Chapter 14-16-16 Microbiology Exam 2
Flu Shot for 2012/13
-California/7/2009 (H1N1) virus -Victoria/361/2011 (H3N2)-like virus -Wisconsin/1/2010-like virus Trivalent or 3 Viral antigens
Found on the cell surface of all nucleated cells in the body. Their function is to display peptide fragments of non-self proteins from within the cell to cytotoxic T cells
-MHC-I -Because MHC class I molecules present peptides derived from cytosolic proteins, the pathway of MHC class I presentation is often called cytosolic or endogenous pathway
A family of molecules normally found only on antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes, some endothelial cells, thymic epithelial cells, and B cells.
-MHC-II -The antigens presented by class II peptides are derived from extracellular proteins (not cytosolic as in class I); hence, the MHC class II-dependent pathway of antigen presentation is called the endocytic or exogenous pathway.
Antigen presenting cells
-Macrophages -B cells -Dendritic cells
Haptens (General to PowerPoint)
-Non-antigenic -When bound to protein to be antigenic -Penicillin acts as a Hapten
Characteristics of antigens
-Perceived as foreign, not a normal constituent of the body -Foreign cells and large complex molecules -Antigenic determinant, epitope -Has many antigenic determinants
Neutralization (General to PowerPoint)
-Prevents Virus attachment -Inactivates toxins
Antibody Functions (General to PowerPoint)
-Protective mechanisms of binding antibodies to antigens. -Agglutination -Activation of Complement -Opsonization -Ab-dependent, cell-mediated, cytotoxicity (ADCC) -Neutralization
Clonal Selection of B cells (General to PowerPoint)
-Receptors are IgM each clone is specific for an antigen. -Expansion of clone (ag induces) -Antibody to specific ag -Clone makes either IgG, IgM. IgA, IgE to a specific ag.
Types of T cells
-T helper cells -Cytotoxic T cells -Natural killer cells
septicemia
growth of bacteria in the blood
artificial immunity
immunizations with pathogens or their antigens
caution must be used when vaccinating individuals who are
immunocompromised, pregnant
Artificial passive immunity
immunotherapy; injecting immune serum from viral patient; no memory
dimeric form
in mucus and secretions IGA exist
antigen presenting cells
in order to be activated, T cells require antigen presenting cells which display antigen plus MHC
morbidity
incidence of a specific notifiable disease
T-independent antigens
include polysaccharides.
activated B cell undergoes
increase in organelles increase in DNA synthesis increase in overall size
Histamine causes all of the following except constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine. relaxes vascular smooth muscle. pruritis and headache. increased sensitivity to pain. wheal and flare reaction in skin.
increased sensitivity to pain
Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process? convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline
incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
Enzymes are useful as
industrial catalysts. Produce only one stereoisomer. High substrate specificity
vaccines are for use by
infants, children and adults
example of epidemic disease
influenza
example of syndrome
influenza symptoms and signs
Transient microbiota
inhabit temporarily It can make you sick.
Airborne environmental allergen such as pollen
inhalent
primary infection
initial infection caused by one pathogen
The plant pathogen Agrobacterium tumefaciens can be used to
introduce DNA into plants
Apoptosis
is a form of programmed cell death AND is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells.
attenuation
is a process, such as subculturing, that is used to reduce the virulence of a pathogen so it can be used in a live vaccine preparation
A female who is Rh- can never have an Rh+ baby. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status. All of the choices are correct. inherited two dominant genes.
is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn
dimeric iga
is called secretory iga
IGM
is the class of antibodies that comprise the majority of antibodies produced early in the primary immune response
herd immunity
is the collective protective immunity exhibited by a population exhibited which confers indirect protection to nonimmune members
FAB
is the name for the antigen binding fragment of an antibody moecule
symbiosis
is the relationship between normal microbiota and the host
ISG - immune serum globulin
is used for passive immunization and contains immunoglobulin extracted from the pooled blood of at least 1000 human donors
Graft between identical twins
isograft
When a potential allergen passes through a portal of entry, it enters the ______ fluid and travels to the lymph nodes where it is exposed to the B cell that recognizes and binds to the epitopes. The B cell is activated and proliferates into a clone of _____ cells that produce _____ antibodies against the allergen. This initial encounter is considered the ______ dose.
lymphatic, plasma, IgE, sensitizing
hemolysins
lyse red blood cells
Clone
mature lymphocyte which responds to a unique antigen
transient microbiota
may be present for days, weeks, or months
carriers
may have inapparent infections or latent diseases
example of systemic infection
measles
pathogenic microbes use
multiple strategies for entering/infecting host cell
Infection
multiplication of a parasitic organism
A patient who has been hospitalized with uncontrolled muscle spasms has probably been infected with bacteria that secrete a(n) enterotoxin. membrane disrupting toxin. superantigen. neurotoxin.
neurotoxin.
specifically interfere with nerve cell function
neurotoxins
antigen synthesis, gene cloning recombinant dna
new strategies are constantly being investigated in vaccine production
A person is exposed to desert air containing fungus spores and develops valley fever as a result. Valley fever is an example of a ________ disease. contagious latent noncommunicable chronic subacute
noncommunicable
non infectious diseases
not directly caused by pathogens
pathogenicity of fungi
not very well developed most pathogens produce toxins (mycotoxins)
10) Proteins produced by the innate immune response to fight virus infection are (complement/interferons/opsonins).
nterferons
mortality rate
number of deaths from a disease in relation to the population in a given time
morbidity rate
number of people affected in relation to the total population in a given time period
contact inhibition
occurs in normal animal cells that stop dividing when they touch; the loss of this results in unregulated cell growth
The variable region of an antibody occurs
on all four chains.
where are adhesins found on many pathogenic bacteria?
on fimbriae, flagella, & glycocalyces
APCs present antigen
on mhc II molecules to activate T helper cells
opa
outer membrane protein
example of symptoms
pain, headache, fatigue
if an epidemic occurs simultaneously on more than one continent
pandemic
a parasite derives benefit from its host while harming it, though some hosts sustain only slight damage
parasitism
the 4th entry point for pathogens
parenteral route - not a portal but a way of circumventing the usual portals
any parasite that causes disease is called a
pathogen
biological transmission
pathogen reproduces in the vector; transmitted via bites or feces
toxins
pathogenic produced poisons that cause most of the symptoms and signs of a disease
2. The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called antibodies. sensitized T cells. activated macrophages. plasma cells. Bursa cells.
plasma cells
The cells that actually secrete antibodies are
plasma cells
example of secondary infection
pneumonia or bronchitis
What is a toxin?
poison released by an organism
Toxin
poison that is produced by an organism
Venom
poison/toxin that is delivered by a bite or sting
Toxins
poisonous substances that are produced by certain microbes; often primary factor contributing to the pathogenic properties of those microbes
Pathogens leave host through --------- -- ----
portals of exit - Many portals of exit are the same as portals of entry - Pathogens often leave hosts in materials the body secretes ( earwax, tears, nasal secretions, saliva, sputum, & respiratory droplets), in blood (arthropod bites, hypodermic needles, or wounds), in vaginal secretions or semen, in milk produced in mammary glands, & in bodily wastes (urine & feces)
fit to drink
potable
LD50
potency of a toxin lethal dosage for 50% of sample population;
skin, mucous membranes, parenteral route
preferred portals of entry (specific portals of entry)
Allergies run in families because All of the choices are correct. relative production of IgE is inherited. immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus. immunoglobulins pass through breast milk. the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined.
relative production of IgE is inherited
siderophores
released into the medium where they take the iron away form iron transport proteins by binding the iron even more tightly; once iron-sidephore complex is formed, it is taken up by siderophore receptors on bacterial surface; iron brought to bacterium
memory cells
remain for long periods to be ready to respond to the same antigen encountered at a later time
32. Cytotoxic T cells stimulate B cell proliferation. lack specificity for a target cell. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells. All of the choices are correct.
secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
Once a B Cell becomes a plasma cell, what is its only job?
secretion of immunoglobulin
MHC class I proteins allow for the recognition of ____molecules
self
pathophysiology
structural and functional changes caused by the disease
disease has durations and severities between acute & chronic
subacute disease
secondary infection
subsequent infection caused by another pathogen before the primary infection is cleared
superantigens
such as some bacterial toxins, are potent stimulators of T cells and are responsible for diseases such as toxic shock
Measles viruses are capable of inactivating host defenses by suppressing the immune system. destroying complement proteins. producing leukocidins. producing superantigens.
suppressing the immune system.
adhesins (ligands)
surface molecules (lipoproteins, glycoproteins) in the pathogen that attach to specific molecules on the cell membrane of host cells called receptors
invasins
surface proteins produced by microbes that rearrange nearby actin filaments of cytoskeleton
the third step in Koch's postulates
the pathogen from the pure culture must cause the same disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible laboratory animal
the second step in Koch's postulates
the pathogen must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture
the fourth and final step in Koch's postulates
the pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the original organism
bacteremia
the presence of bacteria in blood
toxemia
the presence of microbial-produced poisons in blood
septicemia
the presence of pathogens (ex. bacteria in blood), actively multiplying
viremia
the presence of viral particles in blood
reservoir
the source of infection (pathogens)
Serological testing relies upon the specificity of the Fc region of antibodies. a patient who is not immunocompromised. very high viral or bacterial load in the patient. None of the choices is correct. the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies.
the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies
pathology
the study of disease
Epidemiology
the study of where and when a disease occurs
epidemiology
the study of where and when diseases occur and how they are transmitted in populations
vaccination`
the term originated from the latin word for cow because the cowpox virus was used against smallpox as a preparation for active immunization
T cell maturation in the thymus is directed by
the thymus gland, hormones
ID 50
the virulence of a microbe expressed as this; infection dose for 50% of a sample population; smaller ID 50, better portal of entry ex. Anthrax (inhalation is 10,000 +, where skin is 10 to 50), skin is desired portal of entry
cytopathic effects
the visible effects on a host cell by a virus that may result in host cell damage (noncytocidal effects) or death (cytocidal effects); may diagnose viral infections
Which of the following is not a theory to explain the origin of autoimmune diseases? All of the choices are possible theories. theory of immune deficiency sequestered antigen theory clonal selection theory viral infection theory
theory of immune deficiency
when looking at pathogenic microbes
there are many that lack a vaccine
They are usually functionally inactive (not performing effector functions) until
they are stimulated by an antigen
What is resident microbiota?
this is part of the normal microbiota throughout life; most are commensal.
The function of the secretory component of the IgA molecule is
to protect IgA from being destroyed by proteolytic enzymes.
antibody principal activity
to unite with, immobilize, call attention to, or neutralize the antigen which is complementary to its receptor
What was the first genetically modified (GM) plant to be grown commercially
tobacco
toxemia
toxins in the blood
Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives. True or False
true
Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death. True or False
true
T-independent antigens can activate B cells directly.
true
The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment.
true
When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur. True or False
true
Koch proved that Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes
tuberculosis
Septic shock due to gram-positive bacteria is caused by A. Membrane-disrupting toxins. B. A-B toxins. C. Lipid A. D. Superantigens. E. All of the above.
D. Superantigens.
9) Neutrophils use their own (DNA/RNA/TLR) in the formation of NETs to trap bacteria.
DNA
cell wall components
waxy cell walls of Mycobacterium
Protein synthesis in a foreign host is subject to which problems
Degradation by intracellular proteases, Toxicity to prokaryotic host, Formation of inclusion bodies
A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens are A. Dendritic cells B. Macrophages C. Mast cells D. Platelets E. Eosinophils
Dendritic cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Destroy foreign or abnormal cells by secreting perforins that lyse cells (CD8 or Tc)
Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis? A. Ingestion B. Diapedesis C. Phagolysosome formation D. Destruction E. Chemotaxis
Diapedesis
Usually involves body contact between hosts Transmission within a single individual can also occur
Direct contact transmission
Cell-mediated immunity requires
Direct involvement of T lymphocytes
B-cell maturation
Directed by bone marrow sites that harbor stromal cells, which nurture the lymphocyte stem cells and provide hormonal signals
--------- results if the invading pathogen alters normal body functions, also referred to as morbidity
Disease
toxic shock syndrome
Staphylococcus aureus
dust particles can carry
Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, & Hantavirus
1. To prepare instrument for surgery. 2. For inanimate objects.
Sterilization methods are often used:
Form of virulence factor
Superantigens
Toxins that stimulate proliferation of T cells non-specifically and provoke intense immune responses are called _________.
Superantigens
Difficulties in satisfying Koch's postulates
Diseases that can be caused by more than one pathogen (pneumonia, meningitis, & hepatitis) Pathogens that are ignored as potential causes of disease
Immunocompetence
Dual system of B and T lymphocytes
1. Staining Techniques 2. Chemotherapeutic Drugs 3. Selective and Differential Media
Dyes are important for:
Where do you find IgE? IgA? IgG?
E: connective tissue below skin A: anywhere with Mucosa G: blood
The release of endotoxins as bacteria are destroyed by phagocytes causes the phagocytes to release tumor necrosis factor (TNF) the life-threatening loss of blood pressure occuring due to the action of TNF is called __________.
Endotoxic shock
Most pathogens that gain access through the skin by _________
Entering through hair folicles and sweat ducts
Exoenzymes
Enzymes that are excreted into the medium instead of being held within the cell; they are extracellular. Can digest insoluble polymers such as cellulose, protein, and starch
Extremozymes
Enzymes that function at some environmental extreme (e.g., pH or temperature). Produced by extremophiles
The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are A. Basophils B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. Monocyte E. Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Active Immunity
Exposed to Antigens Antigen activates B and T cells Memory cells Long-term protection
10) Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration of phagocytes to the area.
FALSE
T/F Infectious disease is the leading cause of worldwide deaths.
False. Other causes are a result--cardiovascular alone is 16.7 million
Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test for HIV? Quellung radioimmunoassay (RIA) Western blot Ouchterlony double diffusion immunelectrophoresis
western blot
immunocompetence-1
what a person displays if they have the ability to react to antigen and form a protective immune response even without previous exposure
two identical heavy chains two identical light chains
what an antibody molecule is made of
symptoms
what is felt by a patient
T helper cells
when activatied, can help activate B cells
The ____ portion of the allergen-specific IgE antibodies have a high affinity for mast cells and _______. They bind to receptors embedded in the membranes of these cells, up to 100,000 antibodies, exposing their variable regions.
Fc, basophils
What cell structure does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use to attach and enter host epithelial cells?
Fimbriae
Clonal selection
First introduction of each type of antigen into the immune system selects a genetically distinct lymphocyte causing it to expand into a clone of cells that can react to that antigen
Preparation of a viral subunit vaccine
Fragmentation of viral DNA by restriction enzymes, Cloning of viral coat protein genes into a suitable vector, Provision of proper conditions for expression (promoter, reading frame, and ribosome-binding site) Reinsertion and expression of the viral genes in a microbe
Cause of the exposure to environmental microbes
Frequency of memory cells increases with age
Sapremia
Fungal infection---includes the fungi waste in blood
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed A. Antigen binding site B. Hapten C. None of the choices are correct D. Epitope E. Variable region
Hapten
An incomplete or partial antigen. Although it constitutes the determinative group and can bind antigen, it cannot stimulate a full immune response without being carried by a larger protein molecule.
Haptens
Not antigenic unless attached to a larger carrier
Haptens
infections acquired by patients or health care workers while they are in health care facilities
Healthcare associated infections (HAIs) nosocomial infections or diseases
Immunization
-Vaccination Programs: Prophylactic -Artificial actively acquired immunity -Types of vaccines Attenuated whole-agent Inactivated whole-agent Toxoids Subunit vaccines
What are four types of exotoxins, and what cells do they harm?
Hemolysins---destroy RBC Leukocidins---destroy WBC Neurotoxins----destroy nerve cells Enterotoxins---destroy intestinal cells
examples of chronic disease
Hepatitis B, AIDS, tuberculosis
Sterilization
The goal of __ is to remove or destroy all viable microorganisms including viruses.
Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by
The limulus amoebocyte lysate test
Clonal Deletion
• Any clones that react to self are destroyed during development through clonal deletion. self-recognizing clones are eliminated
Side Effects of Vaccines
• Local reactions at the injection site • Fever • Allergies • Some patients experience reactions to the medium rather than the antigens
5 Main Stages of Immunologic Development and Interaction
• Lymphocyte development and differentiation • The presentation of antigens • The challenge of B and T lymphocytes by antigens • B lymphocytes and the production and activities of antibodies • T lymphocyte responses
Immune Serum Globulin
• Made from blood of people who had Measles, Rubella, Hepatitis - specific serum for people who have one of these diseases
Secondary Lymphoid organs
-Where lymphocytes are Activated. *Lymph nodes *Tonsils *Spleen *Peyer's Patches
what are factors that determine distribution and composition of normal microbiota?
-nutrients -chemical factors -host's defense -mechanical factors
What are the four stages of pathogenesis?
1. Exposure/Contact/Entry---somehow pathogen enters 2. Adhesion/Colonization---surface 3. Invasion--must invade to cause disease 4. Exit--and find a new host
the time between infection and occurrence of 1st symptoms or signs of disease
1. Incubation period
Types of non-infectious diseases
1. Inhererited 2. Conogential 3. Idiopathic 4. Iatrogenic
A delayed-type hypersensitivity such as the tuberculin reaction is an example of a type ____ hypersensitivity.
IV
Which of these terms is most inclusive, and which is least inclusive?
If it is a toxin, it is also a poison=inclusive Poison in the most inclusive ***__________is least inclusive
Which disease is correctly matched with the common portal of entry? 1. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract 2. chlamydia; skin 3. influenza; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract 4. measles; parenteral route 5. hookworm; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract
1. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract
Types of Superantigens
1. systemic inflammation 2. Cytokine storm
How long after initiation of a primary response do significant amounts of antibody appear in the blood?
10-14 days
tears
13- The flow of __________ flushes microbes from the eyes. sebum saliva urine tears
urine
14- The flow of __________ flushes the urethra.
respiratory
15- Ciliated epithelium and nasal hair are first-line defense adaptations that guard the ____________ tract.
Undifferentiated lymphocytes have ___ different genes for the Variable region of light chains
150
typical human body contains about (blank) of body cells and (blank) of bacterial cells
3 x 10^13 and 4 x 10^13
23. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.
IgA.
Specific B-cell receptor
Immunoglobulin
Specific genes of B cells govern what?
Immunoglobulin (Ig) synthesis
the most severe stage of an infectious disease. Signs & symptoms are most evident during this time. Typically patient's immune system has not fully responded to pathogens, and their presence is harming the body, this stage is usually when Dr. 1st sees the patient
3. illness
neutrophils basophils eosinophils
31- Which of the following are granulocytic white blood cells? lymphocytes....monocytes....neutrophils basophils........eosinophils
Microbes, dust, and dead cells
39- Which is engulfed by phagocytes? Microbes and dead cells Dead cells Dust Microbes, dust, and dead cells
Which of these viral cytopathic effects is most likely to be associated with the development of cancer? 1. cell fusion 2. stimulation of interferon production 3. inclusion bodies 4. loss of contact inhibition 5. cell death
4. loss of contact inhibition
TRUE
42- True or false: In phagocytosis, the phagosome forms prior to the phagolysosome.
Clonal Selection and Expansion
•Second stage of development •Requires stimulation by an antigen •Antigen contact with a lymphocyte stimulates the clone to undergo mitotic divisions
1-Initiation 2-Amplification 3-Polymerization 4-Membrane attack
64-Give the correct order for the stages of complement activation.
Interleukin-1 Interferon Histamine TNF
65- which of the following are NOT exogenous pyrogens? LPS Interleukin-1 Interferon Histamine TNF
skin
7- __________ is/are an external, confluent protective barrier. inflammation skin antibodies phagocytosis
Liters of ethanol produced yearly for industrial purposes
>50,000,000,000
Which cells' direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunity? A. T-cells B. B-cells C. Bacterial cells D. Viral components E. Neutrophils
A
Kills
A bactericide __ bacteria.
An example of natural passive immunity would be A. None of the choices are correct B. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease C. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta D. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity E. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox
A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta
The most recognized infection-induced secondary immunodeficiency today is ______.
AIDS
Process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells
Adhesion
Precipitation
Aggregation of particulate antigen
disease
An abnormal state in which the body is not functioning normally
Steam under pressure.
An autoclave is a sterilization chamber that allows the use of __ to sterilize materials.
What would be an appropriate response if an antigen is presented on MHC class II molecules?
An effector CD4 cell activates the presenting cell.
Secondary Infection
An infection resulting from the primary infection---Ear infection
Sterile
An object is __ if it is free of all viable microorganisms including viruses.
Specificity
Antibodies produced, function only against the antigen that they were produced in response to
Antitoxins
Antibodies that neutralize toxins. Kill bacteria with antibiotics but you need to also deal with the toxins that are circulating • Eliminate circulating toxins with antitoxins (which are antibodies) • Examples: Tetanus & Botulism toxins
Identify the role(s) of natural killer cells.
Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity AND negative selection of lymphocytes that recognize normal "self" molecules AND regulation and direction of certain immune responses. Correct
A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a/an A. Marker B. PAMP C. Antibody D. Antigen E. Hapten
Antigen
Fab interacts with...
Antigen
A substance that provokes an immune response in specific lymphocytes
Antigen (Ag)
Two arm arrangement FAB
Antigen binding (variable) • Site where epitope binds
Allergen
Antigen that evokes allergic reactions
Aqueous, Tinctures
Antimicrobial solutions with water as the solvent are called __ solutions, whereas antimicrobial solutions with alcohol or water-alcohol mixtures as the solvent are called __.
------------ infections lack symptoms but may still have signs of infection
Asymptomatic, or subclinical,
Acquired specific immunity involves the response of A. B and C lymphocytes B. Skin barriers C. Lysozyme D. Interferon E. Mucus membrane
B and C lymphocytes
antigens stimulate
B and T cells that have specific receptors for that antigen
specific immune response
B and T lymphocytes cooperate to produce this
Higher
In most cases, an agent with a __ concentration will be more germicidal.
What is a toxoid?
Inactive toxin--some vaccines---tetanus
Pathogens are spread from host to host by fomites
Indirect contact transmission
The mechanism by which gram-negative bacteria can cross the blood-brain barrier
Inducing TNF
Who activates the B and other T cells?
Inerleukin-2 produced by TH cells
IgD
Is the receptor for antigen on B-cells
IgM-
It mainly circulates in blood
A whole cell or intact virus preparation in which the microbes are dead or preserved an cannot multiply, but are still capable of conferring immunity.
Killed or Inactivated Vaccine
Formalin
Kills the pathogen but does not change the shape or antigenicity
Natural killer cells
Lack specificity; circulate through the spleen, blood and lungs looking for Ag
Which of the following do not induce a strong immune response?
Lipids AND simple sugars.
Perforin is produced by
NK cells.
13) Intracellular PAMPs are detected by (C1/NOD/TLR) proteins. (Be sure to use capital letters in your answer.)
NOD
The formation of antibodies and memory cells after exposure to a microbe
Natural active immunity
Do B Cells have very high specificity for what they bind to?
No! They can bind to anything.
Antiendotoxins?
No, do not promote formation of effective antitoxins
Does physical contact with a pathogenic microbe always result in an infection and/or disease?
No, it does not. For example, food poisoning. You have to ingest it to become ill.
57. Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations? Autism Diabetes Asthma All of the choices are correct. None of the choices are correct.
None of the choices are correct.
Opportunistic pathogens
Normal microbiota that cause disease under certain circumstances
signs
OBJECTIVE changes a doctor, nurse, healthcare worker can see and measure (temperature, blood pressure, WBC count, rash, swelling)
Parasitism
One organism benefits and the other is harmed
21. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response
Opsonization
One of the outcomes of antibody-antigen binding IgG molecules opsonize antigens, leaving the antigens easier to be phagocytized
Opsonization
The process of stimulating phagocytosis by affixing molecules to the surfaces of foreign cells or particles.
Opsonization
Normal Microbiota in Hosts
Organisms that colonize the body's surfaces without normally causing disease Also termed normal flora and indigenous microbiota Two types
What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances? A. BALTs B. PAMPs C. Lysosomes D. RES E. MALTs
PAMPs
A needlestick is an example of what portal of entry
Parenteral
Epitope-
Part of an antigen molecule where antibody attaches itself.
Passive immunity
Performed antibodies are donated to an individual through some form of heredity
The numerous areas of lymphoid tissue in the wall of the small intestine that are involved in the development of immunity to antigens present there.
Peyer's Patches
It would be useful if antigens were delivered directly to
Peyer's patches AND M cells.
Hypertonic
Plasmolysis of bacteria in foods occur when high concentrations of salt or sugar are added to the foods creating a __ environment.
Major Histocompatibility complex (MHC)
Plays a role in recognition of self by the immune system and in rejection of foreign tissue
Name some examples of sequelae.
Polio--unable to walk Ebola-hearning loss
What are two substances on the outside of bacteria?
Polysaccharides and Lipids.
