HESI EAQs - Immunologic System and Infectious Diseases

Identify the role of plasma cells in the antigen-antibody response.

Produces antibodies against the sensitizing antigen

Which statement is inacurate regarding mechanisms of antiviral medications to control human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections?

"Saquinavir blocks the fusion between HIV and the host cell"

Which illnesses are caused by echoviruses? Select all that apply.

- gasgtroenteritis - aseptic meningitis

Which educational statements from the nurse will be benefitial for the client with tuberculosis? Select all that apply.

- "Avoid exposure to any inhalation irritants" - "Eat foods that are rich in protein and vitamins C and B" - "Cover the mouth and nose with a tissue when coughing or sneezing"

Which organs can be affected by candida albicans? Select all that apply.

- vagina - mouth - intestines

Which statement indicates a client understands transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Select all that apply.

- "I can contract HIV by participating in oral sex" - "HIV is contracted by using contaminated needles" - "Babies can contract HIV because of contact with maternal blood during birth"

Which clinical manifestations would the nurse associate with the development of histoplasmosis in the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Select all that apply.

- Cough - Enlarged lymph nodes

After administering epinephrine to a client, experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, which second-line medications would the nurse prepare to administer? Select all that apply.

- dexamethasone - diphenhydramine hydrochloride - Hydrocortisone sodium succinate

A primary health care provider prescribed isoniazid to a client with tuberculosis. Which instruction by the nurse will be beneficial to the client?

"you should take the medication on an empty stomach"

Which home visit observations indicate effective teaching of avoidance therapy for a client with type I rapid hypersensitivity reactions? Select all that apply.

- Pillows covered with ultra-mesh fabric - Cloth drapes removed from all windows - Air-conditioning unit running in the home - Carpeting replaced with hard wood floors

Identify the clinical manifestations associated with the release of histamine during a type I rapid hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply.

- Pruritus - Erythema - Nasal mucus secretions - Conjunctival mucus secretion

Which assessment findings indicate a client is experiencing an allergic reaction to antibiotic therapy? Select all that apply.

- Pruritus - Wheezing - Bronchospasm

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse assess in the newborn diagnosed with tetanus? Select all that apply.

- Restlessness - Muscular rigidity - Respiratory tract spasms - spastic voluntary muscle contractions

Which clinical manifestations are associated with Sjogren syndrome (SS)? Select all that apply.

- tooth decay - corneal ulcers - vaginal dryness

Which immunomodulatory agent is beneficial for the treatment of clients with multiple sclerosis?

Beta interferon

A client reports disturbed sleep due to allergic pruritus. Which medication would help the client sleep and treat the allergic symptoms?

Chlorpheniramine

Upon review of morning laboratory reports, which client's report indicates acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

Client 3

The nurse reviews the medication reconciliation documents of four clients. Based upon the client's condition and treatment, for which client would the nurse need to contact the health care provider?

Client A

The primary care provider prescribed antitubercular medications to four clients with tuberculosis. Which client is at risk for hyperuricemia? Client A - Pyrazinamide Client B - Isoniazid Client C - Ethambutol Client D - Rifampin

Client A

Which client would the nurse determine has a risk for developing meningitis, hearing loss, and generalized paresis? Client A - gummas on the skin, nose, mouth, and bones Client B - painless, indurated, smooth, wepping lesions on skin Client C - diffuse reddish-brown macules and papules 3mm in size near the genitalia Client D - malaise, muscular aches, condylomata lata, and moth-eaten appearance of the scalp

Client A

Based on the medication chart, the nurse would need to notify the health care provider regarding which client? Client A - Chlamydia / Azithromycin Client B - Gential herpes / Benzathine penicillin G Client C - Gential warts / Imiquimod Client D - Gonorrhea / Doxycycline

Client B

Which of these four assinged clients with a mouth infection would the nurse anticipate administering nystatin as an oral suspension? Client A - Trench mouth Client B - Moniliasis Client C - Cold sores Client D - Parotitis

Client B

Which would be the primary focus of nursing care for a client admitted with tetanus caused by a puncture wound?

