CPT FINAL 3

A back extension on a swiss ball is considered to be what type of exercise? A. Core-strength B. Core-stabilization C. Core-endurance D. Core-power

A

A tempo of X/X/X best fits A. Power B. Stabilization C. Endurance D. Hypertrophy

A

A trainer that is not employed by a gym facility but pays the gym for every session they train would best be described as A. an independent contractor B. a general manager C. a corporate trainer D. an in-home trainer

A

At what weight should most core power exercises be performed? A. 5-10% of body weight B. 20-35% of 1RM C. 20-35% of body weight D. 75-85% of 1RM

A

Choose a muscle that is lengthened for a client exhibiting Pronation Distortion Syndrome: A. Anterior Tibialis B. Vastus Lateralis C. Iliopsoas D. Adductors

A

Circuit Training for cardiorespiratory improvements is said to be A. Just as beneficial to traditional forms of cardio. B. Better than traditional forms of cardio. C. Less effective for losing body fat when compared to traditional forms of cardio. D. More Effective for losing body fat when compared to traditional forms of cardio.

A

For adaptations in Phase 4 or Maximal Strength, an intensity of ______ would be best. A. 85-100% B. 40-60% C. 75-80% D. 65-75%

A

For most special populations besides youth, which of the following recommendations is the most common. A. Avoid high impact exercises B. Avoid using the bosu ball C. Avoid single leg exercises D. Avoid low impact exercises

A

For the Hypertrophy phase of training, the minimum recommended rest interval between sets of resistance training is: A. 0 seconds B. 60 seconds C. 2 minutes D. 30 seconds

A

Name the exercise the is most closely related to should-power A. Jerk phase of the clean and jerk B. Swiss ball push up C. Plyometric pushup D. Plank

A

The "Cable Rotation" is considered what type of exercise? A. Core-strength B. Core-functional C. Core-endurance D. Core-power

A

The Average resting heart rate for an adult is between A. 70-80 beats per minute. B. 40-60 beats per minute. C. 30-40 beats per minute. D. 90-100 beats per minute.

A

The alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint is most closely related to A. Muscle imbalance B. Reflexive Inhibition C. Altered reciprocal inhibition D. Antagonistic dominance

A

The first unwinding of protein structure due to digestive enzymes begins where? A. Stomach B. Pharnyx C. Large intestines D. Duodenum

A

The neurotransmitter responsible for initiating a muscle contraction is: A. ACH (Acetylcholine) B. ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone) C. SMR D. ATP (Adenosine Triphospate)

A

The point during aerobic exercise when a switch from mostly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production occurs is known as what? A. Ventilatory Threshold B. Stroke Volume C. Metabolic Efficiency Training D. Metabolic Ventilation Threshold

A

What phase of plyometric training focuses on the time it takes to switch from the loading of the muscle to the unloading of the muscle? A. Amortization B. Eccentrogenic C. Concentric D. Isotonic

A

What topic is within the personal trainers scope of practice and is appropriate to discuss with a client? A. Overeating will cause you to gain weight B. Avoid all low fat foods C. Eat more spinach to decrease risk of diabetes D. Focus on eating a ketogenic diet

A

When training one body part in the stabilization phase what is the maximum recommended sets you should do? A. 6 B. 12 C. 10 D. 18

A

When viewing and overhead squat assessment from the anterior view, which of the following joints should you focus on? A. Knees B. Scapulothoracic joint C. Lumbar Spine D. Cervical spine

A

Which of the following back exercises would be best to use during Phase 1 of the OPT model? A. Standing cable row B. Soccer Throw C. Rear delt fly D. Seated low row

A

Which of the following codes of professional conduct is being broken when a trainer provides a customized meal plan? A. Professionalism B. Ethical C. Confidentiality D. Business

A

Which of the following communication skills aim to show understanding of what was heard throughout the entire conversation? A. Summarizing B. Encouraging C. Imagining D. Reflecting

A

Which of the following has potential for damage do to excess dosage? A. Vitamin A B. Calcium C. Vitamin C D. Niacin

