Chapter 15: Intraoperative Nursing Management

20. An intraoperative nurse is applying interventions that will address surgical clients' risks for perioperative positioning injury. What factors contribute to this increased risk for injury in the intraoperative phase of the surgical experience? Select all that apply. A. Absence of reflexes B. Diminished ability to communicate C. Loss of pain sensation D. Nausea resulting from anesthetic E. Reduced blood pressure

ANS: A, B, C Rationale: Loss of pain sense, reflexes, and ability to communicate subjects the intraoperative client to possible injury. Nausea and low blood pressure are not central factors that contribute to this risk, though they are adverse outcomes.

A circulating nurse provides care in a surgical department that has multiple surgeries scheduled for the day. The nurse should know to monitor which patient most closely during the intraoperative period because of the increased risk for hypothermia? A) A 74-year-old woman with a low body mass index B) A 17-year-old boy with traumatic injuries C) A 45-year-old woman having an abdominal hysterectomy D) A 13-year-old girl undergoing craniofacial surgery

A) A 74-year-old woman with a low body mass index Rationale: Older clients are at greatest risk during surgical procedures because they have an impaired ability to increase their metabolic rate and impaired thermoregulatory mechanisms, which increase susceptibility to hypothermia. The other clients are likely at a lower risk.

The OR nurse is participating in the appendectomy of a 20 year-old female patient who has a dangerously low body mass index. The nurse recognizes the patients consequent risk for hypothermia. What action should the nurse implement to prevent the development of hypothermia? A) Ensure that IV fluids are warmed to the patients body temperature. B) Transfuse packed red blood cells to increase oxygen carrying capacity. C) Place warmed bags of normal saline at strategic points around the patients body. D) Monitor the patients blood pressure and heart rate vigilantly.

A) Ensure that IV fluids are warmed to the patients body temperature. Rationale: Warmed IV fluids can prevent the development of hypothermia. Wet gowns and drapes should be removed promptly and replaced with dry materials because wet materials promote heat loss. The client is not transfused to prevent hypothermia

The nurse is preparing an elderly patient for a scheduled removal of orthopedic hardware, a procedure to be performed under general anesthetic. For which adverse effect should the nurse most closely monitor the patient? A) Hypothermia B) Pulmonary edema C) Cerebral ischemia D) Arthritis

A) Hypothermia ANS: A Rationale: Inadvertent hypothermia may occur as a result of a low temperature in the OR, infusion of cold fluids, inhalation of cold gases, open body wounds or cavities, decreased muscle activity, advanced age, or the pharmaceutical agents used (e.g., vasodilators, phenothiazines, general anesthetics). Older adults are particularly susceptible to this. The anesthetist monitors for pulmonary edema and cerebral ischemia.

The OR nurse acts in the circulating role during a patients scheduled cesarean section. For what task is this nurse solely responsible? A) Performing documentation B) Estimating the patients blood loss C) Setting up the sterile tables D) Keeping track of drains and sponges

A) Performing documentation Rationale: Main responsibilities of the circulating nurse include verifying consent; coordinating the team; and ensuring cleanliness, proper temperature and humidity, lighting, safe function of equipment, and the availability of supplies and materials. The circulating nurse monitors aseptic practices to avoid breaks in technique while coordinating the movement of related personnel as well as implementing fire safety precautions. The circulating nurse also monitors the client and documents specific activities throughout the operation to ensure the client's safety and well-being

An OR nurse is participating in an interdisciplinary audit of infection control practices in the surgical department. The nurse should know that a basic guideline for maintaining surgical asepsis is what? A) Sterile surfaces or articles may touch other sterile surfaces. B) Sterile supplies can be used on another patient if the packages are intact. C) The outer lip of a sterile solution is considered sterile. D) The scrub nurse may pour a sterile solution from a nonsterile bottle.

A) Sterile surfaces or articles may touch other sterile surfaces.