Decreasing external stimuli

A client with active tuberculosis is walking down the hall to obtain a glass of juice from the kitchen, even after having received education regarding airborne precautions. Which nursing intervention would the nurse implement at this time?

Explore what the airborne precautions mean to the client

The significant other of a client who is dying of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) tells the nurse, "Life is not worth living without my partner." Which intervention would the nurse implement to help the significant other cope with the impending death?

Involve the significant other's support system

For clients experiencing an anaphylactic attack, which medication would the nurse initiate immediately?

Isoproterenol

The mechanism of action of maraviroc is represented by which statement?

It blocks the C-C chemokine receptor type 5 (CCR5) receptor on CD4+ T cells

An assessment of a client reporting severe nighttime itching reveals burrows in the flexor surfaces of the wrists and in the anterior axillary folds. Which treatment is appropriate for this client?

Permethrin 5% topical lotion

Which bacteria may cause toxic shock syndrome in female clients?

Staphylococcus aureus

Which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess in the client suspected of having rabies? Select all that apply.

- Nuchal ridgidity - Pharyngeal spams

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) with a low viral load who has been asymptomatic for years. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional education on the disease process?

"I occasionally have oral sex without the use of protection."

Which statement indicates misunderstanding of the precautions required for clients infected by the Ebola virus?

"I will not touch the prepared food for the infected client."

The nurse instructs an older client's adult child about age-related immune system changes and associated care measures. Which statement indicates a need for further instruction?

"My parent comes in for checkups only when experiencing a fever."

Which instruction indicates a lack of understanding of a nurse teaching a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive client about strategies to prevent opportunistic infections?

"Purchase organic, unpasteurized apple cider for your vitamin C requirements"

A client with hepatitis A experiences anorexia, fatigue, and jaundice. The client's spouse and adult children living at home ask whether they should receive gamma globulin. Which response would the nurse make to the client's family?

"You should call your primary health care provider immediately about obtaining gamma globulin injections."

In which order do events occur in stage I of the inflammatory process? - Capillary leak causes pain. - Edema from plasma leaking protects further injury. - Cytokine is released to produce more white blood cells. - Blood vessel changes cause redness and tissue warmth. - Increased blood flow causes swelling at the site of injury.

1. Blood vessel changes cause redness and tissue warmth 2. Increased blood flow causes swelling at the site of injury 3. Capillary leak causes pain 4. Edema from plasma leaking protects further injury 5. Cytokine is released to produce more white blood cells

Arrange the steps involved in a type I allergic reaction into the correct sequence. Activation of B lymphocytes Exposure to the allergen Attachment to the mast cells Release of chemical mediators Sensitization of immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies

1. Exposure to the allergen 2. Activation of B lymphocytes 3. Sensitization of immunoglobulin E (IgE) 4. Attachment to the mast cells 5. Release of chemical mediators

The client undergoing therapy with an antiproliferative immunosuppressant medication has develloped thrombocytopenia. Which medication may have cause the client's condition?

Azathioprine

Which medication, when administered after a liver transplant, has a potential adverse effect of decreasing a client's hemoglobin and thrombocyte counts?

Azathioprine

Which antimicrobial medication acts on susceptible pathogens by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis?

Actinomycin

Which clinical manifestation indicates a need for the nurse to contact the health care provider to increase the intravenous infusion for an older client with an infection?

Acute confusion

Which action by an uninfected individual would not pose a risk of exposure to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

The individual donates a pint of blood to the blood bank

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse observe in a client diagnosed with blackwater fever secondary to malaria?

dark red urine

Identify an example of microorganisms transmitted via indirect contact.

dirty hands

Which medication reduces the risk for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in unaffected individuals?

Truvada

Which statement is true regarding Sjogren syndrome?

Sjogren syndrome decreases the digestion of carbohydrates

Which medication may be used to treat the condition depicted in the image?

Terbinafine

Which client would the nurse suspect as being in the secondary stage of syphilis? Client 1 - Chancers in the mouth Client 2 - Benign lesions (gummas) of the skin Client 3 - Pustule4s, scaly psoriasis-like lesions Client 4 - Painless, smooth, weeping lesion

Client 3

Which statement explains Goodpasture syndrome and deposits of immunoglobulin G (IgG) along the basement membranes of the lungs?

