Med Surg 1 Test 1 Practice Questions
pH of intestinal aspirate
6 or higher
pH of respiratory aspirate
7 or greater
A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. A Billroth I procedure involves removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach (which contains the cells that secrete gastrin) as well as a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus. The remaining segment is anastomosed to the duodenum. A vagotomy severs the vagus nerve; a Billroth I procedure may be performed in conjunction with a vagotomy. If the remaining part of the stomach is anastomosed to the jejunum, the procedure is a Billroth II.
A patient is scheduled for a Billroth I procedure for ulcer management. What does the nurse understand will occur when this procedure is performed?
Vitamin K deficiency
A patient with severe chronic liver dysfunction comes to the clinic with bleeding of the gums and blood in the stool. What vitamin deficiency does the nurse suspect the patient may be experiencing?
The nurse would use Glucagon Glucagon is administered before removing a foreign body because it relaxes the smooth muscle of the esophagus, thereby facilitating insertion of the endoscope
During a psychotic episode, a client with schizophrenia swallows a small wooden spoon. Which medication would the nurse in the emergency department be most likely to administer to facilitate removal of the foreign body?
Immediacy of the occurrence. Acute gastritis usually develops quickly, whereas chronic gastritis results from prolonged inflammation of the stomach
During assessment of a patient with gastritis, the nurse practitioner attempts to distinguish acute from chronic pathology. One criteria, characteristic of gastritis would be the:
Macrocytic anemia
Folic Acid
Every 8 hours or per hospital established protocols
How often to flush peripherally inserted catheter?
"Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages." To prevent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, the nurse should advise the client to avoid foods and beverages that increase stomach acid, such as coffee and alcohol. The nurse also should teach the client to AVOID LYING DOWN after meals, which can aggravate reflux, and to tTAKE ANTACIDS AFTER EATING. The client need NOT LIMIT FLUID INTAKE with meals as long as the fluids aren't gastric irritants
To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction? a) avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages b) lie down after meals c) antacids during meals d) limit fluid intake
Eyes
Vitamin A
Blood Clotting
Vitamin K
Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease. Men have a higher incidence of gastric cancer. The prognosis is poor because the diagnosis is usually made late because most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage. Most cases of gastric cancer are discovered only after local invasion has advanced or metastases are present.
Which is a true statement regarding gastric cancer?
The clusters of ulcers take on a cobblestone appearance. The clusters of ulcers take on a cobblestone appearance. It is characterized by remissions and exacerbations. The pain is located in the lower right quadrant. The lesions are not in continuous contact with one another and are separated by normal tissue.
Which is a true statement regarding regional enteritis (Crohn's disease)?
high residual volume
greater than 200mL
pH of stomach acid
Between 1-5
Acute gastritis A client with acute gastritis may have a rapid onset of symptoms, including abdominal discomfort, headache, lassitude, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and hiccupping, which can last from a few hours to a few days. Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion-a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms
A client comes to the clinic after developing a headache, abdominal pain, nausea, hiccupping, and fatigue about 2 hours ago. The client tells the nurse that the last food was buffalo chicken wings and beer. Which medical condition does the nurse find to be most consistent with the client's presenting problems?
"This pain is caused from the gas used to inflate your abdominal area during surgery. Sitting upright in a chair, walking, or using a heating pad may ease the discomfort."
A client discharged after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy calls the surgeon's office reporting severe right shoulder pain 24 hours after surgery. Which statement is the correct information for the nurse to provide to this client
Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that accelerates gastric emptying. Because metoclopramide can have extrapyramidal side effects that are increased in certain neuromuscular disorders, such as Parkinson's disease, it should be used only if no other option exists, and the client should be monitored closely for uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs. Metoclopramide side effects are headache, confusion, and drowsiness.
A client has a new order for metoclopramide. What extrapyramidal side effect should the nurse assess for in the client?
Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by mucus According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physiological needs take priority. Under physiological needs, airway, breathing, circulation (ABCs) take highest priority.
A client has a radical neck dissection to treat cancer of the neck. The nurse develops the care plan and includes all the following diagnoses. The nurse identifies the highest priority diagnosis as...
Hepatic encephalopathy
A client has an elevated serum ammonia concentration and is exhibiting changes in mental status. The nurse should suspect which condition?