The circulating nurse in an outpatient surgery center is assessing a patient who is scheduled to receive moderate sedation. What principle should guide the care of a patient receiving this form of anesthesia? A) The patient must never be left unattended by the nurse. B) The patient should begin a course of antiemetics the day before surgery. C) The patient should be informed that he or she will remember most of the procedure. D) The patient must be able to maintain his or her own airway.

A) The patient must never be left unattended by the nurse.

A patient waiting in the presurgical holding area asks the nurse, Why exactly do they have to put a breathing tube into me? My surgery is on my knee. What is the best rationale for intubation during a surgical procedure that the nurse should describe? A) The tube provides an airway for ventilation. B) The tube protects the patients esophagus from trauma. C) The patient may receive an antiemetic through the tube. D) The patients vital signs can be monitored with the tube.

A) The tube provides an airway for ventilation. Rationale: The anesthetic is given and the client's airway is maintained through an intranasal intubation, oral intubation, or a laryngeal mask airway. The tube also helps protect aspiration of stomach contents.

A patient who underwent a bowel resection to correct diverticula suffered irreparable nerve damage. During the case review, the team is determining if incorrect positioning may have contributed to the patients nerve damage. What surgical position places the patient at highest risk for nerve damage? A) Trendelenburg B) Prone C) Dorsal recumbent D) Lithotomy

A) Trendelenburg Rationale: Shoulder braces must be well padded to prevent irreparable nerve injury, especially when the Trendelenburg position is necessary. The other listed positions are less likely to cause nerve injury

When creating plans of nursing care for patients who are undergoing surgery using general anesthetic, what nursing diagnoses should the nurse identify? Select all that apply. A) Disturbed sensory perception related to anesthetic B) Risk for impaired nutrition: less than body requirements related to anesthesia C) Risk of latex allergy response related to surgical exposure D) Disturbed body image related to anesthesia E) Anxiety related to surgical concerns

A, C, E Rationale: Nursing diagnoses that would be appropriate for the client having a surgical procedure using general anesthesia include risk for compromised human dignity related to general anesthesia, risk for latex allergy response related to surgical exposure, and anxiety related to surgical concerns

The OR will be caring for a patient who will receive a transsacral block. For what patient would the use of a transsacral block be appropriate for pain control? A. Thoracotomy B. Inguinal hernia repair C. Reduction mammoplasty D. Closed reduction of a right humerus fracture

ANS: B Rationale: A transsacral block produces anesthesia for the perineum and lower abdomen. Both a thoracotomy and breast reduction are in the chest region, and a transsacral block would not provide pain control for these procedures. A closed reduction of a right humerus is a procedure on the right arm, and a transsacral block would not provide pain control

The surgical patient is a 35-year-old woman who has been administered general anesthesia. The nurse recognizes that the patient is in stage II (the excitement stage) of anesthesia. Which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to implement during this stage? A. Rub the client's back. B. Provide for client safety. C. Encourage the client to express feelings. D. Stroke the client's hand.

ANS: B Rationale: In stage II, the client may struggle, shout, or laugh. The movements of the client may be uncontrolled, so it is essential that the nurse be ready to help to restrain the client for safety, if necessary

3. A surgical nurse is preparing to enter the restricted zone of the operating room. Which surgical attire should this nurse wear? Select all that apply. A. Street clothes B. Cap C. Mask D. Shoe covers E. Scrub clothes

ANS: B, C, D, E Rationale: In the restricted zone of the operating room, all personnel should wear scrub clothes, shoe covers, caps, and masks to reduce transmission of microbes. Street clothes are appropriate attire for unrestricted zones.

