotic is approximately 15 years and $1 billion. Involves clinical trials and U.S. FDA approval. Antibiotic purification and extraction often involves elaborate methods

Industrial microbiology

Uses microorganisms, typically grown on a large scale, to produce products or carry out chemical transformation. Classic methods are used to select for high-yielding microbial variants

DNA vaccine (genetic vaccine)

Vaccine that uses the DNA of a pathogen to elicit an immune response. Defined fragments of genomic DNA or specific genes encoding immunogenic proteins are used. They are cloned into a plasmid or viral vector and delivered by injection

Portion at the ends of the Fab regions and accounts for the antigen biding specificity. includes the antigen binding site

Variable Region

The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the A. Variable region B. Light region C. Joining region D. Hinge region E. Constant region

Variable region

What is a virulence factor, and how do they help bacteria with adhesion and invasion?

Virulence Factors are structural or physiological characteristics that help an organisms cause infection and disease Surface molecules on a pathogen called ADHESIONS or LIGANDS (protein or sugar), bind specifically to complimentary surface receptors on cells of certain host tissues. For example E.coli bacteria binding to human bladder cells. It allows them to stick.

How do viruses cause disease?

Viruses cause disease by directly destroying living cells or by affecting cellular processes in ways that upset homeostasis.

Important in the spread of many gastrointestinal diseases (Fecal-oral infection)

Waterborne transmission

Antimicrobial solutions with alcohol or water-alcohol mixtures as the solvent.

What are tinctures?

1. Presence of water 2. Temperature 3. Length of exposure

What factors must be considered in order to adequately sterilize using heat?

The dehydration of microbes for preservation.

What is dessication?

microorganisms in the hospital environment, compromised host, chain of transmission

What is needed to be a nosocomial infection?

Surgical Instruments

What items would not be reliably treated by boiling water?

Is virulence increased or decreased through animal passage, i.e.: is the pathogen more virulent in the animals it first infects, or in later animals that acquire the infection from the earlier animals?

When you pass a disease through population the disease will get worse and increase. The animals that are infected later will be exposed to a stronger virus that has adapted over the course of numerous animals.

What is a productive infection?

Where a virus enters the host cell and multiplies.

Would a denatured antigen be expected to have the same epitopes as its native (non-denatured) counterpart? Why?

Yes AND No; SOME epitopes are dependent on 3D conformation (conformational epitopes), while some simply depend on the sequence of amino acids (linear epitopes). So, really, it depends on the particular epitope.

Diseases that naturally spread from animal host to humans

Zoonoses

Antiseptics

__ are applied directly to the skin to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens.

Acids & Alkalis

__ are limited in their application because they are corrosive and hazardous.

Moist

__ heat requires shorter exposure times and lower temperatures than dry heat.

Death

__ is characterized by the stopping of all metabolic activity of a cell.

antibodies

a plasma cell secretes

in genetic engineering for vaccine production, the cloning host is stimulated to synthesize and secrete

a protein antigen from the pathogen

epidemiology

a science that studies the cause of a disease; its source and how it goes from its source to a host

endotoxin is

a structural component of the gram negative bacterial cell wall

adjuvant

a substance that enhances the body's immune response to an antigen.

toxoid

a toxin that has been rendered nontoxic but is still capable of eliciting the formation of protective antitoxin antibodies

dinoflagellates

a type of single-celled microscopic algae that produce saxitoxin

mutualism

a type of symbiosis - both organisms benefit (ex. us & our normal microbiota)

parasitism

a type of symbiosis - one organism benefits, and the other is harmed (ex. us & pathogens/opportunistic pathogens)

commensalism

a type of symbiosis - one organism benefits; other is unaffected (ex. us & some normal microbiota)

airborne transmission

a type of vehicle transmission - pathogens in dust nuclei are suspended in the air and travel MORE THAN 1 meter

foodborne transmission

a type of vehicle transmission - unsanitary handling of food, unfavorable storage (ex. temperature)

waterborne transmission

a type of vehicle transmission - via fecal-oral route

bloodborne transmission

a type of vehicle transmission through the blood

examples of microbial antagonism

a) outcompetes for food (nutrients) and room b) alters conditions where they are (pH, oxygen levels) that affect other microorganisms c) E. Coli produces antibacterial proteins called bacteriocins that inhibit other microbes

exceptions to Koch's Postulates

a) some microorganisms have never been grown on artificial media b) some disease conditions (pneumonia, meningitis, peritonitis) can be caused by more than one pathogen c) some pathogens (Staph. aureus, Strep. pyogenes, Mycobacterium tuberculosis) can cause more than one different disease d) some pathogens only have humans as their host

Pathogenicity

ability to cause disease

pathogenicity

ability to cause disease

how oes death occur by virus?

accumulation of large numbers of multiplying viruses, by effects of viral proteins, or by inhibition of host DNA, RNA, or protein synthesis

nosocomial infections

acquired while receiving treatment in a health care facility

disease that develops rapidly but lasts a short time

acute disease (common cold)

acute disease vs chronic disease

acute disease develop rapidly but resolve quickly chronic diseases develop slowly but don't resolve

primary infection

acute infection that causes the initial illness

virulence factors of bacterial and viral pathogens

adhesion molecules exoenzymes endo and exotoxins host immune survival and evasion

direct contact transmission

aka person to person contact transmission; direct physical contact between one person and another. there is no object between the two people

Industrial microbiology originated with...

alcoholic fermentation processes. Later on, processes such as production of pharmaceuticals, food additives, enzymes, and chemicals were developed

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs. systemic shock and kidney failure. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs. fever and anemia. All of the choices are correct.

all choices are correct

Contact dermatitis involves itchy papules and blisters. T lymphocytes secreting inflammatory cytokines. All of the choices are correct. an allergen entering the skin. a sensitizing and provocative dose.

all of the choices are correct

Degranulation of mast cells leads to All of the choices are correct. airway obstruction. dilated blood vessels. headache.

all of the choices are correct

During which stage of disease should an infected person be considered contagious? the convalescence period the decline stage all stages the illness stage the incubation period

all stages

an antigen that provokes an allergic reaction is

allergen

Type I is causes by

allergens

A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is asthma. atopic dermatitis. anaphylaxis. eczema. allergic rhinitis.

allergic rhinitis

antigenic variation

allows pathogens , particularly viruses and protozoa to continuously confuse the immune system by altering their appearance a bit.

capsules

allows the bacteria to resist phagocytosis

Amylases and glucoamylases

also commercially important. Produce high-fructose syrup

tumor necrosis factor alpha

also endotoxins

Each class of antibody is specifically defined by its

amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain.

ergot

an alkaloid toxin produced by a parasitic fungi on grains (rye)

All of the following might lead to a disease caused by an opportunistic pathogen EXCEPT __________. an encounter with an infected animal immune suppression changes in diet hormonal changes

an encounter with an infected animal

hyaluronidase

an exoenzyme that dissolves the polysaccharide extracellular cement (hyaluronic acid) of connective tissue *spreading factor

collagenase

an exoenzyme that dissolves the protein collagen found in skin, muscles, organs *spreading factor *most common

foreign

an important characteristic of an antigen is that it be perceived to be

Ethanol is used as

an industrial solvent and gasoline supplement

systemic infection

an infection throughout the body

superantigen toxins cause

an intense immune response

secondary infection

an opportunistic pathogen that takes advantage of a weakened immune system

Koch proved that Bacillus anthracis causes

anthrax

Production of vitamins is second only to _______ in terms of total pharmaceutical sales

antibiotics

antitoxin

antibody that can neutralize a toxin

Macrophages and dendritic cells are

antigen-presenting cells.

Specific regions on an antigen molecule to which the immune response is directed are

antigenic determinants.

the flu virus is an

antigenic variation

type of molecule characteristics

antigens - found on only one type of microbe pamps - shared by many types of microbes antigens - stimulate specific immunity pamps - stimulate nonspecific immunity

epitopes

antigens possess determinant groups that are recognized by lymphocyte antigen specific receptors

Superantigens

antigens that provide a very intense immune response; bacterial proteins, nonspecifically stimulate the proliferation of immune cells called T cells, WC that act against foreign organisms and tissue transplants and regulate activation and proliferation of other cells of the immune system, in response to superantigens, T cells release cytokines lots of cytokines lead to a number of symptoms like fever, nausea, vomitting, diarrhea, shock, death

foreign molecules

antigens that stimulate a specific immune response

antibodies the host forms against toxins

antitoxins

natural killer cells

are a type of lymphocyte with many similarities to T cells but the big difference is that they are not antigen specific

when know or suspected adverse reactions have been detected in vaccines

are altered to improve or withdrawn from the market

zoonoses

are diseases transmitted from animals to humans

APCs in the lymphatic tissue

are found in large numbers

Antigen recognition for T cells

are made solely as membrane-bound proteins and only function to signal T cells for activation.

Epitopes or antigenic determinants

are parts of an antigen recognized by an antibody.

molecules less than 1,000 mw

are seldom good antigens so a substance must be large enough to initatie an immune response

pamps as contrasted to antigens

are shared by many types of microbes stimulate nonspecific immunity

Antigen recognition for B cells

are the immunoglobulins on the B-cell surface

mechanical transmission

arthripod carries pathogen on its feet

disease without symptoms

asymptomatic

true

at the beginning of an immune response most antibodies produced are IGM but as the response progresses you see mainly IGG antibodies, being produced

A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered systemic anaphylactic. antibody mediated. delayed. atopic. T-cell mediated.

atopic

Immobilized enzymes

attached to a solid surface. Used in the starch processing industry.

cardiotoxins

attack heart cells

leukotoxins

attack leukocytes

bacterial cells & viruses that have lost the ability to make ligands- whether as the result of some genetic change or exposure to certain physical or chemical agents become harmless, or

avirulent

free of any microbes

axenic

13) Antimicrobial peptides called ________ are secreted in sweat and damage bacteria and fungi. A) antibodies B) dermcidins C) TLRs D) complement factors E) cytokines

b

16) The process of phagocytosis involve all of the following EXCEPT A) chemotaxis. B) secretion of cytotoxins. C) adhesion. D) elimination. E) vesicle fusion.

b

19) Which of the following cells is a component of the body's first line defense? A) monocyte B) goblet cell C) NK cell D) neutrophil E) microglial cells

b

38) Proteins on the surface of phagocytes called ________ aid in the detection of pathogen molecules. A) lectins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) lectins and C3 protein E) both TLRs and NOD proteins

b

39) A type of lymphocyte called a(n) ________ detects cells with abnormal surface proteins and kills them. A) eosinophil B) NK cell C) neutrophil D) basophil E) mast cell

b

44) First line of defense may be described as A) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

b

9) Which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism"? A) the presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through abrasions B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body C) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions D) the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens E) the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the surface

b

Transfusion involves the transfer of ________ from a donor to a different recipient.

blood

1. The bone marrow is where immune responses to antigen occur. blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes. antigen is filtered from the blood. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid. T lymphocytes complete maturation.

blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.

antitoxins

body produces antibodies called antitoxins; that provide immunity to exotoxins; even when exotoxins are inactivated by heat, formaldehyde or iodine they don't cause disease, but they stimulate body to make antitoxins

period of concalescence

body returns to its prediseased state

Which type(s) of hypersensitivity is IgG involved with? immune complex mediated both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated antibody mediated anaphylaxis

both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated

Urine and fecal specimens require sterile collection conditions. both sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media. incubation in selective media. both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media. incubation in differential media.

both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media

Mutualism

both organisms benefit

What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue? both skin graft and organ transplantation skin graft blood transfusion All of the choices are correct. organ transplantation

both skin graft and organ transplantation

Hydraluronidase

breaks down

42. Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for asthma. Chron's disease. breast cancer. respiratory syncytial virus. All of the choices are correct.