A

Which of the following should be consumed in the highest amount post workout? A. Carbohydrates at 1.5 grams per kilogram within 30 min B. Water at 1.5 grams per kilogram within 30 min C. Protein at 1.5 grams per kilogram within 30 min D. Fat at 1.5 grams per kilogram within 30 min

A

You notice a lot of soreness after the first week of workouts in you new OPT base program. What Phase of GAS are you in? A. Alarm Reaction B. Mechanical Specificity C. Strength D. Exhaustion

A

1-10 reps best fits what phase? A. Strength Endurance B. Power C. MST - Maximal Strength Training D. Hypertrophy

B

A client wants to gain as much muscle as possible. What rep range is best? A. 12-20 B. 6-12 C. 5-8 D. 1-5

B

A goal that aligns with Phase 1 Balance Training training is A. Increased rate of force production in the balance leg B. Increase joint stability C. Increase volume D. Improve eccentric power

B

Actin and Myosin make up which of the following? A. Fascicle B. Myofibril C. Perimysium D. Tendon

B

All of the following are considered proprioceptive progressions of the seated military press EXCEPT A. Sit on a Stability ball B. Use lighter weight C. Single Arm D. Alternate Arms

B

All of the following are subjective assessments except A. Prescription Medication Questionnaire B. Durnin-Wormersley Body Fat Assessment C. Health History Assessment D. Lifestyle Questionnaire

B

Autogenic inhibition is created by A. Deactivating the Golgi Tendon Organ B. Decreasing signal to the motor neurons C. Inhibiting signal to the interneurons D. Deactivating the muscle spindle

B

Choose the muscle that would be tight in a lower extremity postural distortion? A. Anterior tibialis B. Lateral Gastrocnemius C. Vastus Medialis Oblique D. Gluteus Medius

B

How long should the warm up and cool down be for Zone 1 Cardiorespiratory Training? A. 8-12 minutes B. 5-10 minutes C. 3-5 minutes D. 35 minutes

B

People in this stage of the TTM do not exercise, but are thinking about becoming more active. A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation C. Maintenance D. Preparation

B

People who exercise infrequently, but are planning to begin an exercise program in one month would be considered which stage of the Stages of Change Model? A. Maintenance B. Preparation C. Precontemplation D. Contemplation

B

Resting in between sets for 60 seconds replenishes what percentage of ATP/CP? A. 50 B. 90 C. 100 D. 20

B

Since people purchase fitness products with the desired outcome in mind, most buying decisions are based on which of the following? A. Information B. Emotion C. Sales Techniqe D. CosT

B

Stabilization Endurance Training strives to improve A. Rate of force production and power B. Muscular endurance C. Total volume of work D. Rate coding

B

The adaptations that make up resistance training are all of the following EXCEPT A. Power B. Speed C. Muscular Endurance D. Strength

B

The amount of blood pumped out the heart per beat is referred to as what? A. Pulse B. Stroke volume C. Cardiac output D. Beats Per Minute

B

The following three terms belong to what: Alarm Reaction, Resistance Development, Exhaustion A. SMR B. GAS C. PNF D. OPT

B

This term refers to the front leg in a running stance and is also known as triple flexion. A. Lateral Mechanics B. Frontside Mechanics C. Backside Mechanincs D. Transverse Mechanics

B

Typically, if a trainer recommends that a client tell their friends and family of their new focus on exercise or losing weight the outcome A decreases the likelihood of completing the goal B Increases the likelihood of completing the goal C Increases the guilt on the client D Decreases the motivation to exercise daily

B

Utilizing your knowledge of the Pulling Assessment, chose the correct muscle for the following keywords: (Weak; head juts forward) A. Serratus Anterior B. Deep cervical flexors C. Scalenes D. Pec Minor

B

What is the progression from easiest to hardest with the dumbbell chest press exercise? A. Two arm, Single Arm, Alternating Arm B. Two Arm, Alternating Arm, Single Arm C. Single Arm, Alternating Arm, Two Arm D. Full Grip, 4 fingers, 2 fingers

B

What would best explain what happens when your client is performing a squat and their feet turn out? A. Reciprocal Inhibition B. Muscle Imbalance C. Tight Anterior Tibialis D. Synergistic dominance

