GCD 3022 Exam 4
Which of the following methods is used to detect a specific RNA within a mixture of many different RNAs? a) Site-directed mutagenesis b) Northern blotting c) Western blotting d) None of the above
B- Northern blotting
Which of the following is not a common explanation for a dominant disorder? a) Haploinsufficiency b) A change in chromosome number c) A gain-of-function mutation d) A dominant-negative mutation
b) A change in chromosome number
Which of the following terms represents a cell that can form any other cell of the organism? a) Pluripotent b) Totipotent c) Unipotent
b) Totipotent
A DNA microarray is a slide that is dotted with a) mRNAs from a sample of cells. b) fluorescently labeled cDNA. c) known sequences of DNA. d) known cellular proteins.
c) known sequences of DNA.
An environmental agent that causes cancer is called a ________. carcinogen malignant agent invasive agent metastatic agent
carcinogen
Which of the following may be used as a vector in a gene-cloning experiment? a. mRNA b. Plasmid c. Virus d. Both b and c
d. Both b and c
Which is the proper order of the following steps in a gene-cloning experiment involving vectors? - Add DNA ligase. -Incubate the chromosomal DNA and the vector DNA with a restriction enzyme. - Introduce the DNA into living cells. - Mix the chromosomal DNA and vector DNA together.
2,4,1,3
A prokaryotic genome is about 4 million bp in length. About how many genes would you expect it to contain? 400 4000 40,000 400,000
4000
Which of the following is an example of a palindromic DNA sequence? 5' - ATCGAC - 3' 5' - ATCATC - 3' 5' - GCCGCC - 3' 5' - CTGCAG - 3'
5' - CTGCAG - 3'
Assuming complete penetrance, which type of inheritance pattern is consistent with the pedigree shown here? a) Autosomal recessive b) Autosomal dominant c) X-linked recessive d) X-linked dominant
?
Which of the following can be analyzed using a protein microarray? a) The amounts of particular proteins made by a sample of cells b) Protein function c) Protein-protein interactions d) All of the above
D- all of the above
An oncogene is produced from a ________that has acquired a ________. a) proto-oncogene, loss-of-function mutation b) proto-oncogene, gain-of-function mutation c) tumor-suppressor gene, loss-of-function mutation d) tumor-suppressor gene, gain-of-function mutation
b) proto-oncogene, gain-of-function mutation
Bioremediation has been used to treat which of the following? a) Oil spills b) Sewage c)Pesticides d)Heavy metals e) All of the answers have been successfully remediated
e) All of the answers have been successfully remediated
A gene that promotes the development of cancer is called a(n) ________. a) clone b) tumor suppressor gene c) mutagen d) carcinogen e) oncogene
e) oncogene
In reverse transcriptase PCR, the starting biological material is a) chromosomal DNA. b) mRNA. c) proteins. d) all of the above
mRNA
The function of reverse transcriptase is to a)copy RNA into DNA. b)copy DNA into RNA. c)translate RNA into protein. d)translate DNA into protein.
A- copy RNA to DNA
What is the key reason why the A and B chains of insulin are made as fusion proteins with β-galactosidase? a) To make purification easier b) To prevent their degradation c) To be secreted from the cell d) All of the above are reasons for making the chains as fusion proteins.
B- prevent degradation
In one PCR cycle, the correct order of steps is a) primer annealing, primer extension, denaturation. b) primer annealing, denaturation, primer extension. c) denaturation, primer annealing, primer extension. d) denaturation, primer extension, primer annealing.
C- denaturation, primer annealing, primer extension.
Which of the following was the first living organism to be patented? a) A strain of E. coli that makes somatostatin b) A strain of E. coli that makes insulin c) An oil-eating bacterium d) A strain of B. thuringiensis that makes an insecticide
C- oil eating bacterium
Which of the following uses of microorganisms is/are important in biotechnology? a) Production of medicines b)Food fermentation c)Biological control d) All of the above
D- all of the above
During real-time PCR, the synthesis of PCR products is analyzed a) at the very end of the reaction by gel electrophoresis. b) at the very end of the reaction by fluorescence that is emitted within the thermocycler. c) during the PCR cycles by gel electrophoresis. d) during the PCR cycles by fluorescence that is emitted within the thermocycler.