35. The operating room nurse is providing care for a major trauma client who has been involved in a motorcycle accident. Which intraoperative change may suggest the presence of anesthesia awareness? A. Respiratory depression B. Sudden hypothermia and diaphoresis C. Vital sign changes and client movement D. Bleeding beyond what is anticipated

ANS: C Rationale: Indications of the occurrence of anesthesia awareness include an increase in the blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and client movement. Respiratory depression, hypothermia and bleeding are not associated with this complication

19. Prior to a client's scheduled surgery, the nurse has described the way that members of diverse health disciplines will collaborate in the client's care. What is the main rationale for organizing perioperative care in this collaborative manner? A. Historical precedent B. Client requests C. Health care providers' needs D. Evidence-based practice

ANS: D Rationale: Collaboration of the surgical team using evidence-based practice tailored to a specific case results in optimal client care and improved outcomes. None of the other listed factors is the basis for the collaboration of the surgical team

The patients surgery is nearly finished and the surgeon has opted to use tissue adhesives to close the surgical wound. This requires the nurse to prioritize assessments related to what complication? A) Hypothermia B) Anaphylaxis C) Infection D) Malignant hyperthermia

B) Anaphylaxis Rationale: Fibrin sealants are used in a variety of surgical procedures, and cyanoacrylate tissue adhesives are used to close wounds without the use of sutures. These sealants have been implicated in allergic reactions and anaphylaxis. There is not an increased risk of malignant hyperthermia, hypothermia, or infection because of the use of tissue adhesives.

While the surgical patient is anesthetized, the scrub nurse hears a member of the surgical team make an inappropriate remark about the patients weight. How should the nurse best respond? A) Ignore the comment because the patient is unconscious. B) Discourage the colleague from making such comments. C) Report the comment immediately to a supervisor. D) Realize that humor is needed in the workplace.

B) Discourage the colleague from making such comments.

The intraoperative nurse is implementing a care plan that addresses the surgical patients risk for vomiting. Interventions that address the potential for vomiting reduce the risk of what subsequent surgical complication? A) Impaired skin integrity B) Hypoxia C) Malignant hyperthermia D) Hypothermia

B) Hypoxia Rationale: If the client aspirates vomitus, an asthma-like attack with severe bronchial spasms and wheezing is triggered. Pneumonitis and pulmonary edema can subsequently develop, leading to extreme hypoxia. Vomiting can cause choking, but the question asks about aspirated vomitus. Malignant hyperthermia is an adverse reaction to anesthesia. Aspirated vomitus does not cause hypothermia. Vomiting does not result in impaired skin integrity

Verification that all required documentation is completed is an important function of the intraoperative nurse. The intraoperative nurse should confirm that the patients accompanying documentation includes which of the following? A) Discharge planning B) Informed consent C) Analgesia prescription D) Educational resources

B) Informed consent

The anesthetist is coming to the surgical admissions unit to see a patient prior to surgery scheduled for tomorrow morning. Which of the following is the priority information that the nurse should provide to the anesthetist during the visit? A) Last bowel movement B) Latex allergy C) Number of pregnancies D) Difficulty falling asleep

B) Latex allergy

An OR nurse is teaching a nursing student about the principles of surgical asepsis as a requirement in the restricted zone of the operating suite. What personal protective equipment should the nurse wear at all times in the restricted zone of the OR? A) Reusable shoe covers B) Mask covering the nose and mouth C) Goggles D) Gloves

B) Mask covering the nose and mouth

The nurse knows that elderly patients are at higher risk for complications and adverse outcomes during the intraoperative period. What is the best rationale for this phenomenon? A) The elderly patient has a more angular bone structure than a younger person. B) The elderly patient has reduced ability to adjust rapidly to emotional and physical stress. C) The elderly patient has impaired thermoregulatory mechanisms, which increase susceptibility to hyperthermia. D) The elderly patient has an impaired ability to decrease his or her metabolic rate.

B) The elderly patient has reduced ability to adjust rapidly to emotional and physical stress.

The OR nurse is taking the patient into the OR when the patient informs the operating nurse that his grandmother spiked a 104F temperature in the OR and nearly died 15 years ago. What relevance does this information have regarding the patient? A) The patient may be experiencing presurgical anxiety. B) The patient may be at risk for malignant hyperthermia. C) The grandmothers surgery has minimal relevance to the patients surgery. D) The patient may be at risk for a sudden onset of postsurgical infection.