breast cancer

20) Which of the following leukocytes are called "agranulocytes" because of the absence of granules in their cytoplasm revealed by basic or acidic dyes? A) eosinophils B) basophils C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) both basophils and eosinophils

c

27) Alpha and beta interferons A) help protect virus-infected cells from the effects of the pathogen. B) protect the cells that secrete them from being invaded by a virus. C) are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages. D) produce active antiviral proteins (AVPs) that coat the surface of healthy cells and prevent the attachment of pathogenic viruses. E) produce no adverse effects in the body.

c

29) The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with ________ binding to the surface of a microbe. A) C1 B) factor B C) C3b D) C5a E) C5b

c

3) Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is A) the first line of defense. B) the second line of defense. C) the third line of defense. D) microbial antagonism. E) innate immunity.

c

41) Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called A) TLRs. B) NODs. C) PAMPs. D) leukotrienes. E) prostaglandins.

c

Example of non-communicable disease

cancer

infectious disease

caused by direct effect of a pathogen

iatrogenic infectious disease

caused by medical procedure but not necessarily in a hospital

vaccination

causes an immediate immune response upon entry of the pathogen in the body

Type II is causes by

cell bound antigens

noncytocidal effects

cell damage, but not death

symptoms

changes in body function that are felt by a patient as a result of disease

signs

changes in the body that can be measured or observed as a result of disease

35. An example of artificial active immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. None of the choices are correct.

chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.

disease that develops slowly and are continual or recurrent

chronic disease (hep C, TB, & Leprosy)

naive b cells

circulate through the blood home in on specific sites, ( lymph nodes)

IGA, IGE, IGD, IGG, IGM

classes of antibodies in humans

Class 2 genes (MHC)

code for immune regulatory receptors found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells; and are involved in presenting antigens to T cells during cooperative immune reactions (MHC-II on APCs)

Class I genes (MHC)

code for markers that appear on all nucleated cells, display unique characteristics of self, allow for recognition of immune reactions (MHC-I on self)

extracellular enzymes that breaks down collagen, the body's chief structural protein

collagenase

Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

collects and analyzes epidemiological information in the united states

clone

colony of cells derived from a single cell that share identical characteristics

A bacterium inhabits the human nasal cavity where it obtains nutrients from secretions. It neither harms nor benefits the host. The relationship is therefore a(n) ________ one. antagonistic commensal neutral mutualisitic parasitic

commensal

most of the resident microbiota are --------, they feed on excreted cellular wastes & dead cells without causing harm.

commensal

example of endemic disease

common cold

49. Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. are always genetically engineered. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. confer passive immunity. All of the choices are correct.

contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.

The close contact between newborns and family members allows them to become ________ with microbes that become established as their microbiota. (Choose the most accurate term.) infected contaminated colonized infiltrated parasitized

contaminated

Two arm arrangement FC

crystallized fragment (constant) • Binds to receptors on cell membranes to assist immune cells

activate T cells produced a spectrum of ___which stimulate other cells

cytokines

CPE

cytopathic effects, or visible effects of viral infection;

CD8 coreceptor is expressed on

cytotoxic T cells

antigen activated T cells give rise to

cytotoxic T cells, T helper cells, T regulatory cells

29. The most significant cells in graft rejection are helper T cells. suppressor T cells. cytotoxic T cells. B cells. natural killer (NK) cells.

cytotoxic T cells.

invasion causes what along the way

damage

Type 4's host cell damage due to

damage by T cells

using the host's cell's nutrients, direct damage to the cell, toxins

damage to host cells

mortality

deaths from notifiable diseases

Glycohydrolases , nucleases , phospholipases and proteases all have this function theme in common

degrades

Type 1's host cell damage due to

degranulation (release of mediators)

MHC class II molecules are found on

dendritic cells, macrophages, b lymphocytes

Identification of the index case is an important part of which of the following types of epidemiology? experimental epidemiology descriptive epidemiology analytical epidemiology None of the listed responses is correct

descriptive epidemiology

involves the careful tabulation of data concerning a disease. Relevant info includes location & time of cases of diseases, collect patient information & try to identify the index case of the disease

descriptive epidemiology

Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing degranulation. tissue matching. sensitization. desensitization. None of the choices are correct.

desensitization

lysis

destruction of a cell by rupture of the plasma membrane, resulting in a loss of cytoplasm

GAMDE

different categories of immunoglobulins

where is resident microbiota found in the body?

digestive tract, upper respiratory tract, distal portion of urethra & vagina

period of illness

disease is most severe

iatrogenic disease

disease may be non- infectious ex: bad drug interaction

idiopathic disease

disease of unknown cause

contagious diseases

disease that are easily and rapidly spread from one host to another

sporadic disease

disease that occurs only occasionally

infectious disease

diseases caused by pathogens (or their products)

notifiable infectious diseases

diseases in which physicians are required to report occurrence

Inherited disease

diseases that have a genetic component ex: sickle cell anemia

5) Which of the following areas of the body have mucous membranes? A) mouth B) nasal cavity C) urinary system D) mouth and nasal cavity E) mouth, nasal cavity, and urinary system

e

6) Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of A) the lack of suitable environment in the body. B) the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment. C) the presence of phagocytes in the tissues. D) the salty, acidic condition of normal skin. E) both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

e

According to the clonal selection theory

each B cell is already programmed to produce a specific antibody.

unique antigen

each individual mature B and T cell has the capacity to respond to a single unique antigen

contagious infectious disease

easily spread between hosts

principles of vaccine preparation include

effectiveness of vaccine against disease safety and cost of vaccine ease in administration of vaccine antigen selection for vaccine

a disease that normally occurs continually at a relatively stable incidence within a given population or geographical are------- to that population or region

endemic

If a disease occurs at a fairly stable rate, it is said to be endemic. epidemic. sporadic. pandemic.

endemic.

Treatment with high doses of antibiotics may lead to which type of health care associated infection? exogenous infection latent infection zoonosis endogenous infection iatrogenic disease

endogenous infection

interluekin 1

endogenous pyrogen, cytokines; carried via blood to hypothalamus, which controls temp; induce prostaglandins which reset thermostat in hypothalamus to higher temperature

Hyaluronidase

enzyme secreted by certain bacteria like streptococci; hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid (polysaccharide that holds together certain cells, like connective tissues) this digesting action is involved in the tissue blackening of infected wounds that help the microbes spread from its initial site of infection

whenever a disease occurs at a greater frequency than is usual for an area or population

epidemic

the study of where & when diseases occur & how they are transmitted within populations

epidemiology

14. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an epitope. hapten. antigen binding site. variable region. None of the choices are correct.

epitope

penetrating host's defenses

evade (overcome) the immune system of the host

true

even after approval vaccines are not without complications

membrane ruffling

ex. salmonella leads to dramatic changes in the membrane at point of contact disruption of the cytoskeleton of the host cell; microbe sinks into ruffle and is engulfed by cell Some bacteria can use the actin to propel themselves through the host cytoplasm and from one host cell to another

direct contact, indirect contact, droplet transmission

examples of contact transmission

human reservoir, animal reservoir

examples of living reservoirs

water, soil, food

examples of nonliving reservoirs

mechanical, biological

examples of vector transmission

water, food, air, blood

examples of vehicle transmission

coagulases

exoenzymes (ex. Staph. aureus) that coagulates blood, forms blood clots to isolate, wall itself off from host immune system - local infections

virulence factors of helminths

exoenzymes damage the host cells some helminths actively suppress the immune system some helminths interfere with host cell function

enzymes

exoenzymes, a major way pathogens evade the host's immune system *many damage host cells, tissues, and create the signs of a disease

Describe some common disease portals of entry.

eye-nose-mouth-vagina-urethra-anus-broken skin-insect bite-needle--placenta

63. Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. True False

false

65. After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells. True False

false

68. The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies. True False

false

69. Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen. True False

false

Fluorescent dye can be used as a label to trace antibody-antigen reactions in an ELISA assay. True or False

false

It is necessary to do lab tests to diagnose all diseases. True or False

false

T cell receptors are identical to antibodies.

false

secondary response of specific immunity compared to the primary response

faster, more vigorous

John Snow

father of epidemiology, picture of Broad Street, cholera epidemic

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother. maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother.

fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother

Ag-Ab binding may result in all of the following EXCEPT

fever

lipid A can stimulate the body to release chemicals that cause

fever, inflammation, diarrhea, hemorrhaging, shock, & blood coagulation

Major organisms used in industrial microbiology

fungi and Streptomyces

Enzymes are produced from

fungi and bacteria

microbes enter the human body most frequently through

gastrointestinal and respiratory mucosa

Effect on host-Endotoxin

general systemic symptoms of inflammation and fever

Alloantigen

genetically determined antigen present in some but not all individuals of a species

virulence factors of protozoa

giardia and others attach to host cells (no entry) causing inflammation malaria invades RBC and causes them to stick together and to the sides of blood vessels impeding blood flow capsules increase pathogenicity Trypanosoma uses antigenic variation to evade the immune response

33. An example of artificial passive immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. None of the choices are correct.

giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease

types of adhesins

glycocalyx fimbriae / Pili specific microbe proteins biofilms

Capsuls

glycocaylx material that forms capsuls around their cell walls; increases virulence; resists the host's defenses by impairing phagocytosis Chemical nature of capsul prevents the phagocytic cell from adhering to the bacterium; but human body can produce antibodies against capsuls that can easily destroy these bacteria ex. stretpococcus pnuemonia has a capsul that causes pneumonia ex. Bacillus anthracis

How can viruses gain access to cells?

have attachment sites for receptors on their target cells; such an attachment site is brought together with a receptor , the birus can bind to and penetrate the cell; others gain access because their attachment sites mimic substances useful to those cells, ex. rabies virus enters the host cell along with neurotransmitter ex. AIDS: hiding attachment sites form immune response by attacking componenets of immune system directly; cell-specific (CD4 protein)

latent disease

have periods of acute disease alternating with period of no symptoms because the pathogen goes dormant. An example is herpesvirus

The surface receptors on B and T cells both

have variable and constant regions.

Select all of the conditions that result from IgE- and mast-cell-mediated allergic reactions.

hay fever, allergic asthma, food allergy reactions, drug allergy reactions

Disease

health disturbance wherein the body cannot carry out its normal functions "Dis-ease"microorganisms are present

M protein

heat and acid resistant protein; helps prevent phagocytosis

Heat stability of endotoxin

heat stable

Distilled alcoholic beverages are made by

heating previously fermented liquid to a temperature that volatilizes most of the alcohol. Whiskey, rum, brandy, vodka, gin

An IgG molecule has two

heavy chains, light chains AND antigen binding sites.