Goodpasture syndrome occurs when circulating antibodies combine with tissue antigens

Which type(s) of hepatitis most commonly spread by consuming contaminated food and water, or by fecal contamination? Select all that apply.

Hepatitis A & E

When assessing a client with a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect? Select all that apply.

- Edema - Ischemia - Induration - Tissue damage

Which medications inhibit tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF)-a in clients treated for rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? Select all that apply.

- Infliximab - Etanercept - Golimumab

A client diagnosed with stge 2 syphilis would probably experience which symptoms? Select all that apply.

- Alopecia - Weight loss - Mucous patches in the mouth

The intravenous (IV) line infiltrates and needs restarting on a client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which precautions would the nruse take when restarting the IV? Select all that apply.

gloves & hand hygiene

Which mechanism of action applies to penicillin?

inhibits cell wall synthesis of the pathogen

Which would the nurse do first for a client with pink raised areas that are swollen and itchy after using a new soap?

perform a full history and physical examination

A client who experiences severe anaphylactic reactions to insect venom arrives to begin allergen therapy. Which action would the nurse use when administering the allergen?

rotating the sites for each injection

Which statement reflects understanding of sepsis screening requirements by the nurse?

sepsis mortality is affected greatly by treatments performed in the first 6 hours

Which medications are useful in reducing flulike syndrome associated with use of monoclonal antibody therapy? Select all that apply.

- Acetaminophen - Diphenhydramine - Methylprednisolone

Which leukocyte values determine the adequacy of a client's response to inflammation? Select all that apply.

- Monocytes - Neutrophils - Macrophages

Using the CURB-65 assessment scale to assess clients with manifestations of pneumonia, which client requires immediate admission to the intensive care unit?

Client 3

Which client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) exhibits the clinical manifestaions associated with a histoplasma capsulatum infection? Client A - bloody diarrhea, gastric pain, and weight loss Client B - whitish-yellow patches in mouth, esophagus, and vagina Client C - jaundice, fatigue, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and dark urine Client D - nonproductive cough, hypoxemia, elevated body temperature, and weight loss

Client D

Which client would the nurse suspect as being in the last stage of syphilis? Client A - chancre in the mouth Client B - malaise, low-grade fever, headache, muscular aches, sore throat Client C - gray-white wart-like lesions on the skin Client D - Gummas on the skin

Client D

Which complication is associated with Pott disease?

Destruction of intervertebral discs

Which organ-specific autoimmune disorder would the nurse associate with a client's kidney?

Goodpasture syndrome

What types of hepatitis develop into a chronic form of the disease? Select all that apply.

Hepatitis B, C, D

What laboratory test will be elevated in a client with inflammatory arthritis?

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs when the client's sensitized T cytotoxic cells are involved as the mediators of injury?

Type IV

Which medications prevent the binding of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) to a client's cells? Select all that apply.

- Maraviroc - Enfuvirtide

After initiating antibiotic therapy on a client with syphilis, the nurse suspects a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction. Which clinical manifestations support the nurse's suspicion? Select all that apply.

- Fever with shaking chills - Generalized aches - Pain at the injection site

The nurse initiates rifampin for a client with tuberculosis. Which instructions would the nurse teach about this medication? Select all that apply.

- "Avoid drinking alcohol as long as you are on this medication" - "Notify your provider immediately if you develop a yellow appearance to your skin" - "Your soft contact lenses will become permanently stained because of this medication"

The nurse would teach clients that which diseases may occur due to rickettsial infections?

- Epidemic typhus - Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Which nutritional interventions would the nurse include when planning care for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Select all that apply.

- Offer ice chips throughout the day - Instruct on the use of oral antifungal medication - Collaborate with the dietitian for small, frequent meals - Schedule routine mouth care, avoiding alcohol-based mouthwashes

In which order would the nurse explain the process of phagocytosis? Attraction Adherence Recognition Degredation Cellular ingestion Exposure/invasin Phagosome formation

1. Exposure/invasion 2. Attraction 3. Adherence 4. Recognition 5. Cellular ingestion 6. Phagosome formation 7. Degredation

The health care provider suspects a client has tuberculosis and prescribes a purified protein derivative (PPD) test, chest x-ray. and sputum culture. Prioritize implementation of the ordered interventions. Obtain a sputum specimen. Institute airborne precautions. Have a chest x-ray performed. Notify the Department of Health. Perform a PPD intradermal skin test.