B) The patient may be at risk for malignant hyperthermia. Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is an inherited muscle disorder chemically induced by anesthetic agents. Identifying clients at risk is imperative because the mortality rate is 50%. The client's anxiety is not relevant, the grandparent's surgery is very relevant, and all clients are at risk for postsurgical infections.

Maintaining an aseptic environment in the OR is essential to patient safety and infection control. When moving around surgical areas, what distance must the nurse maintain from the sterile field? A) 2 feet B) 18 inches C) 1 foot D) 6 inches

C) 1 foot Rationale: Sterile areas must be kept in view during movement around the area. At least a 1-foot distance from the sterile field must be maintained to prevent inadvertent contamination

As an intraoperative nurse, you are the advocate for each of the patients who receives care in the surgical setting. How can you best exemplify the principles of patient advocacy? A) By encouraging the patient to perform deep breathing preoperatively B) By limiting the patients contact with family members preoperatively C) By maintaining each of your patients privacy D) By eliciting informed consent from patients

C) By maintaining each of your patients privacy

A 68-year-old patient is scheduled for a bilateral mastectomy. The OR nurse has come out to the holding area to meet the patient and quickly realizes that the patient is profoundly anxious. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to apply? A) Reassure the patient that modern surgery is free of significant risks. B) Describe the surgery to the patient in as much detail as possible. C) Clearly explain any information that the patient seeks. D) Remind the patient that the anesthetic will render her unconscious.

C) Clearly explain any information that the patient seeks.

A patient will be undergoing a total hip arthroplasty later in the day and it is anticipated that the patient may require blood transfusion during surgery. How can the nurse best ensure the patients safety if a blood transfusion is required? A) Prime IV tubing with a unit of blood and keep it on hold. B) Check that the patients electrolyte levels have been assessed preoperatively. C) Ensure that the patient has had a current cross-match. D) Keep the blood on standby and warmed to body temperature.

C) Ensure that the patient has had a current cross-match. Rationale: Few clients undergoing an elective procedure require blood transfusion, but those undergoing high-risk procedures may require an intraoperative transfusion. The circulating nurse anticipates this need, checks that blood has been cross-matched and held in reserve, and is prepared to administer blood. Storing the blood at body temperature or in IV tubing would result in spoilage and potential infection

As an intraoperative nurse, you know that the patients emotional state can influence the outcome of his or her surgical procedure. How would you best reinforce the patients ability to influence outcome? A) Teach the patient strategies for distraction. B) Pair the patient with another patient who has better coping strategies. C) Incorporate cultural and religious considerations, as appropriate. D) Give the patient antianxiety medication.

C) Incorporate cultural and religious considerations, as appropriate.

The nurse is performing wound care on a 68-year-old postsurgical patient. Which of the following practices violates the principles of surgical asepsis? A) Holding sterile objects above the level of the nurses waist B) Considering a 1 inch (2.5 cm) edge around the sterile field as being contaminated C) Pouring solution onto a sterile field cloth D) Opening the outermost flap of a sterile package away from the body

C) Pouring solution onto a sterile field cloth

The circulating nurse will be participating in a 78-year-old patients total hip replacement. Which of the following considerations should the nurse prioritize during the preparation of the patient in the OR? A) The patient should be placed in Trendelenburg position. B) The patient must be firmly restrained at all times. C) Pressure points should be assessed and well padded. D) The preoperative shave should be done by the circulating nurse.

C) Pressure points should be assessed and well padded.

