CompTIA A+ Core 2 Objective 1 -- 1102 Objective 1

" " What does a Group Policy Object (GPO) contain in a Windows OS environment? A. A set of group policy settings B.The group policy source code C.A list of blocked MMC utilities D.A list of shut down times

" "Correct Answer: A. A set of group policy settings Explanation: A Group Policy Object (GPO) in a Windows OS environment contains a related set of group policy settings that an administrator can use to apply configurations to multiple computers or network nodes. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The group policy source code isn't contained in a GPO, but rather the settings that can be applied to systems. C. While group policy settings can include restrictions on MMC utilities, a GPO isn't simply a list of blocked MMC utilities. D. A list of shut down times is not what a GPO contains, though shutdown events could, as part of a wider set, be configured within a GPO. Reference: Page Number 60 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which option in the Task Manager displays the Task Manager as the foremost window? A. Refresh Now B.Group By Type C.Always On Top D.Collpase All

" "Correct Answer: C. Always On Top Explanation: The 'Always on Top' option, when selected, displays the Task Manager as the foremost window. This means no other window will overlap the Task Manager, regardless of which window you're interacting with. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 'Refresh Now' is an option that refreshes the Task Manager display, but it doesn't guarantee that the Task Manager will always be the foremost window. B. 'Group By Type' is an option that groups active processes into three categories: Apps, Background Processes, and Windows Processes. It doesn't affect whether the Task Manager remains the foremost window. D. 'Collapse All' is an option that collapses all process groups listed. It doesn't affect whether the Task Manager remains the foremost window. Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following methods can be used to join a computer running Windows 10 to a domain? A. Using Windows 10 settings B.Using system properties C.Both A and B D.None of the above

" "Correct Answer: C. Both A and B Explanation: According to the provided text, two basic methods can be used to join a computer running Windows 10 to a domain: using system properties and using Windows 10 settings. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A and B on their own are incorrect because both methods, not just one, can be used to join a computer running Windows 10 to a domain. D. None of the above is incorrect because both of the mentioned methods can be used. Reference: Page Number 48 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the command 'cd ..' represent in Windows drive navigation? A. Change to the subdirectory of the active folder. B.Change to the new directory on the active drive. C.Change to the parent directory of the active folder. D.Change to a newly created directory on the current drive.

" "Correct Answer: C. Change to the parent directory of the active folder. Explanation: In the Windows OS, 'cd ..' represents the command to change to the parent folder of the active folder. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 'cd ..' does not change to a subdirectory rather to a parent directory. B. 'cd ..' does not create a new directory on the active drive rather it changes to a parent directory of the current active folder. D. 'cd ..' does not create or shift to any newly created directory. Reference: Page Number 68 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the Windows command 'cd E:\newdir' achieve? A. Changes the active directory to the 'newdir' folder on the active disk drive B.Changes the current active folder to 'newdir' C.Changes the active drive to the E: drive and then to 'newdir' on that drive D.Changes the active directory to the parent folder of 'newdir'

" "Correct Answer: C. Changes the active drive to the E: drive and then to 'newdir' on that drive Explanation: In Windows OS, the command 'cd E:\newdir' allows the user to change the active drive to the E: drive and then change the active directory to the 'newdir' folder within that drive. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This command would be 'cd \newdir' not 'cd E:\newdir', B. The command './newdir' would refer to a subfolder of the active folder, not change the current active folder to 'newdir', D. This would be achieved by the command 'cd ..' rather than 'cd E:\newdir' Reference: Page Number 68 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What are the three components of the Windows command prompt? A. Command, command prompt termination symbol, and control device B.Active folder, active device, and command prompt termination symbol C.Command, subfolders, and active device D.Command, active device, and files

" "Correct Answer: B. Active folder, active device, and command prompt termination symbol Explanation: The three components of the Windows command prompt are the active storage device, the active folder or directory, and the command prompt termination symbol. These represent the location of the active folder and the delimiter that separates the command prompt from the command entered by the user. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A is incorrect because there's no component mentioned as 'control device'; C is incorrect because 'subfolders' is not a component of the Windows command prompt; D is incorrect 'files' is not a direct component of the command prompt, but are entities within the active folder. Reference: Page Number 66 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is a mount point within the context of Disk Management? A. A point where the hard drive connects to the motherboard. B.An empty folder where a volume is mounted. C.The process of adding a new hard drive to a system. D.The exact location where information is written on a disk.

" "Correct Answer: B. An empty folder where a volume is mounted. Explanation: In the context of Disk Management, a mount point refers to an empty folder where a volume is mounted. This allows the user to access an additional drive through an existing folder. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. A point where the hard drive connects to the motherboard is not what is referred to as a 'mount point' within the context of Disk Management. C. Adding a new hard drive to a system is part of hardware installation rather than a 'mount point'. D. The exact location where information is written on a disk relates more to the data storage than to a 'mount point'. Reference: Page Number 89 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " How can the MMC be opened on a system? A. Through the Control Panel B.By entering MMC in a Run command dialog box and pressing ENTER C.By double clicking the MMC icon on the desktop D.By entering MMC in the search bar on the taskbar

" "Correct Answer: B. By entering MMC in a Run command dialog box and pressing ENTER Explanation: The text mentions three methods for opening the MMC, one of them is entering MMC in a Run command dialog box and pressing ENTER. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because the text does not mention the Control Panel as a way to open MM C. Option C is incorrect because the text does not mention double clicking an MMC icon on the desktop. Option D is incorrect because the text does not mention searching MMC in the search bar on the taskbar Reference: Page Number 84 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " How can Task Scheduler be accessed on a Windows system? A. By going to Control Panel and choosing Task Scheduler B.By running taskschd.msc in the Run box or at a command prompt C.By accessing it in the System Properties D.By typing 'Scheduler' on the Start menu search

" "Correct Answer: B. By running taskschd.msc in the Run box or at a command prompt Explanation: The document specifies that the Task Scheduler can be accessed either through the MMC (Microsoft Management Console) or by running 'taskschd.msc' in the Run box or at a command prompt. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Control Panel does not provide a direct access to the Task Scheduler. C. System Properties does not contain the Task Scheduler. D. Typing 'Scheduler' in the Start menu search may not directly open the Task Scheduler, as the search results depend on the installed applications and the system's settings. Reference: Page Number 92 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the command 'cd E:\newdir' do in the Windows OS? A. Changes the active directory to 'newdir' on the active disk drive B.Changes the active drive to the E: drive and then changes to '\newdir' on that drive C.Changes to the parent folder of the active folder D.Refers to a subfolder of the active folder

" "Correct Answer: B. Changes the active drive to the E: drive and then changes to '\newdir' on that drive Explanation: In the Windows OS, the command 'cd E:\newdir' changes the active drive to the E: drive and then to the newdir folder on that drive as stated in the provided text. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The command 'cd \newdir' changes the active directory to 'newdir' on the active disk drive, not 'cd E:\newdir'. C. 'cd ..' is the command that changes to the parent folder of the active folder, not 'cd E:\newdir'. D. './newdir' refers to a subfolder of the active folder, not 'cd E:\newdir'. Reference: Page Number 68 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What steps do you need to take to open the Local Group Policy Editor from the MMC? A. Press WIN-R and enter gpedit.msc B.Click File, then Add/Remove Snap-In, find Local Group Policy Editor and add it to the console C.Press WIN-I, enter 'edit group policy' on search and click Edit Group Policy tag D.Use a PowerShell command

" "Correct Answer: B. Click File, then Add/Remove Snap-In, find Local Group Policy Editor and add it to the console Explanation: This is the correct process for opening the Local Group Policy Editor from the MMC, as described in the provided text. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is the process for opening the Group Policy Editor from the Run command box, not the MM C. Choice C is the process to open the Group Policy Editor from the Settings page, not the MM C. Choice D is not explicitly stated in the given options, though it is mentioned that you can use a PowerShell prompt to open the Group Policy Editor, the specific command to do so is not provided in the text. Reference: Page Number 104 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What can you configure in the 'Privacy' tab of the Internet Properties dialog box? A. Set up Internet, VPN, LAN, and proxy settings. B.Configure accessibility, graphics acceleration, multimedia, and other settings. C.Configure the pop-up blocker as well as set up InPrivate browsing, per-site settings, and cookie management. D.Set your home page, startup options, browsing history, and appearance settings.

" "Correct Answer: C. Configure the pop-up blocker as well as set up InPrivate browsing, per-site settings, and cookie management. Explanation: The Privacy tab in the Internet Properties dialog box is where you can configure the pop-up blocker, set up InPrivate browsing, manage cookies and adjust per-site settings. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A pertains to the Connections tab, Option B refers to the options available in the Advanced tab, and Option D is associated with the settings located in the General tab of Internet Properties dialog box. Reference: Page Number 121 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which action can be performed using the Disk Management tool in a Windows system? A. Install an antivirus B.Edit web pages C.Format disk volumes with Microsoft file systems D.Upload files on cloud

" "Correct Answer: C. Format disk volumes with Microsoft file systems Explanation: The Disk Management tool in a Windows system allows users to manage hard disk drives and their volumes and partitions. This includes the ability to create, remove, and format disk volumes or partitions with any of the Microsoft file systems, including FAT, FAT32, and NTFS. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because the Disk Management tool does not install an antivirus. Option B is incorrect because the Disk Management tool does not edit web pages. Option D is incorrect because the Disk Management tool does not upload files on cloud. Reference: Page Number 89 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What are the two primary administration groups in the Group Policy Editor window? A. Administrator Configuration and User Configuration B.Computer Configuration and User Configuration C.Desktop Configuration and Permissions D.User Configuration and Permissions

" "Correct Answer: B. Computer Configuration and User Configuration Explanation: The Group Policy Editor window includes two primary administration groups: Computer Configuration, which applies policies to every computer and its OS remaining the same for all computers in a group, and User Configuration, which is used to create custom user or workgroup Desktop configurations and permissions. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. There is no Administrator Configuration group in the Group Policy Editor; the two primary administration groups are Computer Configuration and User Configuration. C. Desktop Configuration and Permissions are not the main groups, they are aspects that might be adjusted within policies under User Configuration. D. User Configuration is one of the main groups, but Permissions isn't another primary administration group. Reference: Page Number 61 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) enable a user to do? A. Access the administrator settings on their local P C. B.Control a remote system as a local user. C.Act as an RDP server on Windows Home edition. D.Make local connections using the IP address of the local PC.