Gray A gray-white stool color is common with a biliary obstruction because the stool is no longer colored with bile pigments
A client with suspected biliary obstruction due to gallstones reports changes to the color of his stools. Which stool color does the nurse recognize as common to biliary obstruction?
Brush and floss daily. The description of erythema, edema, and pain of the mouth following radiation treatment describes stomatitis. Nursing considerations include prophylactic mouth care such as brushing and flossing daily. A soft-bristled toothbrush is recommended. The client is to avoid alcohol-based mouth rinses and hot or spicy foods that may be part of the client's usual diet.
A client has been receiving radiation therapy to the lungs and now has erythema, edema, and pain of the mouth. What instruction will the nurse give to the client?
High-dose corticosteroids Drug-induced hepatitis occurs when a drug reaction damages the liver. This form of hepatitis can be severe and fatal. High-dose corticosteroids usually administered first to treat the reaction.
A client has developed drug-induced hepatitis from a drug reaction to antidepressants. What treatment does the nurse anticipate the client will receive to treat the reaction?
anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
A client has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A. On assessment, the nurse expects to note:
Perforation of the peptic ulcer Signs and symptoms of perforation include the following: Sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity), which may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm; vomiting; collapse (fainting); extremely tender and rigid (board-like) abdomen; and hypotension and tachycardia, indicating shock.
A client is in the hospital for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The client reports vomiting and a sudden severe pain in the abdomen. The nurse then assesses a board-like abdomen. What does the nurse suspect these symptoms indicate?
Assess the graft for color and temperature. Assessing the graft for color and temperature addresses circulation and is most important for the nurse to complete. Reinforcing the neck dressing is important, but not the priority. Administering medication and cleansing the drain site are not most important interventions with the client after graft reconstruction of the neck
A client is postoperative following a graft reconstruction of the neck. What intervention is the mostimportant for the nurse to complete with the client? a) Assess the graft for color and temperature. b) Reinforcing the neck dressing c) Administer vancomycin d) Cleans the are with aseptic technique
Six small meals daily with 120 mL fluid between meals After the return of bowel sounds and removal of the nasogastric tube, the nurse may give fluids, followed by food in small portions. Foods are gradually added until the client can eat six small meals a day and drink 120 mL of fluid between meals.
A client is recovering from gastric surgery. Toward what goal should the nurse progress the client's enteral intake?
Ensure availability of an infusion pump Ensure completion of baseline monitoring of the complete blood count (CBC) and chemistry panel Place a 1.5-micron filter on the tubing Parenteral nutrition with dextrose concentrations of greater than 10% should not be administered through peripheral veins. Medications should not be administered in the same IV line as the parenteral nutrition because of potential incompatibilities with the components of the nutritional solution.
A client is scheduled to receive a 25% dextrose solution of parenteral nutrition. What actions are a priority for the nurse to perform prior to administration? Select all that apply.
Notify the surgeon about the tube's removal. If the nasogastric tube is removed accidently in a client who has undergone esophageal or gastric surgery, it is usually replaced by the health care provider. Care is taken to avoid trauma to the suture line. The nurse will not insert the tube to the esophagus or to the stomach in this situation.
A client recovering from gastric bypass surgery accidentally removes the nasogastric tube. What is the best action by the nurse?
Diaphoresis, vomiting, and diarrhea.
A client who can't tolerate oral feedings begins receiving intermittent enteral feedings. When monitoring for evidence of intolerance to these feedings, what must the nurse remain alert for?
Bile-stained vomiting Nausea and vomiting are common in acute pancreatitis. The emesis is usually gastric in origin but may also be bile stained
A client who had developed jaundice 2 months earlier is brought to the ED after attending a party and developing excruciating pain that radiated over the abdomen and into the back. Upon assessment, which additional symptom would the nurse expect this client to have?
450 mL A residual of greater than 400 mL strongly suggests obstruction.
A client who is being treated for pyloric obstruction has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place to decompress the stomach. The nurse routinely checks for obstruction which would be indicated by what amount?
Rapid gastric dumping
A client who is postoperative from bariatric surgery reports foul-smelling, fatty stools. What is the nurse's understanding of the primary reason for this finding?
Withholding all oral intake, as ordered, to decrease pancreatic secretions The nurse should withhold all oral intake to suppress pancreatic secretions, which may worsen pancreatitis.