D- during the PCR cycles by fluorescence that is emitted within the thermocycler.
Which of the following is a type of genetic change that could produce an oncogene? a) Missense mutation b) Gene amplification c) Chromosomal translocation d) All of the above can produce an oncogene.
IMAGE DEFINITION d) All of the above can produce an oncogene.
Which of the following is not a method used in genetic testing? a) Chromosome walking b) DNA sequencing c) In situ hybridization d) DNA microarrays
a) Chromosome walking
The identification of a stop codon for a particular gene is an example of a) sequence recognition. b) pattern recognition. c) both a and b. d) none of the above.
a) sequence recognition.
Shotgun sequencing is a method of DNA sequencing in which a) the DNA fragments to be sequenced are randomly generated from larger DNA fragments. b) the sequencing reactions are carried out in rapid succession. c) the samples to be sequenced are rapidly generated by PCR. d) all of the above occur.
a) the DNA fragments to be sequenced are randomly generated from larger DNA fragments.
The technique of tandem mass spectrometry is used to determine a) the amino acid sequence of a peptide fragment. b) the nucleotide sequence of a segment of RNA. c) the nucleotide sequence of a segment of DNA. d) the number of genes in a species' genome
a) the amino acid sequence of a peptide fragment.
A gene knockout is a gene a) whose function has been inactivated. b) that has been transferred to a different species. c) that has been moved to a new location in the genome. d) that has been eliminated from a species during evolution.
a) whose function has been inactivated.
What type of chromosome mapping relies on microscopy? a) Cytogenetic mapping b) Linkage mapping c) Physical mapping d) All of the above rely on microscopy.
a- cytogenetic mapping
When a cloned gene is inserted into a noncritical site in the mouse genome by homologous recombination, the result is a) gene addition. b) gene modification. c) gene knockout. d) both a and b.
a- gene addition
A collection of recombinant vectors that carry fragments of chromosomal DNA is called a) a genomic library. b) a cDNA library. c) a Northern blot. d) either a or b.
a- genomic library
To map the distance between molecular markers via testcrosses, the markers must be a) polymorphic. b) monomorphic. c) fluorescently labeled. d) on different chromosomes.
a- polymorphic
What is a contig? a) A fragment of DNA that has been inserted into a vector b) A series of vectors that contain inserts that have overlapping regions of chromosomal DNA c) A method of identifying a disease-causing allele d) A method of sequencing DNA
b) A series of vectors that contain inserts that have overlapping regions of chromosomal DNA
o study gene expression from a particular sample of cells, what material is usually hybridized to a DNA microarray? a) Fluorescently labeled mRNA b) Fluorescently labeled cDNA c) Radiolabeled mRNA d) Radiolabeled cDNA
b) Fluorescently labeled cDNA
Which of the following would not be consistent with the idea that a disorder has a genetic component? a) The disorder is more likely to occur among an affected person's relatives than in the general population. b) The disorder can spread to individuals sharing similar environments. c) The disorder tends to develop at a characteristic age. d) A correlation is observed between the disorder and a mutant gene.
b) The disorder can spread to individuals sharing similar environments.
Locus heterogeneity refers to a genetic disorder that a) has a heterogeneous phenotype. b) is caused by mutations in two or more different genes. c) involves a structural change in multiple chromosomes. d) is inherited from both parents.
b) is caused by mutations in two or more different genes.
Chromosomal walking is a method of _____in which a researcher begins at a specific site on a chromosome and analyzes _____until the gene of interest is reached. a) DNA sequencing, a series of subclones b) positional cloning, a series of subclones c) DNA sequencing, bands on a gel d) positional cloning, bands on a gel
b) positional cloning, a series of subclones
The purpose of a ChIP-chip assay is to determine a) the expression levels of particular genes in the genome. b) the sites in a genome where a particular protein binds. c) the amount of a specific protein that is made in a given cell type. d) any of the above.
b) the sites in a genome where a particular protein binds.
