Intro to Aviation Final Exam

A two-engine, turbine-powered airplane may not be operated over a route that contains a point farther than ——— minutes of flying time (in still air at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative) from an adequate airport.

60

Under normal operating conditions, the pressurized cabin of a Part 121 aircraft must maintain a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

8,000 feet.

Typically, the authority to dispatch or release a flight is held by which position(s)?

An air carrier's director of operations (DO), aircraft dispatcher, and/or pilot-in-command

To whom may the person designated by the certificate holder as responsible for operational control delegate the functions of operational control such as initiating, conducting or terminating a flight?

Both (a) and (b) are correct

Which cargo compartment on a passenger airplane has fire extinguishing equipment built into the compartment that is controllable from the cockpit?

Class C

Landing gear aural warning devices must sound a warning if

a landing is attempted with the gear not locked down.

A blue cockpit annunciator light would indicate

status

Takeoff distance must be accomplished

within the length of the runway plus clearway (except clearway may only be counted up to one-half the length of the runway).

Takeoff run must be accomplished

within the length of the runway.

To be used in Part 121 operations, aircraft with more than 44 seats must be shown to be able to conduct an evacuation in

90 seconds or less.

How are alternate airport weather minimums derived for an airport with one operational navigational facility providing a straight-in nonprecision approach procedure, or a straightin precision approach procedure, or a circling maneuver from an instrument approach procedure?

A ceiling is derived by adding 400 feet to the authorized Category I HAT or HAA, and a visibility is derived by adding 1 statute mile to the authorized Category I landing minimum.

What are the mandatory fuel requirements for Part 121 domestic operations?

A flight may not depart unless it has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, then fly to the most distant alternate (if required), then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption rates.

Of the following, which would be considered a category of aircraft?

Airplane.

———————— must have an emergency lighting system, for interior emergency exit markings. This system must be independent of the main lighting system.

All transport category passenger-carrying airplanes

What precautions must an air carrier take when transporting a passenger that requires medical oxygen?

An air carrier may allow a passenger to carry and operate oxygen equipment as long as that carrier supplies the necessary equipment.

If there is a Class A, B, or E cargo compartment on the airplane, what must be installed for the use of appropriate crewmembers?

Protective breathing equipment (PBE)

What is the primary responsibility of the pilot flying (PF)?

The PF is primarily responsible for flying the aircraft in accordance with the approved operational procedures.

Where could a dispatcher or flight crewmember look to determine that the carrier is authorized to fly to a certain area?

The appropriate ops specs paragraph

Which crew activity would be allowed by the "sterile cockpit rule" (assuming the aircraft is in a critical phase of flight)?

While descending, discussing the abnormal procedure dealing with the fact that the flaps are not deploying

The rule requiring all required, installed equipment to be operative is violated when

the aircraft takes off.

Driftdown altitude is

the altitude to which, following the failure of an engine above the one-engine inoperative absolute ceiling, an airplane will descend to and maintain, while using maximum continuous power on the operating engine and maintaining the one-engine inoperative best rate of climb speed.

Flight crewmembers must be provided and use oxygen when

the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet

The flight data recorder must continuously record

25 hours of continuous data

Which document is not required to be carried by a pilot in Part 121 operations?

English language demonstrated proficiency card

An air carrier may not dispatch an airplane under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather radar may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne weather radar is working.

True

Emergency lighting for interior or exterior use must be able to be controlled at

both (a) and (b).

The maximum weight at which an air carrier aircraft may depart is limited to

All of the above

What credential(s) must an FAA air carrier inspector possess to gain access to the flight deck?

FAA Form 110A (FAA inspector's ID card) and FAA Form 8430-13 jumpseat form

What information is required to appear on a Part 121 domestic or flag operator's dispatch release form?

Identification number of the aircraft, trip number, departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airport and alternate airports, a statement about the type of operation (e.g., VFR, IFR), minimum fuel supply, and weather reports and forecasts

What is the main difference between the load manifest used in domestic and flag operations and the load manifest used in supplemental operations?

No difference. Domestic, flag, and supplemental load manifests must contain identical information.

When is a departure airport alternate airport required prior to the departure of a flight operating under Part 121?

When weather conditions are such that an aircraft departs an airport with takeoff minimums below the departure airport's landing minimums in the certificate holder's ops specs.

If one pilot leaves his station at the controls, it is necessary for the other pilot to don his or her oxygen mask if the aircraft is above

flight level 250.

When may a required flight deck crewmember leave the assigned duty station?

(a) and (c) are both correct.

In the case of domestic flights, each flight must be dispatched, unless the flight was originally included in the dispatch of a multi-leg flight and the aircraft doesn't spend more than how many hours on the ground?

1 hour

The verification program that contains the employment and security information for determining if an individual is authorized by the FAA to occupy an aircraft's flight deck jump seat operations is called?