Sites through which pathogens enter the body
Portals of Entry
Primary metabolite
Produced during exponential growth. Example: alcohol
Properties of a useful industrial microbe include:
Produces spores or can be easily inoculated, Grows rapidly on a large scale in inexpensive medium, Produces desired product quickly, Should not be pathogenic, Amenable to genetic manipulation
Antigenicity
Property of behaving as an antigen
Filtration
The staining of a fluid or air through a membrane to trap microorganisms is known as __.
Aging of red and white win
Red wine is aged for months or years. White wine is often sold without aging
Microbicidal, Microbistatic
Regarding the use of the terms microbicidal and microbistatic, higher temperatures are usually __, whereas lower temperatures are usually __.
T helper cells
Regulate immune reaction to antigens, including other T and B cells
Functions of Class 2 MHC
Regulatory receptors found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells
The binding of Fc may result in..
Release of cytokines
Sites where pathogens are maintained as a source of infection
Reservoirs of infection
Two types of normal flora
Resident microbiota Transient microbiota
The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the A. Respiratory tract B. Eyes C. Urinary tract D. Digestive tract E. Skin
Respiratory tract
Active immunity
Results when aperson is challenged with antigen that stimulates production of antibodies
Antigens on red blood cells include ______.
Rh, Mn, Kell
Microbes can also produce
Riboflavin
example of commensalism
S. epidermidis of the skin, and Corynebacterium of the ear bring no harm to the host
Name some examples of emerging diseases.
SARS virus Ebola virus H5N1 avian influenza Zika virus
antibody titer
SIG has the higher titer
Point
The thermal death __ is the lowest temperature that achieves sterilization in a given volume within 10 minutes.
Describe how the third line of defense is different than other defense mechanisms
The third line of defense is specific to a particular antigen and has memory of the encounter with the antigen
Scale-up
The transfer of a process from a small laboratory scale to large-scale commercial equipment. Major task of the biochemical engineer. Requires knowledge of the biology of producing organism and the physics of fermentor design and operation. Flask → laboratory fermentor → pilot plant → commercial fermentor
1. Enveloped Viruses 2. Fungi
The two microbial agents that at least resistant to physical and chemical control methods include:
Antimicrobial
There are many factors that may influence the action of __ agents besides time.
Select the statements that apply to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Check all that apply. This occurs due to Rh incompatibility between an Rh+ mom and Rh- baby. Fetal RBC leakage sensitizes the mother to make anti-Rh antibodies. Anti-Rh antibodies that are IgG can cross the placenta and induce complement-mediated lysis of fetal RBCs. After sensitization with Rh+ fetal RBCs, all subsequent pregnancies (Rh+ and Rh- fetuses) are at risk for hemolytic disease. Hemolytic disease is a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
This occurs due to Rh incompatibility between an Rh+ mom and Rh- baby. Fetal RBC leakage sensitizes the mother to make anti-Rh antibodies. Hemolytic disease is a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
Animals are required for the cultivation of Treponema pallidum. Clostridium. Streptococcus. Pseudomonas. Salmonella.
Treponema pallidum
T/F There are more bacterial cells on or in a human body than cells that make up an individual.
True
Recombinant vaccines
Vector vaccine. Subunit vaccine. DNA vaccine.
animals that transmit disease among hosts
Vectors
...
Viricides __ viruses.
Degree of pathogenicity, the relative ability of a pathogen to infect a host & cause disease
Virulence
Viremia
Virus in blood--replicating==septicemia and viremia
1. Filtration 2. Heat 3. Radiation 4. Cold
Which of the following are examples of physical agents or mechanical means used to control microbes?
1. Endospores 2. Heat-resistance Microbes
Which of the following are not usually destroyed or inactivated with regular pasteurization methods?
1. Ethylene Oxide 2. Chlorine Dioxide
Which of the following compounds are commonly used as gaseous sterilants or disinfectants?
1. Viruses 2. Endospores
Which of the following microbial forms are relatively resistant to heat?
1. Is it cost and labor-efficient? 2. Is sterilization needed? 3. Can it withstand physical or chemical treatments? 4. Is the item reusable or disposable? 5. Is it safe? 6. Will it penetrate effectively?
Which of the following should be considered when initially choosing a method of microbial control?
Vaccine Preparation- 1st Generation
Whole cell or virus • Live, attenuated (weakened) cells or viruses • Killed cells or inactivated viruses
dolor
With respect to inflammation, ___________ is Latin for pain, is caused by the stimulation of nerve endings
Immunoglobulins
Y shaped arrangement with 4 polypeptide chains connected by disulfide bonds
Incineration
__ of loops and needles in the laboratory is an example of using dry heat to sterilize materials.
Sterilization
__ of surgical instruments may not be achieved by boiling in water.
UV
__ radiation only penetrates slightly through liquids.
Boiling
__ water only disinfects items; Surgical instruments should be sterilized using other means.
antigen / II
___presenting cells are involved in the activation of T helper cells through the displaying of immunogen fragments on the MHC ____molecules
1) The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) species resistance. D) microbial antagonism. E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity.
a
21) Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream? A) monocyte B) lymphocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil E) neutrophil
a
23) Which of the following proteins are part of the first line of defense against microbial invasion? A) dermcidins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) C3 and C5 E) interferons
a
26) Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is true? A) TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes. B) TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins. C) Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors. D) NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs. E) MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins.
a
28) What are NOD proteins? A) cytoplasmic receptors of microbial molecules B) cellular signals triggering inflammation C) receptors of microbial molecules in phagocyte cell membranes D) activators of complement E) chemotactic factors
a
33) How does aspirin act to decrease the symptoms of inflammation? A) it acts as an antiprostaglandin. B) it is an antitoxoid for most microbial toxins. C) it prevents complement activation. D) it interferes with the action of interferons. E) it blocks the release of histamine.
a
Which of the following is not a target for TC cells? A. Cancer B. Bacteria C. Human transplanted liver D. Pig transplanted heart E. Virus infected cells
Bacteria
Bacteremia
Bacteria in your blood--do not have to replicate
example of subacute disease
Bacterial endocarditis
The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are A. Basophils B. Neutrophils C. Eosinphils D. Monocyte E. Lymphocytes
Basophils
37) Opsonization is A) the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis. B) the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the blood vessels at the site of infection. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. E) phagocyte receptors detecting PAMPs.
a
42) TLRs are A) phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs. B) the coatings of pathogens by complement. C) molecules that damage cells, resulting in cell lysis. D) present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
a
mechanical transmission
a PASSIVE vector transmission - the insect (ex. fly) lands on untreated sewage, carries pathogens on their feet and mouth parts. then the vector flies and lands on food which is ingested by the host
clonal selection theory
a conceptual explanation for the development of lymphocyte specificity and variety during immune system maturation
acute disease
a disease that develops quickly, very strong symptoms, lasts a short time
endemic disease
a disease that is constantly present within a population
non- communicable disease
a disease that is not spread from one host to another
communicable disease
a disease that is spread from one host to another
pathogen
a disease-causing microorganism
the ID50 is _______
a dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population
false
a given host cell can express only one type of receptor
primary immune response
a latent period occurs at the beginning of the response and it is marked by a lack of antibodies to the activating antigen
septic shock
a life-threatening decrease in blood pressure (sudden) due to massive release of endotoxins
vehicle transmission
a medium (water, food, body fluids, air) carries and transmits pathogens
saxitoxin
a neurotoxin that, when ingested, cause symptoms similar to botulism; produced by dinoflagellates
all microbes have
a preferred portal of entry
symbiosis
a relationship between two organisms; at least one must benefit
Koch's postulates
a series of 4 experimental steps that links a suspected pathogen to a specific disease
6. The major histocompatability complex is a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system. a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors. also known as the complement system. located in the thymus gland. All of the choices are correct.
a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.
interferons
a specific group of cytokines; antiviral proteins produced by certain animal cells in response to viral infection; protects neighboring uninfected cells from viral infection
syndrome
a specific group of signs and symptoms that accompany a disease
lysogeny
a state in which bacteriophage DNA is incorporated into the host cell without lysis
droplet transmission
a type of contact transmission - mucus droplets from talking, sneezing, coughing, etc. traveling LESS THAN 1 meter
criteria to be a reservoir
a) a continual source of the pathogen b) must supply all the requirements for growth c) must have opportunity for transmission
fimbriae
and opa are used to attach to host cells, host cell takes in the bacteria
vectors
animals that carry and transmit pathogens
y shape
antibody symmetrical shape
specific immunity
any exposed or released protein or polysaccharide is a potential antigen
Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response? A. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B cells. B. Lymphocyte development, challenge of B cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens. C. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production. D. Antibody production, lymphocyte production, B cell challenge, presentation of antigens. E. Presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production, lymphocyte development.
C
antigen specific receptors
b cells are different from almost all other cell types
independently
b cells can ____recognize antigens, that is they do not need an antigen presenting cell
coagulases
bacteria enzymes that coagulate (clot) the fibrongen in blood; Fibrogen (plasma protein)is converted into fibrin the threads that form a blood clot Fibrin clot may protect bacterium from phagocytosis and isolate it from other defenses of the host Staphylococcus
bacteriemia
bacteria in the blood
septicemia
bacterial growth in the blood with or without toxin production
why can't transient microbiota persist long in our body?
because of - competition from other miroorganisms - elimination by the body's defense cells - chemical and physical changes in the body that dislodge them
when did normal microbial population begin to establish?
before birth from placental microbiome
The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except A. Warmth B. Redness C. Chills D. Pain E. Swelling
Chills
All nucleated cells contain___. A. Class II MHC B. Secretory antibodies C. Class I MHC D. IgE receptors
Class I MHC
A conceptual explanation for the development of lymphocyte specificity and variety during immune maturation.
Clonal Selection
Genetic engineering is achieved by
Cloning the gene via mRNA. Finding the gene via the protein
Which of these organisms does not produce an enterotoxin? 1. Shigella spp. 2. Clostridium botulinum 3. Vibrio cholerae 4. Staphylococcus aureus
Colostridium botulinum
Antibiotics
Compounds that kill or inhibit the growth of other microbes. Typically secondary metabolites. Assayed for products that inhibit growth of test bacteria. Still discovered by laboratory screening
Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen? binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability histamine acts on smooth muscle degranulation
binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
the activation of B cells involves
binding of antigen clonal selection
What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time? bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils histamine acts on smooth muscle binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils degranulation prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
T cells and B cells are produced in the
bone marrow
ligands
called adhesions on bacteria and attachment proteins on viruses
active immunity
can be natural through the acquisition of antibody in breast milk or artificial by the injection of preformed antibody
IgA proteases
can destroy IgA antibodies
example of communicable disease
chicken pots, tuberculosis
examples of contagious diseases
chicken pox, measles
Mosaic antigens:
complex with numerous parts, each of which elicit a separate lymphocyte response
titer
concentration of antibodies in serum
hyaluronan
connects/glues
Allergens that enter through the skin
contactant
4) Which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms? A) basophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) lymphocytes
d
main antigen presenting cells
dendritic cells, B cells, macrophages
Antigen Presenting Cells
dendritic cells, macrophages, B lymphocytes • MHC-II Molecules on their surface • Present antigen in the MHC-II molecule to CD-4 (T-helper) cells
cytotoxic T
destroys cells from other animals and humans based on the peptides they display on their surface with MHC class I
Saxitoxin is produced by ________.
dinoflagellates
Natural active immunity
direct exposure due to infection; develop a specific response; may suffer consequences
epidemic disease
disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short time
endemic disease
disease constantly present in a population
zoonoses
diseases people can get from animals/animal products (wild and domestic)
congenital disease
diseases that are present at or before birth ex: down syndrome
Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests. None of the choices is correct. indirect fluorescent antibody direct fluorescent antibody ELISA Western blot
elisa
Class III genes (MHC)
encode proteins involved with the complement system
lipid A
endotoxin - can be released when gram-negative bacteria divide, die naturally, or are digested by phagocytic cells - many types stimulate the body to release chemicals that cause fever, inflammation, diarrhea, hemorrhaging, shock, & blood coagulation
dendritic cells
engulf antigen and modify it so that it will be more immunogenic and recognizable to T lymphocytes
affect cells lining the gastrointestinal tract
enterotoxins
granzymes
enzymes that attack proteins of target cells
kinases
exoenzymes that dissolves blood clots made by the host's immune system to isolate and contain an infection
The peptides presented by MHC class II peptide molecules are
exogenous antigens.
Test a hypothesis concerning the cause of a disease Apply Koch's postulates
experimental epidemiology
Stages of Pathogenesis
exposure (contact), adhesion (colonization), invasion, and infection
Genetic engineering allows
expression of eukaryotic genes in prokaryotes (e.g., insulin)
virulence
extent of disease
Exoenzymes
extracellular enzymes
exoenzymes
extracellular enzymes
What are some common portals of exit?
eye(tears)-mammary glands--placenta--vagina--skin flakes--urethra--nose secretions--earwax-broken skin/blood--insect bite--anus--needle
Secondary lymphoid organs
facilitate interactions between cells.
material that serve good antigens
glycoproteins, nucleoproteins, proteins, lipoproteins
4) The (epithelial/goblet/mucous) cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus.
goblet
Denaturation
The disruption of proteins from their native state is known as __.
What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
Sign is a Can be observed by examining the patient Symptom--can only be felt by the patient
Objective manifestations of disease observed or measured by others
Signs = swelling, vomiting, shivering, rash, redness, & fever
Monoclonal antibodies
Single specificity antibodies formed by fusing a mouse B cell with a cancer cell
Superantigen Fab
Site on the antibody where the epitope binds and is composed of a hypervariable regions.
This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota A. Urinary tract B. Digestive tract C. Respiratory tract D. Skin E. Eyes
Skin
1st Portal of Entry
Skin - Outer layer of dead skin cells acts as a barrier to pathogens - Some pathogens can enter through openings or cuts - Others enter by burrowing into or digesting outer layers of skin
Three major portals of entry for pathogens
Skin Mucous membranes Placenta
Haptens
Small foreign molecules that consist only of a determinant group
Epitope
Small molecular group that is recognized by lymphocytes
8) The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature.
TRUE
9) Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms.
TRUE
1. Contamination with organic matter. 2. Nature of microbial population. 3. Time of exposure to germicide. 4. Material being treated. 5. Chemical action of germicide. 6. Concentration of germicide.
The effect of a germicide is affected by which of the following factors?
The basis for most immune responses
The encounter between antigens and white blood cells
Mechanisms of streptokinase and how it helps in invasion
Toxin--dissolves the clot and breaks down blood.
Virulence Factor of Infectious Agents that are chemicals that harm tissues or trigger host immune responses that cause damage.
Toxins
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal ________
Transferrin
Vector vaccine
Vaccine made by inserting genes from a pathogenic virus into a relatively harmless carrier virus (e.g., vaccinia virus)
toxoids
altered exotoxins to stimulate antibody production ex. tetanus
biological transmission
an ACTIVE, more complex form of vector transmission - vector first bites an infected animal, ingests blood. the pathogen reproduces in the gut or salivary glands of the vector. then the vector bites a host (person) and infects them with the pathogen
Third stage of lymphocyte development
Both T and B cells migrate to secondary lymphoid tissue
How is the central portion of a T cell receptor complex functionally analogous to the center of the B cell receptor complex?
Both receptors bind epitopes (small amino acid sections of antigen molecules).
29. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are A. IgM only. B. IgG only. C. IgD only. D. IgM and IgG. E. IgE and IgA.
C
• CD4
CD4 expressed on T helper cells and binds to MHC-II molecules
MHC I molecules
CD8 cells recognize antigen
class I molecules
CD8 cells recognize antigen bound to
require doctors & hospitals to report certain infectious diseases
CDC
WASH YOUR HANDS
CDC says the most effective way to prevent nosocomial infections is to...
Are used in diagnosis of disease, identification of microbes and therapy
Monoclonal antibodies
pathogenicity of algae
"Red Tide" - toxic algal blooms not very well developed disease is due to toxins
IgA
Monomer; circulates in blood, dimer in mucous and serous secretions
IgG
Monomer; produced by plasma cells and memory cells
List characteristics of antigens that optimize their immunogenicity
Shape Size 10,000 DA or higher Foreign Accessibility
Acquisition of normal microbiota
- Fetus in womb is free of microorganisms - Microbiota begin to develop during birthing process - Much of one's resident microbiota are established during first months of life
arthropods
"joint-footed" animals that are the most important and largest group of vectors - insects
Cellular Immunity
-Lymphocytes: CD4 cells or Th CD8 cells or Tc and CTL Tm cells Nk cells (innate) -APC: Dendritic cells Macrophages
Exceptions to Koch's postulates
- Some pathogens cannot be cultured in the laboratory - Some diseases are caused by a combination of pathogens and other cofactors - Ethical considerations prevent applying Koch's postulates to pathogens that require a human host
FALSE
29-True or false: All white blood cells are called lymphocytes.
The two identical arms of an antibody (AKA immunoglobulins). The _____ region binds the antigen (fragments that were antigen binding)
-Fab region -Light chain
The stem of the antibody. (fragments that could be crystallized)
-Fc region -Heavy Chain
T-cell receptor (TCR)
-Found on all T-cells -Holds specific antigen -CD4, CD3, CD8
Exists as a dimer; found in saliva, tears, and breast milk
-IgA -Dimer (4 Binding sites) -Body secretions
What is the only isotype from the TI B Cells?
-IgM
Lymphocyte types (2)
1) B-Lymphocytes (B-cells) Humoral Immunity (macromolecules) 2) T-Lymphocytes (T-cells) Cellular Immunity (phagocytes)
B-cells: 1) site of maturation 2) specific surface markers 3) circulation in blood 4) receptors for antigen 5) Distribution in Lymphatic organs 6) Require Antigen presented with MHC? 7) Product of Antigen stimulation
1) Bone Marrow 2) Immunoglobulin (Ig) 3) Low Numbers 4) B-cell receptor (Ig) 5) Cortex (in follicles) 6) No 7) Plasma cells and Memory cells
1) What is the costimulatory signal for TD antigens? 2) TI? and 3) Which one produces memory B cells?
1) Helper T-cells 2) Only requires the antigen 3) TD antigens
What are the 3 products of differentiation after clonal expansion? (i.e., what are the 3 types of plasma cells that are produced)
1) IgM expressing cells 2) IgG expressing cells 3)High Affinity IgG B Cells (stay in lymph node)
What are the three types of T cells?
1) T helper cells 2) T cytotoxic cells 3) T suppressor cells
T-cells: 1) site of maturation 2) specific surface markers 3) circulation in blood 4) receptors for antigen 5) Distribution in Lymphatic organs 6) Require Antigen presented with MHC? 7) Product of Antigen stimulation
1) Thymus 2) T-cell receptor, several CD molecules 3) High numbers 4) T-cell receptor 5) Paracortical sites (interior to follicles) 6) Yes 7) Several types of sensitized T cells and Memory Cells
Antibody production
1- Which of the following is NOT a nonspecific host defense? Physical barrier....Chemical barrier Genetic differences....Antibody production
TRUE
2- True or false: The first and second lines of host defense are nonspecific protections.
Viruses can evade host defenses by ________. 1. producing enzymes that destroy antibody molecules 2. "hiding" inside host cells where they cannot be detected by the host's immune system 3. producing leukocidins that actively destroy white blood cells 4. inhibiting phagocytosis due to the presence of the viral envelope
2. "hiding" inside host cells where they cannot be detected by the host's immune system
Which of these effects is most likely to occur if a pathogen enters the body by a portal of entry other than the preferred one? 1. A more severe disease will result. 2. A milder disease will result. 3. A different disease of the same severity will result. 4. Pathogens cannot enter by alternate routes.
2. A milder disease will result
The pathogenicity of which of the following is not the result of lysogeny? 1. Clostridium botulinum 2. Clostridium tetani 3. Vibrio cholerae 4. Streptococcus pyogenes 5. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
2. Clostridium tetani
a short time of generalized, mild symptoms (such as malaise & muscle aches)
2. Prodromal period
Which of these substances are most important in the establishment of biofilms? 1. exotoxins 2. adhesins 3. siderophores 4. hemolysins 5. invasins
2. adhesins
saliva tears sebum
20-The hydrolytic enzyme is found in: saliva tears lymph sebum blood
innate acquired
4- Host defenses can be divided into __________ or inborn, nonspecific protections; and ____________ or adaptive, specific immunities.
during this time the body gradually returns to normal as the patient's immune response /or medical treatment vanquish pathiogens
4. Decline
Polyvalent vaccine
A single vaccine that immunizes against two different diseases
Antigen
A toxin or other foreign substance that induces an immune response in the body, especially the production of antibodies.
Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal? A. Release of enzymes from lysosomes B. Inclusion bodies C. Antigenic changes D. Giant cells E. Transformation
A. Release of enzymes from lysosomes
B-cells and T-Cells types of immunity
B-cells: Humoral Immunity T-cells: Cell-mediated Immunity
Which organism most easily causes an infection? A. Treponema pallidum ID50-57 B. Legionella pneumophila ID50-1 C. E. coli O157:H7 ID50-20 D. Shigella ID50-10 E. Can't tell
B. Legionella pneumophila ID50-1
B cell receptors
Bind free antigens; phagocytose
T-cell receptors
Bind processed antigens together with the MHC molecules on the cells that present antigens to them; can not phagocytose
Transmit pathogens and serve as host for some stage of the pathogen's life cycle
Biological vectors (Biting arthropods, including mosquitoes, ticks, lice, fleas, bloodsucking flies, bloodsucking bugs & mites transmit many diseases to humans)
Bodily fluids such as blood, urine, saliva can carry pathogens (Prevent contact with conjunctiva or breaks in the skin or mucous membranes)
Bodily fluid transmission
Three ways to immobilize an enzyme
Bonding of enzyme to a carrier. Cross-linking of enzyme molecules. Enzyme inclusion
Mixed Infection
More than 1 pathogen causing the infection---dental carries
Superantigen Fc
Can bind to receptors on the membranes of the cell
What factors contribute to a pathogens ability to invade a host?
Capsul, cell wall components, enzymes, membrane ruffling, antigenic variation
Action of cells primarily T lymphocytes that make cytokines but sometimes natural killer (NK) cells make cytokines too
Cell mediated immunity
Once synthesized, where is immunoglobulin transported and inserted?
Cell membrane to act as a receptor
LD50 of endotoxin
HIGH
mosquitoes can spread
Malaria, Yellow Fever, Elephantiasis, Dengue, & viral encephalitis
Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their A. Cell processes B. Cell wall C. Markers D. Biota E. Skin
Markers
Functions of Class 1 MHC
Markers that display unique characteristics of self molecules and regulation of immune reactions
T-cell maturation
Maturation is directed by the thymus gland and its hormones and are then migrated to lymphoid organs
Passively transmit pathogens present on their feet or other body parts to new hosts. House flies & cockroaches may introduce pathogens such as Salmonella & Shigella into drinking water & food
Mechanical vectors
Generated from the progeny of antigen-stimulated lymphocytes. They survive for long periods of time in the absence of antigen
Memory cells
The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are A. Lysozymes B. Pyrogens C. Interferons D. Leukotrines E. Complement
Pyrogens
Class II MHC genes code for A. All of the choices are correct B. All HLA antigens C. Receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells D. Certain secreted complement components E. Self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes
Receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells
The histocompatibility complex proteins function in A. Recognition of self B. T cell maturation C. B cell maturation D. Antibody proliferation E. None of the choices are correct
Recognition of self
Proteins
The __ in vegetative cells are vulnerable to heat denaturation.
T cell response Activated
The activated T cells then transform in preparation for mitotic divisions and differentiate into one of the subsets
Membrane
The cell __ is responsible for preventing the loss of important molecules and stopping the entry of damaging substances.
A. tumefaciens contains the ________ which is responsible for ________
Ti plasmid, virulence
Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation? A. Destroy microbes B. Start tissue repair C. To cause a fever D. Block further invasion E. Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site
To cause a fever
What is the purpose of Koch's Postulates?
To identify the etiologic agents of disease (which organism specifically causes a disease)
(first line of defense) induce cytokines that regulate the intensity and duration of immune responses
Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
What happens when a helper T cell is activated?
Two populations of cells are formed: memory TH cells and effector TH cells; the effector TH cells play a role in activating B cells.
The 2 toxins that are carried beyond the site of infection
Two types Exotoxins Endotoxins
Which type of hypersensitivity Includes anaphylaxis, a systemic fatal reaction with airway obstruction and respiratory collapse
Type 1
Select the type of hypersensitivity that results in the lysis of foreign cells due to the actions of complement and antibodies.
Type 2
Which type of hypersensitivity involves complement assisted lysis of cells coated with antibodies which often results in autoimmune reactions
Type 2
Which type of hypersensitivity involves Immune complexes form and become lodged in various basement membranes
Type 3
Which type of hypersensitivity has T cell-mediated delayed hypersensitivity reactions including contact dermatitis and graft rejection reactions
Type 4
Graves' disease is due to a _____ hypersensitivity and the action of autoantibodies.
Type II
Myasthenia gravis is due to type ____ hypersensitivity and the action of autoantibodies.