1. Institute airborne precautions 2. Have a chest x-ray performed 3. Perform a PPD intradermal skin test 4. Obtain a sputum specimen 5.Notify the Department of Health

Arrange the steps required to stimulate antibody-mediated immunity in its correct sequence. - Invasion of new antigens in the body - Production of antibodies by B lymphocytes - Neutralization or elimination of the antigen - Binding of antibodies to the antigen and formation of immune complex - Sensitization of B lymphocytes to the new antigen - Interaction of the macrophage and helper T cells to recognize the antigen

1. Invasion of new antigens in the body 2. Interaction of the macrophade and helper T cells 3. Sensitization of B lympohocytes to the new antigen 4. Production of antibodies by B lymphocytes 5. Binding of antibodies to the antigen and formation of immune complex 6. Neutralization or elimination of the antigen

A client diagnosed with a human immunodeficiency virus 2 (HIV-2) infection is prescribed rilpivirine therapy. Which medications would the nurse anticipate the primary health care provider will prescribe for this client.

Emtricitabine

Which complication is a result of Clostridium welchii (Clostridium perfringens) entering a clients' wound and causing creptius?

Gangrene

Which prescribed antitubercular medication may cause a client to report the development of reddish-orange urine?

Rifampin

Which medication prevents cellular infection in clients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

Maraviroc

A client reports nasal discharge, sneezing, lacrimation, and itching all over the body. During an assessment, the client reports exposure to dust and molds. The nurse observes swelling and a pink color at the itching site. Which class of medications would the nurse anticipate administering to treat this client's condition?

Medications containing antihistamines

For which medication would the nurse monitor a client closely for hemolytic anemia?

Methyldopa

The primary health care provider ordered a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) for the client reporting painful, urination, profuse purulent urethral discharge, and enlarged testicles. Which organism may be responsible for this client's condition?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

When inquiring about papilledema and the presence of exudates, which body system may the nurse be assessing in a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?`

Ocular

A client with human immunodeficiency (HIV) reports dyspnea on exertion, increased heart rate, a persistent dry cough, and a persistent low-grade fever. The nurse auscultates bilateral crackles in the lower lung lobes. Which organism would the nurse suspect is responsible for this condition?

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Laboratory tests reveal the presence of the human leukocyte antigen (HLA-B27). Which documented diagnosis would the nurse observe in the client's electronic medical record?

Reiter's syndrome

A client taking immunosuppressant medications after receiving an organ transplant has developed hypertension, nephrotoxicity, and gingival hyperplasia. Which medication may have caused these disorders? Select all that apply.

Tacrolimus & Cyclosporine

In a client with a renal transplant, which medications may be coadministered with mycophenolate modetil as treatment for late graft loss? Select all that apply.

Tacrolimus & Cyclosporine

The nurse prepares a teaching plan for a client with syphilis. In which stage would the nurse teach the client that syphilis is not considered contagious?

Tertiary stage

A 26-year-old client recengly diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has a CD4 count of 150 cells/mm3 and needs an immunization update. Which vaccines are required for this client to comply with the recommended immunization schedule?

Tetanus, hepatitis B, influenza, and pneumococcal vaccines

A client exhibits dysphagia, dry mouth, drooping eyelids, blurred vision, vomiting, diarrhea. With 24 hours, the client develops bilateral cranial nerve impairment and descending weakness? Which bioterrorism agent presents with these clinical manifestaions?

botulism

Which clinical manifestations are associated with a diagnosis of tuberculosis?

- anorexia - hemoptysis - night sweats

Which action would the nurse implement when providing care for a client with malaria?

Provide nutrition between paroxysms

Which medications inhibit pruine synthesis and suppress cell-mediated and humoral immune responses? Select all that apply.

- Azathioprine - Mycophenolate mofetil

Which prescribed medications would the nurse expect as maintenance therapy for a client with a kidney transplant? Select all that apply.