CASS

Net takeoff flight path is used in computing takeoff/ climb performance capability of the aircraft. What is net takeoff flight path for a twin-engine aircraft?

The climb performance of the aircraft as determined in certification testing reduced by 8 feet per 1,000 feet traveled

In order to carry cargo on the passenger level in a passenger aircraft, the cargo

must be secured in bins that can withstand 1.15 times the emergency landing g loads or, alternatively, the cargo may be properly restrained behind a bulkhead.

Prior to flight, who is responsible for airplane security?

the ground security coordinator

A "high minimums" captain is planning on flying a LDA/DME approach to ABC airport. If the published minimums for the LDA/DME approach are MDA(H) 650 feet and ¾ SM visibility, what would be this captain's minimums to fly this approach? (A high minimums captain must add 100 feet to the MDA and ½ SM to the visibility requirements)

A high minimums captain would need to increase the minimums to a MDA of 750 feet and a visibility of 1¼ SM.

An aircraft with 254 passenger seats would require (Aircraft with seating capacity of 7 to 30 require one fire extinguisher; those with 31 through 60 seats require two extinguishers; those with 61 to 200 seats require three extinguishers; and those with 201 through 300 passenger seats require four fire extinguishers)

4 fire extinguishers.

Under what conditions must a second alternate be filed prior to a flight departing for its destination?

A second alternate is needed if using Exemption 3585.

May a Part 121 air carrier use other than Part 139 certificated airports?

Not for destination airports, but it may file (and use, if needed) a Part 139 airport as a takeoff or destination alternate airport

When may a pilot use his or her personal electronic device (PED) while on duty?

Only when its use is directly related to the operation of the aircraft or for emergency, safety-related or certain employment-related communications.

In Part 121 domestic operations, when is a destination alternate airport required?

When the destination weather is not forecast to be, from 1 hour before scheduled arrival until 1 hour after, a ceiling of 2,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility

All aircraft operated by Part 121 carriers must either be U.S.-registered aircraft or

foreign aircraft, approved under U.S. type design and operated under dry lease to the U.S. carrier.

V1, or takeoff decision speed, is the

maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must first take action to stop

The takeoff warning system of a transport category aircraft must operate from the initial portion of the takeoff (application of takeoff power) until

the aircraft is rotated for takeoff.

According to an FAA study of rejected takeoffs (RTOs), statistically, one RTO occurs every————— takeoffs

3,000

Proving tests are required of new type designs. If the design has never been proved under Part 121, it must be operated for

100 hours including 10 at night.

The pilot-in-command of a passenger-carrying airplane that has a lockable cockpit-to-cabin door must ensure the door is closed and locked during which period of aircraft operations?

The cockpit-to-cabin door must be closed and locked during flight.

If the aircraft is certificated with cargo or baggage compartment smoke or fire detection equipment, the following must be met for each cargo or baggage compartment:

The detection system must provide a visual warning indication to the flight crew within one minute after the start of a fire.

Cockpit voice recorders are required to continuously record the

last 30 minutes of each flight.

To be used in Part 121 operations, aircraft must have flight crew emergency exits located in the flight area if they have a passenger seating capacity greater than

20 seats

During a normal takeoff, an aircraft may not be banked prior to reaching a height of——— feet as shown by the flight path or net flight path data. After attaining——— feet in height, the aircraft may not be banked more than——— degrees in any additional maneuvering.

50, 50 and 15

Runway limit weight guarantees that an aircraft may

accelerate to V1, lose an engine, and continue the flight.

Climb limit weight is the maximum weight that guarantees that the aircraft:

can proceed from a point 35 feet above the departure end of the runway to 1,500 feet above the runway surface (or specified higher altitude) while maintaining required climb gradients in order to achieve adequate obstacle clearance

14 CFR §121.613 states that an air carrier may not dispatch an IFR flight under Part 121 unless the weather reports and forecasts indicate that at the time of arrival at the destination airport

conditions will be at or above the authorized landing minimums

The crew uses checklist procedures that are provided by the

operator of the aircraft.

Transport category aircraft elevators typically

are interconnected but may be operated separately in an emergency

During ground operations, it is

required that each passenger be seated and belts fastened during all movement on the surface.

Operational control may be defined as

the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

In the event of cabin pressurization failure, each flight crewmember must be provided with oxygen that allows for a total of

120 minutes total operation

Landing limitations for alternate airports are similar to the landing limitations for destination airports. An operator may not list an airport as an alternate airport if at the anticipated weight at the anticipated time of arrival the aircraft cannot be brought to a stop in ——— percent of the effective runway length for turbojet aircraft or ——— percent of the effective runway length for turboprop aircraft

60, 70

How are alternate airport weather minimums derived for an airport with at least two operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in nonprecision approach procedure or a straight-in precision approach procedure to different, suitable runways?