Type III
Type I diabetes is an example of a _____ hypersensitivity that develops due to the action of autoreactive NK cells.
Type IV
1. Liquids 2. Solid Surfaces 3. Air
UV radiation is effective at disinfecting which types of materials? 0
Disinfection
UV radiation usually results in the __ of a material or environment.
Recombination causes which two genes to be active in the mature cell?
V and D
Many challenges in scale-up arise from
aeration and mixing.
can come from sneezing & coughing, or be generated by air-conditioner, sweeping, mopping, changing clothes or bed linens, even from flaming inoculating loops in micro labs
aerosols
focal infection
agents from a local infection are carried (by blood, lymph) to create other local infections
A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is agammaglobulinemia. AIDS. SCID. DiGeorge syndrome. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
aids
involves the spread of pathogens farther than 1 meter to respiratory mucous membranes of new host via aerosol
airborne transmission
Vehicle Transmission
airborne, waterborne, foodborne & bodily fluid
syndrome
all the symptoms and signs of a specific disease
immunization
clinical process that produces immunity in an individual
Critical in adaptive immune response with both B and T cells, as they will only develop and divide if the receptors on the Bcell meets with a corresponding antigen
clonal selection
IGA
clostrum and breast milk provides contains the antibody class
extracellular enzyme that causes blood proteins to clot, providing a "hiding place" for bacteria within a clot
coagulase
example of acute disease
common cold
Leukocidins
kill phagocytic leukocytes
example of signs
lesion, swelling, fever, paralysis
Microbial antagonism (competitive exclusion)
prevention of growth is a competition between microbes
______ immunodeficiency diseases are present at birth and usually stem from genetic errors, whereas _______ immunodeficiency diseases are acquired after birth and are due to agents such as infections, irradiation, or steroids.
primary, secondary
Type IIII is caused by
processed antigens
Yeast is used to
produce beer
acute disease
symptoms develop rapidly but the disease lasts only a short time
chronic disease
symptoms develop slowly
A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is T-cell mediated. atopic. antibody mediated. systemic anaphylactic. delayed.
systemic anaphylactic
focal infection
systemic infection that began as a local infection and enters blood, then spread to make a new location site
sepsis
systemic inflammatory response to the pathogen or it's toxin
Which of these organisms does not produce a neurotoxin? 1. Clostridium botulinum bacteria 2. Clostridium tetani bacterium 3. rabies virus 4. Alexandrium algae
Rabies virus
Based on these LD50 values, which microbe is the most virulent? Assume each bacterium enters through the appropriate portal of entry. 1. Cryptosporidium-50 cells 2. Shigella-10 cells 3. E. coli O157-1000 cells 4. Vibrio cholerae-108 cells
Shigella 10 cells
Which of these substances does not protect a bacterium from phagocytosis? 1. leukocidins 2. siderophores 3. capsule 4. M protein
Siderophores
The presence of endotoxins in a sterile fluid indicates ________. 1. gram-positive bacteria are growing 2. gram-negative bacteria are growing 3. the fluid is not sterile 4. the presence of gram-negative cell walls
The presence of gram-negative cell walls
_____ are toxins modified to retain their ability to induce antibody formation but lose their toxicity.
Toxoids
Adhesin molecules can vary in structure among strains of a given bacterial species. T/F
True
Although some pathogens cause disease after entering the body via food and water consumption, many such microbes are killed by chemicals involved in the digestive process. T/F
True
Patient symptoms may worsen after antibiotic treatment of infections caused by gram-negative bacteria due to the sudden release of endotoxins. T/F
True
The glycocalyx (capsule/slime layer) can affect bacterial virulence by allowing attachment and by hindering phagocytosis. T/F
True
Adherence
adhesion, necessary step in pathogenicity almost all pathogens have some means of attaching themselves to host tissues at their portal of entry
The scum that builds up on shower doors, the formation of dental plaque on teeth, and the algae growth on the walls of swimming pools are all examples of _______.
biofilms
Parenteral route
gain access when they are directly deposited into the tissues beneath the skin or into mucous membranes when these barriers are penetrated or injured Punctures, injections, bits, cuts, wounds, surgery, splitting of the ski due to swelling or drying can establish these routes HIV, Hepatitis, tetanus
Numbers of invading microbes
if only a few microbes enter the body, they will probably be overcome by host's defenses; if large numbers enter, the stage is probably set for disease
Skin
most preferred mode of entry Skin is the largest organ, unbroken skin is impenetrable by most microbes (some go through sweat glands/hair follices)
Which of these events leads to all of the others in a pyrogenic (fever) response? 1. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. 2. The hypothalamus releases prostaglandins. 3. IL-1 is released by macrophages. 4. The body's thermostat is set to a higher level, and fever occurs. 5. IL-1 travels via the blood to the hypothalamus.
1. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria.
Which statement is not true of endotoxins? 1. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production. 2. They are more heat-resistant than exotoxins are. 3. They can lyse amoebocytes found in crab hemolymph. 4. They can induce chills, fever, aches, clotting, shock, and miscarriage. 5. Endotoxins are produced by Neisseria meningitidis and E. coli.
1. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production.
Which one of these pairs is not correctly matched? 1. collagenase; breaks down connective tissue 2. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots 3. leukocidin; lyses WBC membranes 4. siderophore; traps iron 5. IgA protease; digest antibodies
2. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots
Which of these statements is not true for bacterial capsules? 1. For Streptococcus pneumoniae, the encapsulated strain is more virulent. 2. Pathogenic and nonpathogenic bacteria can produce capsules. 3. Antibodies produced against a capsule cannot affect whether disease will occur. 4. The importance of the capsule to virulence for Streptococcus pneumoniae can be determined because there are strains both with and without the capsule. 5. Capsules related to virulence are produced by the causative agents of anthrax and bubonic plague.
3. Antibodies produced against a capsule cannot affect whether disease will occur.
The LD50 of Vibrio choleraeis 108 cells through the oral route. If the bacterial cells are ingested with bicarbonate, the LD50 drops to 104. Which of these explanations is the most likely? 1. Vibrio cholerae makes toxin only in the presence of stomach acid. 2. Stomach acid increases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. 3. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae. 4. Sodium bicarbonate inactivates Vibrio cholerae. 5. Sodium bicarbonate decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.
3. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.
All of these answers are true of A-B exotoxins except ________. 1. Many exotoxins are A-B toxins. 2. They consist of two polypeptide components. 3. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria. 4. The A portion of the toxin is the active component. 5. The B portion of the toxin binds to surface receptors on host cells.
3. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria.
The ID50 for cutaneous anthrax due to Bacillus anthracis is 10-50 endospores, while the ID50 for inhalation anthrax is 10,000 to 20,000 endospores. This means that ________. 1. not enough information is available to answer this question 2. neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired. 3. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax 4. inhalation anthrax is easier to acquire than cutaneous anthrax 5. both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired
3. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax
Which of these conditions would not affect the ability of Streptococcus mutans to attach to teeth? 1. the lack of a glycocalyx 2. the lack of the enzyme glucosyltransferase 3. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque 4. the inability to form dextran 5. the lack of sucrose
3. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque
All of the following are examples of cytopathic effects of viruses except ________. 1. cell surface antigens change 2. host cells fuse to form multinucleated syncytia 3. inclusion bodies are found in the cytoplasm or nucleus 4. None of these choices. There are no exceptions here.
4. None of these choices. There are no exceptions here.
Capsules play a role in the virulence of all of the following except ________. 1. Bacillus anthracis 2. Klebsiella pneumoniae 3. Yersinia pestis 4. Haemophilus influenzae 5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which statement is true of endotoxins? 1. They are disease specific. 2. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. 3. They are proteins. 4. They increase blood pressure. 5. They are released upon cell lysis.
5. They are released upon cell lysis.
Which of these eukaryotic molecules/structures can be responsible for movement of bacteria within host cells? 1. invasins 2. cilia 3. flagella 4. pseudopods 5. actin molecules
5. actin molecules
In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes
A decrease in blood pressure
A newly identified bacterial pathogen has been shown to cause disease in humans, disrupting the production of some proteins by interfering with the function of the endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells. Under specific growth conditions, this bacterial strain secretes a protein that appears to be responsible for the pathology of the disease. This protein is composed of two polypeptide chains, one of which binds to a receptor on the surface of liver cells, stimulating the uptake of the protein by endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the other polypeptide component interferes with the activity of ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum. This bacterial protein will most likely be classified as a/an ________.
A-B toxin
The symptoms of tetanus are due to
An exotoxin produced by clostridium tetani
Endotoxins are A. Specific in their method of action. B. Part of the gram-negative cell wall. C. Associated with gram-positive bacteria. D. Excreted from the cell. E. None of the above.
B. Part of the gram-negative cell wall.
Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally not true? A. They are more potent than endotoxins. B. They are not inactivated by heat. C. They are composed of proteins. D. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. E. They have specific methods of action.
B. They are not inactivated by heat
Botulism is caused by an exotoxin, therefore it could easily be prevented by _________
Boiling food prior to consumption
Which of the following organisms doesn't produce an exotoxin? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium tetani C. Salmonella typhi D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae E. Clostridium botulinum
C. Salmonella typhi
Given the following LD50 values for Bacillus anthracis, through which portal of entry is it easiest to get anthrax? 1. All are equally easy portals of entry. 2. Cutaneous-50 endospores 3. Inhalation-20,000 endospores 4. Ingestion-1,000,000 endospores
Cutaneous 50 endospores
Which of the following does not contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness? A. Capsule B. Hyaluronidase C. Cell wall D. Ligands E. Exotoxins
E. Exotoxins
All of the following are true about M protein except A. It is heat- and acid-resistant. B. It is a protein. C. It is found on fimbriae. D. It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. E. It is readily digested by phagocytes.
E. It is readily digested by phagocytes.
A cell wall can increase a bacterium's virulence because cell wall lipid A A. All bacteria have a cell wall and all are not pathogenic; therefore, cell walls do not contribute to virulence. B. Helps the bacterium attach. C. Resists phagocytosis. D. Destroys host tissues. E. None of the above.
E. None of the above.
Which of the following organisms causes the most severe disease? A. Shigella disenteria ID50-10 B. Treponema pallidum ID50-57 C. Salmonella enteriditis ID50-20 D. Parainfluenza virus ID50-200 E. Can't tell
E. can't tell
Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat
Gram-negative bacterial infections
Which one of these is not an example of the parenteral route? 1. insect bite 2. cut 3. injection 4. hair follicle
Hair follicle
Which of these statements is true regarding portals of exit? 1. In most cases, a microbe uses the same portal for both entry and exit. 2. The urinary tract is the most common portal of exit. 3. The portal of exit for chicken pox, measles, and smallpox is the skin. 4. Polioviruses most often use the respiratory portal of exit.
In most cases, a microbe uses the same portal for both entry and exit
Fibrin clots can be dissolved by enzymes called _________.
Kinase
Which of these is a cell wall component that contributes to invasiveness? 1. endotoxin 2. hemolysin 3. M protein 4. coagulase
M protein
The symptoms of protozoan diseases are usually due to ________.
Metabolic waste products
Commodity chemicals
Inexpensive chemicals produced in bulk. Include ethanol, citric acid, and many others
--------- is the invasion of the host by a pathogen
Infection
Organism evades body's external defenses, multiplies, and becomes established in the body
Infection
Germ theory of disease-by Louis Pasteur, Robert Koch
Infections by pathogenic microorganisms cause disease
Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins? A. Histamine B. Interferon C. Albumin D. Complement
Interferon
Who activates the TH cells?
Interleukin-1 secreted by APC
An activated TH cell produces ___ which is a growth factor for T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells. A. Antiserum B. Interleukin-2 C. Complement D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-12
Interleukin-2
Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function? A. Intracellular fluid B. Reticuloendothelial system C. Lymphatic system D. Blood stream E. Extracellular fluid
Intracellular fluid
Artificial Immunity
Involve medical intervention
IgE
Involved in allergic responses and parasitic worm infections
Microbicidal
Iodine compounds display __ activity on target organisms if used properly.
51. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make adjuvant. booster. antibodies to toxin. gamma globulin. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make A. Adjuvant B. Booster C. Antibodies to toxin D. Gamma globulin E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
Each of the following are benefits of fever except A. It increases phagocytosis B. It stimulates hematopoiesis C. It reduces the ability of temperature sensitive organisms to multiply D. It increases the availability of iron E. It increases metabolism
It increases the availability of iron
Vaccine Preparation- 2nd Generation
(Acellular or Subunit) • Antigenic molecules derived form bacterial cells or viruses • Acellular are from cultured cells - acellular Pertussis (DTaP vaccine) • Subunit vaccines are from viruses (Influenza) • Synthesized subunits
deathcap mushroom
(Amanita phalloides) - a very deadly mycotoxin
normal microbiota
(residents, normal flora), those microorganisms normally found in and on the human body, and which under normal conditions do not cause infection and disease *always present *in huge numbers
Also, describe the relevance of acme, fulmination, and pyrogens in the invasive phase of diseases.
**Acme- **Fulmination Pyrogens--Can be released by pathogens and they cause fever during invasive phase
skin
*portal of entry -largest organ of the body in terms of surface area, an important defense against diseases -unbroken _______ is impenetrable by most microorganisms -physical barrier (epidermis; keratin is a waterproof protein), chemical barrier (pH is 5-6, fatty acids are toxic), and a biological barrier (dendrtitic macrophage WBC) -- nonspecific immune functions -diseases include scalded skin syndrome, boils, carbuncles, ringworm, necrotizing fascitis
parenteral route
*portal of entry -microorganisms are deposited usually by bites, cuts, punctures, injections, splits (skin) in tissues beneath the skin (or mucous membranes) -diseases include tetanus
mucous membranes
*portal of entry -soft, most tissues open to the external environment -physical barrier, chemical barrier (viscous, sticky mucus catches microbes, also contains lysozyme, IGA antibodies, cili action removes this bacteria-laden mucus) -diseases include pneumonia, anthrax, plague, cholera, typhoid fever, salmonella, staphylococcal food poisoning
Humans acquire zoonoses through what routes?
- Direct contact with animal or its waste - Consumption of animals - Bloodsucking arthropods
Types of healthcare associated infections (HAIs)
- Exogenous = Pathogen acquired from the health care environment - Endogenous = Pathogen arises from normal microbiota as a result of factors within the health care setting - Iatrogenic = Results from modern medical procedures - Superinfections = Use of antimicrobial drugs reduces competition from some resident microbiota, allowing other microbes to thrive
Vaccine Preparation- 3rd generation
- Recombinant DNA technology • Trojan horse vaccine • Genetic material from an infectious agent is inserted into a live carrier microbe that is nonpathogenic • The recombinant microbe multiplies and expresses the foreign genes
B-cell activation (General to PowerPoint)
-(T-dependent) -B-cell is Ag Presenting cell (APC) -MHC class II -T-helper cell required
The 4 polypeptide chains of immunoglobulins
-2 identical heavy chains (H) -2 identical light chains (L)
Plasma and Memory Cells (General to PowerPoint)
-Activation of B-cell by antigen (ag) -IL activates B-cells -B-cells> Regulatory B-cells, Memory B-cells, or plasma cells. -Memory B-cells eady for next exposure to (ag) -Plasma Cells secrete specific antibody
Categories of antigens
-Alloantigens -Superantigens -Allergen -Autoantigens
Immunoglobulins (Ig) (General to PowerPoint)
-Also called antibodies -Light Chains: Antigen binding sites V=Variable region (Fab Region) -Heavy Chains: Stem of Antibody C=Constant Region (Fc Region)
Memory of exposure to Ag
-Anamnestic (2nd response) -IgG mostly -Greater than 1st (faster and higher amounts)
Artificial Passive Immunization
-Antibodies injected into patient -Gamma globulin : All antibodies are pooled -Antitoxins (Ig from horse): Antivenoms -Rhogam is IgG
Cellular Immunity
-Inactivate and clears pathogens Virus-infected cells Bacteria-infected cells -Rejection of tumor cells (cancer) -Some allergic reactions -Transplantation tissue rejection
Primary Lymphoid Organs
-Where lymphocytes are formed and mature. *Red bone Marrow: both B&T cells form. (Only B-cells Mature here) *Thymus: Where T-cells move to mature
examples of cytopathic effects
1) the macromolecules, metabolic processes, of the host cell stop, even mitosis stops. 2) the host cell can explode (lysis) and be destroyed. 3) viral particles being made and assembled can appear as granular bodies in the cytoplasm of infected cells. These bodies, called inclusion bodies, have unique staining properties and are used to diagnose diseases. 4) adjacent infected cells fuse together to form huge multinucleated giant cells called syncytium. 5) animal cells infected by viruses cause the infected host cell to make and release interferons (proteins coded for by the host cell's chromosome), which are secreted outside the infected cell and attach to uninfected cells that now can produce proteins (enzymes) to destroy viral DNA, interfere with attachment of viral particles to a host cell. 6) Loss of contact inhibition
What are some challenges to controlling infectious disease?
1. Available medical expertise is not always applied 2. Pathogens are adaptable (arms race) 3. Changing human activities (emergent diseases) 4. International travel/immigration
Be able to name, order, and describe the five different stages of infectious disease.
1. Incubation Period 2. Prodromal Phase--Microbes start replicating 3. Invasive/Illness Phase--Microbes rapidly produce Acme Fulminating Pyrogens 4. Decline Phase--THe number of microbes goes down--declining symptoms 5. Convalescence Period---Body repairs itself
What are the five different types of infectious diseases that are descriptive of the duration of a disease?
1.Acute--sudden--resolve fast 2.Chronic--slow-leprocy 3.Subacute--middle--has middle duration couple months--done--gingivitis 4.Latent---HIV--Herpes__always have 5.Inapparent---(subclinical)---you don't know you have it ---Zika--Whooping cough
How can an infectious disease be non-communicable?
1.Environmental ---tetnus 2.Bacteria already in your body--appendix rupture 3. Food poisoning---eat the toxin you get sick--cannot transmit.
saliva mucus
16-The flow of fluids such as __________ and __________ carries microbes away from respiratory tract
first
17-Coughing and sneezing are __________ line defenses that expel air from the respiratory tract. third second fourth first
biota
18-Resident __________ are commensal microbes that compete with pathogens for space and nutrients.
sebum, saliva and tears
19-Which of the following have an antimicrobial effect? sebum and saliva tears sebum, saliva, and tears tears and saliva
self
24-Natural markers of the body that are recognized by the immune system are called: self nonself
marker
25- A(n) __________ is any trait, factor, or receptor of a cell, virus, or molecule that makes it distinct and recognizable. landmark marker antigen
Undifferentiated lymphocytes have ___ different genes for the variable and diversity region of heavy chains
250
leukocytes
28- The primary infection-fighting blood cells are called: leukocytes erythrocytes monocytes macrophages phagocytes
monocytes lymphocytes
34-The agranulocytic leukocytes are composed of two general types, the ____________ and ____________ .
Lymphocytes
35- __________ are the second most common of the leukocytes and include B cells, NK cells, and T cells. Erythrocytes..Basophils..Eosinophils Neutrophils..Lymphocytes..Mast cells
Phagocytosis
40- ____________ is a type of endocytosis in which the cell membrane actively engulfs large particles or cells into vesicles.
neutrophils macrophages monocytes
41-The 3 main types of phagocytes are: eosinophils....NK cells....basophils neutrophils....macrophages....monocytes
calor
43- With respect to inflammation, __________ is Latin for warmth, is caused by increased blood flow to the area
rubor
44- With respect to inflammation, __________ is Latin for redness, is caused by increased circulation in the injured tissues .
Phagosome
47- In which vacuole does a phagocyte initially enclose a foreign material? Phagosome Lysosome Phagolysosome
phagolysosome
48- During phagocytosis, a(n) _______________ forms from the union of a phagosome with a lysosome.
Second
49- Inflammation and phagocytosis are nonspecific functions that are a part of which lines of immune defense? First....Second....Third
skin
6- Which of the following is a first line of defense? inflammation skin antibodies phagocytosis
intestinal villi meninges
9-Which is NOT a cutaneous barrier? intestinal villi hair follicles meninges skin glands
62. Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except A. Malaria. B. Botulism. C. Cholera. D. Yellow fever. E. Rabies.
A
Which kind of T cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy bacteria, viral infected cells, and cancer cells? A. TC B. TH C. CD4 D. MHC
A
The main function of the reticuloendothelial system is to provide A. Filtration of extracellular fluid B. All of the choices are correct C. A connection between tissues and organs D. Surveillance cells E. Filtration of blood
A connection between tissues and organs
What is a naive lymphocyte?
A lymphocyte that has an antigen receptor but has not yet encountered the antigen recognized by the receptor.
What is virulence, and how does it compare to pathogenicity?
A pathogen is the capacity to produce a disease, while virulence is the intensity of the disease.
example of pandemic disease
AIDS and influenza at times
Presentation of Antigen to Lymphocytes
APCs activate CD4 T helper cells in the lymph nodes • Interact with the APC which Binds to MHC class II and Binds to a piece of the antigen • Once identification has occurred, a molecule on the APC activates the T helper cell • TH produces interleukin-2 (IL-2) • The T helper cells can now help activate B cells
Agglutination
Ab aggregation; cross-linking cells or particles into large clumps
Neutralization
Abs fill the surface receptors on a virus or the active site on a microbial enzyme to prevent it from attaching
Natural immunity
Acquired as a part of life experiences
Specific Immunity: Third Line of Defense
Acquired only after an immunizing event such as an infection or vaccination • Specificity • Memory
Artificial immunity
Acquired through a medical procedure such as a vaccine
Third line of defense
Acquired; adaptive
Helper T cells A. Activate B cells and other T cells B. Secrete antibodies C. Suppress immune reactions D. Function in allergic reactions E. Directly destroy target cells
Activate B cells and other T cells
Complement fixation
Activation of the classical complement pathway can result in the specific rupturing of cells and some viruses
Creates memory, takes time and long lasting
Active immunity
_______ are molecules on bacterial cell surfaces that enable them to adhere to the surface of host cells.
Adhesins
Virulence factors that contribute to virulence
Adhesion factors Biofilms Extracellular enzymes Toxins Antiphagocytic factors
52. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? Adjuvant Booster Antibodies to toxin Gamma globulin "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
Adjuvant
Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. Adjuvant B. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine C. Antibodies to toxin D. Gamma gobulin E. Booster
Adjuvant
What is sequelae?
After effects remaining after the recovery from certain disease.
Primary antigen response
After first exposure to an Ag , immune system produces IgM and a gradual increase in Ab titer with the production of IgG
20. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response
Agglutination
The aggregation by antibodies of suspended cells or similar-sized particles into clumps that settle.
Agglutination
Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A. Agglutination B. Complement fixation C. Neutralization D. Anamnestic response E. Opsonization
Agglutination
-CHO
Aldehydes are organic substances that contain a __ functional group on a terminal carbon.
"Clonal selection" and "clonal expansion"
All of the answer choices are correct. -imply that each individual lymphocyte produces a single antibody. -describe how a single lymphocyte proliferates in a population of effector cells. -depend on an antibody recognizing a specific epitope. -explain how an antigen stimulates the production of matching antibodies.
12. Lymphocyte maturation involves hormonal signals that initiate development. B cells maturing in bone marrow sites. T cells maturing in the thymus. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
16. Antigen presenting cells include dendritic cells. include macrophages. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
17. T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires typically a protein antigen. binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell. binding of T cell to a site on the antigen. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
48. Live, attenuated vaccines include the Sabin polio vaccine. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR). contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
Uniform populations of like microbes.
All of the following describe the typical microbial population targeted by antimicrobial drugs EXCEPT:
Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances? A. Nitric oxide B. Superoxide anion C. All of these are used D. Hydrogen peroxide E. Lactic acid
All of these are used
Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called A. Allergens B. Heterophilic antigens C. Autoantigens D. None of the choices are correct E. Superantigens
Allergens
Sterile
An object is either __or not sterile.
Transgenic organism
An organism that contains a gene from another organism
Genetically modified organism (GMO)
An organism whose genome has been altered.
Seeks to determine the probable cause, mode of transmission, and methods of prevention. May be used when Koch's postulates can't be applied, Often retrospective, investigation occurs after an outbreak has occurred, morbidity
Analytical epidemiology
22. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response
Anamnestic response
Three types of reservoirs of infection
Animal reservoir Human carriers Nonliving reservoir
Prevent fusion of lysosome and phagocytic vesicles ans some bacteria produce Leukocidins which directly destroy phagocytic white blood cells
Antiphagocytic chemicals
Factors that prevent phagocytosis by the host's phagocytic cells. Allow pathogens to remain in a host for longer time
Antiphagocytic factors
Resident microbiota
Are a part of the normal microbiota throughout life Are mostly commensal
Endotoxins.
Are part of the outer portion of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria. They are liberated when the bacteria die and the cell wall breaks apart.
Exotoxin
Are produced inside mostly gram positive bacteria as part of their growth and metabolism. They are then secreted or released following lysis into the surrounding medium.