B

When excited the Golgi Tendon Organ will cause the muscle to A. Contract B. Relax C. Change shape D. Produce Maximal Tension

B

When first meeting an interviewer for a position within a fitness club you should do all of the following EXCEPT A. Make eye contact B. Compliment their hair C. Shake their hand D. Smile

B

Which behavioral strategy should a trainer encourage a client do when they are beginning an exercise program and need to keep a written record of their workouts? A. Visualization B. Self monitoring C. Goal Setting D. Getting in the zone

B

Which event would best represent quickness? A. baseball player running to first base B. A boxer reacting to avoid a punch C. 100 yard dash D. running back changing directions to avoid being tackled

B

Which of the SMART goals focuses on establishing goals that are not too easily accomplished and considered challenging, but not extreme? A. Measurable B. Attainable C. Timely D. Realistic

B

Which of the following BMI ranges best represents the classification of obesity? A. >18.5 B. 30-35 C. 25 to 29.9 D. 18.5-24.0

B

Which of the following client blood pressures would be recommended to see a doctor if no previous diagnosis of hypertension has be made? A. 115/65 B. 140/90 C. anything over 120/80 D. 130/88

B

Which of the following conditions is caused by wearing of the articular cartlidge, creating abrasive forces on the surfaces of the two bones leading to joint pain? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Malignant arthritis D. Osteoporosis

B

Which of the following exercise tools would be the least intimidating to a new client? A. Bosu ball B. Strength training machines C. Dumbbells D. Barbells

B

Which of the following refers to the energy demand on the body that would be required to complete a specific workout? A. Overload Principle B. Metabolic Specificity C. Mechanical Specificity D. Nueromuscular Specificity

B

Which of the following types of questions invite the client to share fears, barriers and failures A. Directive B. Open ended C. Reflecting D. Closed ended

B

Which of the following would be classified as an nonnutrient ergogenic aid? A. Minerals B. Caffeine C. Vitamins D. Alcohol

B

Why might a new client train for stabilization? A. Gain Muscle B. Build muscular endurance C. Increase maximal strength D. Increase rate of force production

B

You notice a client has upper crossed syndrome or rounded shoulders and forward head posture. Which of the following muscles would be considered underactive? A. Serratus Anterior B. Rhomboids C. Scalenes D. Upper trapezius

B

A friend exercising with a person trying to achieve a goal is considered what type of support? A. Encouragable B. Emotional C. Companionship D. Informational

C

A person weights 100 kilograms. They are not very active. How much protein should the be ingesting according to the RDA for sedentary adults? A. 40 grams/day B. 120 grams/day C. 80 grams/day D. 200 grams/day

C

After carbohydrates are digested and absorbed, they are stored in what form? A. Fat B. Amino acids C. Glycogen D. Glycerol backbone

C

All of the following are characteristics of Type 1 slow twitch fibers EXCEPT: A. More capillaries B. Smaller in Size C. Quick to Fatigue D. Less force produced

C

All of the following are progressions from a single leg balance on the floor except A. Staniding on a Foam pad B. Standing on a half foam roll C. Standing next to a wall D. Bending the knee 30 degrees

C

An overactive Bicep Brachii muscle decreasing the force production to the Tricep Brachii muscle is an example of? A. Synergistic Domination B. Kinetic Chain dysfunction C. Altered reciprocal inhibition D. Arthrokinetic malalignment

C

Choose a muscle that needs strengthening if a clients knees cave in during a squat: A. Pectineus B. TFL C. Vastus medialis D. Lateral Hamstrings

C

FITTE can be used to create a cardiorespiratory program for all ability levels. What does the "E" stand for? A. Exertion B. Energy C. Enjoyment D. Elevated

C

Heart Rate Training Zones 1 through 3 range from A. 60% and 90% B. 60% to 80% C. 65% to 90% D. 65% to 100%

C

How should you take the skinfold measurement on the hip? A. Inferior to the iliac crest B. Anterior to the Ilium C. Superior to the iliac crest D. Posterior to the Ilium

C

It may be necessary to start out pregnant females with only five minutes of exercise until they feel comfortable with increasing the time. Which other special populations might this pertain to as well? A. Diabetes B. Seniors C. Rhuematoid Arthritis D. High Blood Pressure