A ceiling is derived by adding 200 feet to the authorized Category I HAT or HAA, and a visibility is derived by adding ½ statute mile to the authorized Category I landing minimum.

A dispatch release document is used by supplemental operators while a flight release document is used by domestic and flag operators.

False

Class D cargo compartments are not accessible during flight and are designed with a protective liner allowing the compartment to be used to ship cargo containing lithium or NiCad batteries.

False

From the time the airplane moves in order to initiate a flight segment through the end of that flight segment, no person may unlock or open the flightdeck door.

False

The inflight use of cigarettes or cigars is allowed only on flights with a scheduled time en route of greater than six hours

False

When a twin-engine aircraft suffers engine failure or an engine is shut down in flight as a precautionary measure to prevent possible damage, the pilot-incommand is required to do what two things?

Land the airplane at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made, and notify the appropriate ATC facility as soon as practicable after the engine failure or in flight shutdown.

A turbine aircraft is scheduled into a runway that is 8,600 feet in length. May this aircraft (which will require 5,100 feet to land) land there on a wet day? (If the runway is 11,000 feet in length, in accordance with 14 CFR §121.195, the aircraft must be able to come to a complete stop within 60% of the effective length of the runway: 11,000 feet×0.6=6,600 feet of runway. If the AFM landing distance table says our aircraft can land in 6,500 feet, we are legal to fly to this (dry) runway. We would be unable to legally fly to this runway if it was wet: 6,600 feet (60% of full length)×0.15=990 feet (wet additional 15% reduction); 6,600 feet−990 feet=5,510 feet. We would be unable to stop in 5,510 feet of wet runway

No

Since it is a given that passengers prefer the shortest time in flight, can a carrier publish schedules that are shorter than the competition for competitive advantage knowing that the actual flight will take longer than schedule?

No, it can't because 14 CFR §121.541 requires the airline to publish realistic schedules based on realistic evaluation of aircraft performance and prevailing winds. It must also allow reasonable time for aircraft servicing.

To whom may the director of operations, designated by the certificate holder as responsible for operational control, delegate the responsibility for assuring operational control over issues such as initiating, conducting or terminating a flight?

None of the above

What adjustment must be made for a high minimums captain's takeoff minimums?

None; the FAA allows a high minimums captain to use the normal published takeoff minimums for the airport.

Repair "B" on a minimum equipment list requires inoperative items to be repaired within what time interval?

Repair category "B" inoperative items shall be repaired within 3 consecutive calendar days (72 hours) excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the aircraft maintenance log and/or record.

What is the definition of a critical phase of flight?

That period of flight including all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet, unless in level cruise

For an aircraft having three or more engines on a route that does not comply with the "90-minute rule" (a route within 90 minutes flying time, all engines operating, from an approved alternate airport), what must be done for the flight to be dispatched on the planned route?

The aircraft must be operated at a weight allowed by the AFM that allows it to fly from a point where the two engines failed simultaneously to an authorized alternate airport and clear all terrain and obstructions within 5 statute miles of the intended track by at least 2,000 feet vertically. Also, the net flight path must have a positive slope at 1,500 feet above the airport where the landing is assumed to be made after the engines fail.

A JetBlue flight crew flying a CAT I ILS approach, on glidepath, and just inside the final approach fix (FAF), is told by the tower that the weather for the intended runway has just dropped below minimums. What must this flight crew do?

This flight crew may continue the approach to DA/DH or MDA. In order to land the aircraft, the flight visibility must not be less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used

A turbine aircraft is scheduled into a runway that is 11,000 feet in length. May this aircraft (which will, due to an anti-skid inoperative MEL, require 6,500 feet to land) land there on a dry runway? How about on a wet runway?

Yes on a dry runway; no on a wet runway

Airplanes with———————— must be equipped with a public address system that is capable of operation independent of the required crewmember interphone system.

a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers

In the event of an engine failure at or above V1, the pilot should achieve and maintain V2, until

acceleration altitude.

Traffic alert and collision avoidance system II (TCAS II) equipment is required for

all turbine-powered aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 33,000 pounds

The cockpit voice recorder (CVR) is required to operate starting

at first use of a checklist (before starting engines for the purpose of flight).

In passenger-carrying airplanes, at least two of the fire extinguishers must

be of the Halon 1211 (or equivalent) type.

In a situation in which the gross takeoff weight is limited by climb limit weight, in the event of an engine failure, the Go/No Go decision must be made

before reaching V1 speed.

In a situation in which the gross takeoff weight is limited by runway limit weight, in the event of an engine failure, the Go/No Go decision must be made

before reaching V1 speed.

In considering the need for escape slides or similar evacuation means, the aircraft is assumed to be

on the ground with all landing gear extended.