Enzymes

help contribue to virulence by producing exoenzymes that have functions like digesting blood clots, or forming them

after antigen stimulation, T cell function

helping other immune cells synthesizing cytokines killing abnormal cells

nosocomial infections

hospital acquired infections

pathogenesis

how a disease develops in a population

weeks, years, months

how long can a secondary immune response can occur after exposure to antigen

Portal of entry

how pathogens gain entrance to the human body and other hosts Mucous membranes, skin, direct deposition beneath skin or membranes

classifying infectious diseases

how they spread from one host to another, frequency of occurrence, severity & duration, extent of host involvement, state of host resistance

bone marrow

humans do not have a bursa so b cells maturation occurs here

extracellular enzymes that digests hyaluronic acid, the "glue" that holds animal cells together

hyaluronidase

extracellular enzymes that degrade specific molecules to enable bacteria to invade deeper tissues

hyaluronidase & collagenase

virulence factor of extracellular enzymes

hyaluronidase & collagenase digest structural materials in the body. Coagulase in effect"camouflages" bacteria inside a blood clot, whereas kinases digest clots to release bacteria

Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a(n) hypersensitivity. transfusion reaction. immunodeficiency. autoimmune disease. desensitization.

hypersensitivity

What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B-cell survival and maturity? formation of autoantibodies hypogammaglobulinemia graft versus host disease None of the choices is correct. host rejection of graft

hypogammaglobulinemia

The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is hemopathology. histopathology. humoralpathology. immunopathology. epidemiology.

immunopathology

The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is immunopathology. hemopathology. histopathology. humoralpathology. epidemiology.

immunopathology

vaccination results

in a variable degree and length of protection

horse

in the past, antibodies for passive immunization were often developed in and isolated form horse blood serum but this had the potential of eliciting hypersensitive responses

after antigen stimulation, B cells produce antibodies to ____ antigen

inactivate, target, neutralize

toxoids

inactivated (by heat or chemicals) toxins that no longer cause a disease but still can create immunity

the # of new cases of a disease in a given area or population during a given period of time

incidence

the 2 measures that epidemiologists keep track of occurrence of diseases

incidence & prevalence

periods of disease

incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, convalescence

An epidemiologist collects drinking glasses, tissues, and bed sheets from the apartment of an individual infected with a particular disease. Which of the following modes of transmission is being investigated for this disease? vehicle transmission direct contact transmission indirect contact transmission vector transmission

indirect contact transmission

Allergens that enter by the mouth

ingestant

Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? inhalant None of the choices is correct. injectant contactant ingestant

inhalant

Allergens such as drugs or venoms that pierce the skin

injectant

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? injectant contactant inhalant None of the choices is correct. ingestant

injectant

First human protein made commercially by genetic engineering

insulin

subacute disease

intermediate between acute and chronic

incubation period

interval between initial infection and first signs and symptoms

majority of vaccines are administered by

intradermal injection, intramuscular injection, subcutaneous, injection

immune serum globulin ( ISG ) is injected to minimize adverse reactions

intramusculalry

infection

invasion or colonization of the body by pathogens

Type II

involve IgG and IgM, blood group incompatibility

antigen presenting cell

is a cell that ingest and degrades an antigen and subsequently places the antigenic determinant molecules on its surface for recognition by CD4 T lymphocytes

26. All of the following are characteristics of IgM except it has 10 antigen binding sites. it contains a central J chain. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. it can fix complement. it is a dimer.

it is a dimer.

39. All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response. a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response. a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced. it is also known as the anamnestic response.

it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.

60. All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except it should have a relatively long shelf life. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response. it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen. it should not require numerous boosters. it should be easy to administer.

it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.

extracellular enzyme that digest blood clots, allowing subsequent invasion of damaged tissues

kinases (staphylokinase & streptokinase)

B Cell Receptor: Immunoglobulins (igs)

large glycoprotein molecules that serve as the antigen receptors of B cells and as antibodies when secreted

13. Properties of effective antigens include all the following except foreign to the immune system. molecular complexity. large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000. large polymers made up of repeating subunits. cells or large, complex molecules.

large polymers made up of repeating subunits.

antibody

large protein molecule produced by plasma cells that interacts specifically with an antigen

diseases in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active

latent diseases (Herpes)

Bacterial proteases are used in

laundry detergents (can also contain amylases, lipases, and reductases). Isolated from alkaliphilic bacteria

In an asymptomatic individual, which of the following might still be detectable? lethargy leukopenia nausea itching

leukopenia

LAL

limulus amoebocyte lysate assay, detecs evne a small amount of endotoxins

the lipid portion of Gram-negative outer wall membrane

lipid A

composition of endotoxin

lipid A component of LPS

11) Eosinophils respond to (complement/lipopolysaccharide/histamines) and kill bacteria in a nonphagocytic process.

lipopolysaccharide

independent antigens

lipopolysaccharides from bacterial cell wall are one example of T cell

reservoirs of infection

living or non-living object that provides a pathogen with adequate conditions for survival and multiplication and an opportunity for transmission

most common complications associated with vaccines

local reactions to the injection site, allergies, fever

LD50 of exotoxin

low but more toxin

what part of body is axenic?

lungs

1) White blood cells known as (basophils/lymphocytes/neutrophils) are the main cells involved in the third line of defense.

lymphocytes

epitopes

lymphocytes recognize and respond to specific portions of antigen molecules

Type 2's host cell damage due to

lysed cells

3) Sweat glands produce (lysozyme/dermcidin/acid), which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by cleaving the bonds between the sugar subunits.

lysozyme

Class II MHC molecules are found primarily on

macrophages AND dendritic cells.

Antigens may be processed for presentation by

macrophages, B cells, AND dendritic cells.

Antigens may be processed for presentation by

macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells

herd immunity

maintained through immunization is an important force in preventing epidemics

Mucous membranes

many bacteria gain entrance through respiratory tract, intenstinal tract, conjuctiva etc; respiratory tract is the easiest and most frequently traveled; inhaled in teh nose and mouth in drops of moisture and dust particules ex. common cold, pnuemonia, tb Genitourinary tract is a portal of entry that are contracted sexually, STD;s: some penetrate an unbroken mucous membrane, others require a cut or abrasion Gastrointestinal tract: via contaminated fingers touching food and water; most are destroyed by HCl and enzymes in the stomach or by bile and enzymes in small intestines; those that survive cause disease; hep. A, typhoid fever, cholera, and are eliminated by feces which can contaminate more water etc

8. Class I MHC genes code for certain secreted complement components. markers that display unique characteristics of self. all HLA antigens. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. All of the choices are correct.

markers that display unique characteristics of self.

cytokines

mast cells and basophils have receptors that bind to the FC fragment of IGE and, upon allergen binding by the surface bound IGE, the cell release___that increase the allergic response

can be transmitted in dried airborne droplets

measles virus & TB

signs of disease

measurable or observable

Transgenic plants can also be employed to produce human proteins for _________

medical use. Examples: interferon, antibodies, vaccines

source of exotoxin

mostly gram positive

Natural passive immunity

mother's IgG crosses placenta in utero; IgA present in colostrum

How do microbes cause disease?

must gain access to host, adhere to host tissues, and penetrate or evade host defenses, and cause damage Most don't do it directly, but their waste causes disease Some don't enter body, like acne

In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction?

mutualism

A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as mutualism. parasitism. both commensalism and parasitism. a nonsymbiotic relationship. commensalism.

mutualism.

an example of etiology

mycobacterium tuberculosis

waxy lipid

mycolic acid in cell wall (MTB), resisting digestion and can multiply inside phagocytes

30. Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? helper T cells suppressor T cells cytotoxic T cells delayed hypersensitivity T cells natural killer (NK) cells

natural killer (NK) cells

Microbes are obtained from

nature in pure culture

Vomiting is a common sign of food poisoning. The corresponding symptom would be pain. cramps. diarrhea. fever. nausea.

nausea.

Production of penicillin only begins after

near-exhaustion of carbon source.

disease that arise outside hosts or from normal microbiota, they do not spread from one host to another

noncommunicable diseases (tooth decay, acne, & tetanus)

microorganism are (blank) found throughout the entire human body but are (blank) in certain regions

not and localized

prevalence

number of people who develop a disease at a specified time regardless of when it first appeared

incidence

number of people who develop a disease during a particular time period of new cases

cells and complex molecules usually have

numerous antigenic epitopes

Fermentors are made of

oak, cement, glass-lined steel, or stone.

natural passive immunity

occurs for the fetus because maternal IGG antibodies can cross the placenta to protect the baby

specific immunity

occurs only after an immunizing event is adaptive

active immunity

occurs when an individual is stimulated by an antigen that activates the T and B cell response

disease (true disease)

occurs when an infection leads to one or more abnormal body functions

constant region

of an antibody has an amino acid content that does not vary greatly

microbial adhesins

often bind host cell receptors to begin the colonization process

commensalism

one organism benefits and the other is unaffected

secondary infection

opportunistic infection after a primary (predisposing) infection

What is a pathogen?

organism that can cause disease inside another organism

preferred portal of entry

organisms that enter do not necessarily cause disease; occurrence of disease depends on several factors including portal of entry; ex. s. typhi only causes problems when its swallowed, not when rubbed on skin

indirect contact transmission

pathogens are carried on a NON-LIVING INANIMATE OBJECT (fomite) between one person and another

local infection

pathogens are limited to a small area of the body

igm

pentamer and thus has 10 antigen binding sites

carriers

people who harbor pathogens but do not exhibit any symptoms or signs, yet can transmit the pathogen to others

cytotoxicity of CD8 T cells

perforins, granzymes

Deficiency of vitamin B12 results in

pernicious anemia. Cobalt is present in B12

Some pathogens cause disease by avoiding or surviving ___ by our immune cells

phagocytosis

example of a local infection

pimple, boil

Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test. cross reactions precipitation agglutination sensitivity specificity

precipitation

Protozoa

prescence of them and waste products ; some can evade host defenses adn cause disease for a very long time

Infestation

presence of large parasites like worms

toxemia

presence of toxins in the bloods 2 kinds: endotoxin and exotoxins

Helminths

presence produces disease symptoms in a host; use host tissues for their own growth, cellular damage causes symptoms

MHC II antigen molecules

presenting cells are involved in the activation of T helper cells through the displaying of immunogen fragments

the total # of cases, both new & already existing, in a given area or population during a given period of time (cumulative #)

prevalence

Changing/blocking a ligand or its receptor can ------- infection

prevent

regulatory T cell functions

prevent autoimmunity, control the inflammatory response, prevent the targeting of normal flora

Only antigen-presenting cells

produce MHC class II molecules.

Algae

produce neurotoxins like saxitoxin , shellfish poisoning

collagenase

produced by several clostridium, facilitates teh spread of gas gangrene; breaks down collagen (connective tissue)

Exotoxins

produced inside some bacteria as part of their growth and metabolism and are secreted by the bacterium into the surrounding medium or released by lysis Proteins, and many are enzymes that catalyze only certain biochemical reactions , even small amount are harmful because they can act over and over again can be gram + or gram - genes are carried on bacterial plasmids or phages, soluble in body fluids, easily diffuse work by destroying particular parts of the host's cells or by inhibiting certain metabolic functions; highly specific in heir effects diseases caused by bacteria that produce exotoxins are often caused by minute amounts of exotoxins, not by bacteria ; disease-specific

Transgenic animals are useful for

producing human proteins that require specific posttranslational modifications. Medical research, Improving livestock and other food animals for human consumption

antigenicity

property of behaving as an antigen

12) Macrophages release (bradykinin/histamine/prostaglandin) in response to microbes and thereby contribute to acute inflammation.

prostaglandin

Composition of exotoxin

protein

antigens are usually ___ or ___molecules

protein, polysaccharide

siderophores

proteins produced by bacteria that takes iron from the iron-carrying plasma protein (transferrin) or storage proteins (ferrins) *iron is needed for pathogens to reproduce

prophage

refers to the inactive viral DNA in the bacterial chromosome *the host bacterial cell can gain new genes by this

variable

regions found on both the heavy and light chains in an antibody molecule come together to form the antigen binding site

lysogeny

remain latent, host bacterial cell and its progeny may exhibit new properties encdoed by bacteriophage DNA; such a change in characteristic is called lysogenic conversion bacterial cell is immuned to infection by same type of phage

poor immunogens

repetitive polymers, small molecules, simple molecules

t lymphocytes

require antigen presented with MHC molecules

Who produces endotoxins?

salmonella typhi, proteus, etc

5) The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skin's surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to many bacteria is (sebum/sweat/serum).

sebum

Penicillin production is typical of a ________ metabolite

secondary

4. Plasma cells secrete antibodies. function in allergic reactions. directly destroy target cells. suppress immune reactions. activate B cells and other T cells.

secrete antibodies

Portal of exit

secretions, excretiongs, discharges, tissue that is shed; related to the part of the body that has been infected, depending on portal of exit, pathogens can spread to susceptible hosts coughing, sneezing, droplet form feces secretions from penis/vagina, etc skin, blood

septic shock

sepsis with uncontrolled low blood pressure

bloodstream invasion may lead to

septicemia , sepsis and septic shock

examples of latent disease

shingles, genital herpes, AIDS

septic shock

shock caused by bacteria

prodromal period

short period after incubation; early, mild symptoms

Which one of these bacterial proteins can take iron from human lactoferrin? 1. protease 2. siderophore 3. hyaluronidase 4. kinase

siderophore

period of decline

signs and symptoms subside

T cell independent antigens are usually

simple molecules carbohydrates made up of many repeating invariable units

portals of entry

skin, mucous membranes, parenteral route

plasmids

small circular DNA molecules that are not connected to the main bacterial chromosome *may carry the information that determines a microbe's pathogenicity *ex. tetanus neurotoxin, staphylococcal enterotoxin

Haptens

small foreign molecules that consist of only a determinant group • Too small to elicit immune response on their own • If linked to a larger carrier molecule, then the combination develops immunogenicity

cytokines

small protein molecules that regulate immune responses to mediate cell to cell communication

the following human cell types express MHC class proteins on their surface

smooth muscle cells, respiratory epithelium, white blood cells, stem cells

effect of host exotoxin

specific damage

46. High titers of specific antibodies are components of specific immune globulin (SIG). gamma globulin. immune serum globulin (ISG). attenuated vaccines. toxoids.

specific immune globulin (SIG).