" "Correct Answer: B. Control a remote system as a local user. Explanation: The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) provides the capability for a user to log on to a remote system and effectively control that system as if they were a local user. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because RDP allows a user to access and control a remote system, not necessarily to access the administrator settings on their local P C. Option C is wrong because it is specifically stated in the text that the Windows Home edition cannot act as an RDP server. Option D is not correct. The IP address is used to establish a connection with the remote PC, not for making local connections. Reference: Page Number 55 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following correctly describes the function of a striped array type on a dynamic disk? A. Capacities of several disks are joined together. B.Data is written across two drives at the same time, enhancing speed. C.Data is written to two drives at the same moment, to enable easy rebuilding of the array if one drive fails. D.Data and recovery information is written across three or more drives to rebuild if a disk fails.

" "Correct Answer: B. Data is written across two drives at the same time, enhancing speed. Explanation: In the text, it is stated that a striped array involves writing data across two drives for the sake of enhancing speed. This is similar to how a RAID 0 hardware array functions. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: This describes a 'spanned' array, not a 'striped' array. C: This describes a 'mirrored' array, not a 'striped' array. D: This describes a 'RAID 5' array, not a 'striped' array. Reference: Page Number 91 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Where in Windows can you see and change the drive letters assigned to existing drives? A. Device Manager B.Disk Management C.File Explorer D.Regedit

" "Correct Answer: B. Disk Management Explanation: Disk Management is a tool within Windows that can be used to view and change the drive letters assigned to existing drives. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Device Manager is used for managing hardware devices connected to the computer and cannot be used to change or view drive letters. File Explorer can be used to view drive letters, but not to change them. Regedit (Windows Registry) can be used to modify many configuration details, but it's not the designated tool for changing or viewing drive letters. Reference: Page Number 90 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'Expand All' option do in the Task Manager view menu? A. It groups active processes into three categories. B.It displays the components of each process. C.It sets the frequency for updating and refreshing the information. D.It minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked.

" "Correct Answer: B. It displays the components of each process. Explanation: The 'Expand All' option in the Task Manager view menu expands each process to display its components or subprocesses. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 'Group By Type' option groups active processes into categories. C. 'Update Speed' sets the frequency for updating and refreshing the information. D. 'Minimize on Use' minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right clicked. Reference: Page Number 78 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is one function of the Event Viewer in a Windows system? A. It is consulted for software updates B.It records and filters events occurring on the system C.It is used to install new software D.It is used to change user permissions

" "Correct Answer: B. It records and filters events occurring on the system Explanation: The Event Viewer is primarily used to audit various events occurring on a system, allowing for customized views of event logs. This makes it critical for troubleshooting and security enforcement. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Although regular updates are important to keep a computer system functioning smoothly, the Event Viewer is not used for software updates. That role is taken by the Windows Update service. C. Event Viewer is not used for software installation. The typical method for installation would be through an executable (.exe) file or an installer package. D. Event Viewer is not used for changing user permissions. User account control or group policy would be the usual methods to achieve this. Reference: Page Number 85 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " How can you open the Local Group Policy Editor from the Settings page? A. Press WIN-R and enter 'Local Group Policy Editor' in the Run command box B.Press WIN-I and enter 'edit group policy' in the 'Find a Setting' search box C.With MMC open, click the File menu and choose 'Add/Remove Snap-In' D.Through Windows Search selection

" "Correct Answer: B. Press WIN-I and enter 'edit group policy' in the 'Find a Setting' search box Explanation: According to the provided text, the correct way to open the Local Group Policy Editor from the Settings page is to press WIN-I and then enter 'edit group policy' in the Find a Setting search box that appears at the top of the page. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A, pressing WIN-R and entering 'Local Group Policy Editor' in the Run Command Box, is incorrect because WIN-R opens the Run command box, not the Settings Page. Choice C is not also correct because it describes how to open the Local Group Policy Editor via MMC, not the Settings page. In Choice D, using Windows Search selection is another method but not from the Settings page. Reference: Page Number 105 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " How can one access the Group Policy Editor from the Run Command box on Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 for Workstations, and Enterprise editions? A. Press WIN-R, type cmd, and select OK. B.Press WIN-R, type gpedit.msc, and select OK. C.Press WIN-R, type win10edit, and select OK. D.Press WIN-R, type runedit, and select OK.

" "Correct Answer: B. Press WIN-R, type gpedit.msc, and select OK. Explanation: Running 'gpedit.msc' from the Run Command box will open the Group Policy Editor. The steps are as follows: 'Press WIN-R to open the Run window, type gpedit.msc in the Run window, and select OK'. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 'cmd' opens the command prompt, not the Group Policy Editor. C. 'win10edit' is not a valid Run Command to open Group Policy Editor. D. 'runedit' is not a valid Run Command to open Group Policy Editor. Reference: Page Number 61 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " How do you add a group using the Local Users and Groups tool in Windows 10 and Windows 11? A. Click Add on the user's property tab B.Right-click a blank spot in the Groups folder and select New Group C.Select Properties on the user's account D.Create a new object type

" "Correct Answer: B. Right-click a blank spot in the Groups folder and select New Group Explanation: To add a group, you need to right-click a blank spot in the Groups folder and select New Group. This will open a new dialog box where you can enter the group name and description. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Clicking Add on the user's property tab is used for adding a user to a group, not creating a new group. C: Selecting Properties on the user's account is part of the process to add or remove a user's group membership, not to add a group. D: Creating new object types, such as user accounts, computers and other groups, is done after you've created a new group. Reference: Page Number 96 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'Foreign drive' status in Disk Management indicate? A. The drive is being formatted. B.The disk is healthy and communicating properly with the computer. C.A dynamic disk has been moved to another system. D.The disk has no file system or has a file system not recognized by Windows.

" "Correct Answer: C. A dynamic disk has been moved to another system. Explanation: In Disk Management, a 'Foreign drive' status is shown when a dynamic disk is moved to another system. This indicates that the disk was previously initialized on another system, and now its data might not be accessible on its new system until it's imported. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 'Formatting' status is shown while the drive is being formatted, not when it has been moved to another system. B. The 'Online' status means the disk is healthy and communicating properly with the computer, not that it has been moved. D. The 'Unallocated' status means the disk has no file system or uses a file system not recognized by Windows, not that it has been moved. Reference: Page Number 89 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Where can you enable or disable BitLocker from in Windows? A. BitLocker Drive Encryption settings page within the System and Security option of the Windows Control Panel B.The Security tab in the properties of a file or folder C.The system's BIOS settings D.The Windows firewall settings

" "Correct Answer: A. BitLocker Drive Encryption settings page within the System and Security option of the Windows Control Panel Explanation: BitLocker is enabled or disabled using the BitLocker Drive Encryption settings page of the System and Security option of the Windows Control Panel. If the System and Security option isn't listed, you should search for 'BitLocker Drive Encryption.' Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The Security tab in the properties of a file or folder only governs the access controls (read, write, execute permissions etc,) for that specific file or folder. It is not related to BitLocker's whole-disk encryption. C. The system's BIOS settings govern hardware-level settings, not individual features of the operating system like BitLocker. D. The Windows firewall settings control network protections, not disk encryption. Reference: Page Number 59 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'App History' tab in the Task Manager display? A. The fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s) B.The applications or programs that are to start automatically whenever Windows starts up. C.Information on the resource and CPU utilization for each application or service executed by the active user account. D.The status and resources consumption for each active process.

" "Correct Answer: C. Information on the resource and CPU utilization for each application or service executed by the active user account. Explanation: The 'App History' tab in the Task Manager displays information about the resource and CPU utilization for each application or service that has been executed by the active user account. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s) is shown in the 'Users' tab. B. The applications or programs that are to start automatically whenever Windows starts up are listed in the 'Startup' tab. D. The status and resources consumption for each active process is displayed in the 'Processes' tab. Reference: Page Number 80 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the Update Speed option in the Task Manager do? A. It decides the order of the active processes. B.It changes the size of the Task Manager window. C.It sets the frequency of updates and refreshes the information displayed. D.It groups the processes into categories.

" "Correct Answer: C. It sets the frequency of updates and refreshes the information displayed. Explanation: The Update Speed option in the Task Manager sets the frequency at which the Task Manager updates and refreshes the information it displays. Therefore, it impacts how often the user can see updated data on the active processes or the computer's resource usage. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A: Incorrect. The Task Manager's order of processes is determined by the Group By Type option, not the Update Speed option. Option B: Incorrect. The size of the Task Manager window is not influenced by the Update Speed option. Option D: Incorrect. Processes are grouped into categories based on the Group By Type option, not the Update Speed option. Reference: Page Number 78 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'Refresh Now' option under the 'View' menu in Task Manager do? A. Groups active processes into categories B.Minimizes the Task Manager when a process is selected C.Refreshes the Task Manager display D.Displays the components of each process

" "Correct Answer: C. Refreshes the Task Manager display Explanation: The 'Refresh Now' option under the 'View' menu in Task Manager allows for the immediate refreshing of the Task Manager display. This can show any changes made or processes started or ended since the last update. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The option that groups active processes into categories is 'Group By Type', not 'Refresh Now'. B. The option that minimizes the Task Manager when a process is selected is 'Minimize on Use', not 'Refresh Now'. D. The option that displays the components of each process is 'Expand All', not 'Refresh Now'. Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the process to extend a volume using Disk Management? A. Right-click the volume, select Shrink Volume, and indicate the amount you wish to decrease. B.Right-click the volume, select Extend Volume, and indicate the amount you wish to shrink. C.Right-click the volume, select Extend Volume, and indicate the amount you wish to add. D.Right-click the volume, select Shrink volume, and indicate the amount you wish to add.