- Azathioprine - Prednisone

A client diagnosed with stage 2 syphilis would probably experience which symptoms? Select all that apply.

- Alopecia - Weight loss - Mucous patches in the mouth

Which client statements indicate effective teaching about an automatic epinephrine injector to self-treat reactions to insect stings? Select all that apply.

- "I will inject the medication into my thigh" - "I will keep the medication with me at all times" - "I will replace the medication when the expiration date is approaching"

The nurse provides discharge teaching to a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and a low white blood cell (WBC) count. Which client statements indicate understanding of the content? Select all that apply.

- "my roommate wil take care of our cat's litter box" - "I will rinse my toothbrush in belach once a week" - "I will use a different cup every time I have a drink" - "I will wash my hands thoroughly after shaking hands with anyone"

The nurse teaches a client about the use of tampons. Which statements made by the nurse indicate correct action to teach a client regarding tampon use?

- "wash your hands before inserting a tampon" - "use sanitary napkins at nighttime" - "report any physical changes while using a tampon"

Identify the clinical manifestations associated with inhalation anthrax? Select all that apply.

- fever - fatigue - dry cough

Which potential clinical manifestations would the nurse associate with a client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? Select all that apply.

- joint pain - facial rash - pericarditis

Identify the mediators of injury in IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions? Select all that apply.

- mast cells - histamines - leukotrienes

Which leukocytes would the nurse include when teaching about antibody-mediated immunity? Select all that apply.

- memory cell - B-lymphocyte

Which conditions are examples of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply.

- poison ivy allergic reaction - sarcoidosis

Which assessment findings indicate an older client is at risk for developing an infection? Select all that apply.

- thin skin - weak cough - sluggish bowel sounds - indwelling urinary catheter

Which rational guides the nurse when managing the dietary needs of a client with gastroenteritis?

Eliminate chemical, mechanical, and thermal irritation

The client exposed to pollen reports a runny, stuffy nose and itchy, watery eyes. The nasal examination reveals swollen ad pink nasal mucosa. Which laboratory finding would the nurse anticipate identifying in the client's reports?

Immunoglobulun E (IgE) level of 150 IU/mL

Which medications inhibit organ transplantation rejection from an increased concentration of IL-2, as their mechanism of action. Select all that apply.

Tacrolimus & Cyclosporine

A client's treponema-specific test indicates a positive antibody for syphilis; however, the client does not exhibit any clinical manifestations of the infection. Which would the nurse infer from this finidng?

The client is in the latent stage of syphilis

Which observations by the nurse indicate a client with pneumonia is able to use an incentive spirometer correctly? Select all that apply.

- records the volume of the air inspired - performs 10 breaths per session every hour - takes a long, slow, deep breath keeping the mouth piece in place

Which instructions would the nurse provide a client prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.

- "you should report any yellow tinge to your skin" - "your soft contact lenses will be stained permanently" - "you should report any increased tendency to bruising or bleeding"

Which assessment findings would the nurse identify in a client with clinical manifestations of rheumatorid arthritis (RA)? Select all that apply.

- Development of antinuclear antibodies - Inflammatory disease pattern - Bilateral involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints

Which prescribed medications would the nurse anticipate initiating for a client with a Clostridium difficile-associated disease (CDAD)? Select all that apply.

- Fidaxomicin - Metronidazole - Vancomycin

Which side effect would the nurse monitor in a client receiving a calcineurin inhibitor to prevent organ rejection? Select all that apply

- Hirsutism - Gingival hyperplasia - Nephrotoxicity

Which clinical manifestations would the nurse observe when reviewing examination and diagnostic data about a client with malaria? Select all that apply.

- Hyperthermia - Splenomegaly

Which actions would the nurse implement when a client develops an anaphylactic reaction? Select all that apply.

- Intially, apply oxygen at 90% to 100% per nasal cannula - Call the Rapid Respone Team and have the crash cart retrieved - Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees - Ensure emergency airway equipment is at the bedside

Which immunodeficiency disorders affect polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes? Select all that apply.