Improving product quality is another target area of genetic engineering of plants. For example

spoilage delay

a disease is considered --------- when only a few scattered cases occur within an area or population

sporadic

Parasites that allow their hosts to survive are more likely to ------------.

spread

vector transimmison

spread of an agent by arthropods, especially fleas, ticks, and mosquitoes

contact transmission

spread of an agent of disease

focal infection

spread of localized pathogen or its toxin

communicable infectious disease

spreads between host

indirect contact

spreads to a host by a non living object called fomite

lysogenic cycle

stages in viral development that result in the incorporation of viral DNA into host DNA

subclinical infection

still exposes the body to antigens so that natural active immunity is produced

Poison.

substance that causes disturbance in an organism

• Antigen (Ag):

substance that provokes an immune response • Perceived as foreign

receptors on host cell

sugars, like mannose, different strains of the same species can vary in structure ; if adhesion, receptors etc can be interfered with, infection can be prevented

A person who attended a picnic early in the day develops a very high fever and is unresponsive by the evening. This person most likely has been exposed to a(n) superantigen. cytotoxin. enterotoxin. membrane disrupting toxin.

superantigen.

Gene therapy

tackles many human genetic diseases. Introduces a functional copy of a gene to treat a disease caused by a dysfunctional version of the gene.

cytotoxic T cells function

target cell lysis

genetic engineering

techniques are particularly effective in designing vaccines for obligate parasites that are difficult or expensive to culture

Environmental factors must be controlled and altered as needed. Including...

temperature, pH, cell mass, nutrients, and product concentration. Data on the process must be obtained in real time.

TPR

temperature, pulse, respiration

Serotyping of pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in Ouchterlony double diffusion. Western blot. immunelectrophoresis. the Quellung test. radioimmunoassay (RIA).

the Quellung test

pathogenicity

the ability of a disease-causing microorganism to overcome (evade) the host's defenses (immune system) AND cause disease

cytotoxicity

the ability of certain T cells to kill specific target cell such as an infected cell or cancer cell

Immunocompetence

the ability of the body to react to foreign substances • Development of B and T lymphocytes • The lymphocytes become specialized for reacting only to one specific antigen or immunology

immunocompetence -2

the ability of the body to recognize and react with multiple foreign substances

adherence

the ability of the microorganism to attach to a host cell

microbial antagonism (competitive exclusion)

the ability of the normal microbiota to prevent pathogens from establishing themselves

toxigenicity

the ability of the pathogen to produce toxins

agglutination

the aggregation by antibodies of suspended cells or similar-size particles into clumps that settle

adhensions/ligands

the attachment between pathogen and host is accompanied by these surface molecules that bind to specifically complementary surface receptors on the cells of certain host tissues

Staph. aureus, E. Coli, and P. aeuriginosa

the big three nosocomial infections in hospitals

etiology

the cause of disease

etiology

the cause of the disease

When memory cells encounter the same antigen that induced their development

the cells rapidly respond to initiate secondary immune repsonses

the effect of binding an antibodys FC fragment to an FC receptor on a cell depends on

the cells role

transformation

the changing of a normal cell into a cancerous cell; results in an abnormal, spindle-shaped cell that does not recognize contact inhibition

Recombinant bovine somatotropin (rBST) is commonly used in

the dairy industry; stimulates milk production in cows

vaccinations, like natural active immunity, vary

the degree and length of protection

virulence

the degree of pathogenicity (how easily the pathogen can overcome the host's immune system)

isotypes

the different structural and functional classed of anitbodies

plasma cells

the differentiated B cells that produce and secrete large amounts of antibodies

local infection

the disease-causing agent is contained in a relatively small area of the body

latent disease

the disease-causing agent is dormant (inactive) for years, then becomes active to produce the disease

Expected prevalence of a disease is the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time. the total number of cases of a disease over a period of time. the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations. the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances

the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations.

Virulence

the extent of pathogenicity

pathogenesis

the manner in which a disease develops

genetic expression

the shape and function of protein receptors found on host cell surfaces

Brewing

the term used to describe the manufacture of alcoholic beverages from malted grains

58. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except they require smaller doses. they require fewer boosters. they confer longer lasting protection. they can be transmitted to other people. they produce infection but not disease.

they can be transmitted to other people.

59. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except they confer longer lasting protection. they produce infection but not disease. they can mutate back to a virulent strain. they require fewer boosters. they require smaller doses.

they can mutate back to a virulent strain.

opportunistic pathogens

those normal microbiota that NOW can, and will cause infection and disease

cytocidal effects

those that result in cell death

Autoimmune diseases

thought to be caused by the loss of immune tolerance to self

classes of mhc genes have been identified

three

Types of exotoxins

three groups: A-B toxins, membrane-disrupting toxins, and superantigens

T cells mature in the

thymus

T cells require antigens

to be processed and presented by APCs for activation

The best possible analogy available for the way in which variable (V), diversity (D), and joining (J) antibody gene segments get put together to create the diversity possible in hypervariable regions is

to think of the various segments as a bingo game—each segment is randomly selected, but you're going to need one of each (V, D, and J) to form a functional molecule. The "right" combination varies depending on which antigen is eventually going to be binding to the molecule (i.e., your bingo card would be the eventual antigen, and the random calling out of the number/letter combinations would be the forming of the VDJ hypervariable region).

sepsis

toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins, from a focus of infection

ergot

toxin is an alkloid that can cause hallucinations resembling those produced by LSD; constricts capillaries and cause gangreene in limbs

aflatoxin

toxin with carcinogenic properties in peanut butter

mycotoxins

toxins produced by fungi

cytotoxins

toxins that directly affect the cell membrane of infected cells - specific metabolic steps of cells (hemolysins [RBC], leukocidins [WBC])

neurotoxins

toxins that directly affect the central nervous system (botulism, tetanus)

enterotoxins

toxins that directly affect the gastrointestinal tract (cholera, staph food poisoning)

cardiotoxins

toxins that directly affect the heart (diptheria) - stops protein synthesis

hepatotoxins

toxins that directly affect the liver (mycotoxins, amonita - "death cap")

Genetic engineering can be used to develop

transgenic animals

Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens? treatment of a cancer patient with radiation growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the colon growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin

treatment of a cancer patient with radiation

62. Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them. True False

true

64. Activation of B cells occurs when antigen bonds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors. True False

true

66. A disadvantage of using a live microbe in a vaccine is it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain. True False

true

67. Autoantigens are types of antigens that cause damage to host tissue as a consequence of the immune response. True False

true

70. Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity. True False

true

The immunoglobulin monomer consists of

two heavy and two light chains.

Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category type I and type IV. type I, type II, and type III. type I, type II, type III, and type IV. type IV only. type I only.

type 1 only

SLE

type III hypersensitivity reaction -SLE is an autoimmune disease that targets the thyroid -Muscle weakness is SLE's principle symptom.

Naming exotoxins

type of host attacked; ex. neurotoxins (attack nerve cells); or by the disease they cause, ex. diptheria toxin causes diptheria others are named by the specific bacteria that causes them (botulinum toxin)

contact transmission, vehicle transmission, vector transmission

types of transmission

example of sporadic disease

typhoid fever

inflammatory response

upon phagocytosis of antigens, the phagocytic cell can induce in the surrounding tissues

Direct damage

use host cell for nutrients and produce waste products, as pathogens metabolize and multiply in cells, the cells usually rupture, and can spread to other tissues in even greater numbers ex. E. coli, Salmonella

Giant cells are

used to contain bacterial infections.

How bacterial pathogens damage host cells

using host's nutrients, produce toxins, direct damage

Artificial active immunity

vaccination; stimulates memory response

false

vaccines can contain only one antigen at a time

other signs of disease

vomiting and diarrhea

The scientist who received the first Nobel Prize in Medicine for his work on antibody therapy was

von Behring.

asymptomatic infection

when infection doesn't result in a perceived illness

portals of entry are

where pathogens can gain access into the body

Fermentor

where the microbiology process takes place. Any large-scale reaction is referred to as a fermentation. Most are aerobic processes. Fermentors vary in size from 5 to 500,000 liters. Aerobic and anaerobic fermentors. Large-scale fermentors are almost always stainless steel. Impellers and spargers supply oxygen.

pandemic disease

worldwide epidemic

pandemic disease

worldwide epidemic disease

Tissue is transferred between different individuals of the different species

xenograft

examples of zoonoses

yellow fever, anthrax, bubonic plaque, & rabies

Penicillins are

β-lactam antibiotics. Natural and biosynthetic penicillins . Semisynthetic penicillins: Broad spectrum of activity

Steps III & IV: B Cell Response

• Activation of B Lymphocytes: Clonal Expansion and Antibody Production

Principles of Vaccine Preparation

• Antigen selection • Effectiveness • Ease of administration • Safety •Cost

four major functions of immune system markers

• Attachment to nonself or foreign antigens • Binding to cell surface receptors that indicate self, such as MHC molecules • Receiving and transmitting chemical messages to coordinate the response • Aiding in cellular development

Specific Events in B Cell Maturation

• Bone marrow sites harbor stromal cells • Stromal cells nurture the lymphocyte stem cells and provide chemical signals that initiate B cell development • B cells circulate through the blood, homing to specific sites in lymph nodes, spleen, and GALT • Adhere to specific binding molecules where they come into contact with antigens

T cell response CD4

• CD4 receptors (on TH) recognize endocytosed peptides on MHC-II

Antibody Structure (General to PowerPoint)

-Antigen (Ag) binds to variable region (tip of FAb region) -Disulfide bonds -Complement binding (Fc Region/stem of antibody)

Lymphocytes (B-cells & T-cells) (Pic on PowerPoint)

-Both B & T cells form in Red Bone marrow. -Differentiation and Maturation occur in different sites. B Cells=Red bone marrow and T-cells=Thymus. -Addition of cell receptors. -Migration to specific compartments of lymphoid organs and circulatory system.

Lymphocytes of cellular Immunity

-CD4 Lymphs (T helper cells or Th) Bind to MHC II on APC -CD8 Lymphs (T cytotoxic cells or Tc, CTL cytotoxic T Lymph) Binds to MHC I on target cell

**(General to PowerPoint)**

-Class Specific -Refers to information provided by instructor on PowerPoint for exam.

Activities of specific immune responses

-Development and differentiation of the immune system -Lymphocytes and antigen processing -The cooperation between lymphocytes during antigen presentation -B lymphocytes and the production and actions of antibodies -T lymphocytes responses

Adaptive Immunity (General to PowerPoint)

-Enhances nonspecific defense mechanisms. (Phagocytosis,Inflammation) -Memory of first exposure to antigen -Begins at 6 mths of age -NOT born with

The part of an antigen that is recognized by the immune system, specifically by antibodies, B cells, or T cells. In other words, the _______ is the specific piece of the antigen to which an antibody binds.

