EAQ: Immunologic
Which result would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the serum screening tests of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)>
A decrease in CD4 T cells HIV infects helper T-cell lymphocytes; therefore 300 or fewer CD4 T cells per cubic millimeter of blood or CD4 cells accounting for less than 20% of lymphocytes is suggestive of AIDS.
Which reaction is an example of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
Anaphylaxis Serum Sickness is a type 3 immune complex reaction. Contact dermatitis is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction. A blood transfusion reaction is a type 2 cytotoxic reaction.
Which prescribed medication will the nurse administer to the client with pertussis?
Antibiotics Pertussis is a highly contagious infection of the respiratory tract caused by Bordetella pertussis. Antibiotics, usually macrolides, are used to minimize symptoms and prevent the spread of the disease. Antihistamines should not be used because they are ineffective and may induce coughing episodes. Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are not useful in reducing symptoms associated with pertussis.
Which cytokine would the nurse teach a client is treatment for multiple sclerosis?
B-Interferon
Which product would the nurse instruct intravenous drugs users (IDUs) to use for cleaning needles and syringes between uses?
Bleach
Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
Cervicitis Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus. Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus.
For which client illness would airborne precautions be implemented?
Chickenpox
Which term describes the practice of placing clients with the same infection in a semi-private room?
Cohorting
Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by human papillomavirus?
Condylomata acuminata
Which process would the IgD immunoglobulin found in human cord blood support?
Differentiation of B-lymphocytes IgD is present on the lymphocytes surface and found in human cord blood; this immunoglobulin differentiates B-lymphocytes. IgE causes symptoms of allergic reactions by adhering to mast cells and basophils, also helps defend the body against parasitic infections. IgA lines the mucous membranes and protects body surfaces. IgM provides the primary immune response.
Which cytokine is used to treat anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease?
Erythropoietin Cytokines are small proteins that signal cells. Erythtropoietin is used to treat anemia related to chronic kidney disease. The failing kidneys are not able to produce erythropoietin to signal the bone marrow to produce red blood cells, resulting in anemia. a-interferon is used to treat hair cell leukemia or malignant melanoma. Interleukin-2 is used to treat metastatic renal carcinoma. Interleukin-11 is used to prevent thrombocytopenia after chemotherapy.
Which skin infection is caused by bacteria?
Folliculitis Candidiasis is a skin infection caused by a fungus. Herpes zoster is caused by a virus. Dermatophytosis is caused by a fungus.
Which sexually transmitted infection is managed with antiviral medications as the treatment of choice?
Genital herpes Caused by the herpes simplex. Bacteria causes syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydial infections.
Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by a virus?
Genital warts Strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV) cause the sexually transmitted infection of genital warts. Bacteria cause syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydial infections.
Which manifestation indicates tertiary syphilis?
Gummas Are chronic, destructive lesions affecting the skin, bone, liver, and mucous membranes occur.
Which type of hepatitis virus spreads through contaminated food and water?
Hepatitis A virus Hepatitis B,C, and D viruses spread through contaminated needles, syringes, and blood products.
Which type of immunoglobulin is present in tears, saliva, and breast milk?
IgA IgE and IgG immunoglobulins are present in plasma and interstitial fluids. IgM immunoglobulin is present in plasma.
Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
IgG Is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta. IgE is found in the plasma and interstitial fluid. IgA lines the mucous membranes and protects body surfaces. IgM is found in plasma; this immunoglobulin activates due to the invasion of ABO blood antigens.
Which antibody forms first, after exposure to an antigen?
Immunoglobuline M (IgM) First antibody formed by a newly sensitized B-lymphocyte plasma cell. IgA has very low circulating levels and is responsible for preventing infection in the upper and lower respiratory tracts, and the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts. IgE has variable concentrations in the blood and is associated with antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. IgG is heavily expressed on second and subsequent exposures to antigens to provide sustained, long-term immunity against invading microorganisms.
Which cytokine stimulates the liver to produce fibrinogen and protein c?
Interleukin-6 Interleukin 1 stimulates the production of prostaglandins. Thrombopoietin increases the growth and differentiation of platelets. Tumor necrosis factor stimulates delayed hypersensitivity reactions and allergies.
Which type of immunity is acquired through the transfer of colostrum from the mother to the child?
Natural passive immunity Natural active immunity is acquired when there is a natural contact with an antigen through a clinical infection. Artificial active immunity is acquired through immunization with an antigen. Artificial passive immunity is acquired by injecting serum from an inhumane human.
Which role would norepinephrine's mechanism of action perform in managing anaphylaxis.
Norephinephrine functions as a peripheral vasoconstrictor Norepinephrine is a vasopressor that elevates the blood pressure and cardiac output in clients suffering from anaphylactic reactions. Diphenhydramine HCO blocks the effects of histamine on various organs. Corticosteroids such as dexamethasone prevent the degranulation of mast cells. Ephinephrine works by rapidly stimulating alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors.
Which organism is a common opportunistic infection in a client infected with HIV?
Oropharyngeal candidiasis Bc the the immune system can no longer control Candida fungal growth.
Which stage of the HIV disease is present in the client with a laboratory report revealing a CD4+ T cell count of 520 cells/mm3, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention?
Stage 1 A client with a CD4+ T-cell count of greater than 500 cells/mm3 is in the first stage of HIV disease. A client with it between 200-499 cells/mm3 is in the second stage. A client with it less than 200 cells/mm3 is in the third stage. The fourth stage of HIV disease indicates a confirmed HIV infection with no information regarding the CD4+ T-cell counts.
Which type of cells are deficient in DiGeroge syndrome?
T cells DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency disorder in which T cells are affected.
Which organism would the nurse identify as causing syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Type 3 (hypersensitive reaction) Anaphylaxis is an ex of type 1, Cytotoxic is an ex of type 2, Graft rejection and sarcoidosis are conditions caused by delayed or type 4 hypersensitivity reactions.
Which organism would the nurse teach immigrants is the cause of smallpox?
Variola virus
Which evaluation method is the most effective way for the nurse to evaluate the teacher"s knowledge of hand washing techniques after a program for teachers about infection-control and hand-washing techniques?
Watch the teachers demonstrate infection-control techniques
Which action transmits the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV)?
sharing syringe needles, breast-feeding a newborn, anal intercourse