" "Correct Answer: C. Right-click the volume, select Extend Volume, and indicate the amount you wish to add. Explanation: Extending a volume involves adding more space to the existing volume. This is achieved by right-clicking the volume, selecting 'Extend Volume', and then specifying the amount of space you would like to add. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This describes the process for shrinking, not extending, a volume. B. You cannot 'extend' a volume by specifying an amount to 'shrink'. D. 'Shrink volume' is used when decreasing the size of a volume, not adding to it. Reference: Page Number 90 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the aim of studying 'Additional Windows Tools' for the CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam? A. To understand rarely used tools only. B.To master all Windows tools. C.To know and understand when and how certain tools are used. D.To learn how to troubleshoot these tools.

" "Correct Answer: C. To know and understand when and how certain tools are used. Explanation: The objective of studying 'Additional Windows Tools' for the CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam is to ensure that system administrators and certified A+ technicians have a basic understanding of when and how each of these tools is used, not necessarily to be able to troubleshoot these tools or become experts in all things related to Windows. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): The aim is not to understand rarely used tools only (A), to master all Windows tools (B), or to learn how to troubleshoot these tools (D). The goal is to know and understand when and how to use certain tools. Reference: Page Number 107 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the function of a 'Mirrored' drive array in Dynamic Disk Management? A. Enhances the speed of data writing by distributing it across two drives. B.Combines the capacities of two or more disks. C.Writes data to two drives at the same time for data backup purposes. D.Does not allow use for boot disk purposes.

" "Correct Answer: C. Writes data to two drives at the same time for data backup purposes. Explanation: In a 'Mirrored' drive array, data is written to two drives at the same time. This provides a backup copy, allowing the array to be rebuilt from the second drive if the primary drive fails. This mirroring technique corresponds with the RAID 1 array structure. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Enhancing speed by distributing data across two drives describes a 'Striped' drive array, not 'Mirrored'. B. Combining capacities of two or more disks defines a 'Spanned' drive array, not 'Mirrored'. D. While dynamic disks can't be used as boot disks, it is not a characteristic of the 'Mirrored' array. Reference: Page Number 91 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the correct command to open Disk Defragment through the Command Prompt box in Windows? A. ddfrg.exe B.defrgui.exe C.dfrgui.exe D.defg.exe

" "Correct Answer: C. dfrgui.exe Explanation: By using the 'dfrgui.exe' on the Command Prompt box in Windows, you can open the Disk Defragment tool, as described in the text. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): The options ' A. ddfrg.exe', ' B. defrgui.exe', and ' D. defg.exe' are incorrect because these are not Windows commands for opening the Disk Defragment tool. Reference: Page Number 112 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the default object that is displayed in the graph within the Performance Monitor? A. Physical disk B.Memory C.Network D.% Processor Time

" "Correct Answer: D. % Processor Time Explanation: When you first open the Performance Monitor, it displays a graph of the data it collects from a certain default object in real time. The default object is % Processor Time. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Physical disk, B. Memory, C. Network are not the default objects in the Performance Monitor's graph. While these are system components that Performance Monitor can track and present in real time, they are not the initial displayed default object. The default object is % Processor Time. Reference: Page Number 98 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What can be configured in the 'Security' tab of the Internet Properties dialog box? A. Set home page and browsing history B.Configure the pop-up blocker and cookie management C.Select default programs for browsing and HTML editing D.Set security levels for websites in different zones

" "Correct Answer: D. Set security levels for websites in different zones Explanation: The 'Security' tab of the Internet Properties dialog box allows users to set security levels for websites in different zones, like the Internet zone and Local intranet zone. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Setting the home page and browsing history is done in the 'General' tab. B. Configuring the pop-up blocker and cookie management is done in the 'Privacy' tab. C. Selecting default programs for browsing and HTML editing is done in the 'Programs' tab. Reference: Page Number 120 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following is NOT a requirement for enabling BitLocker as detailed in the CompTIA A+ study guide? A. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) on or attached to the motherboard. B.BIOS or UEFI support for the TPM device. C.The hard drive must have two NTFS partitions. D.The computer must be running a Mac operating system.

" "Correct Answer: D. The computer must be running a Mac operating system. Explanation: BitLocker is only available on certain Windows editions including Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 Pro for Workstations, and Enterprise editions. Therefore, it cannot be enabled on a computer running a Mac operating system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. A TPM on the motherboard is indeed a requirement for enabling BitLocker; it stores security data such as encryption keys. B. BIOS or UEFI support for the TPM device is necessary for BitLocker to function; if it isn't available, the firmware may need to be updated. C. Having two NTFS partitions is another requirement for utilizing BitLocker; these partitions can be created by BitLocker if necessary. Reference: Page Number 58 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does it mean if a drive status in Disk Management is shown as 'Offline'? A. The disk is healthy and communicating properly with the computer B.The disk is damaged or corrupt; you've probably lost some data C.The disk has no file system or has a file system that is not recognized by Windows D.The disk is either corrupt or having communication problems

" "Correct Answer: D. The disk is either corrupt or having communication problems Explanation: In Disk Management, an 'Offline' status indicates that the disk may either be corrupt or experiencing communication problems, rendering it inaccessible for general use. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: This description corresponds with an 'Online' status, not 'Offline'. B: While this may be a potential reason for an 'Offline' status, this explanation specifically corresponds to a 'Failed' status. C: This explanation pertains to a disk status of 'Unallocated', not 'Offline'. Reference: Page Number 89 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which tab in the Task Manager displays the fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s)? A. Processes B.Details C.Services D.Users

" "Correct Answer: D. Users Explanation: The Users tab in Task Manager displays the fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s). It includes resources such as CPU, memory, disk, network, and GPU. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The Processes tab displays the status and resources consumption for each active process. B. The Details tab provides the details for each of the processes active on the system. C. The Services tab provides similar information to the services.msc utility, managing the services installed on the system. Reference: Page Number 81 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which feature is NOT included in Windows 10 Pro, the work edition of Windows 10? A. Active Directory B.BitLocker C.Hyper-V hypervisor D.Windows Media Player

" "Correct Answer: D. Windows Media Player Explanation: Windows Media Player is not mentioned as a feature in Windows 10 Pro. This version of Windows is designed for work and has features such as Active Directory, BitLocker, and the Hyper-V hypervisor. It is not specifically noted to include media playing software. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Active Directory, BitLocker and Hyper-V hypervisor are all mentioned in the text as features included in Windows 10 Pro, the edition of Windows 10 meant for work environments. Reference: Page Number 46 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What are the steps to add the Local Group Policy Editor to the MMC? A. Click File menu, choose Add/Remove Snap-In, find and select Local Group Policy Editor, click OK. B.Press WIN-R, enter gpedit.msc, click OK. C.Press WIN-I, enter edit group policy, click the Edit Group Policy tag. D.Use Windows Search, a command prompt, or a PowerShell prompt.

" "Correct Answer: A. Click File menu, choose Add/Remove Snap-In, find and select Local Group Policy Editor, click OK. Explanation: The text describes these steps as the method to add the Local Group Policy Editor to the MMC - click the File menu, choose Add/Remove Snap-In, find Local Group Policy Editor (which may be listed as Local Computer Policy instead), select it, and then click the OK button. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. This is the method to open the Local Group Policy Editor from the Run command box, not to add it to the MM C. C. This is the method to open the Local Group Policy Editor from the Settings page, not to add it to the MM C. D. Using Windows Search, a command prompt, or a PowerShell prompt are listed as other ways to open the Local Group Policy Editor, not add it to the MM C. Reference: Page Number 104 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is a key difference between a workgroup and a domain, as discussed in the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) context? A. In a workgroup, users can log in only on designated workstations, while in a domain, users can log in to local or remote workstations. B.A domain is used for smaller networks, while a workgroup is used for larger networks. C.In a domain, each computer has a unique database, while in a workgroup users share a domain database. D.In a workgroup, users are able to share sensitive and important information, while in a domain non-sensitive information is shared due to less security.

" "Correct Answer: A. In a workgroup, users can log in only on designated workstations, while in a domain, users can log in to local or remote workstations. Explanation: A workgroup is a peer-to-peer network configuration where access is limited, whereas a domain supports more complex configurations that allow for remote access, and as such enhances flexibility. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. This is incorrect as a domain is typically used for larger networks, not workgroups. C. This is incorrect as it's the workgroup that has unique databases per computer, whereas a domain has a shared database. D. This is incorrect as a domain typically has more security measures and is thus better suited for sharing sensitive and important information. Reference: Page Number 47 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What must be done with a hard drive that has not been connected to the system before it is recognized by the Disk Management in Windows? A. Initialized and partitioned if it has no recognized file system B.Connected via USB cable C.Formatted into a specific file system like NTFS D.Assigned a drive letter

" "Correct Answer: A. Initialized and partitioned if it has no recognized file system Explanation: When a hard drive has not previously been connected to the system, it must first be initialized and then partitioned if it does not have a recognized file system. After it is initialized and partitioned, it is recognized by the Disk Management in Windows. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Connecting via a USB cable is not sufficient for a drive that has not been connected to the system before. It still needs to be initialized and possibly partitioned. C. Formatting into a specific file system like NTFS might be part of data preparation, but the drive first needs to be initialized and potentially partitioned. D. Assignment of a drive letter is automatically done by Disk Management once the drive is recognized, not before. Reference: Page Number 91 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is one function of the Certificate Manager (certmgr.exe)? A. It is used to manage, import, export, or request digital certificates for a user, the system, or a service. B.It is used to delete or remove digital certificates for a user, the system, or a service. C.It is used to create or generate digital certificates for a user, the system, or a service. D.It is used to update or modify digital certificates for a user, the system, or a service.