-Epitope -Also known as "Antigenic Determinant"

Barely detectable in normal blood, tightly bound via the Fc region to basophils and mast cells. Tight binding allows them to detect and respond to antigens releases histamine, important in elimanting parasites - helminiths can also cause hypersensitivity and aniflactic shock

-IgE -Monomer -Allergic Reactions -Rarest antibody found in serum.

Immunoglobulin gene found primarily in the blood

-IgG -80% antibodies found in serum -Most common -Only antibody that crosses placenta -Only isotype found in in fetal circulation -Monomer (2 binding sites)

What are the 3 isotypes possible from TD B cells?

-IgG -IgA -IgE

Five classes of immunoglobulins

-IgG -IgA -IgM -IgD -IgE

Types of Antibody (General to PowerPoint)

-IgG: Monomer (cross placenta) -IgA: Dimer (Secretory) -IgM: Pentamer -IgD: Monomer -IgE: Monomer (Allergic Reactions) **Constant region is identical for each type. **Variable region is specific to antigen

Exists as a pentamer; first antibody made to new pathogen; used as a primary immune response

-IgM -Largest class -First to be produced during immune response -Pentamer (10 Binding Sites)

Antigens (Ag) (General to PowerPoint)

-Immunogens: Large Molecules -Antigenic determinant or epitope

Tetanus Toxoid

-Inject toxoid (inactive toxin) -Immunized against toxin -Antibodies neutralize toxin

Lymphocyte (General to PowerPoint)

-Key Cell (Specific immune response) -Found in Lymphoid tissues *Tonsils *Spleen *Peyer's Patches (GALT) *Lymph nodes

Most vaccines are prepared from

-Killed whle cells or inactivated viruses -Live, attenuated cells or viruses -Antigenic molecules derived from bacterial cells or viruses -Genetically engineered microbes or microbial agents

Opsonization (General to PowerPoint)

-Stimulates phagocytosis by attaching ab or C3b. -Opsonized bacteria engulfed more readily

A vaccine preparation that contains only antigenic fragments such as surface receptors from the microbe. Usually in reference to virus vaccines.

-Subunit Vaccine -Make Ag with recombinant protein

What are the two paths of activation for B Cells?

-Thymus Independent (TI) -Thymus Dependent (TD)

Major functions of receptors are

-To perceive and attach to nonself or foreign molecules -To promote the recognition of self molecules -To receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system -To aid in cellular development

A toxin that has been rendered nontoxic but is still capable of eliciting the formation of protective antitoxin antibodies: used in vaccines.

-Toxoid

normal microbiota protect the host by:

-competing for nutrients -producing substances harmful to invading microbes -affecting pH and available oxygen

Less than 1% of all serum, involved in development and maturation of antibody response, functions not clearly defined

-igD -Monomer

exotoxins

-produced by mostly Gram positive bacteria as a metabolic product of a living cell -most are enzymes, all are proteins -very specific, lethal in very small amounts -creates effective antitoxins -form useful toxoids -easily destroyed by heat -genes are plasmids, or introduced by bacteriophages -there are specific ones

Where is normal microbiota found?

-skin -eyes -upper respiratory system -mouth -large intestines -urinary and reproductive systems

Characteristics of immunity

-specificity -memory

endotoxins

-structurally part of outer cell wall of ONLY Gram negative bacteria -only released when cell dies and falls apart -chemically a lipopolysaccharide (LPS) -cause all the same, general symptoms and signs (fever, muscle aches, chills, vomiting, diarrhea, septic shock) -much larger lethal dose -do not form antitoxins -don't make good toxoids -much more resistant to heat -genes on chromosomes

facts about nosocomial infections

-these infections are not evident or incubated at the time of admission to the hospital -due to some invasive procedure that bypasses skin, mucous membranes -or an exposure to a host with a weakened immune system due to opportunistic pathogens -source: doctors, nurses, healthcare workers -transmitted by either direct or indirect contact transmission by fomite -8th leading cause of death in USA

types of exotoxins

1. A-B toxins 2. Plasma membrane disrupting toxins 3. Super antigens

Be able to put Koch's Postulates in the correct order.

1. Specific causative agent must be observed in all sick organisms. 2. The agent must be isolated and grown in pure culture outside of the organism. 3. A healthy, susceptible hosts must get the same disease when inoculated. 4. The agent must be re-isolated and show to be the same causative agent.

Infectious Disease

1.Communicalbe--malaria-TB 2.Noncommunicable--food poisoning--can't transmit ***Note: If a disease is infectious, it does not have to be communicable.

Noninfectious Disease

1.Genetic--cancer---sickle cell 2.Environmental--poison exposure

Describe each of the ten classifications of diseases and name an example of each.

1.Inherited disease--sickle cell 2.Congenital Disease---Comes from the mother--present at birth---HIV-Syphillis 3.Degenerative Diseases-aging--Parkinsons 4.Nutritional Deficiencies---Scurvey 5.Endocrine Diseases---Diabetes-Thyroidism 6.Mental Disease---nervous system---alzheimers---autism 7.Immunological Diseases--autoimmune--Rheumetoid Arthritis---HIV 8.Neoplastic Diseases--Tumors-begnign and malignant 9.Latrogenic Diseases--from medical mistakes--wrong prescription-nosocomial infections 10.Idiopathic---unknown cause---autism

What are the three different types of infectious diseases that describe the spread of a disease throughout the body?

1.Local Infection 2.Focal Infection 3,Systemic Infection

Describe and name examples of each.

1.Local Infection---Bladder infection ---confined to the bladder 2.Focal Infection---A specific region---little more outreach or toxins produced--sinus infection 3.Systemic Infection--Malaria---Whole system--Yellow fever

keratin

10-Skin is protected by an insoluble protein __________.

There were 100 new cases of syphilis last year in a given population of 100,000 people. At that time, 500 people in this population already had syphilis. The incidence of syphilis in this population is __________. 100 per 100,000 500 per 100,000 1,000 per 100,000 5,000 per 100,000

100 per 100,000

mucous

11- Moist __________ membranes line the eye and the respiratory, digestive and urinary tracts.

sweat glands

12- The flushing action of the __________ helps remove microbes from the skin. sweat glands sebaceous gland ciliary escalator

Wine fermentation occurs in fermentors ranging in size from

200 to 200,000 liters

skin

21-The _________ is a host barrier that has an acidic pH and secretes a variety of antimicrobial compounds.

stomach

22-Hydrochloric acid present in a human host's __________ is inhibitory to many microbes.

Action of microbiota

23-How is an acidic pH maintained in the vagina? Excessive sebaceous glands Secretion of hydrochloric acid Action of microbiota

Surveillance for pathogens

26-Which is a function of white blood cells? Formation of clots during inflammation Surveillance for pathogens Oxygen transport to tissues

whole blood

27- The liquid connective tissue consisting of erythrocytes,leukocytes, and platelets suspended in plasma is called _______________ . formed elements lymph fluid blood plasma whole blood

nonspecific

3-Inflammation is a ____________ second line defense mechanism that acts rapidly at the local and systemic.

granulocyte

30- A type of white blood cells with noticeable cytoplasmic granules is called a(n) __________ . granulocyte lymphocyte agranulocyte monocyte leukocyte

Neutrophils

32- ____________ are granulocytic leukocytes that have a multilobed nucleus and are the first phagocytes to respond in inflammation.

phagocytosis

33-What is the main role of neutrophils? phagocytosis histamine release responds to fungal infections antibody production

vomiting

36-Which is NOT a second line host defense mechanism? fever inflammation vomiting phagocytosis

monocytes

37-Circulating phagocytes that mature into macrophages are called: monocytes erythrocytes eosinophils lymphocytes

macrophage

38-A large, phagocytic white blood cell, derived from a monocyte, that leaves circulation and plays a role in specific immune reactions while residing in tissue is called a(n) __________ . mast cell macrophage eosinophil lymphocyte

tumor

45-With respect to inflammation, __________ is Latin for swelling, is caused by increased fluid into the tissues.

entry

5-Hair, cilia, and microvilli are portal of __________ barriers that protect against pathogens invading the body

during this time the patient recovers from the illness; tissues are repaired & returned to normal, length of time depends on amt of damage, nature of pathogen, site of infection, & overall health of patient

5. Convalescence

Both involve a leukocyte response

50- Which of the following is characteristic of both nonspecific and specific host defenses? Both depend on barrier protection Both activate T and B cells Both involve a leukocyte response

skin

51-Unbroken __________ is a formidable barrier to the entry of microbes and is classified as a component of the first line of defense

skin

52-Human __________ is an external, confluent protective barrier.

cutaneous

53- Skin glands and hair follicles are __________ , or skin, barriers.

Respiratory

54- Ciliated epithelium and nasal hair are first-line defense adaptation that guard which body tract? Urinary Digestive Reproductive Respiratory

mucus saliva

55-The flow of which of the following carry microbes away from the respiratory tract? urine tears mucus saliva

Resident biota

56- Which host defense competes with pathogens for space, nutrients, or by altering pH? Resident biota Antibody-producing cells Tissue macrophages

Lysozyme

57- ____________ is an enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva that breaks down bacterial peptidoglycan.

acidic

58- The vagina has a protective __________ pH that is maintained by the activity of normal microbes.

platelets red blood cells

59- Surveillance for pathogens is not carried out by which of the following components of the blood? white blood cells....platelets....red blood cells

Whole blood

60- ____________ is a liquid connective tissue consisting of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets suspended in plasma.

Leukocytes

61- ____________ are primary infection-fighting blood cells, also known as white blood cells.

phagolysosome

62- A(n)_____ forms from the union of a phagosome with a lysosome. phagolysosome...peroxisome lysophagosome...mitochondrion ribosome

Repair of damaged tissue Repair of damaged tissue Mobilization and attraction of immune components to the site of infection or trauma Destroy microbes and block their further invasion

63- Which of the following are main functions of the inflammatory response? Repair of damaged tissue Mobilization and attraction of immune components to the site of infection or trauma Stimulation of antiviral protein production in uninfected cells Destroy microbes and block their further invasion Polymerization of the components of membrane attack complexes

Vasodilation

66- ________ is a term for the widening of blood vessels that increase blood flow to an injured area.

pus

67- Opaque matter formed during inflammation that consists of serum exudate, tissue debris,leukocytes, and microorganism is called ______. pus edema plasma exudate

inflammation

68- Trauma, infection, or an immune response can trigger a nonspecific immune response called ______.

antimicrobial peptides

69- Short amino acid chains with the ability to kill microbes are called: glycoproteins antimicrobial peptides sensitizing agents antigenic determinants

1- Neutrophils 2-Lymphocytes 3- Monocytes 4-Eosinophils 5- Basophils " Never Let Monkey Eat Bananas"

70- List the predominance of circulating leukocytes from most to least.

Alternate Classical Lectin

72- Which of the following are complement pathways? Alternate Classical Inflammation Interferon Lectin

A bacterial product such as LPS A fungal toxin

73- Which of the following are exogenous pyrogens? A bacterial product such as LPS A fungal toxin A host cell substance such as TNF A host cell substance such as IL-1

holes

74- The membrane attack complex creates __________ in the membrane or viral envelopes of pathogen, resulting in their eventual lysis

fever

75- Which of the following is NOT a trigger for inflammation? infection trauma immune response fever

exudate edema

76- During inflammation, a protein-rich called __________ moves from the venules into the extracellular space, resulting in a swelling tissue called __________.

hypothalamus

77-Body temperature is regulated by the _______________ of the brain.

lymphatic

78- The _______ system is a system of vessels and organs that serve as sites for the development of the immune cells, immune surveillance, and immune reactions. respiratory nervous lymphatic endocrine digestive

decreased metabolism

79- Which of the following is NOT a benefit of fever in the host? immune system stimulation decreased metabolism increased hematopoiesis

first

8- Defecation and vomiting are considered to be components of the __________ line of defense.