The formation of antibodies and memory cells after exposure to a vaccine (Flu Shot)
Artificial active immunity
Temporary protection by receiving an injection of antibodies in order to combat infection. Gamma Globulin (RHOGAM)
Artificial passive immunity
Human Carriers
Asymptomatic infected individuals can be infective to others Some individuals eventually develop illness whereas others never get sick Healthy carriers may have defensive systems that protect them Some people remain both asymptomatic & infective for years (tuberculosis, syphilis, & AIDS)
56. Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? Killed, inactivated vaccines Attenuated vaccines Toxoids Immune serums Subunit vaccines
Attenuated vaccines
Summarize the process of B cell activation and list the types of B cells produced
B cell is activated by the binding of antigen to receptors on its cell surface which causes the cell to divide and proliferate.
IG receptors
B cell recognize antigen via
antibody
B cell recognize antigen via ____receptors
B lymphocytes; in humoral immune system lymphocytes that produce antibodies which neutralize various bacteria, fungi, or parasite
B cells
Receptors & Antigen Specificity for B cells
B cells have receptors that bind antigens
Antibodies are made by
B cells/plasma cells.
Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to A. Bacterial infections. B. Viral infections. C. Protozoan and helminthic infections. D. Fungal infections. E. All of the above.
B. Viral infections.
effective virulence factor because many are composed of chemicals normally found in body, so not recognized as foreign, and they are slippery and difficult for phagocytes to engulf
Bacterial capsule
Superantigens are A. Those that evoke allergic reactions B. Bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens C. Body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign D. None of the choices are correct E. Cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members
Bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens
Super antigens are A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign. B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members. C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. D. those that evoke allergic reactions. E. None of the choices are correct.
C
All of the following may be used for adherence except A. Glycoproteins. B. Lipoproteins. C. Cell membrane mannose. D. Fimbriae. E. Capsules.
C. Cell membrane mannose.
Thirty-two people in San Francisco who ate jackfish caught at Midway Island developed malaise, nausea, blurred vision, breathing difficulty, and numbness from 3 to 6 hours after eating. The most likely cause of this food intoxication is A. Staphylococcal enterotoxin. B. Cholera toxin. C. Ciguatera. D. Aflatoxin. E. A mycotoxin.
C. Ciguatera.
2 polypeptide chains for T-cells
CD4 and CD8
epitope / II
CD4 cells have antigen specific receptors that recognize a ____of a specific antigen, and a CD4 coreceptor that recognized MHC class ____molecules
Class II
CD4 coreceptor on CD4 T cells binds to MHC class II molecules on antigen presenting cells
mature T cells can express
CD4 coreceptors, CD8 coreceptors
Alloantigens
Cell surface markers and molecules that occur in some members of the same species but not in others
Steps III & IV: T-Cell Response
Cell-Mediated Immunity • Require the direct involvement of T lymphocytes throughout the course of the reaction • T cells require some type of MHC recognition before they can be activated • T cells stimulate other T cells, B cells, and phagocytes • Cytokine Production
T-cell general function
Cells function in helping other immune cells, supressing, killing abnormal cells, hypersensitivity; synthesize cytokines
An immune response that does not involve antibodies, but rather involves the activation of phagocytes, antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen.
Cellular mediated immunity
Cytotoxic T cells
Chemical message;Destruct infected host cells and foreign cells.
An example of natural active immunity would be A. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease B. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox C. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity D. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta E. None of the choices are correct
Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity
An example of artificial active immunity would be A. None of the choices are correct B. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta C. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox E. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity
Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox
What process provides many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens? A. Antigen expression B. Antibody production C. Opsonization D. Clonal expansion E. Antigen presentation
Clonal expansion
Industrial Fermentors
Closely monitored during production run. Growth and product formation must be measured.
What are some prominent sites for microbiota?
Colon Skin Vagina Mouth Nose Throat
What is a syndrome?
Combination of signs and symptoms that are characteristic of a certain disease.
The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells and viruses. A. Lymphoid B. None of the choices are correct C. Cell mediated D. Humoral immunity E. Complement
Complement
How Normal Microbiota Become Opportunistic Pathogens
Conditions that provide opportunities for pathogens - Introduction of normal microbiota into unusual site in body - Immune suppression - Changes in the normal microbiota - Changes in relative abundance may allow opportunity for a member to thrive and cause disease
Cell receptors or markers
Confer specificity and identity of a cell
Part of the antibody that does not vary , stem area, does not bind to antigens
Constant Region
Three groups of transmission
Contact transmission Vehicle transmission Vector transmission
All of the following pertain to platelets except A. Contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide B. They are not whole cells but are pieces of cells C. Function in blood clotting and inflammation D. Originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes E. They function primarily in hemostasis
Contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
Subunit vaccines
Contain only a specific protein or proteins from a pathogenic organism (e.g., coat protein of a virus)
Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines A. Contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules B. Confer passive immunity C. Utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen D. Contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses E. Are always genetically engineered
Contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses
The mere presence of microbes in or on the body
Contamination
Carrier group
Contributes to the size of the complex and enhances the orientation of the antigen
Regulatory T cells
Control the T cell response
45. Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except A. diphtheria. B. botulism. C. snake bites. D. chickenpox. E. spider bites.
D
Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic disease are due to A. Waste products excreted by the parasite. B. Products released from damaged tissues. C. Tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal enterotoxin? A. It is an exotoxin. B. It causes diarrhea. C. It causes vomiting. D. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines. E. None of the above.
D. It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.
All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies except A. IgA protease. B. Invasims. C. Antigenic change. D. Membrane-disrupting toxins. E. None of the above
D. Membrane-disrupting toxins.
They have no obvious vital signs.
Death of microorganism is hard to detects because:
Artificial active immunity
Deliberately exposing a person to material that is antigenic but not pathogenic
Exoenzyme
Dissolve extracellular barriers and penetrate through or between cells Ex--secreted-propholactic--pylori-urease--enzyme ammonia--increases pH and destroys the mucin layer.
Which of the following statements is false? A. Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells. B. Hemolysins lyse red blood cells. C. Kinase destroys fibrin clots. D. Leukocidins destroy neutrophils. E. Coagulase destroys blood clots.
E. Coagulase destroys blood clots.
Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect of viruses A. Cell death B. Increased cell growth C. Inclusion bodies form in the cytoplasm or nucleus D. Host cells fuse to form multinucleated syncytia E. None of the above
E. None of the above
example of mutualism
E.coli synthesize vitamin B and K providing nutrients to cells in the body and t bacteria living in the large intestine
What are some microbe-free areas?
Ear Sinus Internal eye Bone Marrow Muscles Glands Organs Circulatory Brain/spinal cord Ovaries and testes Urine Blood Semen
Plants can be genetically modified through several approaches including
Electroporation, Particle gun methods, Use of plasmids from bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Ethanol Biofuels
Ethanol is a major industrial commodity chemical. Gasohol and E-85
Study of the cause of disease
Etiology
Virulence Factor of Infectious Agents that is secreted by the pathogen, dissolves structural chemicals in the body & helps pathogen maintain infection, invade, and avoid body defenses (Mutant species that do not secrete the enzymes are often avirulent)
Extracellular enzymes
2) The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.
FALSE
4) The phenomenon known as species resistance is a highly specific defense against infectious agents.
FALSE
Antibody and antigen are held to one another by covalent bonds. T/F
False
Antibody molecules are very rigid in structure. T/F
False
Botulism is transmissible by direct contact. True False
False
If bacteria A and B have LD50 values of 109 and 1010, respectively, more cells of A than B will be needed to kill the host. T/F
False
Microbes are more likely to enter the body through the skin than through the mucous membranes. T/F
False
Most host damage resulting from bacterial infection is the result of direct damage by the microbe. T/F
False
The immune response is directed against an entire molecule. T/F
False
The same disease symptoms result, regardless of how a particular microbe enters the body. T/F
False
IgM
Five monomers; First class synthesized following Ag encounter
Spread of pathogens in and on foods that are inadequately processed, undercooked, or poorly refrigerated foods (Foods may become contaminated with feces)
Foodborne transmission
T cell receptors for antigen
Formed by genetic recombination, with variable and constant regions
protein purification
Fusion of a target protein with a carrier protein facilitates
The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A. GALT B. Thymus C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. Tonsils
GALT
Which of the following contribute to antibody diversity?
Gene rearrangement, imprecise joining AND combinatorial associations
Where does the preprogrammed lymphocyte specificity exist?
Genetic makeup before an antigen has ever entered the system
Clone
Genetically different type of lymphocyte expresses a single specificity
Examples of amino acids include
Glutamic acid (MSG), Aspartic acid and phenylalanine (aspartame [NutraSweet]), Lysine (food additives)
Which of these diseases cannot be prevented by toxoids? 1. botulism 2. tetanus 3. gram-negative septic shock 4. diphtheria
Gram negative septic shock
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors. A. Leukocytes B. None of the choices are correct C. Agranulocytes D. Monocytes E. Granulocytes
Granulocytes
36. Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients? Cytotoxic T cells Helper T cells B cells Plasma cells Suppressor T cells
Helper T cells
Please select the CORRECT statement regarding MHC molecules.
Helper T cells recognize antigens presented on MHC class II molecules.
What represses penicillin production
High levels of glucose
Microbicidal; Microbistatic
Higher temperatures are usually __, whereas lower temperatures are usually __.
if it's contaminated with organic material
How can water be a nonliving reservoir?
1. It does not require temperatures to be as high. 2. It requires shorter exposure times.
How does moist heat differ from dry heat?
Also called the antibody-mediated beta cellularis immune system, is the aspect of immunity that is mediated by macromolecules (as opposed to cells) found in extracellular fluids such as secreted antibodies, complement proteins, and certain antimicrobial peptides.
Humoral Immunity
What are the two types of immunity?
Humoral and cell mediated
B cells or B lymphocytes provide protection with antibiodies/immunoglobulins
Humoral immunity
Which one of the following virulence factors contributes most to the spread of disease in the body? 1. hyaluronidase 2. hemolysin 3. endotoxin production 4. siderophore production
Hyaluronidase
The dose of microbes required to produce a measurable infection in half of the animals tested is referred to by the abbreviated term __________.
ID- 50
in an antibody mocecule, the J chain is a protein component that joins monomers of
IGM, IGA
In opsonization with IgG, why would it be important that IgG react with the antigen BEFORE a phagocytic cell recognizes the antibody molecule?
If the IgG is bound to the phagocyte BEFORE opsonization, it would most likely be ingested by the phagocyte before it could bind to a pathogen (it would be "naked," so to speak).
40. Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens? IgD IgE IgG IgM IgA
IgA
Which of the following is the most abundant immunological class produced?
IgA
25. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.
IgE.
24. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM.
IgG
Most prevalent immunoglobulin
IgG
Which class of antibody accounts for most of the circulating antibodies?
IgG
37. In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM. IgA.
IgM
Which is the first antibody class made during the primary response to an antigen?
IgM
27. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? IgM only IgG only IgD only IgM and IgG IgE and IgA
IgM and IgG
Type I
Immediate hypersensitivity, IgE mediated involving mast cells and basophils, anaphylaxis, allergies, asthma
Secondary antigen response
Immune system procudes a more rapid, stronger response due to memory cells (anamnestic response)
studied a cholera outbreak in London using descriptive epidemiology
John Snow
Immunoglobulins
Large Y-shaped glycoproteins that serve as specific receptors of B cells
Differentiate between a latent and a persistent viral infection.
Latent Disease--the casual pathogen goes dormant for extended periods of time with no active replication. Ie-herpes virus. Persistant--You never get rid of it-constant infection--always active---Hepatitus B of the liver
Endotoxins
Lipopolysaccharides differ from exotoxins, part of outer region of cell wall of gram negative bacteria (outer membrane surrounding the peptidogylcan layer of the cell wall, outer layer has lipoproteins, phospholipids, and LPS; lipid portion is called Lipid A, the endotoxin released when gram - bacteria die and their cell wall undergoes lysis, liberating hte endotoxin stimulate macrophages to release cytokines in high concentrations , produce same signs and symptoms also activate blood clotting proteins, obstruct capillaries and result in decreased blood supply and death of tissues
What is an abortive viral infection?
Little effect on cell and no change---something keeps it from replicating.
Antigen binding sites on immunoglobulins
Located at the ends of the forks formed by light and heavy chains
Host cells transformed by viral infection may ________.
Lose contact inhibition
List the qualities of an effective vaccine
Low level of adverse side effects and toxicity Protect against exposure to natural, wild forms of pathogen Stimulate both antibody (B-cell) response and (T-cell) response Should not require numerous doses or boosters Inexpensive, long shelf life, and be easy to administer
Which of the following is not typical of an antigen?
Low molecular weight
ticks can spread
Lyme disease & Rocky Mountain spotted Fever
What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin and neck? A. GALT B. Tonsils C. Thymus D. Spleen E. Lymph nodes
Lymph nodes
Who concentrates the antigens and circulates them ?
Lymph nodes and spleen
List the four stages of a specific immune response
Lymphocyte development Antigen processing and presentation Challenge/activation of the B and T lymphocytes Antibody/Humoral Mediated immunity and cell mediated immunity
Each of the following are granulocytes except A. All of the choices are granulocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Eosinophils D. Neutrophils E. Basophils
Lymphocytes
Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBC's and are the cells that function in the body's immune system? A. Eosinophils B. Lymphocytes C. Monocyte D. Neutrophils E. Basophils
Lymphocytes
Memory
Lymphocytes are programmed to recall their first encounter with an antigen and respond rapidly to subsequent encounters
First stage of lymphocyte development
Lymphocytic stem cells differentiate into either T or B cells, in the bone marrow
Lysogenic bacterial cells may express prophage DNA causing them to take on different characteristics in a process referred to as _______________.
Lysogenic conversion
The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A. Lysozyme B. Hydrochloric acid C. Histamine D. Lactic acid E. Bile
Lysozyme
Which receptor is involved in presenting antigen to T-cells?
MHC class 2 receptor
Please identify the incorrect definition.
MHC class II—molecules that cells use to present antigen to cytotoxic T cells.
MHC-I and MHC-II
MHC-I: CD8-T-Cell MHC-II: CD4-T-cell
Receptors found on all cells except RBCs
MHC1/HLA
Only found on antigen presenting cells
MHC2
When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into A. Killer T cells B. Neutrophils C. Macrophages D. Cytotoxic T cells E. Primary phagocytes
Macrophages
All the following are events of early inflammation except A. Macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis B. Brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation C. Exudate and pus can accumulate D. Capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema E. Chemical mediators and cytokines are released
Macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis
Which of the following is/are a(n) antigen-presenting cell(s)?
Macrophages, dendritic cells, AND B cells
Which of the following does NOT form a memory population after activation and differentiation?
Macrophages.
The beauty of specific immunity is the production of ____ that provides long-lasting protection A. Phagocytotic cells B. T helper cells C. Plasma cells D. Antibodies E. Memory cells
Memory cells
Septicemia
Microbes in the blood that are reproducing
Microbial products of industrial interest include:
Microbial cells, Enzymes, Antibiotics, steroids, alkaloids, Food additives, Commodity chemicals
What are opportunistic microbes, and what opportunities do they use to thrive?
Microorganisms that do not usually cause disease; only under special circumstances: 1. Disturbance of normal microflora (microbial antagonism) 2. Failure of host's normal defenses (immunocompromised) 3. Unusual location P.Vulgaris--colon--gets into the urinary tract--opportunist
Diapedesis is the A. Production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets B. Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging C. Production of only red blood cells D. Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E. Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
Autoantigen
Molecules on self tissues for which tolerance is inadequate
What are leukocidins?
Molecules that are capable of destroying phagocytes
Antigen
Molecules that stimulate a response by T and B cells
Originate from a single clone and have a single specificity for antigen
Monoclonal antibodies
Route of Administration of vaccines
Most vaccines are injected by subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intradermal routes • Only a few oral vaccines available, even though they have advantages
2nd Portal of Entry
Mucous membranes - Line the body cavities that are open to the environment - Provide a moist, warm environment hospitable to pathogens * Respiratory tract is the most common site of entry - Entry is through the nose, mouth, or eyes * Gastrointestinal tract may be route of entry - Microbe must survive the acidic pH of the stomach
The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
Mucous membranes of the respiratory tracts
_______ involves tissue destruction by both T cells and autoantibodies.
Multiple sclerosis
Types of symbiosis
Mutualism Commensalism Parasitism
both members benefit from their interaction
Mutualism (termites)
Cytotoxic T cell activity
NK cell releases perforins>Foreign cell dies from apoptosis>Macrophage engulfs dying cell
8) Nonphagocytic (eosinophils/monocytes/NK cells) are a type of lymphocyte which produce toxins to kill abnormal cells.
NK cells
Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A. Natural killer (NK) cells B. Cytotoxic T cells C. Suppressor T cells D. Delayed hypersensitivity T cells E. Helper T cells
Natural killer (NK) cells
Transfer of maternal antibodies across placenta or through breast milk
Natural passive immunity
Meningitis and gonorrhea are caused by measles virus. Neisseria species. Pseudomonas species.
Neisseria species.
19. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response
Neutralization
The process of combining an acid and a base until they reach a balanced proportion, with a pH value close to 7.
Neutralization
Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A. Anamnestic response B. Agglutination C. Neutralization D. Opsonization E. Complement fixation
Neutralization
The most numerous WBC's, that have multi-lobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Monocytes E. Lymphocytes
Neutrophils
What is an emerging disease?
New disease or rapid increase of a disease in incidence or in geographic range
Parenteral route
Not a true portal of entry Means by which portals of entry can be circumvented Pathogens are deposited directly into tissues beneath the skin or mucous membranes
What are the causes of non-infectious diseases?
Not caused by pathogens--caused by other factors such as environmental to name one.
1. They drive the production of proteins. 2. They must be replicated prior to binary fission.
Nucleic acids play which role(s) in microbial function?
Differentiate between the median infectious dose
Number of pathogen cells or virions required to cause active infection in 50% of inoculated animals Pathogens to cause infections--50% will 50% won't be infected---low is worse. Organisms must be replicating.
median infectious dose (ID50)
Number of pathogens required to cause active infection in 50% of the test population
median lethal dose (LD50)
Number of pathogens required to kill 50% of the test population
Infections acquired by bites, cuts, wounds, punctures, or surgery occur via the __________ route.
Parenteral
If a patient has a deep tissue infection as the result of an animal bite on the arm, the portal of entry is described as the ________.
Parenteral route
Hepatitis B virus transmitted by a finger-stick device is transmitted by which portal of entry?
Parentral
Does not create memory, acts immediatly and is short term
Passive immunity
Ability of a microorganism to cause disease
Pathogenicity
Tissues in the intestinal wall that inspect samples of intestinal contents. M cells transfer material from intestinal lumen to the __________, dendrite cells also bring in material part of the mucosa associated lymphoid tissue MALT - part of lymph
Peyer's Patches
T cell dependent antigens must be processed by who?
Phagocytes called Antigen Presenting Cells
Components of the first line of defense include all the following except A. Phagocytic white blood cells B. Flushing action of tears and blinking C. The tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin D. Nasal hairs E. Flushing action of urine
Phagocytic white blood cells
Each of the following is involved in the migration of white blood cells except A. Vasodilatation B. Chemotaxis C. Diapedesis D. Phagocytosis E. Motility
Phagocytosis
3rd Portal of Entry
Placenta Typically forms effective barrier to pathogens Pathogens may cross the placenta and infect the fetus = Can cause spontaneous abortion, birth defects, premature birth
The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A. Plasma cells B. Bursa cells C. Sensitized T cells D. Antibodies E. Activated macrophages
Plasma cells
What type of cells secrete antibodies? A. Helper T-cells B. Plasma cells C. Antigen-presenting cells D. Cytotoxic T-cells E. B cells
Plasma cells
3 types of B-cells
Plasma, memory, immunoglobulins
Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on the target cell. If the gangliosides were removed
Polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells
Artificial Passive Immunization: Immunotherapy- GAMMA GLOBULIN
Pooled from several blood donors - "shot gun" approach - hope one of the donors had the antibodies needed to protect
Superantigens
Potent T cell stimulators who provoke an overwhelming response
During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis? A. Tertiary B. Primary C. Secondary D. Quaternary
Primary
What are the four different types of infectious diseases in relation to multiple infections?
Primary infection Secondary infection Superinfection Mixed infection
Heat
Prions are very resistant to inactivation by __ and chemicals.
Resistant to heat and chemicals.
Prions are:
What are some problems with, and exceptions to, Koch's Postulates?
Problems--What if it is a human only disease? You cannot ethically practice on humans Some diseases have multiple agents When you take out of humans the disease many not grow easily like---leprocy.
Opsonization (the yummy factor)
Process of coating microorganisms or other particles with specific antibodies so they are more readily recognized by phagocytes
Live attenuated cells or viruses
Process that substantially lessens or negates the virulence of viruses or bacteria-eliminates virulence factors
Plasma cells A. All of the choices are correct B. Function in cell-mediated immunity C. Function in blood clotting D. Are derived from T-lymphocytes E. Produce and secrete antibodies
Produce and secrete antibodies
Secondary metabolite
Produced during stationary phase, Not essential for growth, Formation depends on growth conditions, Produced as a group of related compounds. Often significantly overproduced. Often produced by spore-forming microbes during sporulation. Often large organic molecules that require a large number of specific enzymatic steps for production. Synthesis of tetracycline requires at least 72 separate enzymatic steps. Starting materials arise from major biosynthetic pathway
B-Cell general function
Production of antibodies to inactivate, neutralize, and target antigens
Petroleum Biofuels
Production of butanol. Synthesis of petroleum from green algae
Hematopoiesis is the A. Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding B. Production of only red blood cells C. Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging D. Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues E. Production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets
Production of white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets
symptoms
SUBJECTIVE changes a patient feels (pain, fatigue, nausea, malaise [feeling of uneasiness])
Superinfection
Secondary--caused when an antibiotic kills host normal flora, making additional space and nutrients available for pathogenic organisms to grow unchecked. Strep throat--c diff
Cytotoxic T cells A. Lack specificity for antigen B. All of the choices are correct C. Are activated by antigens D. Secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells E. Secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells
Secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells
What are the four different types of infectious diseases that describe pathogenic microbes in the blood?
Septicemia Bacteremia Viremia Sapremia
Which of the following molecules would be expected to be immunogenic?
Serum albumin, a large protein.
Nonliving Reservoirs
Soil, water, and food can be reservoirs of infection Presence of microorganisms is often due to contamination by feces or urine
A widely produced growth hormone
Somatotropin. Cloned as cDNA from the mRNA
Why did the 19th-century conclusion that Haemophilus influenzae causes influenza contradict Koch's postulates? H. influenzae cannot grow in the lungs. H. influenzae could not be grown in 19th-century laboratories. It was unethical to purposely infect humans with H. influenzae. Some flu victims had no H. influenzae in their lungs.
Some flu victims had no H. influenzae in their lungs.
comparison of exotoxin & endotoxin
Source Exotoxins = mainly Gram + & - bacteria Endotoxins = mainly Gram - bacteria chemical nature Exotoxins = protein or short peptide (amino acids) Endotoxins = lipid portion of lipopolysaccharide (lipid A) of outer (cell wall) membrane toxicity Exotoxins = high Endotoxins = low but may have fatal doses heat stability Exotoxins = typically unstable at temperatures above 60 degrees c Endotoxins = stable for up to 1 hr at autoclave temp (121 degree c) effect on host Exotoxins = variable Endotoxins = fever, lethargy, malaise, shock, blood coagulation fever producing? Exotoxins = no Endotoxins = yes antigenicity Exotoxins = strong: stimulates antitoxin (antibody) product Endotoxins = weak
Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A. Spleen B. Lymph nodes C. Tonsils D. GALT E. Thymus
Spleen
Which of the following is/are secondary lymphoid organ(s)?
Spleen AND lymph nodes
How are superantigens different from other types of exotoxins? Superantigens only act against host neurons. Superantigens comprise two functional domains. Superantigens cause an overstimulation of the host immune system. Superantigens must be endocytosed into a target cell before becoming active.
Superantigens cause an overstimulation of the host immune system
"to live together"
Symbiosis
Subjective characteristics of disease felt only by the patient alone
Symptoms = pain, nausea, chills, headache, dizziness & fatigue
A group of symptoms and signs that collectively characterize a disease or abnormal condition
Syndrome
Which kind of cell activates B Cells?
T Cells! (B activates T which activates B!)
Type IV
T cell mediated, delayed hypersensitivity, contact dermatitis, graft rejections
antigen / MHC
T cell receptors recognize process ____that is presented by ____molecules on the surface of another cell
cell mediated immunity
T cells are responsible for
CD8 cells are
T cytotoxic cells
Destroys cancer cells, transplanted tissue, or viral infected cells
T cytotoxic cells
CD4 coreceptor is found on the surface of this cell type
T helper cell
CD4 cells are also known as
T helper cells
Macrophages, dendritic cells, AND B cells
T helper cells
Turns the immune system on
T helper cells
Most prevalent type of T cells
T helper cells (CD4 and TH)
antigen that is presented with MHC on APCs is now accessible to
T helper cells, Cyotoxic T cells
The stimulation of B cells to divide and mature is provided by
T helper cells.
cell type does not express MHC class II molecules on its surface
T lymphocytes
Turns the immune system off
T suppressor cells
The segment of the Ti plasmid that is transferred to the plant is called the
T-DNA
How is a T-cell receptor different from a B-cell receptor?