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which nursing action is mostappropriate for a client with this diagnosis?
Calorie counts for oral nutrients Intake and output monitoring Daily weights
A nurse is caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition at home. The client was discharged from the acute care facility 4 days ago. What would the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Daily weights Intake and output monitoring Calorie counts for oral nutrients
A nurse is caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition at home. The client was discharged from the acute care facility 4 days ago. What would the nurse include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply
The client exhibits signs of adequate GI perfusion.
A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which statement best indicates that the disease process is under control?
The client's hepatic function is decreasing.
A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis. The nurse assesses the client at noon and discovers that the client is difficult to arouse and has an elevated serum ammonia level. The nurse should suspect which situation?
"It is a vent that prevents backflow of the secretions." The blue part of the Salem sump tube vents the larger suction-drainage tube to the atmosphere and, when kept above the patient's waist, prevents reflux of gastric contents through it. Otherwise it acts as a siphon. A gauge on the suction device regulates the pressure of the device. The tube has markings on it to aid in measurement
A nurse is caring for a patient with a Salem sump gastric tube attached to low intermittent suction for decompression. The patient asks, "What's this blue part of the tube for?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Apply pressure to the bleeding site The first action for the nurse is to apply pressure to the bleeding site. The nurse will need to obtain assistance, elevate the head of the bed, and notify the surgeon, but client care is most important initially.
A nurse is completing an assessment on a client with a postoperative neck dissection. The nurse notices excessive bleeding from the dressing site and suspects possible carotid artery rupture. What action should the nurse take first?
Vasomotor symptoms associated with dumping syndrome Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating. Signs and symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, diarrhea, nausea, and the desire to lie down. Dehiscence of the surgical wound is characterized by pain and a pulling or popping feeling at the surgical site. Peritonitis presents with a rigid, board-like abdomen, tenderness, and fever.
A nurse is providing care for a client recovering from gastric bypass surgery. During assessment, the client exhibits pallor, perspiration, palpitations, headache, and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and drowsiness. The client reports eating 90 minutes ago. What will the nurse suspect? a) Vasomotor symptoms associated with dumping syndrome b) Dehiscence c) Peritonitis
"Avoid taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs."
A nurse is providing discharge instruction for a client who is postoperative bariatric surgery. What statement will the nurse include when providing teaching aimed at decreasing the risk of gastric ulcers?
a) Ways to obtain nutritional supplementation The client who had rigid fixation of the jaw should be instructed not to chew food for the first 1 to 4 weeks. The client needs to obtain optimal caloric and protein intake, so the nurse should include ways to obtain supplemental nutrition. Solid foods require chewing, so a liquid diet is recommended. Rinsing with an alcohol-based solution is drying to the mucous membranes. Foods need to be high in calories to support adequate nutrition.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who fell from a bicycle, resulting in a fractured jaw. The client underwent surgical intervention with rigid fixation. What teaching should the nurse include with client education? a)Ways to obtain nutritional supplementation b)Solid foods client can ingest c) Rinse with alcohol based solution d) Foods low in calories
Eating Taking antacids, eating, or vomiting often relieves the pain. Pain occurs about 2 hours after eating.
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the epigastric region. The nurse suspects that the patient's pain is related to a peptic ulcer when the patient states the pain is relieved by what?
High in fiber.
A patient diagnosed with IBS is advised to eat a diet that is:
Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. The diaphragm opening, through which the esophagus passes, becomes enlarged and part of the upper stomach moves up into the lower portion of the thorax.
A patient has been diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. The nurse explains the diagnosis to the patient and his family by telling them that a hiatal hernia is a (an):
"It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." "You may have ingested some irritating foods." "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin."
A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis and asks the nurse what could have caused it. What is the best response by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
Bleeding esophageal varices
A patient is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. He has hematemesis and alteration in mental status. The patient has tachycardia, cool clammy skin, and hypotension. The patient has a history of alcohol abuse. What would the nurse suspect the patient has?
Edema and inflammation
A patient is diagnosed with mild acute pancreatitis. What does the nurse understand is characteristic of this disorder?
6 p.m. to 8 p.m. The recommendation is to irrigate the feeding tube of patients receiving continuous tube feedings every 4 to 6 hours.