Which of the following was not a goal of the Human Genome Project? a) To obtain the DNA sequence of the entire human genome b) to successfully clone a mammal c) To develop technology for the management of human genome information d) To analyze the genomes of model organisms
b) to successfully clone a mammal
During Western blotting, the primary antibody recognizes a) the secondary antibody. b) the protein of interest. c) an mRNA of interest. d) specific fragment of chromosomal DNA.
b- protein of interest
When a dideoxyribonucleotide is incorporated into a growing DNA strand, a) the strand elongates faster. b) the strand cannot elongate. c) the strand becomes more susceptible to DNase I cleavage. d) none of the above occurs.
b- the strand cannot elongate.
One strategy for producing a protein in the milk of a cow is to place the coding sequence of the gene of interest next to a __________ and then inject the gene into a _________. a) lac operon promoter, cow oocyte b) β-lactoglobulin promoter, cow oocyte c) lac operon promoter, cow mammary cell d) β-lactoglobulin promoter, cow mammary cell
b- β-lactoglobulin promoter, cow oocyte
The restriction enzymes used in gene-cloning experiments _______, which generates sticky ends that can _______. a. cut the DNA, enter bacterial cells b. cut the DNA, hydrogen bond with complementary sticky ends c. methylate DNA, enter bacterial cells d. methylate DNA, hydrogen bond with complementary sticky ends
b. cut the DNA, hydrogen bond with complementary sticky ends
For the method of RNA sequencing (RNA-Seq), which of the following is the correct order of steps? a) Isolate RNAs, synthesize cDNAs, fragment RNAs, sequence cDNAs, align cDNA sequences b) Synthesize cDNAs, sequence cDNAs, isolate RNAs, fragment RNAs, align cDNA sequences c) Isolate RNAs, fragment RNAs, synthesize cDNAs, sequence cDNAs, align cDNA sequences d) Synthesize cDNAs, isolate RNAs, fragment RNAs, sequence cDNAs, align cDNA sequences
c) Isolate RNAs, fragment RNAs, synthesize cDNAs, sequence cDNAs, align cDNA sequences
Which of the following prenatal genetic testing methods is done in conjunction with in vitro fertilization? a) Amniocentesis b) Chorionic villus sampling c) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis d) All of the above are usually performed with in vitro fertilization.
c) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis
What is a haplotype? a) A species with one set of chromosomes b) A cell with one set of chromosomes c) The linkage of alleles or molecular markers along a chromosome d) All of the above
c) The linkage of alleles or molecular markers along a chromosome
The purpose of site-directed mutagenesis and CRISPR-Cas technology is to a) determine if a protein binds to a DNA segment. b) determine the sequence of a segment of DNA. c) alter the sequence of a segment of DNA. d) determine if a gene is expressed.
c) alter the sequence of a segment of DNA.
Metagenomics is aimed at a) determining the complete genome sequence of newly identified microorganisms. b) mapping the genes along chromosomes of newly identified microorganisms. c) determining the sequence of DNA fragments in environmental samples. d) determining the functions of all of the genes in a given species' genome.
c) determining the sequence of DNA fragments in environmental samples.
Haplotype association studies are aimed at the identification of a particular ______based on ______. a) chromosome, an abnormality in its structure b) chromosome, the arrangement of molecular markers c) gene, its linkage to other genes or molecular markers d) gene, chromosomal rearrangements
c) gene, its linkage to other genes or molecular markers
The term that indicates that cancer has begun to migrate to other parts of the body is ________. a) malignant b) benign c) metastatic d) invasive e) clonal
c) metastatic
A prion is a disease-causing agent composed of a)cells. b)nucleic acid with a protein coat. c) protein alone. d) nucleic acid alone.
c) protein alone.