T-cell receptors must have antigen broken down inside a cell and presented to them by a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule.
1) Interferons alpha and beta are effective against viruses.
TRUE
3) Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme.
TRUE
5) Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules.
TRUE
7) Acute inflammation is normally beneficial.
TRUE
In the sixth segment of the animation, why is the disease epidemic in North America? The disease occurs at a higher rate than what would normally be expected in this region. The disease occurs at a lower rate than what would normally be expected in this region. The disease has spread to North America from Europe. Only a few cases are occurring in this region.
The disease occurs at a higher rate than what would normally be expected in this region.
The Stages of Infectious Disease
The disease process occurs following infection Many infectious diseases have five stages following infection 1. Incubation period 2. Prodromal period 3. Illness 4. Decline 5. Convalescence
Disinfection
The goal of regular pasteurization methods is the __ of the liquid.
Pasteurization
The heat treatment of perishable liquids to destroy heat-sensitive vegetative cells and prevent infection and spoilage is called __.
Reproduce
The inability to __ is the practical definition of microbial death.
Slow
The main effect of cold treatment is to __ the activity of microbes.
Reproduce
The most practical way to identify if a microbe is dead is by determining if it can still __ when it is exposed to a suitable environment.
a) introduced into regions of the body where they are not normally found b) a weakened (compromised) immune system
The normal microbiota can and will cause infection and disease if:
Median lethal dose
The number of pathogenic cells, virions, or amount of toxin required to kill 50% of infected animals. Median number when people die We want it to be high--the lower the more virulent.
Symptoms of helminthic diseases are usually due to ________.
The presence of the parasite
1. Disease 2. Food Spoilage
The primary targets of microbial control are microorganisms that cause __ or __.
Which of the following is the definition of clonal selection?
The process in which a lymphocyte's antigen receptor binds to an antigen, allowing the lymphocyte to multiply.
Pathway engineering
The process of assembling a new or improved biochemical pathway using genes from one or more organisms (e.g., indigo)
Gene mining
The process of isolating potentially useful novel genes from the environment without culturing the organism. DNA (or RNA) is directly isolated from the environment and cloned into appropriate expression vectors, and the library is screened for activities of interest
Death Time
The shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specified temperature is referred to as the thermal __ __.
Ribosomes
The synthesis of proteins involves organelles known as __ in a process called translation.
Describe the importance of the microflora/microbiota.
There are many good bacteria that keep other pathogens out and even make vitamins such as E.coli in the colon-vitamin K.
Why are these diseases usually very virulent?
They are virulent because they have had no time to co-evolve with humans and keep the virus in check. They usually jump suddenly from animals to humans and cause this problem. Our bodies have never seen anything like it and cannot adapt quick enough.
How do superantigens enable pathogens to hide from the immune system if they actually stimulate the immune system? They cause fever, which destroys the complement proteins. They cause the immune system to destroy IgA antibodies. They cause the immune system to turn on itself. They cause the immune system to produce an exaggerated response, distracting it from the actual pathogen.
They cause the immune system to produce an exaggerated response, distracting it from the actual pathogen.
Explain the role of Th cells in human immunity
They help the activity of other immune cells by releasing T cell cytokines.
What are Koch's postulates?
To prove that a given infectious agent causes a given disease, a scientist must satisfy all of these 1. suspected germ must be present in every case of disease 2. That agent must be isolated & grown in pure culture. 3. The cultured agent must cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible experimental host. 4. The same agent must be reisolated from the diseased experimental host
Why would a person who has their tonsils removed be more susceptible to certain types of infections of the throat and respiratory tract?
Tonsils are secondary lymphoid organs; they help to provide a constant response to the microbes in the oral cavity, helping to keep them in check and preventing them from spreading to other areas.
Two main types of brewery yeast strains
Top fermenting — ales. Bottom fermenting — lagers
--------- refers to the presence of toxins in the bloodstream
Toxemia
Differentiate between toxemia and intoxication.
Toxemia---bacteria produce toxin in the body---tetanus Intoxication---ingested preformed toxin--food poisoning
Mechanisms of coagulase and how they help in invasion
Toxin---a pathogen forms a wall around the cell that our system cannot detect, creating a blood clot. Coagulase will eventually secrete streptokinase.
47. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by removal of virulence genes from the microbe. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. long-term subculturing of the microbe. All of the choices are correct.
Treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation
61. Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids. True False
True
Accumulations of viral proteins and nucleic acids inside infected host cells are called inclusion bodies. T/F
True
Gene rearrangement is responsible for the generation of the various antibody molecules. T/F
True
IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin made by the body. T/F
True
True
True or False: Cold treatment and dessication cannot be reliably used for sterilization or disinfection.
True
True or False: Death involves the permanent termination of a particular organism's vital processes.
False
True or False: The effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent is only governed by time.
False
True or False: There are several degrees of sterility, based on the destruction of endospores.
Clonal Selection Theory
Undifferentiated lymphocytes undergo a continuous series of divisions and genetic changes that generate millions of different cell types
What is the principle antibody activity?
Unite with the Ag, to call attention to, or neutralize the Ag for which it was formed
Biotechnology
Use of living organisms for industrial or commercial applications
Amino acids
Used as feed additives in the food industry. Used as nutritional supplements in nutraceutical industry. Used as starting materials in the chemical industry
Cross-streak method
Used to test new microbial isolates for antibiotic production. Most isolates produce known antibiotics. Most antibiotics fail toxicity and therapeutic tests in animals. Time and cost of developing a new antibiotic is approximately 15 years and $1 billion. Involves clinical trials and U.S. FDA approval. Antibiotic purification and extraction often involves elaborate methods
Industrial microbiology
Uses microorganisms, typically grown on a large scale, to produce products or carry out chemical transformation. Classic methods are used to select for high-yielding microbial variants
DNA vaccine (genetic vaccine)
Vaccine that uses the DNA of a pathogen to elicit an immune response. Defined fragments of genomic DNA or specific genes encoding immunogenic proteins are used. They are cloned into a plasmid or viral vector and delivered by injection
Portion at the ends of the Fab regions and accounts for the antigen biding specificity. includes the antigen binding site
Variable Region
The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the A. Variable region B. Light region C. Joining region D. Hinge region E. Constant region
Variable region
What is a virulence factor, and how do they help bacteria with adhesion and invasion?
Virulence Factors are structural or physiological characteristics that help an organisms cause infection and disease Surface molecules on a pathogen called ADHESIONS or LIGANDS (protein or sugar), bind specifically to complimentary surface receptors on cells of certain host tissues. For example E.coli bacteria binding to human bladder cells. It allows them to stick.
How do viruses cause disease?
Viruses cause disease by directly destroying living cells or by affecting cellular processes in ways that upset homeostasis.
Important in the spread of many gastrointestinal diseases (Fecal-oral infection)
Waterborne transmission
Antimicrobial solutions with alcohol or water-alcohol mixtures as the solvent.
What are tinctures?
1. Presence of water 2. Temperature 3. Length of exposure
What factors must be considered in order to adequately sterilize using heat?
The dehydration of microbes for preservation.
What is dessication?
microorganisms in the hospital environment, compromised host, chain of transmission
What is needed to be a nosocomial infection?
Surgical Instruments
What items would not be reliably treated by boiling water?
Is virulence increased or decreased through animal passage, i.e.: is the pathogen more virulent in the animals it first infects, or in later animals that acquire the infection from the earlier animals?
When you pass a disease through population the disease will get worse and increase. The animals that are infected later will be exposed to a stronger virus that has adapted over the course of numerous animals.
What is a productive infection?
Where a virus enters the host cell and multiplies.
Would a denatured antigen be expected to have the same epitopes as its native (non-denatured) counterpart? Why?
Yes AND No; SOME epitopes are dependent on 3D conformation (conformational epitopes), while some simply depend on the sequence of amino acids (linear epitopes). So, really, it depends on the particular epitope.
Diseases that naturally spread from animal host to humans
Zoonoses
Antiseptics
__ are applied directly to the skin to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens.
Acids & Alkalis
__ are limited in their application because they are corrosive and hazardous.
Moist
__ heat requires shorter exposure times and lower temperatures than dry heat.
Death
__ is characterized by the stopping of all metabolic activity of a cell.
antibodies
a plasma cell secretes
in genetic engineering for vaccine production, the cloning host is stimulated to synthesize and secrete
a protein antigen from the pathogen
epidemiology
a science that studies the cause of a disease; its source and how it goes from its source to a host
endotoxin is
a structural component of the gram negative bacterial cell wall
adjuvant
a substance that enhances the body's immune response to an antigen.
toxoid
a toxin that has been rendered nontoxic but is still capable of eliciting the formation of protective antitoxin antibodies
dinoflagellates
a type of single-celled microscopic algae that produce saxitoxin
mutualism
a type of symbiosis - both organisms benefit (ex. us & our normal microbiota)
parasitism
a type of symbiosis - one organism benefits, and the other is harmed (ex. us & pathogens/opportunistic pathogens)
commensalism
a type of symbiosis - one organism benefits; other is unaffected (ex. us & some normal microbiota)
airborne transmission
a type of vehicle transmission - pathogens in dust nuclei are suspended in the air and travel MORE THAN 1 meter
foodborne transmission
a type of vehicle transmission - unsanitary handling of food, unfavorable storage (ex. temperature)
waterborne transmission
a type of vehicle transmission - via fecal-oral route
bloodborne transmission
a type of vehicle transmission through the blood
examples of microbial antagonism
a) outcompetes for food (nutrients) and room b) alters conditions where they are (pH, oxygen levels) that affect other microorganisms c) E. Coli produces antibacterial proteins called bacteriocins that inhibit other microbes
exceptions to Koch's Postulates
a) some microorganisms have never been grown on artificial media b) some disease conditions (pneumonia, meningitis, peritonitis) can be caused by more than one pathogen c) some pathogens (Staph. aureus, Strep. pyogenes, Mycobacterium tuberculosis) can cause more than one different disease d) some pathogens only have humans as their host
Pathogenicity
ability to cause disease
pathogenicity
ability to cause disease
how oes death occur by virus?
accumulation of large numbers of multiplying viruses, by effects of viral proteins, or by inhibition of host DNA, RNA, or protein synthesis
nosocomial infections
acquired while receiving treatment in a health care facility
disease that develops rapidly but lasts a short time
acute disease (common cold)
acute disease vs chronic disease
acute disease develop rapidly but resolve quickly chronic diseases develop slowly but don't resolve
primary infection
acute infection that causes the initial illness
virulence factors of bacterial and viral pathogens
adhesion molecules exoenzymes endo and exotoxins host immune survival and evasion
direct contact transmission
aka person to person contact transmission; direct physical contact between one person and another. there is no object between the two people
Industrial microbiology originated with...
alcoholic fermentation processes. Later on, processes such as production of pharmaceuticals, food additives, enzymes, and chemicals were developed
Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs. systemic shock and kidney failure. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs. fever and anemia. All of the choices are correct.
all choices are correct
Contact dermatitis involves itchy papules and blisters. T lymphocytes secreting inflammatory cytokines. All of the choices are correct. an allergen entering the skin. a sensitizing and provocative dose.
all of the choices are correct
Degranulation of mast cells leads to All of the choices are correct. airway obstruction. dilated blood vessels. headache.
all of the choices are correct
During which stage of disease should an infected person be considered contagious? the convalescence period the decline stage all stages the illness stage the incubation period
all stages
an antigen that provokes an allergic reaction is
allergen
Type I is causes by
allergens
A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is asthma. atopic dermatitis. anaphylaxis. eczema. allergic rhinitis.
allergic rhinitis
antigenic variation
allows pathogens , particularly viruses and protozoa to continuously confuse the immune system by altering their appearance a bit.
capsules
allows the bacteria to resist phagocytosis
Amylases and glucoamylases
also commercially important. Produce high-fructose syrup
tumor necrosis factor alpha
also endotoxins
Each class of antibody is specifically defined by its
amino acid sequence of the constant region of the heavy chain.
ergot
an alkaloid toxin produced by a parasitic fungi on grains (rye)
All of the following might lead to a disease caused by an opportunistic pathogen EXCEPT __________. an encounter with an infected animal immune suppression changes in diet hormonal changes
an encounter with an infected animal
hyaluronidase
an exoenzyme that dissolves the polysaccharide extracellular cement (hyaluronic acid) of connective tissue *spreading factor
collagenase
an exoenzyme that dissolves the protein collagen found in skin, muscles, organs *spreading factor *most common
foreign
an important characteristic of an antigen is that it be perceived to be
Ethanol is used as
an industrial solvent and gasoline supplement
systemic infection
an infection throughout the body
superantigen toxins cause
an intense immune response
secondary infection
an opportunistic pathogen that takes advantage of a weakened immune system
Koch proved that Bacillus anthracis causes
anthrax
Production of vitamins is second only to _______ in terms of total pharmaceutical sales
antibiotics
antitoxin
antibody that can neutralize a toxin
Macrophages and dendritic cells are
antigen-presenting cells.
Specific regions on an antigen molecule to which the immune response is directed are
antigenic determinants.
the flu virus is an
antigenic variation
type of molecule characteristics
antigens - found on only one type of microbe pamps - shared by many types of microbes antigens - stimulate specific immunity pamps - stimulate nonspecific immunity
epitopes
antigens possess determinant groups that are recognized by lymphocyte antigen specific receptors
Superantigens
antigens that provide a very intense immune response; bacterial proteins, nonspecifically stimulate the proliferation of immune cells called T cells, WC that act against foreign organisms and tissue transplants and regulate activation and proliferation of other cells of the immune system, in response to superantigens, T cells release cytokines lots of cytokines lead to a number of symptoms like fever, nausea, vomitting, diarrhea, shock, death
foreign molecules
antigens that stimulate a specific immune response
antibodies the host forms against toxins
antitoxins
natural killer cells
are a type of lymphocyte with many similarities to T cells but the big difference is that they are not antigen specific
when know or suspected adverse reactions have been detected in vaccines
are altered to improve or withdrawn from the market
zoonoses
are diseases transmitted from animals to humans
APCs in the lymphatic tissue
are found in large numbers
Antigen recognition for T cells
are made solely as membrane-bound proteins and only function to signal T cells for activation.
Epitopes or antigenic determinants
are parts of an antigen recognized by an antibody.
molecules less than 1,000 mw
are seldom good antigens so a substance must be large enough to initatie an immune response
pamps as contrasted to antigens
are shared by many types of microbes stimulate nonspecific immunity
Antigen recognition for B cells
are the immunoglobulins on the B-cell surface
mechanical transmission
arthripod carries pathogen on its feet
disease without symptoms
asymptomatic
true
at the beginning of an immune response most antibodies produced are IGM but as the response progresses you see mainly IGG antibodies, being produced
A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered systemic anaphylactic. antibody mediated. delayed. atopic. T-cell mediated.
atopic
Immobilized enzymes
attached to a solid surface. Used in the starch processing industry.
cardiotoxins
attack heart cells
leukotoxins
attack leukocytes
bacterial cells & viruses that have lost the ability to make ligands- whether as the result of some genetic change or exposure to certain physical or chemical agents become harmless, or
avirulent
free of any microbes
axenic
13) Antimicrobial peptides called ________ are secreted in sweat and damage bacteria and fungi. A) antibodies B) dermcidins C) TLRs D) complement factors E) cytokines
b
16) The process of phagocytosis involve all of the following EXCEPT A) chemotaxis. B) secretion of cytotoxins. C) adhesion. D) elimination. E) vesicle fusion.
b
19) Which of the following cells is a component of the body's first line defense? A) monocyte B) goblet cell C) NK cell D) neutrophil E) microglial cells
b
38) Proteins on the surface of phagocytes called ________ aid in the detection of pathogen molecules. A) lectins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) lectins and C3 protein E) both TLRs and NOD proteins
b
39) A type of lymphocyte called a(n) ________ detects cells with abnormal surface proteins and kills them. A) eosinophil B) NK cell C) neutrophil D) basophil E) mast cell
b
44) First line of defense may be described as A) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
b
9) Which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism"? A) the presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through abrasions B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body C) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions D) the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens E) the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the surface
b
Transfusion involves the transfer of ________ from a donor to a different recipient.
blood
1. The bone marrow is where immune responses to antigen occur. blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes. antigen is filtered from the blood. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid. T lymphocytes complete maturation.
blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
antitoxins
body produces antibodies called antitoxins; that provide immunity to exotoxins; even when exotoxins are inactivated by heat, formaldehyde or iodine they don't cause disease, but they stimulate body to make antitoxins
period of concalescence
body returns to its prediseased state
Which type(s) of hypersensitivity is IgG involved with? immune complex mediated both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated both anaphylaxis and antibody mediated antibody mediated anaphylaxis
both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated
Urine and fecal specimens require sterile collection conditions. both sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media. incubation in selective media. both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media. incubation in differential media.
both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media
Mutualism
both organisms benefit
What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue? both skin graft and organ transplantation skin graft blood transfusion All of the choices are correct. organ transplantation
both skin graft and organ transplantation
Hydraluronidase
breaks down
42. Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for asthma. Chron's disease. breast cancer. respiratory syncytial virus. All of the choices are correct.
breast cancer
20) Which of the following leukocytes are called "agranulocytes" because of the absence of granules in their cytoplasm revealed by basic or acidic dyes? A) eosinophils B) basophils C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) both basophils and eosinophils
c
27) Alpha and beta interferons A) help protect virus-infected cells from the effects of the pathogen. B) protect the cells that secrete them from being invaded by a virus. C) are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages. D) produce active antiviral proteins (AVPs) that coat the surface of healthy cells and prevent the attachment of pathogenic viruses. E) produce no adverse effects in the body.
c
29) The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with ________ binding to the surface of a microbe. A) C1 B) factor B C) C3b D) C5a E) C5b
c
3) Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is A) the first line of defense. B) the second line of defense. C) the third line of defense. D) microbial antagonism. E) innate immunity.
c
41) Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called A) TLRs. B) NODs. C) PAMPs. D) leukotrienes. E) prostaglandins.
c
Example of non-communicable disease
cancer
infectious disease
caused by direct effect of a pathogen
iatrogenic infectious disease
caused by medical procedure but not necessarily in a hospital
vaccination
causes an immediate immune response upon entry of the pathogen in the body
Type II is causes by
cell bound antigens
noncytocidal effects
cell damage, but not death
symptoms
changes in body function that are felt by a patient as a result of disease
signs
changes in the body that can be measured or observed as a result of disease
35. An example of artificial active immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. None of the choices are correct.
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
disease that develops slowly and are continual or recurrent
chronic disease (hep C, TB, & Leprosy)
naive b cells
circulate through the blood home in on specific sites, ( lymph nodes)
IGA, IGE, IGD, IGG, IGM
classes of antibodies in humans
Class 2 genes (MHC)
code for immune regulatory receptors found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells; and are involved in presenting antigens to T cells during cooperative immune reactions (MHC-II on APCs)
Class I genes (MHC)
code for markers that appear on all nucleated cells, display unique characteristics of self, allow for recognition of immune reactions (MHC-I on self)
extracellular enzymes that breaks down collagen, the body's chief structural protein
collagenase
Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
collects and analyzes epidemiological information in the united states
clone
colony of cells derived from a single cell that share identical characteristics
A bacterium inhabits the human nasal cavity where it obtains nutrients from secretions. It neither harms nor benefits the host. The relationship is therefore a(n) ________ one. antagonistic commensal neutral mutualisitic parasitic
commensal
most of the resident microbiota are --------, they feed on excreted cellular wastes & dead cells without causing harm.
commensal
example of endemic disease
common cold
49. Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. are always genetically engineered. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. confer passive immunity. All of the choices are correct.
contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
The close contact between newborns and family members allows them to become ________ with microbes that become established as their microbiota. (Choose the most accurate term.) infected contaminated colonized infiltrated parasitized
contaminated
Two arm arrangement FC
crystallized fragment (constant) • Binds to receptors on cell membranes to assist immune cells
activate T cells produced a spectrum of ___which stimulate other cells
cytokines
CPE
cytopathic effects, or visible effects of viral infection;
CD8 coreceptor is expressed on
cytotoxic T cells
antigen activated T cells give rise to
cytotoxic T cells, T helper cells, T regulatory cells
29. The most significant cells in graft rejection are helper T cells. suppressor T cells. cytotoxic T cells. B cells. natural killer (NK) cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
invasion causes what along the way
damage
Type 4's host cell damage due to
damage by T cells
using the host's cell's nutrients, direct damage to the cell, toxins
damage to host cells
mortality
deaths from notifiable diseases
Glycohydrolases , nucleases , phospholipases and proteases all have this function theme in common
degrades
Type 1's host cell damage due to
degranulation (release of mediators)
MHC class II molecules are found on
dendritic cells, macrophages, b lymphocytes
Identification of the index case is an important part of which of the following types of epidemiology? experimental epidemiology descriptive epidemiology analytical epidemiology None of the listed responses is correct
descriptive epidemiology
involves the careful tabulation of data concerning a disease. Relevant info includes location & time of cases of diseases, collect patient information & try to identify the index case of the disease
descriptive epidemiology
Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing degranulation. tissue matching. sensitization. desensitization. None of the choices are correct.
desensitization
lysis
destruction of a cell by rupture of the plasma membrane, resulting in a loss of cytoplasm
GAMDE
different categories of immunoglobulins
where is resident microbiota found in the body?
digestive tract, upper respiratory tract, distal portion of urethra & vagina
period of illness
disease is most severe
iatrogenic disease
disease may be non- infectious ex: bad drug interaction
idiopathic disease
disease of unknown cause
contagious diseases
disease that are easily and rapidly spread from one host to another
sporadic disease
disease that occurs only occasionally
infectious disease
diseases caused by pathogens (or their products)
notifiable infectious diseases
diseases in which physicians are required to report occurrence
Inherited disease
diseases that have a genetic component ex: sickle cell anemia
5) Which of the following areas of the body have mucous membranes? A) mouth B) nasal cavity C) urinary system D) mouth and nasal cavity E) mouth, nasal cavity, and urinary system
e
6) Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of A) the lack of suitable environment in the body. B) the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment. C) the presence of phagocytes in the tissues. D) the salty, acidic condition of normal skin. E) both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.
e
According to the clonal selection theory
each B cell is already programmed to produce a specific antibody.
unique antigen
each individual mature B and T cell has the capacity to respond to a single unique antigen
contagious infectious disease
easily spread between hosts
principles of vaccine preparation include
effectiveness of vaccine against disease safety and cost of vaccine ease in administration of vaccine antigen selection for vaccine
a disease that normally occurs continually at a relatively stable incidence within a given population or geographical are------- to that population or region
endemic
If a disease occurs at a fairly stable rate, it is said to be endemic. epidemic. sporadic. pandemic.
endemic.
Treatment with high doses of antibiotics may lead to which type of health care associated infection? exogenous infection latent infection zoonosis endogenous infection iatrogenic disease
endogenous infection
interluekin 1
endogenous pyrogen, cytokines; carried via blood to hypothalamus, which controls temp; induce prostaglandins which reset thermostat in hypothalamus to higher temperature
Hyaluronidase
enzyme secreted by certain bacteria like streptococci; hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid (polysaccharide that holds together certain cells, like connective tissues) this digesting action is involved in the tissue blackening of infected wounds that help the microbes spread from its initial site of infection
whenever a disease occurs at a greater frequency than is usual for an area or population
epidemic
the study of where & when diseases occur & how they are transmitted within populations
epidemiology
14. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an epitope. hapten. antigen binding site. variable region. None of the choices are correct.
epitope
penetrating host's defenses
evade (overcome) the immune system of the host
true
even after approval vaccines are not without complications
membrane ruffling
ex. salmonella leads to dramatic changes in the membrane at point of contact disruption of the cytoskeleton of the host cell; microbe sinks into ruffle and is engulfed by cell Some bacteria can use the actin to propel themselves through the host cytoplasm and from one host cell to another
direct contact, indirect contact, droplet transmission
examples of contact transmission
human reservoir, animal reservoir
examples of living reservoirs
water, soil, food
examples of nonliving reservoirs
mechanical, biological
examples of vector transmission
water, food, air, blood
examples of vehicle transmission
coagulases
exoenzymes (ex. Staph. aureus) that coagulates blood, forms blood clots to isolate, wall itself off from host immune system - local infections
virulence factors of helminths
exoenzymes damage the host cells some helminths actively suppress the immune system some helminths interfere with host cell function
enzymes
exoenzymes, a major way pathogens evade the host's immune system *many damage host cells, tissues, and create the signs of a disease
Describe some common disease portals of entry.
eye-nose-mouth-vagina-urethra-anus-broken skin-insect bite-needle--placenta
63. Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. True False
false
65. After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells. True False
false
68. The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies. True False
false
69. Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen. True False
false
Fluorescent dye can be used as a label to trace antibody-antigen reactions in an ELISA assay. True or False
false
It is necessary to do lab tests to diagnose all diseases. True or False
false
T cell receptors are identical to antibodies.
false
secondary response of specific immunity compared to the primary response
faster, more vigorous
John Snow
father of epidemiology, picture of Broad Street, cholera epidemic
The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother. maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother.
fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother
Ag-Ab binding may result in all of the following EXCEPT
fever
lipid A can stimulate the body to release chemicals that cause
fever, inflammation, diarrhea, hemorrhaging, shock, & blood coagulation
Major organisms used in industrial microbiology
fungi and Streptomyces
Enzymes are produced from
fungi and bacteria
microbes enter the human body most frequently through
gastrointestinal and respiratory mucosa
Effect on host-Endotoxin
general systemic symptoms of inflammation and fever
Alloantigen
genetically determined antigen present in some but not all individuals of a species
virulence factors of protozoa
giardia and others attach to host cells (no entry) causing inflammation malaria invades RBC and causes them to stick together and to the sides of blood vessels impeding blood flow capsules increase pathogenicity Trypanosoma uses antigenic variation to evade the immune response
33. An example of artificial passive immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. None of the choices are correct.