You are caring for a male patient who has had spinal anesthesia. The patient is under a physicians order to lie flat postoperatively. When the patient asks to go to the bathroom, you encourage him to adhere to the physicians order. What rationale for complying with this order should the nurse explain to the patient? A) Preventing the risk of hypotension B) Preventing respiratory depression C) Preventing the onset of a headache D) Preventing pain at the lumbar injection site

C) Preventing the onset of a headache Rationale: Lying flat reduces the risk of headache after spinal anesthesia. Hypotension and respiratory depression may be adverse effects of spinal anesthesia associated with the spread of the anesthetic, but lying flat does not help reduce these effects. Pain at the lumbar injection site typically is not a problem

The perioperative nurse is constantly assessing the surgical patient for signs and symptoms of complications of surgery. Which symptom should first signal to the nurse the possibility that the patient is developing malignant hyperthermia? A) Increased temperature B) Oliguria C) Tachycardia D) Hypotension

C) Tachycardia ANS: C Rationale: The initial symptoms of malignant hyperthermia are related to cardiovascular and musculoskeletal activity. Tachycardia (heart rate greater than 150 beats per minute) is often the earliest sign. Oliguria, hypotension, and increased temperature are later signs of malignant hyperthermia

The nurse is packing a patients abdominal wound with sterile, half-inch Iodoform gauze. During the procedure, the nurse drops some of the gauze onto the patients abdomen 2 inches (5 cm) away from the wound. What should the nurse do? A) Apply povidone-iodine (Betadine) to that section of the gauze and continue packing the wound. B) Pick up the gauze and continue packing the wound after irrigating the abdominal wound with Betadine solution. C) Continue packing the wound and inform the physician that an antibiotic is needed. D) Discard the gauze packing and repack the wound with new Iodoform gauze.

D) Discard the gauze packing and repack the wound with new Iodoform gauze.

A nurse is caring for a patient following knee surgery that was performed under a spinal anesthetic. What intervention should the nurse implement to prevent a spinal headache? A) Have the patient sit in a chair and perform deep breathing exercises. B) Ambulate the patient as early as possible. C) Limit the patients fluid intake for the first 24 hours postoperatively. D) Keep the patient positioned supine.

D) Keep the patient positioned supine. Rationale: Measures that increase cerebrospinal pressure are helpful in relieving headache. These include maintaining a quiet environment, keeping the client lying flat, and keeping the client well hydrated.

A 59-year-old male patient is scheduled for a hemorrhoidectomy. The OR nurse should anticipate assisting the other team members with positioning the patient in what manner? A) Dorsal recumbent position B) Trendelenburg position C) Sims position D) Lithotomy position

D) Lithotomy position Rationale: The lithotomy position is used for nearly all perineal, rectal, and vaginal surgical procedures. The Sims or lateral position is used for renal surgery, and the Trendelenburg position usually is used for surgery on the lower abdomen and pelvis. The usual position for surgery, called the dorsal recumbent position, is flat on the back, but this would be impracticable for rectal surgery.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled to have a needle biopsy of the pleura. The patient has had a consultation with the anesthesiologist and a conduction block will be used. Which local conduction block can be used to block the nerves leading to the chest? A) Transsacral block B) Brachial plexus block C) Peudental block D) Paravertebral block

D) Paravertebral block Rationale: Examples of common local conduction blocks include paravertebral anesthesia, which produces anesthesia of the nerves supplying the chest, abdominal wall, and extremities; brachial plexus block, which produces anesthesia of the arm; and transsacral (caudal) block, which produces anesthesia of the perineum and, occasionally, the lower abdomen. A pudendal block was used in obstetrics before the almost-routine use of epidural anesthesia.

As a perioperative nurse, you know that the National Patient Safety Goals have the potential to improve patient outcomes in a wide variety of health care settings. Which of these Goals has the most direct relevance to the OR? A) Improve safety related to medication use B) Reduce the risk of patient harm resulting from falls C) Reduce the incidence of health care-associated infections D) Reduce the risk of fires

D) Reduce the risk of fires Rationale: The National Client Safety Goals all pertain to the perioperative areas, but the one with the most direct relevance to the OR is the reduction of the risk of surgical fires.

The circulating nurse is admitting a patient prior to surgery and proceeds to greet the patient and discuss what the patient can expect in surgery. What aspect of therapeutic communication should the nurse implement? A) Wait for the patient to initiate dialogue. B) Use medically acceptable terms. C) Give preoperative medications prior to discussion. D) Use a tone that decreases the patients anxiety.

D) Use a tone that decreases the patients anxiety.