- Job syndrome - Chronic granulomatous disease

Which information would the nurse document in the medical record regarding a client's reported allergies? Select all that apply.

- Medication names - Type of allergic reaction - Epinephrine (EpiPen) use for allergic reaction

Which interventions would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client receiving anakinra therapy for rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply.

- Monitor the injection site for hypersensitivity reactions every shift and PRN - Monitor the client's neutrophil blood cell count before, during, and 3 months after therapy - Before the initial dose, teach the client to report and difficulty in breathing

The nurse cares for a client who develops pyrexia 3 days after surgery. For which clinical manifestations, commonly associated with pyrexia, would the nurse monitor? Select all that apply.

- Tachypnea - Increased pulse rate

Which home visit observations indicate the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) integrated acute care discharge teachings? Select all that apply.

- Toothbrush soaking in laundry bleach - Washed dishes with warm, soapy water before using - Applied gloves before weeding a houseplant

Which actions would be included in an organization's policy for hand hygiene? Select all that apply.

- Wash hands before applying sterile gloves - Wash with either soap and water or alcohol-based hand rub (ABHR) before client contact - Wash with soap and water when hands are visibly soiled with blood - Wash with ABHR if hands are not visibly soiled

Which clinical manifestations are consistent with Sjogren syndrome? Select all that apply.

- Xerostomia - Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

Which clinical manifestations indicate the chronic persistent stage of Lyme disease? Select all that apply.

- arthritis - chronic fatigue

When assessing a client with a new diagnosis of syphilis, which actions would the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

- ask the client about medication allergies - examine the client's lymph nodes for enlargement - gather information about any ulcers or rashes - ask about the client's sexual activity and protection methods

Which conditions trigger humoral immunity? Select all that apply.

- atopic diseases - bacterial infection - anaphylactic shock

Which events indicate a need to suggest tesing of a client for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Select all that apply.

- diagnosed with tuberculosis in 1985 - received blood transfusions in 1980 during totap hip replacement surgery - Engaged in sexual relations with someone of the same sex for several years

Which symtpoms are common during the fulimant stage of inhalation of anthrax?

- dyspnea - diaphoresis - high temperature

The blood report of a client with a fungal infection reveals the presence of immunoglobulin M (IgM) and IgG antibodies. The skin test response was erythma and edema within 3 hours after planting. Which conditions would the nurse suspect in the client? Select all that apply.

- rheumatoid arthritis (RA) - acute glomerulonephritis - systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Which statements indicate the nurse has a correct understanding of interleukin-2? Select all that apply.

- the cytokine enhances natural killer cells - the cytokine is used to treat various maligancies - the cytokine stimulates differentiation of T-lymphocytes

Which of the four clients with tuberculosis is at risk for sunburn when taking their prescribed medication? Client 1 - Rifampin Client 2 - Isoniazid Client 3 - Ethambutol Client 4 - Pyrazinamide

Client 4

Which client's prescribed medication places him or her at risk for developing aseptic meningitis? Client A - Muromonab-CD3 Client B - Antithymocyte globulin-rabbit Client C - Rapamycin Client D - Cyclosporine

Client A

After reviewing the morning laboratory reports, which client would the nurse suspect as having peptic ulcer disease? Client A - Haemophilus influenzae Client B - Helicobacter pylori Client C - Pseudomonas aeruginosa Client D - Staphylococcus aureus

Client B

After reviewing the morning laboratory reports, which client would the nurse suspect as having a candida albicans infection? Client A - Otomycosis Client B - Lyme disease Client C - Oral thrush Client D - Roseola infantum

Client C

Which client's prescribed medication places them at the lowest risk developing hepatotoxicity? Client A - Everolimus Client B - Azathioprine Client C - Daclizumab Client D - Cyclosporine

Client C

Which client would the nurse suspect as having a type IV hypersensitive reaction? Client A - IgE / Wheal and flare Client B - IgM / None Client C - IgG / Erythema and edema after four hours Client D - None / Erythema and edema after 24 hours

Client D

The nurse is caring for a client with hemodynamically stable sepsis who complains of abdominal pain. Which of these primary health care provider prescriptions would the nurse do first?

Draw peripheral blood cultures from two different sites