1-yolk sac 2- liver and lymphatic organs 3- red bone marrow

80-Give the correct order of location for the events of hematopoiesis

A properly functioning immune system is responsible for A. All of the choices are correct B. Destruction of foreign material C. Recognition of foreign material D. Surveillance of the body

All of the choices are correct

Antigen presenting cells A. Hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface B. Include dendritic cells C. Engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic D. Include macrophages E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A. Function in recognition of self molecules B. Receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system C. Are the result of genetic expression D. All of the choices are correct E. Aid in cellular development

All of the choices are correct

Immunotherapy is the A. All of the choices are correct B. Conferring of passive immunity C. Use of immune serum globulin D. Use of antitoxins E. Administering of preformed antibodies

All of the choices are correct

Lymphocytes A. Develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity B. Have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens C. Gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self D. Possess MHC antigens for recognizing self E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

Nonspecific chemical defenses include A. Skin's acidic pH and fatty acids B. All of the choices are correct C. Stomach hydrochloric acid D. Lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat E. Lysozyme

All of the choices are correct

. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions are the result of genetic expression. function in recognition of self molecules. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system. aid in cellular development. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

31. Monoclonal antibodies originate from a single B cell clone. have a single specificity for antigen. are secreted by hybridomas. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

45. Immunotherapy is the use of antitoxins. use of immune serum globulin. conferring of passive immunity. administering of preformed antibodies. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

55. The DTaP immunization contains diphtheria toxoid. is administered in childhood. contains tetanus toxoid. contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

9. Lymphocytes possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Order the following statements to reflect the sequence of events that occur upon secondary exposure to allergens. Allergen is encountered after previous sensitization event Degranulation and release of chemical mediators Allergen attaches to IgE on mast cells Symptoms appear in various organs Systemic distribution of mediators via bloodstream

Allergen is encountered after previous sensitization event Allergen attaches to IgE on mast cells Degranulation and release of chemical mediators Systemic distribution of mediators via bloodstream Symptoms appear in various organs

Choose the phrase that does not describe the anaphylactic response to test your understanding of systemic anaphylaxis. Sudden respiratory and circulatory disruption that can be fatal in mere minutes Allergen route of entry is always due to inhalation Associated with greatly amplified concentration of chemical mediators Allergens do not act directly on the target organ All statements correctly describe the anaphylactic response.

Allergen route of entry is always due to inhalation

43. Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this? Natural active immunity Artificial passive immunity Natural passive immunity Artificial active immunity None of the choices will protect him

Artificial active immunity

To reduce the virulence of a pathogenic bacterium or virus by passing it through a nonnative host or by long-term subculture.

Attenuated Vaccine

How does transposal of virulence through animal passage produce attenuation (in regards to humans)?

Attenuation (weakening) transposal of virulence----make it weaker. This is how rabies was developed. Infect the worst virus for human--the virus will be weakened due to different environment--passes through animals to weaken.

46. Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive? A. Natural active immunity B. Artificial passive immunity C. Natural passive immunity D. Artificial active immunity E. None of the choices will help him.

B

Summarize the maturation process of B cells and T cells including their location in the human body

B cells mature in the bone marrow. T cells mature In the thymus B cells are located in the bone marrow T cells are located in the Thymus

Second stage of lymphocyte development

B cells stay in the marrow while T cells migrate to the thymus

_____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. A. Monocytes, Basophils B. B cells, neutrophils C. T cells, B cells D. B cells, T cells E. Basophils, T cells

B cells, T cells

Which domain of the A-B toxin binds to cell surface receptors on the host cell? A domain Both the A and B domains have the ability to bind to cell surface receptors. B domain A-B toxins do not bind to cell surfaces.

B domain

The Fc fragment binds to

Cells such as macrophages, neurtrophils, and mast cells

The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called A. Diapedesis B. Pus C. Edema D. Vasoactivity E. Chemotaxis

Edema

The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an A. Antigen binding site B. Variable region C. Hapten D. None of the choices are correct E. Epitope

Epitope

Describe the mechanisms of action of hyaluronidase, and how they help in invasion.

Exoenzyme--Breaks down junctions of epithelial cells. It allows the microbe to squeeze in-between junction cells and invade deeper tissues.

What are the two type of bacterial virulence factors that help with invasion?

Exoenzymes Toxins

Passive Immunity

Exposed to Antibodies from another individual or animal • No memory cells • No antibody production • Short-term protection

6) Innate immunity is not effective against fungus infections.

FALSE

A common cold is an example of a chronic disease. True False

False

All antigens are immunogens. T/F

False

All infections go through the stages known as incubation period, prodromal period, and illness. True False

False

If bacteria attach to host tissue, they will cause disease. T/F

False

Koch's postulates can be applied to every infectious disease to identify its causative pathogen. True False

False

T cell receptors are identical to antibodies. T/F

False

T cells are responsible for directly manufacturing antibodies. T/F

False

Select the theory of autoimmunity that suggests that autoreactive B and T cells are left behind due to a failure in the process of tolerance.

Forbidden clone theory

Describe how eukaryotic pathogens like fungi, protozoa, and helminths cause disease.

Fungi damage host tissue by releasing enzymes that attack cells Protozoans like those that cause malaria reproduce in red blood cells Helminths are extracellular Destroy tissue/obstruction Release toxic waste Nutritional deprivation Cause allergic reactions in host

An example of artificial passive immunity would be A. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta C. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox E. None of the choices are correct

Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease

zoonotic pathogens

Humans are usually dead-end host are difficult to eradicate are transferred to humans from animals (direct contact or vectors)

Select the statements that most accurately reflect immune dysfunction. Cancer can be both a cause and an effect of immune dysfunction. Hyposensitivity diseases include autoimmune disorders. AIDS is a hypersensitivity disease. Hypersensitivity diseases can be due to normal immune reactions targeting healthy bystander tissue. Allergies are due to overreactivity of the immune system.

Hyposensitivity diseases include autoimmune disorders. Hypersensitivity diseases can be due to normal immune reactions targeting healthy bystander tissue. Allergies are due to overreactivity of the immune system.

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum and other body secretions is A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgD E. IgA

IgA

Which of the following class of antibody is primarily found in external secretions?

IgA

All of the following are involved in type 2 hypersensitivity except IgE. foreign cells. complement. IgM. IgG.

IgE

Made by the eosinophil but it attaches to the mast cell; the mast cell releases histamine and causes an allergic reaction

IgE

The immunoglobulin that is important in hypersensitivity reactions is ______.

IgE

What are the 5 types of antibodies?

IgE, IgG, IgD, IgA, IgM

28. When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly IgM. IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG.

IgG

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. IgM

IgG

The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is ______.

IgG

_____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum. A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD

IgG

_____ and ____ play a role in the complement-assisted destruction of cells in Type II reactions.

IgG, IgM

38. In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM. IgA.

IgG.

Which is the most efficient at initiating the classical pathway of the complement cascade?

IgM

Which of the following antibodies is a pentamer?

IgM

The immunoglobulins found on the surface of B cells is/are A. IgD and IgE B. IgM only C. IgD only D. IgG only E. IgM and IgD

IgM and IgD

Type III

Immune complex mediated, IgG complexes in basement membranes, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness

Herd immunity

Immune individuals will not harbor it, reducing the occurence of pathogens and protecting the minority of people who are not vaccinated

Fc interacts with...

Immune system

Primary Infection

Initial 1st infection---Flu

Genetically engineered vaccines

Insert genes for pathogen's antigen into plasmid vector and clone them in an appropriate host

natural immunity

Involves natural biological processes (birth)

18. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? It determines the antibody's distribution in the body. It forms the antigen binding sites. It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells. It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.

It forms the antigen binding sites.

A new drug blocks the adhesins on the surface of a bacterial pathogen. What would likely be the major effect of this drug? It will kill the pathogen. It will prevent formation of the glycocalyx in this pathogen. It will inhibit the growth and reproduction of this pathogen. It will prevent infection by this pathogen.

It will prevent infection by this pathogen

IgD

Monomer; serves as a receptor for antigen on B cells

Biosynthesis of tetracycline has a large number of enzymatic steps

More than 72 intermediates. More than 300 genes involved!. Complex biosynthetic regulation

One of the outcomes of antibody-antigen binding - bind to specific molecules before they can damage the cell, coated with antibodies cannot attach and is refers to as _________

Neutralization

1. Drinking Water 2. Utensils 3. Bedding & Clothing

Which items can be sanitized by boiling water prior to safe, acceptable use in humans?

High Level

Which level of chemical decontamination by a germicide can result in sterilization?

1. -static 2. -stasis

Which root(s) indicates the ability to prevent the growth of microorganisms?

Bactericidal

Which type of agent will kill bacteria?

Death

__ involves the permanent termination of a particular organism's vital processes, and special qualifications are often needed to define and delineate this phenomenon in microbes.

Asepsis

__ is a term referring to a procedure or process designed to prevent entry of infectious agents into sterile tissues.

Sepsis

__ is defined as growth of microorganisms in the blood or other tissues.

Radiation

__ is electromagnetic waves or rays, such as those of light given off from an energy source.

Dessication

__ is the dehydration of microorganisms in order to inhibit or preserve them.

Heat

__ is the most common physical agent used to control microbes.

Degermation

__ is the physical removal of surface oils, debris, and soil from skin to reduce the microbial load.

Iodine

__ may kill all classes of microbes if used appropriately.

22) The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as A) responders to invasion. B) passive barriers. C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense. D) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens. E) both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features.

a

35) Which of the following acts as a chemotactic factor? A) C5a B) interferon β C) leukotriene D) MAC E) factor P

a

noncommunicable disease

a disease that cannot be spread from one host to another (ex. tetanus)

chronic disease

a disease that develops slowly, starts with mild symptoms, but over time, the symptoms and signs worsen - long term

epidemic disease

a disease that many people, in a short time, in a given area, contact

sporadic disease

a disease that occurs only rarely, usually as an isolated incident

34. An example of natural passive immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. None of the choices are correct.

a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

inclusion bodies

a granule or viral particle in the cytoplasm or nucleus of some infected cells; important in the identification of viruses that cause infection; these granules are sometimes viral parts

syndrome

a group of specific signs and symptoms characteristic of a specific disease state , the causative pathogen may be unknown

self antigens

a healthy human immune system does not react to

Antibody testing requires either a known antigen or a known antibody. a known antigen. both a known antigen and a known antibody. a known antibody.

a known antigen

A person licks a needle before injecting a drug into a vein. The person later develops a bacterial infection of the blood. This is an example of immune suppression leading to disease. microbial antagonism. a disruption of the normal microbial population of the blood. microbial synergism. a member of the microbiota gaining access to an unusual location in the body

a member of the microbiota gaining access to an unusual location in the body

antigen, immunogen

a molecule that simulates a specific response by T and B cells

syncytium

a multinucleated giant cell resulting from certain viral infections; produced from infections by viruses that cause measles, mumps, the common cold

Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle. cells in thyroid follicles. acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle. myelin sheath cells of the nervous system. sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane.

acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle

nosocomial infectious disease

acquired within a hospital

. Helper T cells secrete antibodies. function in allergic reactions. directly destroy target cells. suppress immune reactions. activate B cells and other T cells

activate B cells and other T cells

Helper T cells

activate microphages and cytotoxic T cells, as well as assist B-cell process

interleukins

activated T cells produce a spectrum of this which stimulate other cells

one problem with therapeutic antiserum and antitoxins from horses is that horse antigens can stimulate

allergies

Tissue is transferred between different individuals of the same species

allograft

6) The normal microbiota interact with potential pathogens in a variety of ways to protect the body, creating a situation known as microbial (antagonism/competition/resistance).

antagonism

benefits of passive antibodies

antibodies can protect when no medication or vaccine exist antibodies are available to act immediately

antitoxins

antibodies made by the host's immune system (B cells) that neutralize specific toxins (that act as antigens)