C

Name the resistance training system that is most recommended for seniors and clients with hypertension, according to NASM. A. Circuit Training B. Drop-set system C. Peripheral heart action system D. Pyramid system

C

Protein sparing refers to the ability of a food to be used for energy so that the ingested protein can be used for other functions like muscle repair and recovery. Which of the following is considered to be protein sparing? A. H2O B. Alcohol C. CHO D. PRO

C

Since calcium supplements should be taken in gram quantities and would make any multivitamin almost double in size, how are they recommended to be taken? A. With potassium B. At the same time as your multivitamin C. Separate from a multivitamin and 3+ times per day D. In the morning

C

Speed, Agility and Quickness should be the main form of training for which population? A. Obese clients B. Hypertensive clients C. Youth clients D. Swimmers

C

The blood vessels that collect blood from capillaries to merge with veins and begin the transport of blood back to the heart are known as? A. Veins B. Arterioles C. Venules D. Arteries

C

The formula for calculating a clients predicted maximal heart rate is A. Resting heart rate + Recovery Heart Rate B. 220 + Age C. 220 - Age D. Heart rate reserve + 220

C

The tempo used for Phase 1 Stabilization training would be best represented by A. 4/1/2 B. 4/0/1 C. 4/2/1 D. 2/0/2

C

Utilizing your knowledge of the Overhead Squat Assessment, chose the correct muscle for the following keywords: (Weak; Knees move inward) A. Rhomboids B. Lateral Gastrocnemius C. Gluteus medius D. Illiopsoas

C

What muscle is considered an agonist during shoulder external rotation? A. Rhomboids B. Teres Major C. Teres Minor D. Supraspinatus

C

What phase would the power step up be most appropriate in? A. Power B. Power Endurance C. Strength D. Stabilization

C

When a client feels something different about given rep range she completed. This is an example of which of the following? A. External feedback B. Knowledge of performance C. Internal feedback D. Coaching

C

When a trainer notices an obese client feels uncomfortable with the Durnin-Wormersley skinfold assessment what alternative assessment can increase the comfort while still being used to track body composition? A. Scale weight B. Underwater weighing C. Body circumference measurements D. BMI

C

When eating a diet low in carbs losing water leads to quick reduction in weight. This may not be a sustainable way for long term weight loss. What would be a better, science-based way to sustain long term weight loss? A. Reducing fat calories to under 10% of kcal/day B. Eat a diet high in total fat C. Consuming less calories then you expend D. Eating a diet low in protein

C

Which area of the heart collects blood returning from the body? A. Ventricles B. Aortic Valve C. Atria D. Atrial fibrillation

C

Which exercise listed below would be considered a back stabilization movement? A. Bosu ball squat B. Seated cable row C. Stability ball row D. Dumbell Fly

C

Which of the following best describes the workout style of Zone 2 cardiorespiratory training? A. Enhances recovery of DOMS B. Higher Intensity leads to lower metabolic efficiency C. Increases Cardiorespiratory Capacity D. Slow aerobic work leads to optimized fat loss

C

Which of the following exercises would best fit into the power phase of training? A. Plank B. Reverse Hypers C. Med Ball Oblique Throw D. Glute Bridge

C

Which of the following is a resistance exercise that falls into the strength category? A. Single leg lateral raise B. Plank C. Standing Overhead Barbell press D. Bosu ball Squat

C

Which of the following mechanoreceptors are MOST sensitive to change in length of a muscle? A. Joint Receptors B. Photoreceptors C. Muscle Spindles D. Golgi Tendon Organs

C

Which phase supersets a "barbell squat" with a "lunge jump"? A. Maximal Endurance Training B. Balance Training C. Power Training D. Hypertrophy Training

C

A "Rotational Medicine Ball Throw" is considered what type of exercise? A. Core-endurance B. Core-strength C. Core-stabilization D. Core-power

D

A client mentions to you that they have only a small amount of time they can workout. What type of training system would be most relevant for helping this person lose weight? A. Pyramid system B. Drop set system C. Vertical loading system D. Circuit Training System