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
types of adhesins
glycocalyx fimbriae / Pili specific microbe proteins biofilms
Capsuls
glycocaylx material that forms capsuls around their cell walls; increases virulence; resists the host's defenses by impairing phagocytosis Chemical nature of capsul prevents the phagocytic cell from adhering to the bacterium; but human body can produce antibodies against capsuls that can easily destroy these bacteria ex. stretpococcus pnuemonia has a capsul that causes pneumonia ex. Bacillus anthracis
How can viruses gain access to cells?
have attachment sites for receptors on their target cells; such an attachment site is brought together with a receptor , the birus can bind to and penetrate the cell; others gain access because their attachment sites mimic substances useful to those cells, ex. rabies virus enters the host cell along with neurotransmitter ex. AIDS: hiding attachment sites form immune response by attacking componenets of immune system directly; cell-specific (CD4 protein)
latent disease
have periods of acute disease alternating with period of no symptoms because the pathogen goes dormant. An example is herpesvirus
The surface receptors on B and T cells both
have variable and constant regions.
Select all of the conditions that result from IgE- and mast-cell-mediated allergic reactions.
hay fever, allergic asthma, food allergy reactions, drug allergy reactions
Disease
health disturbance wherein the body cannot carry out its normal functions "Dis-ease"microorganisms are present
M protein
heat and acid resistant protein; helps prevent phagocytosis
Heat stability of endotoxin
heat stable
Distilled alcoholic beverages are made by
heating previously fermented liquid to a temperature that volatilizes most of the alcohol. Whiskey, rum, brandy, vodka, gin
An IgG molecule has two
heavy chains, light chains AND antigen binding sites.
Enzymes
help contribue to virulence by producing exoenzymes that have functions like digesting blood clots, or forming them
after antigen stimulation, T cell function
helping other immune cells synthesizing cytokines killing abnormal cells
nosocomial infections
hospital acquired infections
pathogenesis
how a disease develops in a population
weeks, years, months
how long can a secondary immune response can occur after exposure to antigen
Portal of entry
how pathogens gain entrance to the human body and other hosts Mucous membranes, skin, direct deposition beneath skin or membranes
classifying infectious diseases
how they spread from one host to another, frequency of occurrence, severity & duration, extent of host involvement, state of host resistance
bone marrow
humans do not have a bursa so b cells maturation occurs here
extracellular enzymes that digests hyaluronic acid, the "glue" that holds animal cells together
hyaluronidase
extracellular enzymes that degrade specific molecules to enable bacteria to invade deeper tissues
hyaluronidase & collagenase
virulence factor of extracellular enzymes
hyaluronidase & collagenase digest structural materials in the body. Coagulase in effect"camouflages" bacteria inside a blood clot, whereas kinases digest clots to release bacteria
Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a(n) hypersensitivity. transfusion reaction. immunodeficiency. autoimmune disease. desensitization.
hypersensitivity
What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B-cell survival and maturity? formation of autoantibodies hypogammaglobulinemia graft versus host disease None of the choices is correct. host rejection of graft
hypogammaglobulinemia
The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is hemopathology. histopathology. humoralpathology. immunopathology. epidemiology.
immunopathology
The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is immunopathology. hemopathology. histopathology. humoralpathology. epidemiology.
immunopathology
vaccination results
in a variable degree and length of protection
horse
in the past, antibodies for passive immunization were often developed in and isolated form horse blood serum but this had the potential of eliciting hypersensitive responses
after antigen stimulation, B cells produce antibodies to ____ antigen
inactivate, target, neutralize
toxoids
inactivated (by heat or chemicals) toxins that no longer cause a disease but still can create immunity
the # of new cases of a disease in a given area or population during a given period of time
incidence
the 2 measures that epidemiologists keep track of occurrence of diseases
incidence & prevalence
periods of disease
incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, convalescence
An epidemiologist collects drinking glasses, tissues, and bed sheets from the apartment of an individual infected with a particular disease. Which of the following modes of transmission is being investigated for this disease? vehicle transmission direct contact transmission indirect contact transmission vector transmission
indirect contact transmission
Allergens that enter by the mouth
ingestant
Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? inhalant None of the choices is correct. injectant contactant ingestant
inhalant
Allergens such as drugs or venoms that pierce the skin
injectant
Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? injectant contactant inhalant None of the choices is correct. ingestant
injectant
First human protein made commercially by genetic engineering
insulin
subacute disease
intermediate between acute and chronic
incubation period
interval between initial infection and first signs and symptoms
majority of vaccines are administered by
intradermal injection, intramuscular injection, subcutaneous, injection
immune serum globulin ( ISG ) is injected to minimize adverse reactions
intramusculalry
infection
invasion or colonization of the body by pathogens
Type II
involve IgG and IgM, blood group incompatibility
antigen presenting cell
is a cell that ingest and degrades an antigen and subsequently places the antigenic determinant molecules on its surface for recognition by CD4 T lymphocytes
26. All of the following are characteristics of IgM except it has 10 antigen binding sites. it contains a central J chain. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. it can fix complement. it is a dimer.
it is a dimer.
39. All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response. a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response. a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced. it is also known as the anamnestic response.
it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
60. All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except it should have a relatively long shelf life. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response. it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen. it should not require numerous boosters. it should be easy to administer.
it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.
extracellular enzyme that digest blood clots, allowing subsequent invasion of damaged tissues
kinases (staphylokinase & streptokinase)
B Cell Receptor: Immunoglobulins (igs)
large glycoprotein molecules that serve as the antigen receptors of B cells and as antibodies when secreted
13. Properties of effective antigens include all the following except foreign to the immune system. molecular complexity. large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000. large polymers made up of repeating subunits. cells or large, complex molecules.
large polymers made up of repeating subunits.
antibody
large protein molecule produced by plasma cells that interacts specifically with an antigen
diseases in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active
latent diseases (Herpes)
Bacterial proteases are used in
laundry detergents (can also contain amylases, lipases, and reductases). Isolated from alkaliphilic bacteria
In an asymptomatic individual, which of the following might still be detectable? lethargy leukopenia nausea itching
leukopenia
LAL
limulus amoebocyte lysate assay, detecs evne a small amount of endotoxins
the lipid portion of Gram-negative outer wall membrane
lipid A
composition of endotoxin
lipid A component of LPS
11) Eosinophils respond to (complement/lipopolysaccharide/histamines) and kill bacteria in a nonphagocytic process.
lipopolysaccharide
independent antigens
lipopolysaccharides from bacterial cell wall are one example of T cell
reservoirs of infection
living or non-living object that provides a pathogen with adequate conditions for survival and multiplication and an opportunity for transmission
most common complications associated with vaccines
local reactions to the injection site, allergies, fever
LD50 of exotoxin
low but more toxin
what part of body is axenic?
lungs
1) White blood cells known as (basophils/lymphocytes/neutrophils) are the main cells involved in the third line of defense.
lymphocytes
epitopes
lymphocytes recognize and respond to specific portions of antigen molecules
Type 2's host cell damage due to
lysed cells
3) Sweat glands produce (lysozyme/dermcidin/acid), which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by cleaving the bonds between the sugar subunits.
lysozyme
Class II MHC molecules are found primarily on
macrophages AND dendritic cells.
Antigens may be processed for presentation by
macrophages, B cells, AND dendritic cells.
Antigens may be processed for presentation by
macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells
herd immunity
maintained through immunization is an important force in preventing epidemics
Mucous membranes
many bacteria gain entrance through respiratory tract, intenstinal tract, conjuctiva etc; respiratory tract is the easiest and most frequently traveled; inhaled in teh nose and mouth in drops of moisture and dust particules ex. common cold, pnuemonia, tb Genitourinary tract is a portal of entry that are contracted sexually, STD;s: some penetrate an unbroken mucous membrane, others require a cut or abrasion Gastrointestinal tract: via contaminated fingers touching food and water; most are destroyed by HCl and enzymes in the stomach or by bile and enzymes in small intestines; those that survive cause disease; hep. A, typhoid fever, cholera, and are eliminated by feces which can contaminate more water etc
8. Class I MHC genes code for certain secreted complement components. markers that display unique characteristics of self. all HLA antigens. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. All of the choices are correct.
markers that display unique characteristics of self.
cytokines
mast cells and basophils have receptors that bind to the FC fragment of IGE and, upon allergen binding by the surface bound IGE, the cell release___that increase the allergic response
can be transmitted in dried airborne droplets
measles virus & TB
signs of disease
measurable or observable
Transgenic plants can also be employed to produce human proteins for _________
medical use. Examples: interferon, antibodies, vaccines
source of exotoxin
mostly gram positive
Natural passive immunity
mother's IgG crosses placenta in utero; IgA present in colostrum
How do microbes cause disease?
must gain access to host, adhere to host tissues, and penetrate or evade host defenses, and cause damage Most don't do it directly, but their waste causes disease Some don't enter body, like acne
In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction?
mutualism
A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as mutualism. parasitism. both commensalism and parasitism. a nonsymbiotic relationship. commensalism.
mutualism.
an example of etiology
mycobacterium tuberculosis
waxy lipid
mycolic acid in cell wall (MTB), resisting digestion and can multiply inside phagocytes
30. Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? helper T cells suppressor T cells cytotoxic T cells delayed hypersensitivity T cells natural killer (NK) cells
natural killer (NK) cells
Microbes are obtained from
nature in pure culture
Vomiting is a common sign of food poisoning. The corresponding symptom would be pain. cramps. diarrhea. fever. nausea.
nausea.
Production of penicillin only begins after
near-exhaustion of carbon source.
disease that arise outside hosts or from normal microbiota, they do not spread from one host to another
noncommunicable diseases (tooth decay, acne, & tetanus)
microorganism are (blank) found throughout the entire human body but are (blank) in certain regions
not and localized
prevalence
number of people who develop a disease at a specified time regardless of when it first appeared
incidence
number of people who develop a disease during a particular time period of new cases
cells and complex molecules usually have
numerous antigenic epitopes
Fermentors are made of
oak, cement, glass-lined steel, or stone.
natural passive immunity
occurs for the fetus because maternal IGG antibodies can cross the placenta to protect the baby
specific immunity
occurs only after an immunizing event is adaptive
active immunity
occurs when an individual is stimulated by an antigen that activates the T and B cell response
disease (true disease)
occurs when an infection leads to one or more abnormal body functions
constant region
of an antibody has an amino acid content that does not vary greatly
microbial adhesins
often bind host cell receptors to begin the colonization process
commensalism
one organism benefits and the other is unaffected
secondary infection
opportunistic infection after a primary (predisposing) infection
What is a pathogen?
organism that can cause disease inside another organism
preferred portal of entry
organisms that enter do not necessarily cause disease; occurrence of disease depends on several factors including portal of entry; ex. s. typhi only causes problems when its swallowed, not when rubbed on skin
indirect contact transmission
pathogens are carried on a NON-LIVING INANIMATE OBJECT (fomite) between one person and another
local infection
pathogens are limited to a small area of the body
igm
pentamer and thus has 10 antigen binding sites
carriers
people who harbor pathogens but do not exhibit any symptoms or signs, yet can transmit the pathogen to others
cytotoxicity of CD8 T cells
perforins, granzymes
Deficiency of vitamin B12 results in
pernicious anemia. Cobalt is present in B12
Some pathogens cause disease by avoiding or surviving ___ by our immune cells
phagocytosis
example of a local infection
pimple, boil
Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test. cross reactions precipitation agglutination sensitivity specificity
precipitation
Protozoa
prescence of them and waste products ; some can evade host defenses adn cause disease for a very long time
Infestation
presence of large parasites like worms
toxemia
presence of toxins in the bloods 2 kinds: endotoxin and exotoxins
Helminths
presence produces disease symptoms in a host; use host tissues for their own growth, cellular damage causes symptoms
MHC II antigen molecules
presenting cells are involved in the activation of T helper cells through the displaying of immunogen fragments
the total # of cases, both new & already existing, in a given area or population during a given period of time (cumulative #)
prevalence
Changing/blocking a ligand or its receptor can ------- infection
prevent
regulatory T cell functions
prevent autoimmunity, control the inflammatory response, prevent the targeting of normal flora
Only antigen-presenting cells
produce MHC class II molecules.
Algae
produce neurotoxins like saxitoxin , shellfish poisoning
collagenase
produced by several clostridium, facilitates teh spread of gas gangrene; breaks down collagen (connective tissue)
Exotoxins
produced inside some bacteria as part of their growth and metabolism and are secreted by the bacterium into the surrounding medium or released by lysis Proteins, and many are enzymes that catalyze only certain biochemical reactions , even small amount are harmful because they can act over and over again can be gram + or gram - genes are carried on bacterial plasmids or phages, soluble in body fluids, easily diffuse work by destroying particular parts of the host's cells or by inhibiting certain metabolic functions; highly specific in heir effects diseases caused by bacteria that produce exotoxins are often caused by minute amounts of exotoxins, not by bacteria ; disease-specific
Transgenic animals are useful for
producing human proteins that require specific posttranslational modifications. Medical research, Improving livestock and other food animals for human consumption
antigenicity
property of behaving as an antigen
12) Macrophages release (bradykinin/histamine/prostaglandin) in response to microbes and thereby contribute to acute inflammation.
prostaglandin
Composition of exotoxin
protein
antigens are usually ___ or ___molecules
protein, polysaccharide
siderophores
proteins produced by bacteria that takes iron from the iron-carrying plasma protein (transferrin) or storage proteins (ferrins) *iron is needed for pathogens to reproduce
prophage
refers to the inactive viral DNA in the bacterial chromosome *the host bacterial cell can gain new genes by this
variable
regions found on both the heavy and light chains in an antibody molecule come together to form the antigen binding site
lysogeny
remain latent, host bacterial cell and its progeny may exhibit new properties encdoed by bacteriophage DNA; such a change in characteristic is called lysogenic conversion bacterial cell is immuned to infection by same type of phage
poor immunogens
repetitive polymers, small molecules, simple molecules
t lymphocytes
require antigen presented with MHC molecules
Who produces endotoxins?
salmonella typhi, proteus, etc
5) The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skin's surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to many bacteria is (sebum/sweat/serum).
sebum
Penicillin production is typical of a ________ metabolite
secondary
4. Plasma cells secrete antibodies. function in allergic reactions. directly destroy target cells. suppress immune reactions. activate B cells and other T cells.
secrete antibodies
Portal of exit
secretions, excretiongs, discharges, tissue that is shed; related to the part of the body that has been infected, depending on portal of exit, pathogens can spread to susceptible hosts coughing, sneezing, droplet form feces secretions from penis/vagina, etc skin, blood
septic shock
sepsis with uncontrolled low blood pressure
bloodstream invasion may lead to
septicemia , sepsis and septic shock
examples of latent disease
shingles, genital herpes, AIDS
septic shock
shock caused by bacteria
prodromal period
short period after incubation; early, mild symptoms
Which one of these bacterial proteins can take iron from human lactoferrin? 1. protease 2. siderophore 3. hyaluronidase 4. kinase
siderophore
period of decline
signs and symptoms subside
T cell independent antigens are usually
simple molecules carbohydrates made up of many repeating invariable units
portals of entry
skin, mucous membranes, parenteral route
plasmids
small circular DNA molecules that are not connected to the main bacterial chromosome *may carry the information that determines a microbe's pathogenicity *ex. tetanus neurotoxin, staphylococcal enterotoxin
Haptens
small foreign molecules that consist of only a determinant group • Too small to elicit immune response on their own • If linked to a larger carrier molecule, then the combination develops immunogenicity
cytokines
small protein molecules that regulate immune responses to mediate cell to cell communication
the following human cell types express MHC class proteins on their surface
smooth muscle cells, respiratory epithelium, white blood cells, stem cells
effect of host exotoxin
specific damage
46. High titers of specific antibodies are components of specific immune globulin (SIG). gamma globulin. immune serum globulin (ISG). attenuated vaccines. toxoids.
specific immune globulin (SIG).
Improving product quality is another target area of genetic engineering of plants. For example
spoilage delay
a disease is considered --------- when only a few scattered cases occur within an area or population
sporadic
Parasites that allow their hosts to survive are more likely to ------------.
spread
vector transimmison
spread of an agent by arthropods, especially fleas, ticks, and mosquitoes
contact transmission
spread of an agent of disease
focal infection
spread of localized pathogen or its toxin
communicable infectious disease
spreads between host
indirect contact
spreads to a host by a non living object called fomite
lysogenic cycle
stages in viral development that result in the incorporation of viral DNA into host DNA
subclinical infection
still exposes the body to antigens so that natural active immunity is produced
Poison.
substance that causes disturbance in an organism
• Antigen (Ag):
substance that provokes an immune response • Perceived as foreign
receptors on host cell
sugars, like mannose, different strains of the same species can vary in structure ; if adhesion, receptors etc can be interfered with, infection can be prevented
A person who attended a picnic early in the day develops a very high fever and is unresponsive by the evening. This person most likely has been exposed to a(n) superantigen. cytotoxin. enterotoxin. membrane disrupting toxin.
superantigen.
Gene therapy
tackles many human genetic diseases. Introduces a functional copy of a gene to treat a disease caused by a dysfunctional version of the gene.
cytotoxic T cells function
target cell lysis
genetic engineering
techniques are particularly effective in designing vaccines for obligate parasites that are difficult or expensive to culture
Environmental factors must be controlled and altered as needed. Including...
temperature, pH, cell mass, nutrients, and product concentration. Data on the process must be obtained in real time.
TPR
temperature, pulse, respiration
Serotyping of pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in Ouchterlony double diffusion. Western blot. immunelectrophoresis. the Quellung test. radioimmunoassay (RIA).
the Quellung test
pathogenicity
the ability of a disease-causing microorganism to overcome (evade) the host's defenses (immune system) AND cause disease
cytotoxicity
the ability of certain T cells to kill specific target cell such as an infected cell or cancer cell
Immunocompetence
the ability of the body to react to foreign substances • Development of B and T lymphocytes • The lymphocytes become specialized for reacting only to one specific antigen or immunology
immunocompetence -2
the ability of the body to recognize and react with multiple foreign substances
adherence
the ability of the microorganism to attach to a host cell
microbial antagonism (competitive exclusion)
the ability of the normal microbiota to prevent pathogens from establishing themselves
toxigenicity
the ability of the pathogen to produce toxins
agglutination
the aggregation by antibodies of suspended cells or similar-size particles into clumps that settle
adhensions/ligands
the attachment between pathogen and host is accompanied by these surface molecules that bind to specifically complementary surface receptors on the cells of certain host tissues
Staph. aureus, E. Coli, and P. aeuriginosa
the big three nosocomial infections in hospitals
etiology
the cause of disease
etiology
the cause of the disease
When memory cells encounter the same antigen that induced their development
the cells rapidly respond to initiate secondary immune repsonses
the effect of binding an antibodys FC fragment to an FC receptor on a cell depends on
the cells role
transformation
the changing of a normal cell into a cancerous cell; results in an abnormal, spindle-shaped cell that does not recognize contact inhibition
Recombinant bovine somatotropin (rBST) is commonly used in
the dairy industry; stimulates milk production in cows
vaccinations, like natural active immunity, vary
the degree and length of protection
virulence
the degree of pathogenicity (how easily the pathogen can overcome the host's immune system)
isotypes
the different structural and functional classed of anitbodies
plasma cells
the differentiated B cells that produce and secrete large amounts of antibodies
local infection
the disease-causing agent is contained in a relatively small area of the body
latent disease
the disease-causing agent is dormant (inactive) for years, then becomes active to produce the disease
Expected prevalence of a disease is the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time. the total number of cases of a disease over a period of time. the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations. the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances
the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations.
Virulence
the extent of pathogenicity
pathogenesis
the manner in which a disease develops
genetic expression
the shape and function of protein receptors found on host cell surfaces
Brewing
the term used to describe the manufacture of alcoholic beverages from malted grains
58. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except they require smaller doses. they require fewer boosters. they confer longer lasting protection. they can be transmitted to other people. they produce infection but not disease.
they can be transmitted to other people.
59. All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except they confer longer lasting protection. they produce infection but not disease. they can mutate back to a virulent strain. they require fewer boosters. they require smaller doses.
they can mutate back to a virulent strain.
opportunistic pathogens
those normal microbiota that NOW can, and will cause infection and disease
cytocidal effects
those that result in cell death
Autoimmune diseases
thought to be caused by the loss of immune tolerance to self
classes of mhc genes have been identified
three
Types of exotoxins
three groups: A-B toxins, membrane-disrupting toxins, and superantigens
T cells mature in the
thymus
T cells require antigens
to be processed and presented by APCs for activation
The best possible analogy available for the way in which variable (V), diversity (D), and joining (J) antibody gene segments get put together to create the diversity possible in hypervariable regions is
to think of the various segments as a bingo game—each segment is randomly selected, but you're going to need one of each (V, D, and J) to form a functional molecule. The "right" combination varies depending on which antigen is eventually going to be binding to the molecule (i.e., your bingo card would be the eventual antigen, and the random calling out of the number/letter combinations would be the forming of the VDJ hypervariable region).
sepsis
toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins, from a focus of infection
ergot
toxin is an alkloid that can cause hallucinations resembling those produced by LSD; constricts capillaries and cause gangreene in limbs
aflatoxin
toxin with carcinogenic properties in peanut butter
mycotoxins
toxins produced by fungi
cytotoxins
toxins that directly affect the cell membrane of infected cells - specific metabolic steps of cells (hemolysins [RBC], leukocidins [WBC])
neurotoxins
toxins that directly affect the central nervous system (botulism, tetanus)
enterotoxins
toxins that directly affect the gastrointestinal tract (cholera, staph food poisoning)
cardiotoxins
toxins that directly affect the heart (diptheria) - stops protein synthesis
hepatotoxins
toxins that directly affect the liver (mycotoxins, amonita - "death cap")
Genetic engineering can be used to develop
transgenic animals
Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens? treatment of a cancer patient with radiation growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the colon growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin
treatment of a cancer patient with radiation
62. Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them. True False
true
64. Activation of B cells occurs when antigen bonds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors. True False
true
66. A disadvantage of using a live microbe in a vaccine is it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain. True False
true
67. Autoantigens are types of antigens that cause damage to host tissue as a consequence of the immune response. True False
true
70. Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity. True False
true
The immunoglobulin monomer consists of
two heavy and two light chains.
Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category type I and type IV. type I, type II, and type III. type I, type II, type III, and type IV. type IV only. type I only.
type 1 only
SLE
type III hypersensitivity reaction -SLE is an autoimmune disease that targets the thyroid -Muscle weakness is SLE's principle symptom.
Naming exotoxins
type of host attacked; ex. neurotoxins (attack nerve cells); or by the disease they cause, ex. diptheria toxin causes diptheria others are named by the specific bacteria that causes them (botulinum toxin)
contact transmission, vehicle transmission, vector transmission
types of transmission
example of sporadic disease
typhoid fever
inflammatory response
upon phagocytosis of antigens, the phagocytic cell can induce in the surrounding tissues
Direct damage
use host cell for nutrients and produce waste products, as pathogens metabolize and multiply in cells, the cells usually rupture, and can spread to other tissues in even greater numbers ex. E. coli, Salmonella
Giant cells are
used to contain bacterial infections.