" "Correct Answer: A. It is used to manage, import, export, or request digital certificates for a user, the system, or a service. Explanation: The Certificate Manager (certmgr.exe) is used to manage, import, export, or request digital certificates for a user, the system, or a service. This allows for proper authentication processes as well as the exchange of data and information between network nodes. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B, C, D are incorrect because the Certificate Manager (certmgr.exe) does not directly provide functions for deletion, creation or update of digital certificates. Its primary function is managing, exporting, importing, and requesting digital certificates for a user, system, or service. Reference: Page Number 95 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the System Configuration utility primarily used for? A. Managing the startup process for Windows B.Deleting an Operating System from the boot menu C.Running the Event Viewer D.Editing the Task Manager

" "Correct Answer: A. Managing the startup process for Windows Explanation: The System Configuration Tool, also known as msconfig.exe, is primarily used for managing the startup process for Windows, although it also carries other functionality. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. While you can see all copies of installed Windows and set a default OS from the System Configuration tool, it isn't primarily used for deleting an OS from the boot menu. C. The System Configuration tool lists many utilities available elsewhere in Windows, including Event Viewer, but it isn't primarily used to run Event Viewer. D. The Startup feature is listed in the System Configuration tool but in Windows 10 and 11, this feature has moved to the Task Manager. Reference: Page Number 109 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " How can you access the Group Policy Editor on a Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 for Workstations, or Enterprise edition? A. Use the Local Group Policy Editor B.Access through the Start menu and search for gpedit.msc. C.Press WIN-X and then select 'Group Policy Editor' D.Right-click on the Desktop, then select 'Group Policy Editor' from 'New' options.

" "Correct Answer: B. Access through the Start menu and search for gpedit.msc. Explanation: The Group Policy Editor can be accessed through the Start menu and searching for 'gpedit.msc' as stated in the provided text. It also can be accessed through the Run Command box by pressing WIN-R and typing 'gpedit.msc' in the Run window. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The Local Group Policy Editor is the tool that must be used for Windows 10 Home edition, not the Pro, Workstations or Enterprise editions. C. There's no mention in the provided text that pressing WIN-X provides access to the Group Policy Editor. D. The provided text doesn't suggest that right-clicking on the Desktop and selecting 'Group Policy Editor' from 'New' options is a valid way to access the Group Policy Editor. Reference: Page Number 61 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps to join a Windows 10 computer to a domain using Settings? A. Open the Power User menu -> Select Settings -> Select Accounts -> Click on Access Work or School -> Follow the instructions on the Microsoft Account dialog box. B.Click on Start -> Select Settings -> Select Devices -> Open the Power User menu -> Follow the instructions on the Connect To Work dialog box. C.Click on Start -> Open the Power User menu -> Click on Access Work or School -> Select Accounts -> Follow the instructions on the Microsoft Account dialog box. D.Open the Power User menu -> Select Devices -> Select Accounts -> Click on Connect To Work -> Follow the instructions on the Network dialog box.

" "Correct Answer: A. Open the Power User menu -> Select Settings -> Select Accounts -> Click on Access Work or School -> Follow the instructions on the Microsoft Account dialog box. Explanation: This is the correct order of steps as described in the text above. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option B: This is incorrect because the initial step is to open the Power User menu, not 'Start' and there is no 'Connect To Work dialog box'. Option C: This is incorrect because after opening the Power User menu, the Settings option must be selected, not 'Start'. Also, Access Work or School is selected later in the process. Option D: This is incorrect because the Devices option is not involved in this process, and there is also no 'Connect To Work' or 'Network dialog box' mentioned in the steps. Reference: Page Number 49 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the correct sequence for adding a snap-in with the Microsoft Management Console (MMC)? A. Select from File menu the Add/Remove Snap-In option, Choose the snap-in from Available list, click the Add arrow button, and repeat for additional snap-ins. B.Click the Add arrow button in the center, select from File menu the Add/Remove Snap-In option, Choose the snap-in from the Available list, and repeat for additional snap-ins. C.Choose the snap-in from Available list, Select from File menu the Add/Remove Snap-In option, click the Add arrow button and repeat for additional snap-ins. D.Select from File menu the Add/Remove Snap-In option, click the Add arrow button, Choose the snap-in from Available list, and repeat for additional snap-ins.

" "Correct Answer: A. Select from File menu the Add/Remove Snap-In option, Choose the snap-in from Available list, click the Add arrow button, and repeat for additional snap-ins. Explanation: In order to add a snap-in with the MMC, you first need to select the Add/Remove Snap-In option from the File menu. Then, from the available snap-ins list, choose the one you want to add and use the Add button to do so. Repeat this action if you need to add more snap-ins. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choices B, C, and D all indicate incorrect sequences. For adding a snap-in, you should first access the Add/Remove Snap-In option from the File menu, not start with clicking the Add button (B), choosing snap-ins (C), or combining the two (D) Reference: Page Number 84 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What functions can you perform in the General tab of the Internet Properties dialog box? A. Set your home page, startup options, browsing history, and appearance settings. B.Set up Internet, VPN, LAN, and proxy settings. C.Select default programs for browsing, HTML editing, and file associations. D.Configure the pop-up blocker as well as set up InPrivate browsing, per-site settings, and cookie management.

" "Correct Answer: A. Set your home page, startup options, browsing history, and appearance settings. Explanation: The General tab in the Internet Properties dialog box allows you to set your home page, startup options, browsing history, and modify appearance settings. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Setting up Internet, VPN, LAN, and proxy settings is done in the 'Connections' tab. C. Selecting default programs for browsing, HTML editing, and file associations is done in the 'Programs' tab. D. Configuring the pop-up blocker as well as setting up InPrivate browsing, per-site settings, and cookie management is done in the 'Privacy' tab. Reference: Page Number 121 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What occurs when a drive array is spanned in Disk Management in a dynamic disk setup? A. The capacities of two or more disks are simply added together B.Data is written across two drives to enhance speed C.Data is written to two drives at the same time to prepare for potential drive failure D.The disk becomes a boot disk

" "Correct Answer: A. The capacities of two or more disks are simply added together Explanation: In a dynamic disk setup, when a drive array is spanned, the capacities of two or more disks are added together, equivalent to the Just a Bunch Of Disks (JBOD) hardware array concept. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Describes the Striped array concept which works by spreading data across two drives to increase speed. This is more like a software version of RAID 0. C. Refers to the concept of the Mirrored array, where data is written to two drives simultaneously for the sake of disaster recovery. This concept is similar to a software version of RAID 1. D. The statement is false, dynamic disks cannot be used as boot disks. Reference: Page Number 91 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following methods can be used to open the Local Group Policy Editor? A. Using the Run command box and entering 'gpedit.msc' B.Directly clicking on its default shortcut C.Right-clicking on the desktop and selecting 'Open Local Group Policy Editor' D.Opening it from the Recycle Bin

" "Correct Answer: A. Using the Run command box and entering 'gpedit.msc' Explanation: The Local Group Policy Editor can be opened from the Run command box by pressing WIN-R to open this box, then entering 'gpedit.msc' and clicking OK. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The Local Group Policy Editor does not have any default shortcuts. C. Right-clicking on the desktop does not provide an option to open the Local Group Policy Editor. D. The Recycle Bin does not have functionality for opening the Local Group Policy Editor. Reference: Page Number 105 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which Windows 10 editions have access to the Group Policy Editor? A. Windows 10 Pro and Windows 10 for Workstations B.Windows 10 Home C.Windows 7 D.All of them

" "Correct Answer: A. Windows 10 Pro and Windows 10 for Workstations Explanation: The Group Policy Editor is only accessible on the Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 for Workstations, and Enterprise editions. The Windows 10 Home edition does not have access to Group Policy Editor, it must use the Local Group Policy Editor instead. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Windows 10 Home edition must use the Local Group Policy Editor, it does not have access to the Group Policy Editor. C. The question is specifically about Windows 10 editions, it does not address Windows 7. D. Not all Windows 10 editions have access to the Group Policy Editor, the Windows 10 Home edition does not. Reference: Page Number 61 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What information does the System Information tool, or msinfo32.exe, provide about a computer system? A. Windows and BIOS/UEFI versions, hardware manufacturer, model, and type, and CPU version and manufacturer. B.Current system time, user's name, and hard drive type. C.Operating system type, CPU model and speed, and remaining memory. D.Amount of data stored and most used applications.