A ________ is a cellular gene that has the potential to become an a) oncogene. b) carcinogen c) proto-oncogene d) tumor-suppressor genes e) caspase gene
c) proto-oncogene
A molecular marker is a _____found at a specific site on a chromosome that has properties that allow it to be_____. a) colored dye, visualized via microscopy b) colored dye, visualized on a gel c) segment of DNA, uniquely identified using molecular tools d) segment of DNA, visualized via microscopy
c) segment of DNA, uniquely identified using molecular tools
Tumor-suppressor genes promote cancer when a) they are overexpressed. b) they are expressed in the wrong cell type. c) their function is inactivated. d) they are expressed at the wrong stage of development.
c) their function is inactivated.
During mammalian reproductive cloning, _________ is fused with __________. a) a somatic cell, a stem cell b) a somatic cell, an egg cell c) a somatic cell, an enucleated egg cell d) an enucleated somatic cell, an egg cell
c- a somatic cell, an enucleated egg cell
Which of the following is a reason why the proteome of a eukaryotic cell is usually much larger than its genome? a) Alternative splicing b) RNA editing c) Posttranslational covalent modifications d) All of the above are reasons for the larger size of a proteome.
d) All of the above are reasons for the larger size of a proteome.
Which of the following is an example of a molecular marker? a) RFLP b) Microsatellite c) Single-nucleotide polymorphism d) All of the above are types of molecular markers.
d) All of the above are types of molecular markers.
Normal (nonmutant) tumor-suppressor genes often function a) as negative regulators of cell division. b) in the maintenance of genome integrity. c) in the stimulation of cell division. d) as both a and b.
d) as both a and b.
During two-dimensional gel electrophoresis, proteins are separated based on their net charge at a given a) pH. b) their mass. c) their ability to bind to a specific resin. d) both a and b.
d) both a and b.
What function does a competent cell have that makes it useful for cloning experiments? a) competent cells resist transfecttion by viral vector b) competent cells repair DNA strands without aid of DNA ligase c) competent cells utilize transposons as vector d) competent cells take up DNA from external environment
d) competent cells take up DNA from external environment
Most forms of cancer involve a) the activation of a single oncogene. b) the inactivation of a single tumor-suppressor gene. c) the activation of multiple oncogenes. d) the activation of multiple oncogenes and the inactivation of multiple tumor-suppressor genes.
d) the activation of multiple oncogenes and the inactivation of multiple tumor-suppressor genes.
Checkpoint proteins are encoded by ________. a) oncogenes b) growth factors c) proto-oncogenes d) tumor-suppressor genes
d) tumor-suppressor genes
A vector that can carry a large fragment of chromosomal DNA is a a) YAC. b) BAC. c) PAC. d) any of the above.
d- any of the above
The technique of fluorescence in situ hybridization involves the use of a_____that hybridizes to a_____. a) radiolabeled probe, band on a gel b) radiolabeled probe, specific site on an intact chromosome c) fluorescent probe, band on a gel d) fluorescent probe, specific site on an intact chromosome
d- fluorescent probe, specific site on an intact chromosome
Which of the following methods use(s) a labeled nucleic acid probe, such as a labeled fragment of DNA? a) Site-directed mutagenesis b) Northern blotting c) Western blotting d) Both a and b
d- site directed mutagenesis and northern blotting
Which of the following is a key feature of stem cells? a) They have the ability to divide. b) They have the ability to differentiate. c) They are always pluripotent. d) Both a and b are true of stem cells.
d- they can divide and differentiate
Although Dolly was only three years old, her chromosomes had the length of a 9-10 year old sheep. Which of the following best describes why this occurred? a)The cell lines that created Dolly were aged prematurely in the lab b)Nonhomologous recombination c)A mutation enhanced the rate of aging d)Dolly was not a clone e) The telomeres of the somatic cells that Dolly originated from were shortening
e) The telomeres of the somatic cells that Dolly originated from were shortening