General Y shaped protein structure of antibodies, 2 identical arms Fab region and stem Fc region, made of two copies of high MW polypeptide chain and a lower MW polypeptide chain,

antibody monomer

Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification? endospores antibody response Gram stain reaction morphology acid-fast reaction

antibody response

phagocytes, such as dendritic cells, process and display

antigen

processed by phagocytic cells

antigen

variable region

antigen binding fragment of an immunoglobulin molecule, consisting of a combination of heavy and light chains whose molecular conformation is specific for the antigen

T cell dependent antigens, which are usually protein based, require recognitions steps between the following cells and substances

antigen, lymphocytes, antigen presenting cells

communicable disease

any infectious disease that can be spread from one host to another

different host cell surface receptors can be involved in a wide range of significant roles such as

attachment to foreign antigens binding to self molecules aiding in cellular development receiving and transmitting chemical messages

entertoxins

attack lining of gastrointestinal tract

hepatotoxins

attack liver cells

cytotoxins

attack wide variety of cells

Autoimmunity is typically due to autoantibodies and T cells. a deficiency in T-cell development. transfusion reaction. IgE and mast cells. graft rejection.

autoantibodies and t cells

Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) allograft. hypograft. xenograft. isograft. autograft.

autograft

Tissue transplanted from one organ of the body to another site of the body

autograft

example of focal infection

bacteria from teeth and travel to the heart

An antihistamine will bind to histamine receptors on target organs. relieve inflammatory symptoms. inhibit the activity of lymphocytes. reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles. block synthesis of leukotrienes.

bind to histamine receptors on target organs

What causes the first signal in B cell activation?

binding of Ig to microbe

36) The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as A) the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries. B) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. C) the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) an increase in allergies and helminth infection.

c

40) Which of the following statements is true of eosinophils? A) They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. B) They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement. C) They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites. D) They decline during allergic reaction. E) They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

c

45) Sebum contains ________ which contributes to creating an inhospitable environment on the surface of the body. A) lysozyme B) collagens C) acids D) salts E) bile

c

7) Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is false? A) It has sebum as a coating. B) It has normal microbiota. C) It has goblet cells. D) It is salty. E) It is acidic.

c

oncogenes

cancer-causing genes

development of disease stages are all:

capable of transmitting disease during all stages

toxigenicity

capacity of microbe to produce toxins toxins carried by blood or lymph can cause serious and sometimes fatal effects (fever, shock, diarrhea, inhibit protein synthesis, destroy RBCs, disrupt nervous system),

Pathogenicity

capacity to produce disease

factors of phagocytosis

capsules and proteases

virulence factors of fungi

capsules increase pathogenicity adhesins promote colonization mycotoxins are dangerous

constant regions of antibodies usually have varying amounts of _____attached

carbohydrates

latent disease

causative agent is inactive for a time but then activates and produces symptoms

membrane disrupting toxins

cause lysis of the host cells by disrupting their plasma membrane; some do this by forming protein channels in the plasma membrane or by disrupting the phospholipid portion of the membrane

receptors

cell surface molecules involved in recognition, binging, and intracellular signalling

Cytotoxic T cells primarily are responsible for

cell-mediated immunity

natural killer

cells are probably the first cells to attack cancer cells and virus infected cells since they can act quickly and are not antigen specific

a second type of symbiosis, one member of the relationship benefits without significantly affecting the other

commensalism (normal flora)

example of primary infection

common cold

when an infectious disease comes from another infected host, either directly or indirectly

communicable disease (Influenza, herpes, & TB)

Eukaryotic cytoplasm

complex internal structure, consiting of protein microfilaments, intermiediate filaments, and microtubules; and a major component is protein actin, which is used by microbes to penetrate host cells by others to move through and between host cells

M-protein

component of the cell walls (& fimbriae) of Strep. pyogenes functions (in part) for the attachment of a host cell

-emia

condition of blood

local infection

confined to a small area of the body

diseases that are present at birth, regardless of cause

congenital diseases

The characteristic function and properties of each class of antibody is determined by the

constant region on the heavy chains.

54. Antitoxins contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin. use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus

contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.

Cell Wall Components

contain chemical substances that help virulence; ex. streptococcus pyrogenes produces heat resistant and acid-resistant protein called M protein; protein is found on both the cell surface and fimbriae; mediates attachment of bacterium to epithelial cells of host and helps bacterium resist phagocytosis

50. Toxoids contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. are always genetically engineered. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. confer passive immunity. All of the choices are correct.

contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.

how to membrane disrupting cells lyse host cells

creating uncontrolled protein channels through the plasma membrane or disprupting the phospholipid bilayer

The primary advantage of genotypic methods of identification is they are less expensive than other methods. culturing of the organism is not required. they are widely available. they are easier than any other method. All of the choices are correct.

culturing of the organism is not required

An exotoxin that has the ability to kill or damage host cells is referred to as a(n) enterotoxin. cytotoxin. A-B toxin. superantigen. neurotoxin.

cytotoxin

kill host cells in general or effect their function

cytotoxins

the 3 types of exotoxins that are central to their pathogenicity in that they destroy host cells or interfere with host metabolism

cytotoxins , neurotoxins & enterotoxins

11) What antibacterial chemical is present in tear fluid? A) antibodies B) complement C) defensins D) lysozyme E) interferon

d

12) Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is CORRECT? A) They produce defensins. B) They secrete toxins onto virally infected cells. C) They are involved in the removal of neoplastic cells. D) They attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite. E) They identify and spare normal cells.

d

15) Cells of the second line of defense called ________ recognize and kill virus-infected cells. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) macrophages D) NK cells E) dendritic cells

d

17) Mannose sugar occurs on the surface of some bacteria and fungi and can trigger the A) release of cytotoxins by NK cells. B) release of histamines by basophils. C) classical pathway of complement activation. D) lectin pathway of complement activation. E) release of NETs by neutrophils.

d

2) The second line of defense against invading microbes includes A) the skin. B) mucous membranes. C) antibodies. D) phagocytic white blood cells. E) microbiota.

d

43) The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes A) release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) increase in allergies and helminth infection. C) respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement. D) are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virus-infected cells. E) are specialists in killing bacteria.

d

8) Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion? A) tears contain lysozyme and salt. B) a mucus layer traps and removes microbes. C) tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes. D) tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes. E) tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them.

d

41. The process of clonal deletion is designed to destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient. slow down the immune system in the elderly.

destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.

not a function of regulatory T cells

destruction of virus infected cells

Membrane-disrupting toxins

disrupts lyse host cells

systemic infection

disseminate throughout the body

invasion

dissemination of the pathogen throughout local tissues or the body

The chains of an antibody molecule are bonded to one another by

disulfide bonds.

non-communicable infectious disease

do not spread between hosts

sugars

do not typically serve as good antigens

statements about vaccinesa

does carry some risk is less risky than the deadly disease they prevent

Fungi disease effects

don't have well-defined set of virulence factors; have metabolic products that are toxic to human hosts; indirect cause of the disease; can create an allergic response in the host

An individual with type O blood lacks A and B antigens on their RBC surfaces and is considered a universal _____, whereas a person with type AB blood lacks anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies and is considered a universal ______.

donor, recipient

53. Variolation involved using dried, ground smallpox scabs. a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus. preparations of human cowpox lesions. antibodies to the smallpox virus. None of the choices are correct.

dried, ground smallpox scabs.

T helper 2 cells functions

drive B cell proliferation, secrete cyokines

pathogens can be transmitted during exhaling, coghing, & sneezing

droplet transmission

haptens include

drugs, metals, ordinary chemicals

10) Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders? A) the mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes. B) the mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules. C) both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently. D) the mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals. E) the mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

e

14) The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to A) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. B) triggering inflammation. C) triggering release of interferons. D) triggering inflammation and release of interferons. E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

e

18) Which of the following are phagocytic cells descended from monocytes? A) alveolar macrophages B) dendritic cells C) microglial cells D) alveolar macrophages and dendritic cells E) alveolar macrophages and microglial cells

e

24) Which of the following are among the activities of neutrophils? A) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps B) release of histamines C) enzyme production that leads to the formation of nitric oxide D) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and release of histamines E) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and production of nitric oxide

e

25) Which of the following is an iron-binding protein produced by pathogens to access the body's store of iron? A) gastroferritin B) hemolysin C) ferritin D) transferrin E) siderophores

e

30) Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature A) inactivates interferons. B) increases vasodilation, contributing to inflammation. C) increases sweating and consequently the barrier effect. D) prevents viral infection of fibroblasts. E) increases the effectiveness of interferons.

e

31) Which of the following substances contributes to the edema associated with inflammation? A) leukotrienes B) histamine C) interferon D) defensin E) both leukotrienes and histamine

e

32) Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead and dying tissue cells, leukocytes, and pathogens? A) a boil B) an abscess C) a pimple D) a pustule E) a tumor

e

34) Which of the following are macrophage functions? A) phagocytosis of pathogens and debris B) release of alpha interferon C) production of NETs D) phagocytosis of pathogens and production of NETs E) phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes

e

granzymes

enzymes released by cyotoxic T cells that attack proteins in target cells during the process called apoptosis

Kinases

enzymes that break down fibrin and thus digest clots formed by the body to isolate the infection; ex. fibrinoylsin

Lymphocyte recognizes and responds to only a portion of the antigen molecule

epitope

acellular vaccines

epitope based vaccines

mycotoxin that played role in salem witch trials

ergot

symptoms of superantigens

fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, shock, and death

Which one of these substances should not be produced at the same time as coagulase? 1. fibrinolysin 2. fimbriae 3. capsules 4. hemolysin

fibrinolysin

Most antibiotics in clinical use are produced by

filamentous fungi or actinomycetes

14) Intact skin layers are part of the body's (first/second/third) line of defense against pathogens.

first

IGG

first antibody produced by the body following exposure

AB toxins

first toxins to be studied; and consist of two parts, A is the active enzyme part adn B is the binding component (polypeptides) often A alters the function of the host cell by inhibiting protein synthesis

Two children attend the same daycare, but one child is at the facility in the morning and the other child attends the facility in the afternoon. Both children become ill with fifth disease within one day of each other. How might the pathogen have infected both children? droplet transmission vertical transmission vector transmission direct contact transmission fomite transmission

fomite transmission

inanimate objects that are inadvertently used to transfer pathogens to new hosts (needles, toothbrushes, paper tissue, toys, money, diapers, drinking glasses, bedsheets, medical equipment & etc)

fomites

house flies & cockroaches can spread

foodborne diseases- Salmonella, Shigella, E. coli

an antigen must meet certain requirements in

foreignness,shape or complexity, accessibility, size

10. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except two identical heavy polypeptide chains. two identical light polypeptide chains. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains. four antigen binding sites. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.

four antigen binding sites.

disulfide bonds

four polypeptide chains that make up an antibody molecule

FC

fragment of the antibody molecule that is exposed or made more accessible to phagocytes when antibodies opsonize an antigen

active immunity

from a few months to a lifetime

aflatoxin

fungal toxin from molds on grains, peanuts, nuts, legumes, that can damage the liver and cause liver cancer; carcinogenic properties

adhensions on microbes

glycoproteins and lipoproteins

What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes? None of the choices is correct. graft versus host disease host rejection of graft formation of autoantibodies hypogammaglobulinemia

graft versus host disease

source of endotoxin

gram negative

Each of the following are appropriate specimens for bacterial culture except saliva. spinal fluid. throat. hair. skin.

hair

15. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed antigenic determinant. hapten. antigen binding site. variable region. None of the choices are correct.

hapten

example of opportunistic pathogen

harmless microbes can cause weakened or compromised infection (AIDS patients)

7) In a process called (cytokinesis/hematopoiesis/hematocrit), blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood.

hematopoiesis

__________ are bacterial enzymes that lyse erythrocytes.

hemolysins

streptolysins

hemolysins produced by streptococci; inactivated by O2, SLS is stable in O2 enviornment

Several areas are targeted for genetic improvements in plants including

herbicide, insect, and microbial disease resistance as well as improved product quality

Plants are engineered to have resistance to...

herbicides, to protect them from herbicides applied to kill weeds (e.g., glyphosate)

sclerotia

highly resistant portions of mycelia of the fungus that can detach

What chemical is the fastest-acting allergic mediator and a potent stimulator of smooth muscle?

histamine

The chemical mediators include ______, leukotrienes, bradykinin, and prostaglandins. They often have an immediate effect both locally and systemically, mediating constriction of bronchioles, vasodilation, and headache. In the case of a 'cytokine storm', the body's inability to cope with an extreme and rapid release of chemical mediators can result in ______ shock

histamine, anaphylactic

disease

homeostatic imbalance -state away from health

Many mammalian proteins are produced by genetic engineering which include

hormones and proteins for blood clotting and other blood processes

antibody class

iga 13%, igm 6%, igg 80%, igd 1%, ige.002%

antibodies capable of fixing complement

igm, igg

Type I, 2, 3 and 4 are all what

immune disorders

natural active

immunity can last from a few months to a lifetime

44. Edward Jenner's work involved inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity. development of passive immunotherapy. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one. All of the choices are correct.

immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.