" "Correct Answer: A. Windows and BIOS/UEFI versions, hardware manufacturer, model, and type, and CPU version and manufacturer. Explanation: The System Information tool provides comprehensive data about a system, some of which include: Windows and BIOS/UEFI versions, hardware manufacturer, model, and type, CPU version and manufacturer, boot device, memory and system resources, location and time zone, and others as mentioned in the text. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. While the System Information tool does provide some data on time zone and user name, it does not provide the current system time or the hard drive type. C. While System Information provides data on the operating system type and CPU, it does not provide information on the remaining memory specifically. D. The System Information tool does not provide information on amount of data stored or most used applications. Reference: Page Number 107 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What are the four major components of the Desktop GUI in Windows 10? A. the GUI display, the Start menu, the taskbar, and the object icons B.the Start menu, the taskbar, the command line, and the object icons C.the GUI display, the command line, the shortcuts, and the Start menu D.the shortcuts, the taskbar, the object icons, and the folders

" "Correct Answer: A. the GUI display, the Start menu, the taskbar, and the object icons Explanation: The Desktop GUI in Windows 10 contains four major components which are the GUI display, the Start menu, the taskbar, and the object icons. The GUI display displays everything on the desktop. The Start menu provides links to system services as well as applications and utilities available on the system. The taskbar is a bar at the bottom of the screen where tasks are displayed. The object icons are the icons linked to virtually any addressable object on the computer such as files, folders, programs, etc. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Incorrect. Command line is not a major component of the Desktop GUI in Windows 10. C. Incorrect. Shortcuts are associated with object icons, not a standalone component. D. Incorrect. Folders are not considered a major component. Reference: Page Number 52 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the maximum amount of RAM supported by the 32-bit editions of Windows 10? A. 2 GB B.4 GB C.8 GB D.16 GB

" "Correct Answer: B. 4 GB Explanation: The 32-bit editions of Windows 10 support up to 4 GB of RAM. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 2 GB - Incorrect, the 32-bit editions of Windows 10 support up to 4 GB of RAM, not 2 G B. C. 8 GB - Incorrect, the 8 GB of RAM support is beyond the maximum amount for a 32-bit operating system. D. 16 GB - Incorrect, the 16 GB of RAM support is far beyond the maximum amount for a 32-bit operating system. Reference: Page Number 56 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" Which of the following statements about the 32-bit architecture is incorrect? A. It can be used with either a 32-bit or 64-bit processor B.A 32-bit OS version can support more than 4 GB of system memory C.It is now primarily used by very low-performance tablets D.A 64-bit OS version cannot run on a 32-bit CPU

" "Correct Answer: B. A 32-bit OS version can support more than 4 GB of system memory Explanation: A 32-bit architecture limits 32-bit versions of windows to 4GB of system memory (RAM). Hence, they cannot support more than 4 GB of system memory. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is correct. A 32-bit operating system can be used with either a 32-bit or 64-bit processor. C. This is correct. The once-common 32-bit processors are now used primarily by very low-performance tablets. D. This is correct. A 64-bit OS version cannot run on a 32-bit CPU. Reference: Page Number 42 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is an administrative template within the context of the Group Policy Editor? A. A tool that disables services and applications B.A policy-setting XML document that controls features of services or applications C.A set of application templates only for Microsoft applications D.A method to restrict non-administrative users from adding device drivers

" "Correct Answer: B. A policy-setting XML document that controls features of services or applications Explanation: An administrative template is a policy-setting XML document providing control or features to a service or an application. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. An administrative template does not disable services or applications, but provides control or features. C. While Microsoft applications have set of administrative templates, many other companies also provide application templates for their applications. D. A function of an administrative template could allow non-administrative users to add device drivers, not restrict them. Reference: Page Number 106 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is needed in every case of upgrading from one edition of the Windows OS to a newer one? A. An internet connection B.A volume license or product key for each device affected C.A separate Windows antivirus and security software D.A Windows 10 Installation Media Tool

" "Correct Answer: B. A volume license or product key for each device affected Explanation: The text specifies that every upgrade from one edition of the Windows OS to a newer edition requires a volume license or a product key for each device affected. This is needed to verify the validity of the software and to prevent unauthorized use. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The text doesn't state that an internet connection is necessary in every case. C: The contribution of the Windows antivirus and security software is not mentioned regarding the upgrade process. D: The Windows 10 Installation Media Tool is only mentioned as a tool for performing an in-place upgrade and not as a requirement for every upgrade. Reference: Page Number 62 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

" " What does the 'Group By Type' selection do in the Task Manager's View menu? A. It filters the processes based on their intensity of usage. B.It groups active processes into the categories Apps, Background Processes, and Windows Processes. C.It allows the user to sequence the active processes based on their CPU usage. D.It expands all process groups listed, displaying their components.

" "Correct Answer: B. It groups active processes into the categories Apps, Background Processes, and Windows Processes. Explanation: 'Group By Type' is a selection under the 'View' menu in Task Manager. When selected, it groups active processes into three distinct categories: Apps, Background Processes, and Windows Processes. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: 'Group By Type' does not filter processes based on their intensity of usage, it categorizes them. C: 'Group By Type' does not allow the user to sequence the active processes based on their CPU usage, it again categorizes them. D: 'Expand All' and 'Collapse All' are separate options in the View menu that deal with displaying the components of each process group and do not have to do with the 'Group By Type' selection. Reference: Page Number 78 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the purpose of the Windows Registry? A. It is a database that stores all the data on the computer. B.It is a database that stores the Windows hardware, software, and user configuration data. C.It is a tool used to access the Internet on a Windows computer. D.It is an application that all Windows computers are required to have installed.

" "Correct Answer: B. It is a database that stores the Windows hardware, software, and user configuration data. Explanation: The Windows Registry is a database that stores the Windows hardware, software, and user configuration data in the form of keys and values. It is used to view, archive, and modify Windows Registry settings when necessary. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. It is a database that stores all the data on the computer - Incorrect. The Windows Registry doesn't store all data, but rather, the hardware, software, and user configuration data. C. It is a tool used to access the Internet on a Windows computer - Incorrect. The Windows Registry has nothing to do with Internet access. D. It is an application that all Windows computers are required to have installed - Incorrect. While it is an integral part of Windows, it's not a 'required application' in the traditional sense. Reference: Page Number 113 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does initialization mean in the context of Disk Management? A. It means formatting the drive and removing all data. B.It means Disk Management identifies the drive and its function. C.It means the drive becomes unreadable until re-initialized. D.It implies the drive is defective and needs replacement.

" "Correct Answer: B. It means Disk Management identifies the drive and its function. Explanation: In the context of Disk Management, initialization simply means that Disk Management identifies the drive and what its role is, such as whether it is part of a software RAID array or a spanned volume. No data is harmed in this process. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Initialization in Disk Management does not mean formatting the drive and removing all data. This is incorrect as it doesn't erase any data during this process. C. Initialization does not make a drive unreadable until re-initialized. Instead, it helps in identifying the drive and its respective role. D. Initialization doesn't imply that the drive is defective and needs replacement. It is just a process to identify the drive and understand its role. Reference: Page Number 89 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'Minimize on Use' option in the Task Manager do when selected? A. It minimizes the Task Manager whenever a program is opened. B.It minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked and 'Switch To' option is chosen. C.It hides the Task Manager in the system tray when the minimize button is clicked. D.It minimizes the Task Manager whenever the system screen is locked.

" "Correct Answer: B. It minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked and 'Switch To' option is chosen. Explanation: The 'Minimize on Use' option, when selected, minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked and the 'Switch To' option is chosen. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The option doesn't minimize the Task Manager whenever a program is opened; it is minimized when the process is right-clicked and switched. C. 'Hide When Minimized' is the option that hides the Task Manager in the system tray when the minimize button is clicked, not 'Minimize on Use'. D. The 'Minimize on Use' option doesn't relate to the system screen being locked; it minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked and switched. Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the function of the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) in a Windows OS? A. It provides system and network tools. B.It provides a user interface and framework that supports the functions of any snap-ins or consoles. C.It directly communicates with specific services or features. D.It is the snap-in for group and local policies.

" "Correct Answer: B. It provides a user interface and framework that supports the functions of any snap-ins or consoles. Explanation: The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) provides a user interface and framework that allows the addition and execution of different snap-ins or consoles. It doesn't have any inherent system or network tools but rather supports the functions of any added tools. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The MMC itself does not provide system or network tools but supports the functions of any added snap-ins or consoles. C. MMC is not an OS object that communicates with specific services or features. This job is done by snap-in tools. D. The group and local policies snap-in is not the MMC itself, it is an example of a tool that can be added to the MMC's framework. Reference: Page Number 83 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the main benefit of using a virtual desktop? A. It allows for running multiple operating systems at the same time B.It provides the ability to work in two or more different environments on the same system C.It allows for automatic saving of work D.It increases the physical memory of the computer

" "Correct Answer: B. It provides the ability to work in two or more different environments on the same system Explanation: The primary benefit of a virtual desktop is that it 'virtualizes' a single computer into simulating multiple systems, hence allowing a user to work in two or more different environments, applications, or tasks on the same system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While it may seem like virtual desktops can run multiple operating systems, they do not. They merely provide the illusion of multiple systems within the same operating system. C. Virtual desktops do not have an automatic save feature. It's up to the apps being used on the desktop. D. Virtual desktops do not increase the physical memory of a computer. They simply make better use of existing resources. Reference: Page Number 52 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What are the four types of data collector sets in the Performance Monitor? A. System counters, Event traces, User-defined, System event traces B.System counters, Event traces, Startup event trace sessions, User-defined C.Event traces, System timer sessions, User-defined, System counters D.System counters, User sessions, Startup event trace sessions, Event traces

" "Correct Answer: B. System counters, Event traces, Startup event trace sessions, User-defined Explanation: The four types of data collector sets are System (performance) counters which collects data by polling an event over a specific period of time, Event traces which collects data on specific event occurrences, Startup event trace sessions that captures information on events relating to system configuration that occur during system startup, and User-defined which collects data on performance and/or events as defined by the user. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they include categories that are not listed as types of data collector sets in the Performance Monitor. The correct categories are System counters, Event traces, Startup event trace sessions, and User-defined. Reference: Page Number 102 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following statements about the Group Policy Editor in Windows 10 is true? A. Windows 10 Home edition has access to the Group Policy Editor. B.The Group Policy Editor can be accessed by searching for gpedit.msc in the Start menu. C.The Group Policy Editor contains only one primary administration group: Computer Configuration. D.Administrative templates cannot be added for specific functions or software.