How bacterial pathogens damage host cells
using host's nutrients, produce toxins, direct damage
Artificial active immunity
vaccination; stimulates memory response
false
vaccines can contain only one antigen at a time
other signs of disease
vomiting and diarrhea
The scientist who received the first Nobel Prize in Medicine for his work on antibody therapy was
von Behring.
asymptomatic infection
when infection doesn't result in a perceived illness
portals of entry are
where pathogens can gain access into the body
Fermentor
where the microbiology process takes place. Any large-scale reaction is referred to as a fermentation. Most are aerobic processes. Fermentors vary in size from 5 to 500,000 liters. Aerobic and anaerobic fermentors. Large-scale fermentors are almost always stainless steel. Impellers and spargers supply oxygen.
pandemic disease
worldwide epidemic
pandemic disease
worldwide epidemic disease
Tissue is transferred between different individuals of the different species
xenograft
examples of zoonoses
yellow fever, anthrax, bubonic plaque, & rabies
Penicillins are
β-lactam antibiotics. Natural and biosynthetic penicillins . Semisynthetic penicillins: Broad spectrum of activity
Steps III & IV: B Cell Response
• Activation of B Lymphocytes: Clonal Expansion and Antibody Production
Principles of Vaccine Preparation
• Antigen selection • Effectiveness • Ease of administration • Safety •Cost
four major functions of immune system markers
• Attachment to nonself or foreign antigens • Binding to cell surface receptors that indicate self, such as MHC molecules • Receiving and transmitting chemical messages to coordinate the response • Aiding in cellular development
Specific Events in B Cell Maturation
• Bone marrow sites harbor stromal cells • Stromal cells nurture the lymphocyte stem cells and provide chemical signals that initiate B cell development • B cells circulate through the blood, homing to specific sites in lymph nodes, spleen, and GALT • Adhere to specific binding molecules where they come into contact with antigens
T cell response CD4
• CD4 receptors (on TH) recognize endocytosed peptides on MHC-II
Antibody Structure (General to PowerPoint)
-Antigen (Ag) binds to variable region (tip of FAb region) -Disulfide bonds -Complement binding (Fc Region/stem of antibody)
Lymphocytes (B-cells & T-cells) (Pic on PowerPoint)
-Both B & T cells form in Red Bone marrow. -Differentiation and Maturation occur in different sites. B Cells=Red bone marrow and T-cells=Thymus. -Addition of cell receptors. -Migration to specific compartments of lymphoid organs and circulatory system.
Lymphocytes of cellular Immunity
-CD4 Lymphs (T helper cells or Th) Bind to MHC II on APC -CD8 Lymphs (T cytotoxic cells or Tc, CTL cytotoxic T Lymph) Binds to MHC I on target cell
**(General to PowerPoint)**
-Class Specific -Refers to information provided by instructor on PowerPoint for exam.
Activities of specific immune responses
-Development and differentiation of the immune system -Lymphocytes and antigen processing -The cooperation between lymphocytes during antigen presentation -B lymphocytes and the production and actions of antibodies -T lymphocytes responses
Adaptive Immunity (General to PowerPoint)
-Enhances nonspecific defense mechanisms. (Phagocytosis,Inflammation) -Memory of first exposure to antigen -Begins at 6 mths of age -NOT born with
The part of an antigen that is recognized by the immune system, specifically by antibodies, B cells, or T cells. In other words, the _______ is the specific piece of the antigen to which an antibody binds.
-Epitope -Also known as "Antigenic Determinant"
Barely detectable in normal blood, tightly bound via the Fc region to basophils and mast cells. Tight binding allows them to detect and respond to antigens releases histamine, important in elimanting parasites - helminiths can also cause hypersensitivity and aniflactic shock
-IgE -Monomer -Allergic Reactions -Rarest antibody found in serum.
Immunoglobulin gene found primarily in the blood
-IgG -80% antibodies found in serum -Most common -Only antibody that crosses placenta -Only isotype found in in fetal circulation -Monomer (2 binding sites)
What are the 3 isotypes possible from TD B cells?
-IgG -IgA -IgE
Five classes of immunoglobulins
-IgG -IgA -IgM -IgD -IgE
Types of Antibody (General to PowerPoint)
-IgG: Monomer (cross placenta) -IgA: Dimer (Secretory) -IgM: Pentamer -IgD: Monomer -IgE: Monomer (Allergic Reactions) **Constant region is identical for each type. **Variable region is specific to antigen
Exists as a pentamer; first antibody made to new pathogen; used as a primary immune response
-IgM -Largest class -First to be produced during immune response -Pentamer (10 Binding Sites)
Antigens (Ag) (General to PowerPoint)
-Immunogens: Large Molecules -Antigenic determinant or epitope
Tetanus Toxoid
-Inject toxoid (inactive toxin) -Immunized against toxin -Antibodies neutralize toxin
Lymphocyte (General to PowerPoint)
-Key Cell (Specific immune response) -Found in Lymphoid tissues *Tonsils *Spleen *Peyer's Patches (GALT) *Lymph nodes
Most vaccines are prepared from
-Killed whle cells or inactivated viruses -Live, attenuated cells or viruses -Antigenic molecules derived from bacterial cells or viruses -Genetically engineered microbes or microbial agents
Opsonization (General to PowerPoint)
-Stimulates phagocytosis by attaching ab or C3b. -Opsonized bacteria engulfed more readily
A vaccine preparation that contains only antigenic fragments such as surface receptors from the microbe. Usually in reference to virus vaccines.
-Subunit Vaccine -Make Ag with recombinant protein
What are the two paths of activation for B Cells?
-Thymus Independent (TI) -Thymus Dependent (TD)
Major functions of receptors are
-To perceive and attach to nonself or foreign molecules -To promote the recognition of self molecules -To receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system -To aid in cellular development
A toxin that has been rendered nontoxic but is still capable of eliciting the formation of protective antitoxin antibodies: used in vaccines.
-Toxoid
normal microbiota protect the host by:
-competing for nutrients -producing substances harmful to invading microbes -affecting pH and available oxygen
Less than 1% of all serum, involved in development and maturation of antibody response, functions not clearly defined
-igD -Monomer
exotoxins
-produced by mostly Gram positive bacteria as a metabolic product of a living cell -most are enzymes, all are proteins -very specific, lethal in very small amounts -creates effective antitoxins -form useful toxoids -easily destroyed by heat -genes are plasmids, or introduced by bacteriophages -there are specific ones
Where is normal microbiota found?
-skin -eyes -upper respiratory system -mouth -large intestines -urinary and reproductive systems
Characteristics of immunity
-specificity -memory
endotoxins
-structurally part of outer cell wall of ONLY Gram negative bacteria -only released when cell dies and falls apart -chemically a lipopolysaccharide (LPS) -cause all the same, general symptoms and signs (fever, muscle aches, chills, vomiting, diarrhea, septic shock) -much larger lethal dose -do not form antitoxins -don't make good toxoids -much more resistant to heat -genes on chromosomes
facts about nosocomial infections
-these infections are not evident or incubated at the time of admission to the hospital -due to some invasive procedure that bypasses skin, mucous membranes -or an exposure to a host with a weakened immune system due to opportunistic pathogens -source: doctors, nurses, healthcare workers -transmitted by either direct or indirect contact transmission by fomite -8th leading cause of death in USA
types of exotoxins
1. A-B toxins 2. Plasma membrane disrupting toxins 3. Super antigens
Be able to put Koch's Postulates in the correct order.
1. Specific causative agent must be observed in all sick organisms. 2. The agent must be isolated and grown in pure culture outside of the organism. 3. A healthy, susceptible hosts must get the same disease when inoculated. 4. The agent must be re-isolated and show to be the same causative agent.
Infectious Disease
1.Communicalbe--malaria-TB 2.Noncommunicable--food poisoning--can't transmit ***Note: If a disease is infectious, it does not have to be communicable.
Noninfectious Disease
1.Genetic--cancer---sickle cell 2.Environmental--poison exposure
Describe each of the ten classifications of diseases and name an example of each.
1.Inherited disease--sickle cell 2.Congenital Disease---Comes from the mother--present at birth---HIV-Syphillis 3.Degenerative Diseases-aging--Parkinsons 4.Nutritional Deficiencies---Scurvey 5.Endocrine Diseases---Diabetes-Thyroidism 6.Mental Disease---nervous system---alzheimers---autism 7.Immunological Diseases--autoimmune--Rheumetoid Arthritis---HIV 8.Neoplastic Diseases--Tumors-begnign and malignant 9.Latrogenic Diseases--from medical mistakes--wrong prescription-nosocomial infections 10.Idiopathic---unknown cause---autism
What are the three different types of infectious diseases that describe the spread of a disease throughout the body?
1.Local Infection 2.Focal Infection 3,Systemic Infection
Describe and name examples of each.
1.Local Infection---Bladder infection ---confined to the bladder 2.Focal Infection---A specific region---little more outreach or toxins produced--sinus infection 3.Systemic Infection--Malaria---Whole system--Yellow fever
keratin
10-Skin is protected by an insoluble protein __________.
There were 100 new cases of syphilis last year in a given population of 100,000 people. At that time, 500 people in this population already had syphilis. The incidence of syphilis in this population is __________. 100 per 100,000 500 per 100,000 1,000 per 100,000 5,000 per 100,000
100 per 100,000
mucous
11- Moist __________ membranes line the eye and the respiratory, digestive and urinary tracts.
sweat glands
12- The flushing action of the __________ helps remove microbes from the skin. sweat glands sebaceous gland ciliary escalator
Wine fermentation occurs in fermentors ranging in size from
200 to 200,000 liters
skin
21-The _________ is a host barrier that has an acidic pH and secretes a variety of antimicrobial compounds.
stomach
22-Hydrochloric acid present in a human host's __________ is inhibitory to many microbes.
Action of microbiota
23-How is an acidic pH maintained in the vagina? Excessive sebaceous glands Secretion of hydrochloric acid Action of microbiota
Surveillance for pathogens
26-Which is a function of white blood cells? Formation of clots during inflammation Surveillance for pathogens Oxygen transport to tissues
whole blood
27- The liquid connective tissue consisting of erythrocytes,leukocytes, and platelets suspended in plasma is called _______________ . formed elements lymph fluid blood plasma whole blood
nonspecific
3-Inflammation is a ____________ second line defense mechanism that acts rapidly at the local and systemic.
granulocyte
30- A type of white blood cells with noticeable cytoplasmic granules is called a(n) __________ . granulocyte lymphocyte agranulocyte monocyte leukocyte
Neutrophils
32- ____________ are granulocytic leukocytes that have a multilobed nucleus and are the first phagocytes to respond in inflammation.
phagocytosis
33-What is the main role of neutrophils? phagocytosis histamine release responds to fungal infections antibody production
vomiting
36-Which is NOT a second line host defense mechanism? fever inflammation vomiting phagocytosis
monocytes
37-Circulating phagocytes that mature into macrophages are called: monocytes erythrocytes eosinophils lymphocytes
macrophage
38-A large, phagocytic white blood cell, derived from a monocyte, that leaves circulation and plays a role in specific immune reactions while residing in tissue is called a(n) __________ . mast cell macrophage eosinophil lymphocyte
tumor
45-With respect to inflammation, __________ is Latin for swelling, is caused by increased fluid into the tissues.
entry
5-Hair, cilia, and microvilli are portal of __________ barriers that protect against pathogens invading the body
during this time the patient recovers from the illness; tissues are repaired & returned to normal, length of time depends on amt of damage, nature of pathogen, site of infection, & overall health of patient
5. Convalescence
Both involve a leukocyte response
50- Which of the following is characteristic of both nonspecific and specific host defenses? Both depend on barrier protection Both activate T and B cells Both involve a leukocyte response
skin
51-Unbroken __________ is a formidable barrier to the entry of microbes and is classified as a component of the first line of defense
skin
52-Human __________ is an external, confluent protective barrier.
cutaneous
53- Skin glands and hair follicles are __________ , or skin, barriers.
Respiratory
54- Ciliated epithelium and nasal hair are first-line defense adaptation that guard which body tract? Urinary Digestive Reproductive Respiratory
mucus saliva
55-The flow of which of the following carry microbes away from the respiratory tract? urine tears mucus saliva
Resident biota
56- Which host defense competes with pathogens for space, nutrients, or by altering pH? Resident biota Antibody-producing cells Tissue macrophages
Lysozyme
57- ____________ is an enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva that breaks down bacterial peptidoglycan.
acidic
58- The vagina has a protective __________ pH that is maintained by the activity of normal microbes.
platelets red blood cells
59- Surveillance for pathogens is not carried out by which of the following components of the blood? white blood cells....platelets....red blood cells
Whole blood
60- ____________ is a liquid connective tissue consisting of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets suspended in plasma.
Leukocytes
61- ____________ are primary infection-fighting blood cells, also known as white blood cells.
phagolysosome
62- A(n)_____ forms from the union of a phagosome with a lysosome. phagolysosome...peroxisome lysophagosome...mitochondrion ribosome
Repair of damaged tissue Repair of damaged tissue Mobilization and attraction of immune components to the site of infection or trauma Destroy microbes and block their further invasion
63- Which of the following are main functions of the inflammatory response? Repair of damaged tissue Mobilization and attraction of immune components to the site of infection or trauma Stimulation of antiviral protein production in uninfected cells Destroy microbes and block their further invasion Polymerization of the components of membrane attack complexes
Vasodilation
66- ________ is a term for the widening of blood vessels that increase blood flow to an injured area.
pus
67- Opaque matter formed during inflammation that consists of serum exudate, tissue debris,leukocytes, and microorganism is called ______. pus edema plasma exudate
inflammation
68- Trauma, infection, or an immune response can trigger a nonspecific immune response called ______.
antimicrobial peptides
69- Short amino acid chains with the ability to kill microbes are called: glycoproteins antimicrobial peptides sensitizing agents antigenic determinants
1- Neutrophils 2-Lymphocytes 3- Monocytes 4-Eosinophils 5- Basophils " Never Let Monkey Eat Bananas"
70- List the predominance of circulating leukocytes from most to least.
Alternate Classical Lectin
72- Which of the following are complement pathways? Alternate Classical Inflammation Interferon Lectin
A bacterial product such as LPS A fungal toxin
73- Which of the following are exogenous pyrogens? A bacterial product such as LPS A fungal toxin A host cell substance such as TNF A host cell substance such as IL-1
holes
74- The membrane attack complex creates __________ in the membrane or viral envelopes of pathogen, resulting in their eventual lysis
fever
75- Which of the following is NOT a trigger for inflammation? infection trauma immune response fever
exudate edema
76- During inflammation, a protein-rich called __________ moves from the venules into the extracellular space, resulting in a swelling tissue called __________.
hypothalamus
77-Body temperature is regulated by the _______________ of the brain.
lymphatic
78- The _______ system is a system of vessels and organs that serve as sites for the development of the immune cells, immune surveillance, and immune reactions. respiratory nervous lymphatic endocrine digestive
decreased metabolism
79- Which of the following is NOT a benefit of fever in the host? immune system stimulation decreased metabolism increased hematopoiesis
first
8- Defecation and vomiting are considered to be components of the __________ line of defense.
1-yolk sac 2- liver and lymphatic organs 3- red bone marrow
80-Give the correct order of location for the events of hematopoiesis
A properly functioning immune system is responsible for A. All of the choices are correct B. Destruction of foreign material C. Recognition of foreign material D. Surveillance of the body
All of the choices are correct
Antigen presenting cells A. Hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface B. Include dendritic cells C. Engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic D. Include macrophages E. All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A. Function in recognition of self molecules B. Receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system C. Are the result of genetic expression D. All of the choices are correct E. Aid in cellular development
All of the choices are correct
Immunotherapy is the A. All of the choices are correct B. Conferring of passive immunity C. Use of immune serum globulin D. Use of antitoxins E. Administering of preformed antibodies
All of the choices are correct
Lymphocytes A. Develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity B. Have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens C. Gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self D. Possess MHC antigens for recognizing self E. All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Nonspecific chemical defenses include A. Skin's acidic pH and fatty acids B. All of the choices are correct C. Stomach hydrochloric acid D. Lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat E. Lysozyme
All of the choices are correct
. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions are the result of genetic expression. function in recognition of self molecules. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system. aid in cellular development. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
31. Monoclonal antibodies originate from a single B cell clone. have a single specificity for antigen. are secreted by hybridomas. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
45. Immunotherapy is the use of antitoxins. use of immune serum globulin. conferring of passive immunity. administering of preformed antibodies. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
55. The DTaP immunization contains diphtheria toxoid. is administered in childhood. contains tetanus toxoid. contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
9. Lymphocytes possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Order the following statements to reflect the sequence of events that occur upon secondary exposure to allergens. Allergen is encountered after previous sensitization event Degranulation and release of chemical mediators Allergen attaches to IgE on mast cells Symptoms appear in various organs Systemic distribution of mediators via bloodstream
Allergen is encountered after previous sensitization event Allergen attaches to IgE on mast cells Degranulation and release of chemical mediators Systemic distribution of mediators via bloodstream Symptoms appear in various organs
Choose the phrase that does not describe the anaphylactic response to test your understanding of systemic anaphylaxis. Sudden respiratory and circulatory disruption that can be fatal in mere minutes Allergen route of entry is always due to inhalation Associated with greatly amplified concentration of chemical mediators Allergens do not act directly on the target organ All statements correctly describe the anaphylactic response.
Allergen route of entry is always due to inhalation
43. Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this? Natural active immunity Artificial passive immunity Natural passive immunity Artificial active immunity None of the choices will protect him
Artificial active immunity
To reduce the virulence of a pathogenic bacterium or virus by passing it through a nonnative host or by long-term subculture.
Attenuated Vaccine
How does transposal of virulence through animal passage produce attenuation (in regards to humans)?
Attenuation (weakening) transposal of virulence----make it weaker. This is how rabies was developed. Infect the worst virus for human--the virus will be weakened due to different environment--passes through animals to weaken.
46. Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive? A. Natural active immunity B. Artificial passive immunity C. Natural passive immunity D. Artificial active immunity E. None of the choices will help him.
B
Summarize the maturation process of B cells and T cells including their location in the human body
B cells mature in the bone marrow. T cells mature In the thymus B cells are located in the bone marrow T cells are located in the Thymus
Second stage of lymphocyte development
B cells stay in the marrow while T cells migrate to the thymus
_____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. A. Monocytes, Basophils B. B cells, neutrophils C. T cells, B cells D. B cells, T cells E. Basophils, T cells
B cells, T cells
Which domain of the A-B toxin binds to cell surface receptors on the host cell? A domain Both the A and B domains have the ability to bind to cell surface receptors. B domain A-B toxins do not bind to cell surfaces.
B domain
The Fc fragment binds to
Cells such as macrophages, neurtrophils, and mast cells
The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called A. Diapedesis B. Pus C. Edema D. Vasoactivity E. Chemotaxis
Edema
The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an A. Antigen binding site B. Variable region C. Hapten D. None of the choices are correct E. Epitope
Epitope
Describe the mechanisms of action of hyaluronidase, and how they help in invasion.
Exoenzyme--Breaks down junctions of epithelial cells. It allows the microbe to squeeze in-between junction cells and invade deeper tissues.
What are the two type of bacterial virulence factors that help with invasion?
Exoenzymes Toxins
Passive Immunity
Exposed to Antibodies from another individual or animal • No memory cells • No antibody production • Short-term protection
6) Innate immunity is not effective against fungus infections.
FALSE
A common cold is an example of a chronic disease. True False
False
All antigens are immunogens. T/F
False
All infections go through the stages known as incubation period, prodromal period, and illness. True False
False
If bacteria attach to host tissue, they will cause disease. T/F
False
Koch's postulates can be applied to every infectious disease to identify its causative pathogen. True False
False
T cell receptors are identical to antibodies. T/F
False
T cells are responsible for directly manufacturing antibodies. T/F
False
Select the theory of autoimmunity that suggests that autoreactive B and T cells are left behind due to a failure in the process of tolerance.
Forbidden clone theory
Describe how eukaryotic pathogens like fungi, protozoa, and helminths cause disease.
Fungi damage host tissue by releasing enzymes that attack cells Protozoans like those that cause malaria reproduce in red blood cells Helminths are extracellular Destroy tissue/obstruction Release toxic waste Nutritional deprivation Cause allergic reactions in host
An example of artificial passive immunity would be A. Chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity B. A fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta C. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox E. None of the choices are correct
Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
zoonotic pathogens
Humans are usually dead-end host are difficult to eradicate are transferred to humans from animals (direct contact or vectors)
Select the statements that most accurately reflect immune dysfunction. Cancer can be both a cause and an effect of immune dysfunction. Hyposensitivity diseases include autoimmune disorders. AIDS is a hypersensitivity disease. Hypersensitivity diseases can be due to normal immune reactions targeting healthy bystander tissue. Allergies are due to overreactivity of the immune system.
Hyposensitivity diseases include autoimmune disorders. Hypersensitivity diseases can be due to normal immune reactions targeting healthy bystander tissue. Allergies are due to overreactivity of the immune system.
The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum and other body secretions is A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgD E. IgA
IgA
Which of the following class of antibody is primarily found in external secretions?
IgA
All of the following are involved in type 2 hypersensitivity except IgE. foreign cells. complement. IgM. IgG.
IgE
Made by the eosinophil but it attaches to the mast cell; the mast cell releases histamine and causes an allergic reaction
IgE
The immunoglobulin that is important in hypersensitivity reactions is ______.
IgE
What are the 5 types of antibodies?
IgE, IgG, IgD, IgA, IgM
28. When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly IgM. IgA. IgD. IgE. IgG.
IgG
The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. IgM
IgG
The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is ______.
IgG
_____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum. A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD
IgG
_____ and ____ play a role in the complement-assisted destruction of cells in Type II reactions.
IgG, IgM
38. In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is IgD. IgE. IgG. IgM. IgA.
IgG.
Which is the most efficient at initiating the classical pathway of the complement cascade?
IgM
Which of the following antibodies is a pentamer?
IgM
The immunoglobulins found on the surface of B cells is/are A. IgD and IgE B. IgM only C. IgD only D. IgG only E. IgM and IgD
IgM and IgD
Type III
Immune complex mediated, IgG complexes in basement membranes, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness
Herd immunity
Immune individuals will not harbor it, reducing the occurence of pathogens and protecting the minority of people who are not vaccinated
Fc interacts with...
Immune system
Primary Infection
Initial 1st infection---Flu
Genetically engineered vaccines
Insert genes for pathogen's antigen into plasmid vector and clone them in an appropriate host
natural immunity
Involves natural biological processes (birth)
18. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? It determines the antibody's distribution in the body. It forms the antigen binding sites. It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells. It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.
It forms the antigen binding sites.
A new drug blocks the adhesins on the surface of a bacterial pathogen. What would likely be the major effect of this drug? It will kill the pathogen. It will prevent formation of the glycocalyx in this pathogen. It will inhibit the growth and reproduction of this pathogen. It will prevent infection by this pathogen.
It will prevent infection by this pathogen
IgD
Monomer; serves as a receptor for antigen on B cells
Biosynthesis of tetracycline has a large number of enzymatic steps
More than 72 intermediates. More than 300 genes involved!. Complex biosynthetic regulation
One of the outcomes of antibody-antigen binding - bind to specific molecules before they can damage the cell, coated with antibodies cannot attach and is refers to as _________
Neutralization
1. Drinking Water 2. Utensils 3. Bedding & Clothing
Which items can be sanitized by boiling water prior to safe, acceptable use in humans?
High Level
Which level of chemical decontamination by a germicide can result in sterilization?
1. -static 2. -stasis
Which root(s) indicates the ability to prevent the growth of microorganisms?
Bactericidal
Which type of agent will kill bacteria?
Death
__ involves the permanent termination of a particular organism's vital processes, and special qualifications are often needed to define and delineate this phenomenon in microbes.