A patient is receiving a continuous tube feeding. The nurse notes that the feeding tube was last irrigated at 2 p.m. The nurse would plan to irrigate the tube again at which time?
Absent
After assessing a client with peritonitis, how would the nurse most likely document the client's bowel sounds?
Gastroesophageal sphincter is intact, lessening the possibility of regurgitation and aspiration.
Gastrostomy feedings are preferred to nasogastric feedings in the comatose patient, because the:
Adding fiber-rich foods to the diet gradually The nurse instructs the client to add fiber-rich foods to the diet gradually to avoid bloating, gas, and diarrhea.
In addition to teaching a client with constipation to increase dietary fiber intake to 25 g/day, which of the following would the nurse include as important?
Right upper quadrant
In what location would the nurse palpate for the liver?
Mental confusion
Rebleeding may occur from a peptic ulcer and often warrants surgical interventions. Signs of bleeding include which of the following?
feedings stopped too abruptly
Rebound hypoglycemia is a complication of parenteral nutrition caused by...
Levin tube A Levin tube is a single lumen nasogastric tube. A Salem sump tube is a double lumen nasogastric tube; a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is a triple lumen nasogastric tube. A Miller-Abbott tube is a double lumen nasoenteric tube.
The health care provider orders the insertion of a single lumen nasogastric tube. When gathering the equipment for the insertion, what will the nurse select?
nasogastric intubation The nasal route is the preferred route for passing a tube when the client's nose is intact and free from injury
The healthcare provider of a client with oral cancer has ordered the placement of a GI tube to provide nutrition and to deliver medications. What would be the preferred route?
a) Dysphagia This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain upon swallowing. Nausea is the most common symptom of gastrointestinal problems in general. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom that may have a variety of causes. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain upon swallowing.
The most common symptom of esophageal disease is... a) Dysphagia b) Nausea c) Vomiting d) Odynophagia
Fluid volume deficit
The nurse assesses a patient who recently had a nasoenteric intubation. Symptoms of oliguria, lethargy, and tachycardia in the patient would indicate to the nurse what common complication?
Monitoring the feeding closely. High residual volumes (>200 mL) should alert the nurse to monitor the client more closely
The nurse cares for a client who receives continuous enteral tube feedings and who is at low risk for aspiration. The nurse assesses the gastric residual volume to be 350 mL. The nurse determines which action is correct?
nontunneled central catheter Nontunneled central catheters are used for short-term (less than 6 weeks) IV therapy in acute care settings.
The nurse cares for a client who receives parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse notes on the care plan that the catheter will need to be removed 6 weeks after insertion and that the client's venous access device is a...
Muscle twitching and finger numbness
The nurse identifies a potential collaborative problem of electrolyte imbalance for a client with severe acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to an electrolyte imbalance associated with acute pancreatitis?
The nurse anticipates an order for nasogastric tube insertion to decompress the stomach.
The nurse in the ED admits a client with suspected gastric outlet obstruction. The client's symptoms include nausea and vomiting. The nurse anticipates that the physician will issue which order?
Watery diarrhea
The nurse is administering Cephulac (lactulose) to decrease the ammonia level in a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy. What should the nurse carefully monitor for that may indicate a medication overdose?
Usual pattern of elimination
The nurse is assessing a client for constipation. Which factor should the nurse review first to identify the cause of constipation?
To reduce gastric and pancreatic secretions
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis. The patient has an order for an anticholinergic medication. The nurse explains that the patient will be receiving that medication for what reason?
Peptic ulcers Chronic gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori is implicated in the development of peptic ulcers.
The nurse is conducting a community education class on gastritis. The nurse includes that chronic gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori is implicated in which disease/condition?
Ulcerative colitis The presence of mucus and pus in the stool suggests ulcerative colitis. Watery stools are characteristic of small-bowel disease. Loose, semisolid stools are associated more often with disorders of the colon. Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption.
The nurse is conducting a gastrointestinal assessment. When the client reports the presence of mucus and pus in the stool, the nurse assesses for additional signs/symptoms of which disease/condition?
The distance measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and from the earlobe to the xiphoid process
The nurse is inserting a Levin tube for a patient for gastric decompression. The tube should be inserted to 6 to 10 cm beyond what length?