" "Correct Answer: B. The Group Policy Editor can be accessed by searching for gpedit.msc in the Start menu. Explanation: In Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 for Workstations, and Enterprise editions, the Group Policy Editor can be opened using different methods, including searching for gpedit.msc in the Start menu or Run Command box. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Windows 10 Home edition does not have access to the Group Policy Editor, it must use the Local Group Policy Editor. C. The Group Policy Editor contains two primary administration groups: Computer Configuration and User Configuration. D. Administrative templates can be added for specific functions or software, and many software publishers provide administrative templates for their products. Reference: Page Number 61 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the main function of the Performance Monitor (perfmon.exe)? A. To install new software B.To monitor system performance and present collected data C.To update system drivers D.To manage the computer's firewall settings

" "Correct Answer: B. To monitor system performance and present collected data Explanation: The Performance Monitor (perfmon.exe) is primarily used to keep an eye on the system's performance and present the data it gathers either in real time or as a log file. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Installing new software is not the purpose of perfmon.exe, this would typically be done through an installer or package manager. C. Updating system drivers is not the responsibility of perfmon.exe, this is usually handled by device manager or similar. D. Managing the computer's firewall settings is done through firewall settings and not through perfmon.exe. Reference: Page Number 100 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the purpose of the Disk Cleanup tool in Windows? A. To uninstall applications B.To remove old or unneeded files and potentially increase the speed of the drive and improve application processing C.To transfer files to another storage device D.To scan for and remove malware

" "Correct Answer: B. To remove old or unneeded files and potentially increase the speed of the drive and improve application processing Explanation: Disk Cleanup is a Windows utility that allows users to remove old or unneeded files from their hard drive, which can help free up disk space and improve the speed of their system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Disk Cleanup doesn't uninstall applications. C. Transferring files to another storage device is not a function of Disk Cleanup. D. Disk Cleanup does not scan for or remove malware; this is the function of antivirus software. Reference: Page Number 110 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which Windows 10 edition does not have access to the Group Policy Editor? A. Windows 10 Pro B.Windows 10 Home C.Windows 10 for Workstations D.Windows 10 Enterprise

" "Correct Answer: B. Windows 10 Home Explanation: The Windows 10 Home edition must use the Local Group Policy Editor as it does not have access to the Group Policy Editor. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 for Workstations, and Windows 10 Enterprise editions have access to the Group Policy Editor. Reference: Page Number 60 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which utility is used to display information about a computer that can be used to diagnose a problem according to the information provided in the text? A. msconfig32.exe B.msinfo32.exe C.diag32.exe D.sysinfo32.exe

" "Correct Answer: B. msinfo32.exe Explanation: According to the text, the System Information tool, also known as the MSInfo utility, is technically the program msinfo32.exe. This utility displays information about a computer, which can then be used to diagnose a problem. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): 1) msconfig32.exe does not exist. The correct utility is msinfo32.exe. 2) diag32.exe is not the correct utility. It does not exist. The correct utility is msinfo32.exe. 3) sysinfo32.exe is not the correct utility. It does not exist; the correct utility is msinfo32.exe. Reference: Page Number 107 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which command-line tool displays the IP address of the specified domain or server or displays the domain or server associated with the specified IP address? A. chkdsk B.nslookup C.netstat D.ping

" "Correct Answer: B. nslookup Explanation: The 'nslookup' command-line tool is used to query the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping, or other DNS records. Thus, it can display the IP address for a specified domain or server, or display the domain or server associated with a specified IP address. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. chkdsk is used to check the integrity of disk and to fix various system errors. C. netstat is used to display network statistics. D. ping is used to check the connectivity to an IP address or a website. Reference: Page Number 68 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What actions can the Disk Management snap-in support for managing hard disk drives in a Windows system? A. It can only format disk volumes or partitions with the FAT file system B.It cannot create, remove, and format disk volumes or partitions with any Microsoft file systems C.It can change basic disks to dynamic disks and create and format fault-tolerant disk volumes D.It can only show the drive status of every initialized mass storage device in your system without any further operations

" "Correct Answer: C. It can change basic disks to dynamic disks and create and format fault-tolerant disk volumes Explanation: The Disk Management snap-in can create, remove, and format disk volumes or partitions with any of the Microsoft file systems, including the File Allocation Table (FAT), FAT32, and the New Technology File System (NTFS). It's also capable of changing basic disks to dynamic disks and creating and formatting fault-tolerant disk volumes. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The Disk Management Tool can format volumes with more than just FAT file system, it can do so with FAT32 and NTFS as well. B. This is incorrect as the Disk Management Tool can create, remove, and format volumes or partitions. D. Apart from showing drive statuses, Disk Management Tool can also perform a variety of tasks like formatting volumes, changing disk types and so on. Reference: Page Number 89 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'Hide When Minimized' option in the Windows Task Manager do? A. It keeps the Task Manager window on top at all times. B.It refreshes the Task Manager display when the Task Manager is minimized. C.It causes the Task Manager to run in the system tray when minimized. D.It collapses all process groups when the Task Manager is minimized.

" "Correct Answer: C. It causes the Task Manager to run in the system tray when minimized. Explanation: The 'Hide When Minimized' option in the Task Manager will cause it to continue running in the background in the system tray (or notification area) when the minimize button is clicked, thus keeping it accessible even when not in current use. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 'Always on Top' option keeps the Task Manager window on top at all times, not the 'Hide When Minimized' option. B. The 'Refresh Now' option refreshes the Task Manager display, not the 'Hide When Minimized' option. D. The 'Collapse All' option collapses all process groups, not the 'Hide When Minimized' option. Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " In the Task Manager, what is the function of the 'Collapse All' option under the View menu? A. It freezes the display until a higher frequency is selected. B.It minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked. C.It collapses all process groups listed. D.It starts a program or opens a folder when provided with its address

" "Correct Answer: C. It collapses all process groups listed. Explanation: The 'Collapse All' option in the View menu collapses all process groups that might be listed in the Task Manager. This is used for managing the visual display of processes running on the system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Freezing the display until a higher frequency is selected is the responsibility of the 'Paused' command, not 'Collapse All'. B. Minimizing the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked is the function of the 'Minimize on Use' option, not 'Collapse All'. D. The 'Run New Task' option under the File menu is used to start a program or open a folder when provided with its address, not 'Collapse All'. Reference: Page Number 78 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What information does the Performance tab in the Task Manager provide? A. It displays information on the resource and CPU utilization for each application or service executed by the active user account. B.It provides the details for each of the processes active on the system at the time this tab is opened. C.It displays CPU usage, available physical memory, the size of the disk cache, commit charge, and kernel memory. Along with several selectable report or view options. D.It lists the applications or programs that are to start automatically whenever Windows starts up.

" "Correct Answer: C. It displays CPU usage, available physical memory, the size of the disk cache, commit charge, and kernel memory. Along with several selectable report or view options. Explanation: The 'Performance' tab in the Task Manager is all about showing the current and historical consumption and usage details of the system resources like CPU, memory, disks, network and GPU. Each resource has selectable options to show more details. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A refers to the 'App History' tab. This tab shows resource and CPU utilization for applications and services. Option B is about the 'Details' tab, which provides 'details' for each of the system's active processes. Option D is associated with the 'Startup' tab, which lists applications and programs that start automatically whenever Windows boots up. Reference: Page Number 79 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What happens when the 'Always on Top' option in the Task Manager is selected? A. It minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked and the Switch To option is chosen. B.The Task Manager will stay running in the notification area (system tray) when you click the minimize button. C.It displays the Task Manager as the foremost window. D.It groups active processes into three categories: Apps, Background Processes, and Windows Processes.

" "Correct Answer: C. It displays the Task Manager as the foremost window. Explanation: The 'Always on Top' option, when selected, makes the Task Manager the most visible window on your screen, overlaid onto any other active windows. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is the function of the 'Minimize on Use' option, not the 'Always on Top' option. B. This is the job of the 'Hide When Minimized' option, not 'Always on Top'. D. This is what 'Group By Type' option performs, not the 'Always on Top' function. Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is BitLocker as described in the given text? A. It is a Windows feature used to unencrypt data on a hard drive. B.It is a process that converts plain text into cipher text. C.It is a Windows feature used for encrypting the data on a hard drive or USB flash drives. D.It is a tool used for sharing decryption keys.

" "Correct Answer: C. It is a Windows feature used for encrypting the data on a hard drive or USB flash drives. Explanation: BitLocker is indeed a Windows feature that is used to encrypt the data on storage devices, including hard drives and USB flash drives. With BitLocker, data is protected from access by anyone who doesn't have a specific user login account or the recovery key. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. BitLocker is used to encrypt, not unencrypt data. B. The conversion of plain text into cipher text refers to the process of encryption, not specifically BitLocker. D. BitLocker does not directly deal with the sharing of decryption keys. Reference: Page Number 57 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of the System Configuration utility? A. It is primarily used for troubleshooting internet connectivity issues. B.It can only be accessed by using the WIN-R command. C.It is used to edit and troubleshoot startup processes and services. D.It cannot provide a list of tools and utilities available elsewhere in Windows.