A term synonymous with antibody is

immunoglobulin

example of pathogenesis

infection occurs when inhalation of nuclei containing tubercle bacilli that reaches the alveoli of the lungs

contagious disease

infectious diseases that are easily spread, usually in the air, from host to host

leukocidins

membrane disrupting toxins that kill phagocytic leukocytes WBCs (act by forming protein channels), active against macrophages as well

hemolysins

membrane-disrupting toxins that destroy RBCs do some by forming protien channels

upon antigen stimulation of lymphocytes multiplication results in the formation of effector cells and ____ cells

memory

activated T cells can differentiate into

memory T cells, T helper cells

transmission

methods by which a pathogen goes from its source to a host

bioflims

microbes that come together in asses, cling to surfaces, and take in and share nutrients; masses o microbes and their extracellular products that can attach to living on nonliving surfaces ex. dental plaque involved in 65% of human bacterial infections

opportunistic pathogens

microbes that don't cause disease in their normal habitat in a healthy person but may do so in a different environment

normal microbiota

microbes that maintain permanent residence but do not produce disease under normal conditions

Vitamin B12 produced exclusively by

microorganisms

systemic (generalized) infection

microorganisms (or their products) are carried throughout the body by blood or lymph

Contamination

microorganisms are present

The Ti plasmid contains genes that

mobilize DNA for transfer to the plant

epitope

molecular fragment of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers an immune response

iga circulates in the blood

monomer form

heat stability of exotoxins

most are hear labile some are heat stable

The production of small metabolites by genetic engineering typically involves

multiple genes that must be coordinately expressed

Antigenic molecules

proteins and polypeptides, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, nucleoproteins,polysaccharides, lipopolysaccharides4 • Molecules of complex composition are more immunogenic than simple polymers • Small molecules do not "catch" attention • Large but repetitive molecules are less antigenic

perforins

proteins released by activated cytotoxic T-cells that punch hole in the membranes of target cells

A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the hypersensitivity dose. sensitizing dose. provocative dose. allergic dose. desensitizing dose.

provocative dose

On second exposure to the allergen, the ______ dose, the allergen binds to the variable region of the IgE antibodies attached to the granulocytes. This binding triggers a _______ reaction in the leukocytes; cytokines are released from the cells and diffuse into tissues and blood vessels.

provocative, degranulation

15) Some pathogens produce toxins which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to cause fever.

pyrogens

7. Class II MHC genes code for certain secreted complement components. self receptors recognized by natural killer cells. all HLA antigens. receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. All of the choices are correct.

receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.

period of convalescence

recovery has occurred, body returns to its pre-diseased state

Shock

refers to any life-threatening decrease in blood pressure low blood pressure affects kidney's, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract, and can cause a weakening of the blood brain barrier

T-cells

require antigen to be present on MHC class molecules

some microbes have a

required portal of entry

direct contact

requires close association between infected and susceptible host

-------- microbiota remain a part of the normal microbiota of a person throughout life

resident

since secretory IGA is found on mucus membranes and secretions, it plays an important role in protecting the body from

respiratory, enteric, genitourinary pathogens

Infection

results when a pathogen colonizes the host

Epinephrine inhibits the activity of lymphocytes. is an antihistamine. reverses constriction of airways. causes desensitization. All of the choices are correct.

reverses constriction of airways

Which would be the most unlikely location to find adhesin molecules on a newly discovered bacterium? 1. glycocalyx 2. fimbriae 3. capsule 4. ribosomes 5. cell wall

ribosomes

Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn. delayed hypersensitivity. All of the choices are correct. anaphylaxis. serum sickness.

serum sickness

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

set of cell surface proteins essential for the acquired immune system to recognize foreign molecules in vertebrates, which in turn determines histocompatibility.

mhc

set of genes that codes for human cell receptors that play a role in recognition of self by the immune system

Many successes in plant genetic engineering

several transgenic plants are in agricultural production

a given host cell can express

several types of receptors

non-living reservoirs

soil, water, food

Type 3's host cell damage due to

soluble antigens

Type III is caused by

soluble antigens

penetration into the host cytoskeleton

some pathogens (S. typhi) have surface proteins called invasins that: a) allow the pathogen to attach to a host cell, b) rearranges the host cell's cytoskeleton making the host cell's membrane carrying the pathogen into the cell, where the pathogen is safely hidden within the cytoplasm of the host

antigenic variation

some pathogens (ex. cold/flu) change their surface proteins (antigens) so that any previous antibodies made by the host to fight infection and provide immunity are no longer able to function

Antigenic variation

some pathogens can alter their surface antigens thus rendering adaptive immunity useless Can activate alternative genes ex. N. gonorrhaeae, HIV

to accomplish adhesion, pathogens use what 2 things as adhesion factors?

specialized structures or attachment proteins (- some protozoa have adhesion disks - some helminths have suckers & hooks - viruses & many bacteria have surface lipoprotein & glycoprotein molecules called ligands)

2) The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as (natural/innate/species) resistance.

species

Over 60 billion liters of alcohol are produced yearly from

the fermentation of feedstocks.

incubation period

the first period, follows infections, but no symptoms are felt and no signs are seem

lysogenic conversion

the gaining of new properties by a host cell infected by a lysogenic phage; if the host bacterial cell gains genes for pathogenicity

period of decline

the hosts immune system begins to overcome the infection and the symptoms and signs subside (weaken) *secondary infections can occur

primary infection

the initial infection a person gets, usually acute and viral the host's immune system is weakened by fighting off this infection

One of the most widely used approaches for genetically engineering insect resistance in plants involves

the introduction of genes encoding the toxic protein of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt toxin)

infection

the invasion and colonization of the body by disease-causing organisms

The use of recombinant DNA technology and conventional genetic studies allows for

the localization of particular genetic defects to specific regions of the genome

portal of entry, adherence, penetration of host's defenses, damage to host tissues

the microbial mechanisms of pathogenicity

human reservoir

the most important living reservoir of human pathogens

Antigens interact with antibodies at

the outer end of each arm of the Y.

Negri bodies

the rabies virus produces inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of nerve cells, their presence in the brain tissue of animals as been used as a diagnostic tool for rabies

the portal of exit is

the same as its portal of entry

Koch's Postulates

the same pathogen is present in a given disease state a pathogen isolated from the disease host must grow in a pure culture 3. That pure culture must cause the same disease when inoculated into a healthy , susceptible host 4. The original pathogen must be re-isolated from the inoculated host

the first step in Koch's postulates

the same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease

pathology

the scientific study of diseases

prodromal period

the second period, a very short period (if at all) following incubation, in which patient feels mild, general symptoms (fatigue, aches, malaise)

period of illness

the third period, the symptoms and signs are at their strongest

---------- microbiota remain in body for only a few hours, days, or months before disappearing, found in same locations as resident.

transient

vehicle transmission

transmission by an inanimate reservoir (food, water, air)

congenital

transmission from mother to fetus or newborn at birth

droplet

transmission via airborne droplets

zoonotic infectious disease

transmitted from animals to humans

The major category(ies) of hypersensitivity that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are type I, type II, and type III. type IV only. type I and type IV. type I only. type I, type II, type III, and type IV.

type I, type II, and type III

killed, inactivated

vaccines, a whole cell or intact virus preparation in which the microbes are dead or preserved and cannot multiply but are still capable of conferring immunity

11. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the variable region. joining region. constant region. light region. hinge region.

variable region

ex.s

vibrio entertoxin: produces AB enterotoxin called cholera toxin, severe diarrhea tetanus toxin: teteanospasmin; reaches nervous system an binds to nerve cells to control contraction of various muscles

cholera

vibrio, waterbourne, Gram negative bacteria

cytotoxic T-cells destroy

virally infected cells cancer cells foreign cells

cytotoxic T cells recognize and kill virall infected cells because they recognize

virus peptides displayed on the cell surface

Viral mechanisms for evading destruction by host's immune response;

viruses can penetrate and grow inside host cells, where components of immune system can't reach them

viremia

viruses in the blood

bacteriophages

viruses that infect bacteria *some can incorporate their DNA into the bacterial chromosome becoming a prophage

ergotism

when a toxin produced by the fungus Claviceps pupurea is ingested (the toxin is an alkaloid toxin produced by a parasitic fungi on grains - rye) 1) powerful hallucinations 2) powerful vasoconstrictor causes dry gangrene

paralytic shellfish food poisoning

when bivalves (mussels, clams, scallops) concentrate the saxitoxin in their bodies (heat-stable, acid stable toxin), this happens

lyse

when viruses cause the host cell to explode and release new viral particles

lymphatic tissues

where large numbers of antigen presenting cells are found

CD8

• CD8 expressed on T cytotoxic cells and binds to MHC-I molecules

T cell response CD8

• CD8 receptors (on TC ) recognize peptides on MHC-I • T cell is sensitized when an antigen/MHC complex is bound to its receptors

• Herd immunity

• Collective immunity through mass immunization confers indirect protection on the non-immune members • Important force in preventing epidemics

Inactivated vaccines

• Dead organisms are safest - IPV (Inactivated Polio Vaccine) Shot • Generally less effective immunogens • Wrong portal of entry

Specific events in T cell maturation

• Directed by the thymus gland and its hormones • Mature T cells express markers: either CD4 or CD8 co-receptors • Constantly circulate between the lymphatic and general circulatory system, migrating to specific T cell areas of the lymph nodes and spleen

DNA vaccines

• Foreign DNA inserted into host • Foreign antigen produced • Protective immune response results

Attenuated Vaccines

• Live organisms offer better response - OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine) Sugar cube, fluid squirted in the mouth • Mimic actual infection • May mutate back to virulent form

Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

• Main antibody • About 80% • Found in serum • Cross placenta • Activates complement - Only antibody that can cross into the placenta

T Cell Response- Mature T cells

• Mature T cells in lymphoid organs are primed to react with antigens • Recognize an antigen only when it is presented in association with an MHC carrier

Immunoglobulin A (IgA)

• Monomer and Dimer form, Secreted antibodies • 13% • No fixing of complement • Important in mucosal defenses • Colostrum Form a protective coating in the gastrointestinal tracts of a nursing infant that guard against infection

Secondary Response (Anamnestic)

• Re-exposure to the same immunogen • Antibody synthesis, titer, and length of antibody persistence is rapid and amplified • Primarily due to memory cells

Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

• Sticks to mast cells • Allergies • Parasitic worm defenses stimulates inflammatory response through release of substances by basophil and mast cells

Receptors & Antigen Specificity for T cells

• T cells have receptors that bind processed antigens plus MHC molecules on the cells that present antigens to them

T-Cell Receptor

• Variable region • Constant region • Antigen binding site • Never secreted, smaller

CD4 T helper cells

• antigen-specific T-cell receptor and a • piece of CD4 molecule (which also binds to MHC class II)

MHC: Self-Markers

•MHC proteins are found on host cells •If absent, the cells will be destroyed by the immune system •Used to present antigens


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