Allow the patient to sip water as the tube is being inserted. During insertion, the patient usually sits upright with a towel or other protective barrier spread in a biblike fashion over the chest. The nostril may be swabbed or the oropharynx sprayed with an anesthetic agent to numb the nasal passage and suppress the gag reflex. The tip of the patient's nose is tilted upward, and the tube is aligned to enter the nostril. When the tube reaches the nasopharynx, the patient is instructed to lower the head slightly and, if able, to begin to swallow as the tube is advanced. The patient may also be encouraged to sip water through a straw to facilitate advancement of the tube if this action is not contraindicated
The nurse is inserting a nasogastric tube for a patient with pancreatitis. What intervention can the nurse provide to allow facilitation of the tube insertion?
First action is to flush with 10 mL of water.
The nurse is to discontinue a nasogastric tube that had been used for decompression. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Provide frequent mouth care. Frequent mouth care helps to relieve the discomfort from dryness and unpleasant odors and tastes. It can be done with the help of ice chips and analgesic throat lozenges, gargles, or sprays. Adequate hydration is essential. If urine output is less than less than 500 mL/day, formula and additional water can be given as ordered
The nurse observes dry mucous membranes in a client who is receiving tube feedings after an oral surgery. The client also reports unpleasant tastes and odors. Which measure should be included in the client's plan of care?
Many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. The most frequent symptom of oral cancer is a painless sore that does not heal. The client may complain of tenderness, and difficulty with chewing, swallowing, or speaking occur as the cancer progresses. Biopsy is used to diagnose oral cancer. A typical lesion in oral cancer is a painless, hardened ulcer with raised edges.
The nurse provides health teaching to inform the client with oral cancer that...
Notify the physician The presence of stridor following radical neck dissection indicates obstruction of the airway, and the nurse must report it immediately to the physician.
The nurse working in the recovery room is caring for a client who had a radical neck dissection. The nurse notices that the client makes a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration. Which intervention by the nurse is appropriate?
Keep the vent lumen above the patient's stomach level. The blue vent lumen should be kept above the patient's stomach to prevent reflux of gastric contents through it; otherwise it acts as a siphon. A one-way antireflux valve seated in the blue pigtail can prevent the reflux of gastric contents out the vent lumen
The patient is concerned about leakage of gastric contents out of the gastric sump tube the nurse has just inserted. What would the nurse do to prevent reflux gastric contents from coming through the blue vent of a gastric sump tube?
To avoid inflammation of the pancreas
The physician has written the following orders for a new client admitted with pancreatitis: bed rest, nothing by mouth (NPO), and administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) . Which does the nurse attribute as the reason for NPO status?
This is pneumothorax
What condition is caused by improper catheter placement and inadvertent puncture of the pleura
chancre
The term for a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis is a(n)
Daily when not in use Daily installation of normal saline and dilute heparin flush when a nontunneled central catheter is not in use will maintain the patency of the line. Normal saline and heparin flushes should be used after each time blood is drawn in order to prevent clotting of blood within the line.
To ensure patency of central venous line ports, diluted heparin flushes are used
cannot tolerate high-glucose concentration Total parental nutrition (TPN) is used carefully in clients with pancreatitis because some clients cannot tolerate a high-glucose concentration even with insulin coverage.
Total parental nutrition (TPN) should be used cautiously in clients with pancreatitis because such clients:
Metabolic alkalosis Vomiting results in loss of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and potassium from the stomach, leading to a reduction of chlorides and potassium in the blood and to metabolic alkalosis.
Vomiting results in which of the following acid-base imbalances?
low-fat diet
What is the recommended dietary treatment for a client with chronic cholecystitis?
Hepatitis C Transmission of hepatitis C occurs primarily through injection of drugs and through transfusion of blood products prior to 1992.
A 33-year-old male patient with a history of IV heroin and cocaine use has been admitted to the medical unit for the treatment of endocarditis. The nurse should recognize that this patient is also likely to test positive for which of the following hepatitis viruses?
Client with blood type O
Which blood type is at highest risk for peptic ulcer disease?
Osteoarthritis
A client with obesity reports pain in the joints. Which musculoskeletal condition related to obesity does the nurse suspect the client has?