" "Correct Answer: C. It is used to edit and troubleshoot startup processes and services. Explanation: The System Configuration utility, or msconfig.exe, is primarily used to manage the startup process for Windows, as well as assist in troubleshooting system performance issues. It allows users to modify startup programs, services, and other aspects of the system to optimize its performance and resolve issues. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The System Configuration Utility is primarily used for managing startup processes and services and troubleshooting system performance, not internet connectivity issues. B. The System Configuration Utility can be accessed either by entering 'msconfig' in the Start menu or by using the 'WIN-R' command to open the Run command box. D. The System Configuration Utility includes a 'Tools' tab that lists many of the tools and utilities available elsewhere in Windows. Reference: Page Number 109 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'Always on Top' option do in the Task Manager's Options menu? A. It minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked and the Switch To option is chosen. B.It refreshes the Task Manager display. C.It keeps the Task Manager as the foremost window when selected. D.It expands the components of each process in the Task Manager.

" "Correct Answer: C. It keeps the Task Manager as the foremost window when selected. Explanation: The 'Always on Top' option in the Task Manager's Options menu, when selected, displays the Task Manager as the foremost window. This allows you to keep it in sight even while using other programs/windows. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The 'Minimize on Use' option minimizes the Task Manager when a process is right-clicked and the Switch To option is chosen, not the 'Always on Top' option. B: The 'Refresh Now' option in the View menu refreshes the Task Manager display, not the 'Always on Top' option. D: The 'Expand All' option in the View menu displays (expands) the components, if any, of each process, not the 'Always on Top' option. Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the function of the Resource Monitor in Windows? A. It is used to edit system files B.It allows you to customize your desktop C.It monitors and records usage and health of hardware resources D.It is used to download and install updates

" "Correct Answer: C. It monitors and records usage and health of hardware resources Explanation: The Resource Monitor is a Windows utility application that monitors and records the usage and health of a computer's hardware resources such as CPU, hard drives, and memory. It also produces graphical or statistical representations of how the system resources are being used. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The Resource Monitor does not edit system files. B. The Resource Monitor is not used to customize the desktop. D. The Resource Monitor does not download and install updates. Reference: Page Number 108 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What information does the Services tab in the Task Manager provide? A. It displays the fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s) B.It lists the applications or programs that are to start automatically whenever Windows starts up C.It provides the same information and functions of the services.msc utility and can be used to manage the services on the system D.It displays information on the resource and CPU utilization for each application or service executed by the active user account

" "Correct Answer: C. It provides the same information and functions of the services.msc utility and can be used to manage the services on the system Explanation: The Services tab in the Task Manager essentially provides the same information and functionality as the services.msc utility. It can be used to manage the services that are running or stopped on the system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is the function of the Users tab, not the Services tab. B. This is the function of the Startup tab, not the Services tab. D. This is the function of the App History tab, not the Services tab Reference: Page Number 83 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'edition' mean in context of Windows 10? A. It refers to the identification code of the build. B.It refers to the release of an update on a periodic basis. C.It refers to the name of the product, such as Enterprise or Pro. D.It refers to the graphical user interface version.

" "Correct Answer: C. It refers to the name of the product, such as Enterprise or Pro. Explanation: In Windows 10, the term 'edition' typically refers to the official product name like 'Enterprise' or 'Pro'. Different editions are typically built to cater to different needs of the users. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Edition doesn't refer to the identification code of the build. That is described as the 'version'. B. 'Release' refers to the release of an update on a periodic basis, not 'edition'. D. The edition isn't about the graphical user interface version. That's usually referred to as the version of the operating system. Reference: Page Number 43 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the role of the 'Refresh Now' field under the 'View' section of the 'Task Manager'? A. It acts as a toggle to turn on or off a display feature. B.It close the Task Manager. C.It refreshes the Task Manager display. D.It sets the frequency for updating the display.

" "Correct Answer: C. It refreshes the Task Manager display. Explanation: The 'Refresh Now' option under the 'View' tab in the 'Task Manager' is designed to refresh the Task Manager display. By clicking this option, the user might see changes in the Task Manager display as it updates to the latest statuses of the system's processes. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 'Refresh Now' field doesn't act as a toggle. Toggles are typically found in the 'Options' section, not the 'View'. B. Closing the Task Manager is a function under the 'File' section, not the 'View'. D. Update Speed, not 'Refresh Now', is related to setting the frequency for updating display in the Task Manager. Reference: Page Number 77 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the function of the 'Processes' tab in Task Manager? A. It lists applications that start automatically whenever Windows starts. B.It displays the fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s). C.It shows the status and resources consumption for each active process. D.It provides the same information and functions of the services.msc utility.

" "Correct Answer: C. It shows the status and resources consumption for each active process. Explanation: The 'Processes' tab in Task Manager displays the status and resource consumption for each active process. It also allows the user the option to terminate any active process. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 'Startup' tab lists the applications or programs that are set to start automatically whenever Windows starts, not the 'Processes' tab. B. The 'Users' tab displays the fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s), not the 'Processes' tab. D. The 'Services' tab provides the same information and functions of the services.msc utility (also accessible via the Administrative Tools app on the Control Panel), not the 'Processes' tab. Reference: Page Number 78 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the function of 'Striped' in drive arrays of dynamic disks? A. It combines the capacities of two or more disks. B.It duplicates the data and writes it to two drives at the same time. C.It writes data across two drives to enhance speed. D.It cannot be used as boot disk.

" "Correct Answer: C. It writes data across two drives to enhance speed. Explanation: In 'Striped' drive arrays of dynamic disks, data is written across two drives to enhance reading and writing speed. This is a software version of RAID 0 hardware array. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 'Spanned' function combines the capacities of two or more disks, not 'Striped'. B. The 'Mirrored' feature duplicates the data and writes it to two drives at the same time, not 'Striped'. D. The statement that dynamic disks cannot be used as boot disks doesn't specify the function of 'Striped'. Reference: Page Number 91 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What are the exclusive features available in Windows 10 Enterprise edition not available in the Pro edition? A. Support for Resilient File System (ReFS) and Windows Storage Spaces B.BitLocker and Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) C.Microsoft Direct Access VPN technology, AppLocker software executive management tool, and the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack D.Enabling more RAM

" "Correct Answer: C. Microsoft Direct Access VPN technology, AppLocker software executive management tool, and the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack Explanation: This option is correct because the text specifies that the Enterprise edition includes several features not available in the Pro version, such as the Microsoft Direct Access VPN technology, AppLocker software executive management tool, and the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A, B, and D are incorrect. Support for Resilient File System (ReFS) and Windows Storage Spaces are belongs to Windows 10 Pro for Workstations, BitLocker and Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) are available on both Pro for Workstations and Enterprise editions. Enabling more RAM is the feature of Windows 10 Pro for Workstations, not exclusive feature for Enterprise edition. Reference: Page Number 46 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following features is NOT supported by the Windows 10 Home edition? A. Multicore processes as many as 64 B.Cortana and the Edge web browser C.Multiple CPUs D.128 GB of RAM in its 64-bit version

" "Correct Answer: C. Multiple CPUs Explanation: The Windows 10 Home edition does not support features for multiple CPUs, only multicore processes (as many as 64). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because Windows 10 Home edition does support as many as 64 multicore processes. Option B is incorrect because the Home edition does include all core features, including Cortana and the Edge web browser. Lastly, D is incorrect because the 64-bit version of the Windows 10 Home edition supports a maximum of 128 GB of RAM. Reference: Page Number 45 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " How can you open the Local Group Policy Editor using the Run command box? A. Enter 'settings' and press OK B.Press WIN-E and then gpedit.msc C.Press WIN-R, type gpedit.msc and click OK D.Enter 'group policy' in the Windows Search

" "Correct Answer: C. Press WIN-R, type gpedit.msc and click OK Explanation: By pressing WIN-R, you open the Run command box. Then you enter 'gpedit.msc' and click OK to open the Local Group Policy Editor. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because typing 'settings' and pressing OK in the Run command box will not open the Local Group Policy Editor. Option B is incorrect because pressing WIN-E doesn't open the Run box, it opens the File Explorer. Option D is incorrect because entering 'group policy' in the Windows Search refers to using the Windows Search function and not the Run command box. Reference: Page Number 105 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following is NOT a way to open the Task Manager in Windows OS? A. Pressing the CTRL-SHIFT-ESC keys in combination. B.Right-clicking the Start icon or the taskbar and selecting Task Manager from the Power User menu. C.Pressing the F1 key on the keyboard. D.Pressing the CTRL-ALT-DEL keys in combination and selecting Task Manager from the Windows Security menu.