Asepsis
__ is a term referring to a procedure or process designed to prevent entry of infectious agents into sterile tissues.
Sepsis
__ is defined as growth of microorganisms in the blood or other tissues.
Radiation
__ is electromagnetic waves or rays, such as those of light given off from an energy source.
Dessication
__ is the dehydration of microorganisms in order to inhibit or preserve them.
Heat
__ is the most common physical agent used to control microbes.
Degermation
__ is the physical removal of surface oils, debris, and soil from skin to reduce the microbial load.
Iodine
__ may kill all classes of microbes if used appropriately.
22) The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as A) responders to invasion. B) passive barriers. C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense. D) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens. E) both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features.
a
35) Which of the following acts as a chemotactic factor? A) C5a B) interferon β C) leukotriene D) MAC E) factor P
a
noncommunicable disease
a disease that cannot be spread from one host to another (ex. tetanus)
chronic disease
a disease that develops slowly, starts with mild symptoms, but over time, the symptoms and signs worsen - long term
epidemic disease
a disease that many people, in a short time, in a given area, contact
sporadic disease
a disease that occurs only rarely, usually as an isolated incident
34. An example of natural passive immunity would be chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. None of the choices are correct.
a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
inclusion bodies
a granule or viral particle in the cytoplasm or nucleus of some infected cells; important in the identification of viruses that cause infection; these granules are sometimes viral parts
syndrome
a group of specific signs and symptoms characteristic of a specific disease state , the causative pathogen may be unknown
self antigens
a healthy human immune system does not react to
Antibody testing requires either a known antigen or a known antibody. a known antigen. both a known antigen and a known antibody. a known antibody.
a known antigen
A person licks a needle before injecting a drug into a vein. The person later develops a bacterial infection of the blood. This is an example of immune suppression leading to disease. microbial antagonism. a disruption of the normal microbial population of the blood. microbial synergism. a member of the microbiota gaining access to an unusual location in the body
a member of the microbiota gaining access to an unusual location in the body
antigen, immunogen
a molecule that simulates a specific response by T and B cells
syncytium
a multinucleated giant cell resulting from certain viral infections; produced from infections by viruses that cause measles, mumps, the common cold
Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle. cells in thyroid follicles. acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle. myelin sheath cells of the nervous system. sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane.
acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle
nosocomial infectious disease
acquired within a hospital
. Helper T cells secrete antibodies. function in allergic reactions. directly destroy target cells. suppress immune reactions. activate B cells and other T cells
activate B cells and other T cells
Helper T cells
activate microphages and cytotoxic T cells, as well as assist B-cell process
interleukins
activated T cells produce a spectrum of this which stimulate other cells
one problem with therapeutic antiserum and antitoxins from horses is that horse antigens can stimulate
allergies
Tissue is transferred between different individuals of the same species
allograft
6) The normal microbiota interact with potential pathogens in a variety of ways to protect the body, creating a situation known as microbial (antagonism/competition/resistance).
antagonism
benefits of passive antibodies
antibodies can protect when no medication or vaccine exist antibodies are available to act immediately
antitoxins
antibodies made by the host's immune system (B cells) that neutralize specific toxins (that act as antigens)
General Y shaped protein structure of antibodies, 2 identical arms Fab region and stem Fc region, made of two copies of high MW polypeptide chain and a lower MW polypeptide chain,
antibody monomer
Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification? endospores antibody response Gram stain reaction morphology acid-fast reaction
antibody response
phagocytes, such as dendritic cells, process and display
antigen
processed by phagocytic cells
antigen
variable region
antigen binding fragment of an immunoglobulin molecule, consisting of a combination of heavy and light chains whose molecular conformation is specific for the antigen
T cell dependent antigens, which are usually protein based, require recognitions steps between the following cells and substances
antigen, lymphocytes, antigen presenting cells
communicable disease
any infectious disease that can be spread from one host to another
different host cell surface receptors can be involved in a wide range of significant roles such as
attachment to foreign antigens binding to self molecules aiding in cellular development receiving and transmitting chemical messages
entertoxins
attack lining of gastrointestinal tract
hepatotoxins
attack liver cells
cytotoxins
attack wide variety of cells
Autoimmunity is typically due to autoantibodies and T cells. a deficiency in T-cell development. transfusion reaction. IgE and mast cells. graft rejection.
autoantibodies and t cells
Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) allograft. hypograft. xenograft. isograft. autograft.
autograft
Tissue transplanted from one organ of the body to another site of the body
autograft
example of focal infection
bacteria from teeth and travel to the heart
An antihistamine will bind to histamine receptors on target organs. relieve inflammatory symptoms. inhibit the activity of lymphocytes. reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles. block synthesis of leukotrienes.
bind to histamine receptors on target organs
What causes the first signal in B cell activation?
binding of Ig to microbe
36) The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as A) the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries. B) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. C) the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) an increase in allergies and helminth infection.
c
40) Which of the following statements is true of eosinophils? A) They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. B) They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement. C) They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites. D) They decline during allergic reaction. E) They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.
c
45) Sebum contains ________ which contributes to creating an inhospitable environment on the surface of the body. A) lysozyme B) collagens C) acids D) salts E) bile
c
7) Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is false? A) It has sebum as a coating. B) It has normal microbiota. C) It has goblet cells. D) It is salty. E) It is acidic.
c
oncogenes
cancer-causing genes
development of disease stages are all:
capable of transmitting disease during all stages
toxigenicity
capacity of microbe to produce toxins toxins carried by blood or lymph can cause serious and sometimes fatal effects (fever, shock, diarrhea, inhibit protein synthesis, destroy RBCs, disrupt nervous system),
Pathogenicity
capacity to produce disease
factors of phagocytosis
capsules and proteases
virulence factors of fungi
capsules increase pathogenicity adhesins promote colonization mycotoxins are dangerous
constant regions of antibodies usually have varying amounts of _____attached
carbohydrates
latent disease
causative agent is inactive for a time but then activates and produces symptoms
membrane disrupting toxins
cause lysis of the host cells by disrupting their plasma membrane; some do this by forming protein channels in the plasma membrane or by disrupting the phospholipid portion of the membrane
receptors
cell surface molecules involved in recognition, binging, and intracellular signalling
Cytotoxic T cells primarily are responsible for
cell-mediated immunity
natural killer
cells are probably the first cells to attack cancer cells and virus infected cells since they can act quickly and are not antigen specific
a second type of symbiosis, one member of the relationship benefits without significantly affecting the other
commensalism (normal flora)
example of primary infection
common cold
when an infectious disease comes from another infected host, either directly or indirectly
communicable disease (Influenza, herpes, & TB)
Eukaryotic cytoplasm
complex internal structure, consiting of protein microfilaments, intermiediate filaments, and microtubules; and a major component is protein actin, which is used by microbes to penetrate host cells by others to move through and between host cells
M-protein
component of the cell walls (& fimbriae) of Strep. pyogenes functions (in part) for the attachment of a host cell
-emia
condition of blood
local infection
confined to a small area of the body
diseases that are present at birth, regardless of cause
congenital diseases
The characteristic function and properties of each class of antibody is determined by the
constant region on the heavy chains.
54. Antitoxins contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin. use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus
contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
Cell Wall Components
contain chemical substances that help virulence; ex. streptococcus pyrogenes produces heat resistant and acid-resistant protein called M protein; protein is found on both the cell surface and fimbriae; mediates attachment of bacterium to epithelial cells of host and helps bacterium resist phagocytosis
50. Toxoids contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. are always genetically engineered. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. confer passive immunity. All of the choices are correct.
contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
how to membrane disrupting cells lyse host cells
creating uncontrolled protein channels through the plasma membrane or disprupting the phospholipid bilayer
The primary advantage of genotypic methods of identification is they are less expensive than other methods. culturing of the organism is not required. they are widely available. they are easier than any other method. All of the choices are correct.
culturing of the organism is not required
An exotoxin that has the ability to kill or damage host cells is referred to as a(n) enterotoxin. cytotoxin. A-B toxin. superantigen. neurotoxin.
cytotoxin
kill host cells in general or effect their function
cytotoxins
the 3 types of exotoxins that are central to their pathogenicity in that they destroy host cells or interfere with host metabolism
cytotoxins , neurotoxins & enterotoxins
11) What antibacterial chemical is present in tear fluid? A) antibodies B) complement C) defensins D) lysozyme E) interferon
d
12) Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is CORRECT? A) They produce defensins. B) They secrete toxins onto virally infected cells. C) They are involved in the removal of neoplastic cells. D) They attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite. E) They identify and spare normal cells.
d
15) Cells of the second line of defense called ________ recognize and kill virus-infected cells. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) macrophages D) NK cells E) dendritic cells
d
17) Mannose sugar occurs on the surface of some bacteria and fungi and can trigger the A) release of cytotoxins by NK cells. B) release of histamines by basophils. C) classical pathway of complement activation. D) lectin pathway of complement activation. E) release of NETs by neutrophils.
d
2) The second line of defense against invading microbes includes A) the skin. B) mucous membranes. C) antibodies. D) phagocytic white blood cells. E) microbiota.
d
43) The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes A) release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) increase in allergies and helminth infection. C) respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement. D) are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virus-infected cells. E) are specialists in killing bacteria.
d
8) Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion? A) tears contain lysozyme and salt. B) a mucus layer traps and removes microbes. C) tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes. D) tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes. E) tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them.
d
41. The process of clonal deletion is designed to destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient. slow down the immune system in the elderly.
destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
not a function of regulatory T cells
destruction of virus infected cells
Membrane-disrupting toxins
disrupts lyse host cells
systemic infection
disseminate throughout the body
invasion
dissemination of the pathogen throughout local tissues or the body
The chains of an antibody molecule are bonded to one another by
disulfide bonds.
non-communicable infectious disease
do not spread between hosts
sugars
do not typically serve as good antigens
statements about vaccinesa
does carry some risk is less risky than the deadly disease they prevent
Fungi disease effects
don't have well-defined set of virulence factors; have metabolic products that are toxic to human hosts; indirect cause of the disease; can create an allergic response in the host
An individual with type O blood lacks A and B antigens on their RBC surfaces and is considered a universal _____, whereas a person with type AB blood lacks anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies and is considered a universal ______.
donor, recipient
53. Variolation involved using dried, ground smallpox scabs. a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus. preparations of human cowpox lesions. antibodies to the smallpox virus. None of the choices are correct.
dried, ground smallpox scabs.
T helper 2 cells functions
drive B cell proliferation, secrete cyokines
pathogens can be transmitted during exhaling, coghing, & sneezing
droplet transmission
haptens include
drugs, metals, ordinary chemicals
10) Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders? A) the mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes. B) the mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules. C) both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently. D) the mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals. E) the mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.
e
14) The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to A) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. B) triggering inflammation. C) triggering release of interferons. D) triggering inflammation and release of interferons. E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.
e
18) Which of the following are phagocytic cells descended from monocytes? A) alveolar macrophages B) dendritic cells C) microglial cells D) alveolar macrophages and dendritic cells E) alveolar macrophages and microglial cells
e
24) Which of the following are among the activities of neutrophils? A) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps B) release of histamines C) enzyme production that leads to the formation of nitric oxide D) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and release of histamines E) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and production of nitric oxide
e
25) Which of the following is an iron-binding protein produced by pathogens to access the body's store of iron? A) gastroferritin B) hemolysin C) ferritin D) transferrin E) siderophores
e
30) Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature A) inactivates interferons. B) increases vasodilation, contributing to inflammation. C) increases sweating and consequently the barrier effect. D) prevents viral infection of fibroblasts. E) increases the effectiveness of interferons.
e
31) Which of the following substances contributes to the edema associated with inflammation? A) leukotrienes B) histamine C) interferon D) defensin E) both leukotrienes and histamine
e
32) Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead and dying tissue cells, leukocytes, and pathogens? A) a boil B) an abscess C) a pimple D) a pustule E) a tumor
e
34) Which of the following are macrophage functions? A) phagocytosis of pathogens and debris B) release of alpha interferon C) production of NETs D) phagocytosis of pathogens and production of NETs E) phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes
e
granzymes
enzymes released by cyotoxic T cells that attack proteins in target cells during the process called apoptosis
Kinases
enzymes that break down fibrin and thus digest clots formed by the body to isolate the infection; ex. fibrinoylsin
Lymphocyte recognizes and responds to only a portion of the antigen molecule
epitope
acellular vaccines
epitope based vaccines
mycotoxin that played role in salem witch trials
ergot
symptoms of superantigens
fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, shock, and death
Which one of these substances should not be produced at the same time as coagulase? 1. fibrinolysin 2. fimbriae 3. capsules 4. hemolysin
fibrinolysin
Most antibiotics in clinical use are produced by
filamentous fungi or actinomycetes
14) Intact skin layers are part of the body's (first/second/third) line of defense against pathogens.
first
IGG
first antibody produced by the body following exposure
AB toxins
first toxins to be studied; and consist of two parts, A is the active enzyme part adn B is the binding component (polypeptides) often A alters the function of the host cell by inhibiting protein synthesis
Two children attend the same daycare, but one child is at the facility in the morning and the other child attends the facility in the afternoon. Both children become ill with fifth disease within one day of each other. How might the pathogen have infected both children? droplet transmission vertical transmission vector transmission direct contact transmission fomite transmission
fomite transmission
inanimate objects that are inadvertently used to transfer pathogens to new hosts (needles, toothbrushes, paper tissue, toys, money, diapers, drinking glasses, bedsheets, medical equipment & etc)
fomites
house flies & cockroaches can spread
foodborne diseases- Salmonella, Shigella, E. coli
an antigen must meet certain requirements in
foreignness,shape or complexity, accessibility, size
10. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except two identical heavy polypeptide chains. two identical light polypeptide chains. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains. four antigen binding sites. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.
four antigen binding sites.
disulfide bonds
four polypeptide chains that make up an antibody molecule
FC
fragment of the antibody molecule that is exposed or made more accessible to phagocytes when antibodies opsonize an antigen
active immunity
from a few months to a lifetime
aflatoxin
fungal toxin from molds on grains, peanuts, nuts, legumes, that can damage the liver and cause liver cancer; carcinogenic properties
adhensions on microbes
glycoproteins and lipoproteins
What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes? None of the choices is correct. graft versus host disease host rejection of graft formation of autoantibodies hypogammaglobulinemia
graft versus host disease
source of endotoxin
gram negative
Each of the following are appropriate specimens for bacterial culture except saliva. spinal fluid. throat. hair. skin.
hair
15. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed antigenic determinant. hapten. antigen binding site. variable region. None of the choices are correct.
hapten
example of opportunistic pathogen
harmless microbes can cause weakened or compromised infection (AIDS patients)
7) In a process called (cytokinesis/hematopoiesis/hematocrit), blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood.
hematopoiesis
__________ are bacterial enzymes that lyse erythrocytes.
hemolysins
streptolysins
hemolysins produced by streptococci; inactivated by O2, SLS is stable in O2 enviornment
Several areas are targeted for genetic improvements in plants including
herbicide, insect, and microbial disease resistance as well as improved product quality
Plants are engineered to have resistance to...
herbicides, to protect them from herbicides applied to kill weeds (e.g., glyphosate)
sclerotia
highly resistant portions of mycelia of the fungus that can detach
What chemical is the fastest-acting allergic mediator and a potent stimulator of smooth muscle?
histamine
The chemical mediators include ______, leukotrienes, bradykinin, and prostaglandins. They often have an immediate effect both locally and systemically, mediating constriction of bronchioles, vasodilation, and headache. In the case of a 'cytokine storm', the body's inability to cope with an extreme and rapid release of chemical mediators can result in ______ shock
histamine, anaphylactic
disease
homeostatic imbalance -state away from health
Many mammalian proteins are produced by genetic engineering which include
hormones and proteins for blood clotting and other blood processes
antibody class
iga 13%, igm 6%, igg 80%, igd 1%, ige.002%
antibodies capable of fixing complement
igm, igg
Type I, 2, 3 and 4 are all what
immune disorders
natural active
immunity can last from a few months to a lifetime
44. Edward Jenner's work involved inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity. development of passive immunotherapy. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one. All of the choices are correct.
immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
A term synonymous with antibody is
immunoglobulin
example of pathogenesis
infection occurs when inhalation of nuclei containing tubercle bacilli that reaches the alveoli of the lungs
contagious disease
infectious diseases that are easily spread, usually in the air, from host to host
leukocidins
membrane disrupting toxins that kill phagocytic leukocytes WBCs (act by forming protein channels), active against macrophages as well
hemolysins
membrane-disrupting toxins that destroy RBCs do some by forming protien channels
upon antigen stimulation of lymphocytes multiplication results in the formation of effector cells and ____ cells
memory
activated T cells can differentiate into
memory T cells, T helper cells
transmission
methods by which a pathogen goes from its source to a host
bioflims
microbes that come together in asses, cling to surfaces, and take in and share nutrients; masses o microbes and their extracellular products that can attach to living on nonliving surfaces ex. dental plaque involved in 65% of human bacterial infections
opportunistic pathogens
microbes that don't cause disease in their normal habitat in a healthy person but may do so in a different environment
normal microbiota
microbes that maintain permanent residence but do not produce disease under normal conditions
Vitamin B12 produced exclusively by
microorganisms
systemic (generalized) infection
microorganisms (or their products) are carried throughout the body by blood or lymph
Contamination
microorganisms are present
The Ti plasmid contains genes that
mobilize DNA for transfer to the plant
epitope
molecular fragment of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers an immune response
iga circulates in the blood
monomer form
heat stability of exotoxins
most are hear labile some are heat stable
The production of small metabolites by genetic engineering typically involves
multiple genes that must be coordinately expressed
Antigenic molecules
proteins and polypeptides, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, nucleoproteins,polysaccharides, lipopolysaccharides4 • Molecules of complex composition are more immunogenic than simple polymers • Small molecules do not "catch" attention • Large but repetitive molecules are less antigenic
perforins
proteins released by activated cytotoxic T-cells that punch hole in the membranes of target cells
A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the hypersensitivity dose. sensitizing dose. provocative dose. allergic dose. desensitizing dose.
provocative dose
On second exposure to the allergen, the ______ dose, the allergen binds to the variable region of the IgE antibodies attached to the granulocytes. This binding triggers a _______ reaction in the leukocytes; cytokines are released from the cells and diffuse into tissues and blood vessels.
provocative, degranulation
15) Some pathogens produce toxins which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to cause fever.
pyrogens
7. Class II MHC genes code for certain secreted complement components. self receptors recognized by natural killer cells. all HLA antigens. receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. All of the choices are correct.
receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
period of convalescence
recovery has occurred, body returns to its pre-diseased state
Shock
refers to any life-threatening decrease in blood pressure low blood pressure affects kidney's, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract, and can cause a weakening of the blood brain barrier
T-cells
require antigen to be present on MHC class molecules
some microbes have a
required portal of entry
direct contact
requires close association between infected and susceptible host
-------- microbiota remain a part of the normal microbiota of a person throughout life
resident
since secretory IGA is found on mucus membranes and secretions, it plays an important role in protecting the body from
respiratory, enteric, genitourinary pathogens
Infection
results when a pathogen colonizes the host
Epinephrine inhibits the activity of lymphocytes. is an antihistamine. reverses constriction of airways. causes desensitization. All of the choices are correct.
reverses constriction of airways
Which would be the most unlikely location to find adhesin molecules on a newly discovered bacterium? 1. glycocalyx 2. fimbriae 3. capsule 4. ribosomes 5. cell wall
ribosomes
Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn. delayed hypersensitivity. All of the choices are correct. anaphylaxis. serum sickness.
serum sickness
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)
set of cell surface proteins essential for the acquired immune system to recognize foreign molecules in vertebrates, which in turn determines histocompatibility.
mhc
set of genes that codes for human cell receptors that play a role in recognition of self by the immune system
Many successes in plant genetic engineering
several transgenic plants are in agricultural production
a given host cell can express
several types of receptors
non-living reservoirs
soil, water, food
Type 3's host cell damage due to
soluble antigens
Type III is caused by
soluble antigens
penetration into the host cytoskeleton
some pathogens (S. typhi) have surface proteins called invasins that: a) allow the pathogen to attach to a host cell, b) rearranges the host cell's cytoskeleton making the host cell's membrane carrying the pathogen into the cell, where the pathogen is safely hidden within the cytoplasm of the host
antigenic variation
some pathogens (ex. cold/flu) change their surface proteins (antigens) so that any previous antibodies made by the host to fight infection and provide immunity are no longer able to function
Antigenic variation
some pathogens can alter their surface antigens thus rendering adaptive immunity useless Can activate alternative genes ex. N. gonorrhaeae, HIV
to accomplish adhesion, pathogens use what 2 things as adhesion factors?
specialized structures or attachment proteins (- some protozoa have adhesion disks - some helminths have suckers & hooks - viruses & many bacteria have surface lipoprotein & glycoprotein molecules called ligands)
2) The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as (natural/innate/species) resistance.
species
Over 60 billion liters of alcohol are produced yearly from
the fermentation of feedstocks.
incubation period
the first period, follows infections, but no symptoms are felt and no signs are seem
lysogenic conversion
the gaining of new properties by a host cell infected by a lysogenic phage; if the host bacterial cell gains genes for pathogenicity
period of decline
the hosts immune system begins to overcome the infection and the symptoms and signs subside (weaken) *secondary infections can occur
primary infection
the initial infection a person gets, usually acute and viral the host's immune system is weakened by fighting off this infection
One of the most widely used approaches for genetically engineering insect resistance in plants involves
the introduction of genes encoding the toxic protein of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt toxin)
infection
the invasion and colonization of the body by disease-causing organisms
The use of recombinant DNA technology and conventional genetic studies allows for
the localization of particular genetic defects to specific regions of the genome
portal of entry, adherence, penetration of host's defenses, damage to host tissues
the microbial mechanisms of pathogenicity
human reservoir
the most important living reservoir of human pathogens
Antigens interact with antibodies at
the outer end of each arm of the Y.
Negri bodies
the rabies virus produces inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of nerve cells, their presence in the brain tissue of animals as been used as a diagnostic tool for rabies
the portal of exit is
the same as its portal of entry
Koch's Postulates
the same pathogen is present in a given disease state a pathogen isolated from the disease host must grow in a pure culture 3. That pure culture must cause the same disease when inoculated into a healthy , susceptible host 4. The original pathogen must be re-isolated from the inoculated host
the first step in Koch's postulates
the same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease
pathology
the scientific study of diseases
prodromal period
the second period, a very short period (if at all) following incubation, in which patient feels mild, general symptoms (fatigue, aches, malaise)
period of illness
the third period, the symptoms and signs are at their strongest
---------- microbiota remain in body for only a few hours, days, or months before disappearing, found in same locations as resident.
transient
vehicle transmission
transmission by an inanimate reservoir (food, water, air)
congenital
transmission from mother to fetus or newborn at birth
droplet
transmission via airborne droplets
zoonotic infectious disease
transmitted from animals to humans
The major category(ies) of hypersensitivity that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are type I, type II, and type III. type IV only. type I and type IV. type I only. type I, type II, type III, and type IV.
type I, type II, and type III
killed, inactivated
vaccines, a whole cell or intact virus preparation in which the microbes are dead or preserved and cannot multiply but are still capable of conferring immunity
11. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the variable region. joining region. constant region. light region. hinge region.
variable region
ex.s
vibrio entertoxin: produces AB enterotoxin called cholera toxin, severe diarrhea tetanus toxin: teteanospasmin; reaches nervous system an binds to nerve cells to control contraction of various muscles
cholera
vibrio, waterbourne, Gram negative bacteria
cytotoxic T-cells destroy
virally infected cells cancer cells foreign cells
cytotoxic T cells recognize and kill virall infected cells because they recognize
virus peptides displayed on the cell surface
Viral mechanisms for evading destruction by host's immune response;
viruses can penetrate and grow inside host cells, where components of immune system can't reach them
viremia
viruses in the blood
bacteriophages
viruses that infect bacteria *some can incorporate their DNA into the bacterial chromosome becoming a prophage
ergotism
when a toxin produced by the fungus Claviceps pupurea is ingested (the toxin is an alkaloid toxin produced by a parasitic fungi on grains - rye) 1) powerful hallucinations 2) powerful vasoconstrictor causes dry gangrene
paralytic shellfish food poisoning
when bivalves (mussels, clams, scallops) concentrate the saxitoxin in their bodies (heat-stable, acid stable toxin), this happens
lyse
when viruses cause the host cell to explode and release new viral particles
lymphatic tissues
where large numbers of antigen presenting cells are found
CD8
• CD8 expressed on T cytotoxic cells and binds to MHC-I molecules
T cell response CD8
• CD8 receptors (on TC ) recognize peptides on MHC-I • T cell is sensitized when an antigen/MHC complex is bound to its receptors
• Herd immunity
• Collective immunity through mass immunization confers indirect protection on the non-immune members • Important force in preventing epidemics
Inactivated vaccines
• Dead organisms are safest - IPV (Inactivated Polio Vaccine) Shot • Generally less effective immunogens • Wrong portal of entry
Specific events in T cell maturation
• Directed by the thymus gland and its hormones • Mature T cells express markers: either CD4 or CD8 co-receptors • Constantly circulate between the lymphatic and general circulatory system, migrating to specific T cell areas of the lymph nodes and spleen
DNA vaccines
• Foreign DNA inserted into host • Foreign antigen produced • Protective immune response results
Attenuated Vaccines
• Live organisms offer better response - OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine) Sugar cube, fluid squirted in the mouth • Mimic actual infection • May mutate back to virulent form
Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
• Main antibody • About 80% • Found in serum • Cross placenta • Activates complement - Only antibody that can cross into the placenta
T Cell Response- Mature T cells
• Mature T cells in lymphoid organs are primed to react with antigens • Recognize an antigen only when it is presented in association with an MHC carrier
Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
• Monomer and Dimer form, Secreted antibodies • 13% • No fixing of complement • Important in mucosal defenses • Colostrum Form a protective coating in the gastrointestinal tracts of a nursing infant that guard against infection
Secondary Response (Anamnestic)
• Re-exposure to the same immunogen • Antibody synthesis, titer, and length of antibody persistence is rapid and amplified • Primarily due to memory cells
Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
• Sticks to mast cells • Allergies • Parasitic worm defenses stimulates inflammatory response through release of substances by basophil and mast cells
Receptors & Antigen Specificity for T cells
• T cells have receptors that bind processed antigens plus MHC molecules on the cells that present antigens to them
T-Cell Receptor
• Variable region • Constant region • Antigen binding site • Never secreted, smaller
CD4 T helper cells
• antigen-specific T-cell receptor and a • piece of CD4 molecule (which also binds to MHC class II)
MHC: Self-Markers
•MHC proteins are found on host cells •If absent, the cells will be destroyed by the immune system •Used to present antigens