The client lying in a lateral position, with the head of bed flat A client who has had neck surgery is at risk for neck swelling. To prevent respiratory complications, the head of the bed should be at least at a 30º ANGLE. This position gives the lungs room to expand and decreases swelling by promoting venous and lymphatic drainage. This position also minimizes the risk of aspiration
A nurse enters the room of a client who has returned to the unit after having a radical neck dissection. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Right lateral decubitus position After a liver biopsy, the client is placed on the right side (right lateral decubitus position) to exert pressure on the liver and prevent bleeding.
After undergoing a liver biopsy, a client should be placed in which position?
The digestion of dietary and blood proteins.
Ammonia, the major etiologic factor in the development of encephalopathy, inhibits neurotransmission. Increased levels of ammonia are damaging to the body. The largest source of ammonia is from:
Hypokalemia
An elderly client diagnosed with diarrhea is taking digoxin. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse be alert to?
Hypokalemia The older client taking digitalis must be aware of how quickly dehydration and hypokalemia can occur with diarrhea. The nurse teaches the client to recognize the symptoms of hypokalemia because low levels of potassium intensify the action of digitalis, leading to digitalis toxicity
An elderly client diagnosed with diarrhea is taking digoxin. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse be alert to?
Staphylococcus aureus The elderly and debilitated clients experience decreased salivary flow from general dehydration or medications. The bacterial infection is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The infecting organism travels from the mouth through the salivary gland
An older client is diagnosed with parotitis. What bacterial infection does the nurse suspect caused the client's parotitis?
Low residue Oral fluids and a low-residue, high-protein, high-calorie diet with supplemental vitamin therapy and iron replacement are prescribed to meet the nutritional needs, reduce inflammation, and control pain and diarrhea.
Diet modifications for patient diagnosed with chronic inflammatory bowel disease include which of the following?
This is Lithotripsy
For a client with salivary calculi, which procedure uses shock waves to disintegrate the stone?
0.9% NS
Medical management of a patient with peritonitis includes fluid, electrolyte, and colloid replacement. The nurse knows to prepare the initial, most appropriate intravenous solution. Which of the following is the correct solution?
Check tube placement every shift Each nurse caring for the client is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding
The client is on a continuous tube feeding. The nurse determines the tube placement should be checked every
Catheter hub The primary sources of microorganisms for catheter-related infections are the skin and the catheter hub.
The primary source of microorganisms for catheter-related infections are the skin and which of the following?
Check with the pharmacist to see of a liquid form is available.
A client with a feeding tube is to receive medication. The medication supplied is an enteric-coated tablet. Which of the following would be most appropriate?
Spironolactone (Aldactone) For portal hypertension, a diuretic usually an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone (Aldactone) is ordered.
Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order for a client with cirrhosis who develops portal hypertension?
Peritonitis Lack of bowel motility typically accompanies peritonitis. The abdomen feels rigid and board-like as it distends with gas and intestinal contents. Bowel sounds typically are absent.
A client with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis is awaiting surgical intervention. The nurse listens to bowel sounds and hears none and observes that the abdomen is rigid and board-like. What complication does the nurse determine may be occurring at this time?
Increased appetite and thirst
Which of the following symptoms would indicate that a client with chronic pancreatitis has developed secondary diabetes?
Provide the client with an irrigating solution of baking soda and warm water. If a client cannot tolerate brushing or flossing, an irrigating solution of 1 tsp of baking soda to 8 oz of warm water, half strength hydrogen peroxide, or normal saline solution is recommended. Using tap water is not enough to promote oral hygiene.
A client with a disorder of the oral cavity cannot tolerate tooth brushing or flossing. Which strategy should the nurse use to assist the client?
Ensure that the client rests.
Which of the following would be most appropriate for a client who is experiencing biliary colic?
Remaining upright for at least 1 hour following each meal Frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. The patient is advised not to recline for 1 hour after eating, to prevent reflux or movement of the hernia, and to elevate the head of the bed on 4- to 8-inch (10- to 20-cm) blocks to prevent the hernia from sliding upward. Fluid intake is encouraged, but this should be ingested throughout a meal, not just before and after the meal. It is not necessary to refrain from drinking alcohol, spicy foods, or dairy products.
A 59-year-old woman with a recent history of heartburn, regurgitation, and occasional dysphagia has been diagnosed with a sliding hiatal hernia following an upper GI series. The nurse is providing patient education about the management of this health problem. What should the nurse suggest as a management strategy to this patient?