" "Correct Answer: C. Pressing the F1 key on the keyboard. Explanation: The F1 key on the keyboard is not used to open the Windows Task Manager. It is often used as a Help key in most programs. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): The incorrect choices are actually the correct methods to open the Windows Task Manager. Choice A is done by pressing the CTRL, SHIFT, and ESC keys together. For Choice B, by right-clicking the Start icon or the taskbar, the Power User menu appears where the Task Manager can be selected. And Choice D is achieved by pressing the CTRL, ALT, and DEL keys together to bring up the Windows Security menu, then selecting Task Manager. Reference: Page Number 76 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which tab in the Internet Properties dialog box allows you to set up InPrivate browsing? A. General B.Security C.Privacy D.Content

" "Correct Answer: C. Privacy Explanation: In the Internet Properties dialog box, the Privacy tab allows you to configure the pop-up blocker as well as set up InPrivate browsing, per-site settings, and cookie management. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The General tab is for setting your home page, startup options, browsing history, and appearance settings. B. The Security tab is for setting security levels for websites in different zones. D. The Content tab contains features associated more with Internet Explorer than the Edge or other browsers. You won't see any questions on this tab on the exam. Reference: Page Number 121 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What information can you find in the Startup tab of the Task Manager on a Windows system? A. The utilisation of CPU and other resources for each application B.A list of processes that are currently active on the system C.The applications or programs that are programmed to start automatically whenever Windows starts D.Information and functions similar to the services.msc utility

" "Correct Answer: C. The applications or programs that are programmed to start automatically whenever Windows starts Explanation: The Startup tab in the Task Manager lists the applications or programs that are set to start automatically when Windows boots. It also shows programs that were previously enabled at startup but have since been disabled. Additionally, it gives the publisher of each item and the potential impact each may have on the startup process, if this is measurable. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The utilisation of CPU and other resources for each application is displayed in the App History tab, not the Startup tab. B. A list of processes that are currently active on the system can be found under the Processes tab, not the Startup tab. D. Information and functions that are similar to the services.msc utility can be found under the Services tab, not the Startup tab. The Startup tab has a specific focus on automatically starting applications or programs. Reference: Page Number 80 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does Disk Management indicate if a drive status is listed as 'Unallocated'? A. The drive is damaged or corrupt B.The drive is healthy and communicating properly with the computer C.The disk has no file system or has a file system that is not recognized by Windows D.The disk partition used to boot the system

" "Correct Answer: C. The disk has no file system or has a file system that is not recognized by Windows Explanation: An 'Unallocated' status in Disk Management shows that the disk either has no file system or has a file system that Windows does not recognize. This can be the case with Linux- or macOS-specific file systems. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. A drive being damaged or corrupt is indicated by the 'Failed' status. B. A drive being healthy and communicating properly is indicated by the 'Online' status. D. The disk partition used to boot the system is indicated by the 'Active' status Reference: Page Number 88 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'Unallocated' status mean in Disk Management in a Windows system? A. The disk partition is being used to boot the system B.The disk is healthy and communicating properly with the computer C.The disk has no file system or has a file system that is not recognized by Windows D.The disk is damaged or corrupt

" "Correct Answer: C. The disk has no file system or has a file system that is not recognized by Windows Explanation: The 'Unallocated' status in Disk Management means that the disk does not have a file system, or it has a file system that is not recognized by Windows. This could include Linux- or macOS-specific file systems. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is referring to an 'Active' status, not an 'Unallocated' status. B. This is referring to an 'Online' status, not an 'Unallocated' status. D. This suggestion is referring to a 'Failed' status, not an 'Unallocated' status. Reference: Page Number 89 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the 'Active' status in Disk Management in Windows? A. The disk is healthy and communicating properly with the computer. B.The disk has no file system or has a file system that is not recognized by Windows. C.The disk partition used to boot the system. D.The disk is damaged or corrupt; you've probably lost some data.

" "Correct Answer: C. The disk partition used to boot the system. Explanation: In Windows Disk Management, the 'Active' status means that the partition is the one used to boot the system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 'Online' is the status assigned to a disk that is healthy and communicating properly with the computer, not 'Active'. B. 'Unallocated' is the status given to a disk that has no file system or has a file system that is not recognized by Windows, not 'Active'. D. 'Failed' is the status assigned to a disk that is damaged or corrupt, not 'Active'. Reference: Page Number 89 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What does the 'Users' tab in the Task Manager display? A. The administrative actions available for each process B.The length of time required for the last time Windows started C.The fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s) D.The services running or stopped on the system

" "Correct Answer: C. The fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s) Explanation: The 'Users' tab in the Task Manager displays the fluctuating percentage of a resource's capacity for the currently active user(s). This includes the CPU, memory, disk, network, and GPU. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The administrative actions available for each process are displayed in the 'Details' tab, not the 'Users' tab. B. The length of time required for the last time Windows started is displayed in the 'Startup' tab, not the 'Users' tab. D. The services running or stopped on the system are displayed in the 'Services' tab, not the 'Users' tab. Reference: Page Number 81 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the difference between the Task View displayed on the taskbar and the Task View displayed by pressing ALT-TAB? A. The taskbar Task View shows only the currently open web pages B.The ALT-TAB Task View shows only the current active view C.The taskbar Task View shows only the programs running and the active view D.The ALT-TAB Task View shows all the recently closed programs

" "Correct Answer: C. The taskbar Task View shows only the programs running and the active view Explanation: The Task View displayed by clicking the taskbar icon shows only the programs that are running and the current active view. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because neither the Task View on the taskbar nor the ALT-TAB Task View shows only the currently open web pages. Choice B is incorrect because the ALT-TAB Task View shows all the currently open pages, not just the current active view. Choice D is incorrect because the ALT-TAB Task View does not show recently closed programs, it displays all currently open pages. Reference: Page Number 52 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following statements about the Group Policy Editor is incorrect based on the given passage? A. Windows 10 Home edition can use the Local Group Policy Editor. B.The Group Policy Editor window includes two primary admin groups: Computer Configuration and User Configuration. C.Administrative templates can be added to the Group Policy Editor for specific functions or software. D.Administrative templates for the Group Policy Editor are provided only by Windows.

" "Correct Answer: D. Administrative templates for the Group Policy Editor are provided only by Windows. Explanation: Based on the information given in the passage, it's not true that administrative templates for the Group Policy Editor are solely provided by Windows. The passage specifies that many software publishers provide administrative templates for their products. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The passage confirms that the Windows 10 Home edition must use the Local Group Policy Editor. B. The passage states clearly that the Group Policy Editor window has two primary administrative groups: Computer Configuration and User Configuration. C. The passage also indicates that administrative templates can indeed be added to the Group Policy Editor for distinct functions or software. Reference: Page Number 61 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What tasks can you perform by using the Device Manager? A. Installing and updating device drivers B.Troubleshooting possible device and resource conflicts C.Viewing the status of system components and connected devices D.All of the above

" "Correct Answer: D. All of the above Explanation: The Device Manager provides consolidated access to the hardware components and devices installed on a Windows system. Its tasks include setting options, installing and updating device drivers, and troubleshooting possible device and resource conflicts. You can also use it to view the status of system components and connected devices. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choices A, B and C are all valid tasks that can be performed using the Device Manager, but they do not represent all options that are possible. Thus, individually, they are incorrect. Reference: Page Number 93 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What are the two primary configuration sections of the Group Policy Editor? A. System Configuration and User Configuration B.User Configuration and Network Configuration C.Computer Configuration and Network Configuration D.Computer Configuration and User Configuration

" "Correct Answer: D. Computer Configuration and User Configuration Explanation: The features of the Group Policy Editor tool are divided into two primary configuration sections: Computer Configuration and User Configuration. The Computer Configuration contains settings that apply to computer systems, and User Configuration contains settings that apply to one user account or a group of user accounts. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. System Configuration and User Configuration - This is incorrect because the correct sections are Computer Configuration and User Configuration. B. User Configuration and Network Configuration - This is incorrect because the correct sections are Computer Configuration and User Configuration. C. Computer Configuration and Network Configuration - This false choice includes Network Configuration, which does not exist as a primary configuration section under Group Policy Editor. Reference: Page Number 102 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which one of the following is not an action the Disk Management tool can perform on a Windows system's drives? A. Changing basic disks to dynamic disks and vice versa B.Creating and formatting disk volumes with Microsoft file systems C.Displaying the drive status of every initialized mass storage device D.Creating a Linux-specific file system on a disk

" "Correct Answer: D. Creating a Linux-specific file system on a disk Explanation: The native Disk Management tool in Windows does not support creating a Linux-specific file system - this would require additional software. The tool does, however, support other actions such as disk conversion, formatting with Microsoft file systems, and displaying drive statuses. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): The Disk Management tool in Windows can indeed perform the other actions: A) It supports changing basic disks to dynamic disks and vice versa; B) It can create and format disk volumes with Microsoft's FAT, FAT32 and NTFS file systems; and C) It shows the status of every initialized mass storage device in the system. Reference: Page Number 87 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What are the two basic display styles of the Windows 10 Desktop? A. Sidebar and Notification View B.Desktop and Notification View C.Sidebar and Task View D.Desktop and Task View

" "Correct Answer: D. Desktop and Task View Explanation: The Windows 10 Desktop can be viewed in two basic display styles: Desktop and Task View, as outlined in the text. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B, C are incorrect because the text mentions that the two basic display styles of Windows 10 are Desktop and Task View not Sidebar or Notification View. Reference: Page Number 51 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " What is the primary user interface of Windows 10 and Windows 11? A. Command Line Interface (CLI) B.PowerShell C.Terminal D.Graphical User Interface (GUI)

" "Correct Answer: D. Graphical User Interface (GUI) Explanation: The primary user interface of Windows 10 and Windows 11 is the Graphical User Interface (GUI), which constitutes the Desktop. It provides the user with a means of accessing resources easily. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B and C are incorrect because the Command Line Interface (CLI), PowerShell, and Terminal are not the primary user interfaces of Windows 10 and 11. These tools can be utilized within the operating system but are not the means by which most users interact with the system for common tasks. Reference: Page Number 51 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

" " Which of the following is NOT a supported RAID type for dynamic disks according to the passage? A. Spanned B.Striped C.Mirrored D.RAID 5

" "Correct Answer: D. RAID 5 Explanation: The passage mentions three types of RAID supported by dynamic disks: Spanned, Striped, and Mirrored. It doesn't mention RAID 5 as an option. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Spanned: This is mentioned in the passage as being equivalent to a JBOD hardware array that adds together the capacity of two or more disks. B. Striped: The passage states that data is written across two drives to enhance speed, which corresponds to the RAID 0 hardware array. C. Mirrored: The passage mentions Mirrored as a type of software equivalent to a RAID 1 hardware array where data is written to two drives simultaneously. Reference: Page Number 91 in Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)