D

According to the OPT Model, Strength is made up of which of the following three phases? A. Stabilization Strength Training, Strength Endurance Training, Power Endurance Training B. MST, Hypertrophy, Power Training C. Power Training, Strength Endurance Training, Hypertrophy Training D. Strength Endurance, Hypertrophy, and MST

D

Balance training A. Enhances Altered Arthrokinematics B. Decreases Core Stability C. Increases Power D. Improves joint stabilization

D

During pregnancy all of the following assessments should be avoided except A. Shark Skill Test B. 1 Rep Maximum Squat C. Pushup Test D. Overhead Squat

D

Fat as a fuel source is typically used during what intensity exercise? A. High B. Intermediate C. Moderate D. Low

D

How many sets should be performed when training in Phase 3? A. 1-3 B. 3-6 C. 4-6 D. 3-5

D

If the Gluteus Maximus was to contract concentrically, which joint motion would occur? A. Triple Extension B. Triple Flexion C. Hip external rotation D. Hip extension

D

People in this stage of the Stages of Change Model have committed to an exercise program for at least six months. A. Action B. Completion C. Precontemplation D. Maintenance

D

Phosphocreatine is used in which of the following energy systems? A. Anaerobic Glycolysis B. Aerobic Glycolysis C. Electron transport chain D. ATP-PC

D

Pregnant females beyond their first trimester in pregnancy should avoid which of the following exercises? A. Single leg bicep curl B. Machine shoulder press C. Squat D. Stability ball cobra

D

The ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling is defined as A. Agility B. Static Balance C. Speed D. Dynamic Balance

D

The process in which a fat goes through to become a trans fat is known as A. Ironization B. Oversaturation C. Oxygenation D. Hydrogenation

D

Utilizing different planes of motion in balance training can be seen as a progression. What plane would be considered the easiest, or most regressed? A. Coronal B. Frontal C. Transverse D. Sagittal

D

Utilizing your knowledge of the Overhead Squat Assessment, chose the correct muscle for the following keywords: (Lengthened; Arms fall forward) A. Anterior Deltoid B. Serratus Anterior C. Pectoralis Minor D. Mid/Lower Trapezius

D

Weight gain will occur when more energy is consumed than expended. What term would best describe this statement? A. Wolfe's Law B. Durnin Wormersley Formula C. Basal Metabolic Rate D. Law of Thermodynamics

D

What most closely reflects the definition of Relative Flexibility? A. Muscular atrophy B. Increased flexibility C. Inability to line up the knee with the pubis D. Body to seek the path of least resistance

D

What muscle is tight when the arms fall forward during a shoulder press exercise? A. Serratus Anterior B. Levator Scapulae C. Rhomboids D. Pectoralis Major

D

When the trainer wants to seek to be respectful and prove to the client that they genuinely care about their outlook on their goal which communication skill should be used? A. Nonverbal Communication B. Summarizing C. Asking Permission D. Active Listening

D

When working with a client that has hypertension which of the following exercises should be avoided? A. Standing barbell curl B. Shoulder press C. Seated cable row D. Prone iso ab

D

Which food provides the most potential for increasing stores of glycogen and can lead to better performance during a workout? A Zucchini B Almonds C Kale D Sweet potato

D

Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control and uses a 9 box square pad? A. Vertical Leap Test B. 1 Rep Max Squat Test C. Davies Test D. Shark Skill Test

D

Which of the following energy systems does not require oxygen? A Krebs cycle B Oxidative C Aerobic glycolysis D ATP-PC

D

Which of the following food combinations would be considered a complete protein? A. Beans and lentils B. Rice and corn C. Whole grain bread and pasta D. Hummus and pita bread

D

Which of the following is an example of a non-directive/open-ended question? A. How tall are you? B. Are you going to go to the gym? C. Have you ever lifted weights before? D. What are your goals?

D

Which of the following is defined by rotational force produced about an axis? A. Speed B. Power C. Velocity D. Torque

D

You are programming plyometric training for a client in the stabilization level of training. What rep range should you use per set? A. 12 to 20 B. 9 to 12 C. 2 to 5 D. 5 to 8

D