Remaining upright for at least 1 hour following each meal Management for a sliding hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. The patient is advised not to recline for 1 hour after eating, to prevent reflux or movement of the hernia, and to elevate the head of the bed on 4- to 8-inch (10- to 20-cm) blocks to prevent the hernia from sliding upward. Fluid intake is encouraged, but this should be ingested throughout a meal, not just before and after the meal. It is not necessary to refrain from drinking alcohol, spicy foods, or dairy products
A 59-year-old woman with a recent history of heartburn, regurgitation, and occasional dysphagia has been diagnosed with a sliding hiatal hernia following an upper GI series. The nurse is providing patient education about the management of this health problem. What should the nurse suggest as a management strategy to this patient?
Use incentive spirometry every hour
A client being treated for pancreatitis faces the risk of atelectasis. Which of the following interventions would be important to implement to minimize this risk?
Serum amylase Serum amylase and lipase concentrations are used to make the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Serum amylase and lipase concentrations are elevated within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms. Serum amylase usually returns to normal within 48 to 72 hours, but the serum lipase concentration may remain elevated for a longer period, often days longer than amylase.
A client comes to the ED with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The physician plans to rule out acute pancreatitis. The nurse would expect the diagnosis to be confirmed by an elevated result on which laboratory test?
fluid accumulation venous pressure
A client has received a diagnosis of portal hypertension. What does portal hypertension treatment aim to reduce? Select all that apply.
Chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea
A client informs the nurse that he has been having abdominal pain that is relieved when having a bowel movement. The client states that the physician told him he has irritable bowel syndrome. What does the nurse recognize as characteristic of this disorder?
cirrhosis Muscle wasting, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendencies are all symptoms of cirrhosis. The client may also have mild fever, edema, abdominal pain, and an enlarged liver.
A client is admitted for suspected GI disease. Assessment data reveal muscle wasting, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendency. The nurse suspects the client has
White blood cell (WBC) count 22.8/mm3 The nurse should report the elevated WBC count. This finding, which is a sign of infection, indicates that the client's appendix might have ruptured.
A client is admitted to the emergency department with reports right lower quadrant pain. Blood specimens are drawn and sent to the laboratory. Which laboratory finding should be reported to the health care provider immediately?
Black and tarry Black, tarry stools are a sign of bleeding high in the GI tract, as from a gastric ulcer, and result from the action of digestive enzymes on the blood. Bright red stools indicate lower GI tract bleeding. Vomitus associated with upper GI tract bleeding commonly is described as coffee-ground-like. Clay-colored stools are associated with biliary obstruction.
A client is admitted to the health care facility with a diagnosis of a bleeding gastric ulcer. The nurse expects the client's stools to have which description?
Liver biopsy A liver biopsy which reveals hepatic fibrosis is the most conclusive diagnostic procedure.
A client is being prepared to undergo laboratory and diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis of cirrhosis. Which test would the nurse expect to be used to provide definitive confirmation of the disorder?
Maintaining a patent airway Rapid growth of cancer cells in the esophagus may put pressure on the adjacent trachea, jeopardizing the airway. Therefore, maintaining a patent airway is the highest care priority for a client with esophageal cancer
A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, what should the nurse assign highest priority to?
"Avoid contact with other people who might have an infection." Clients taking corticosteroids may not experience a normal immune response to infection. The client needs to monitor himself or herself for signs and symptoms of infection and to avoid situations where they may be exposed to infection, such as others who might be ill. The drug should be taken with meals to decrease gastrointestinal irritation and should be withdrawn or tapered slowly to prevent Addisonian crisis. Clients also need to limit their sodium intake or follow a low-sodium diet to minimize water retention associated with this drug.
A client with Crohn's disease is to receive prednisone as part of the treatment plan. Which of the following instructions would be appropriate?
Crohn's disease The systemic nature of Crohn's disease is evidenced by symptoms outside the GI tract, referred to as extraintestinal manifestations of IBD. They include arthritis, arthralgias, skin lesions, eye inflammation (uveitis, conjunctivitis, and iritis), and disorders of the liver and gallbladder.
A client with a 10-year history of Crohn's disease is seeing the physician due to increased diarrhea and fatigue. Additionally, the client has developed arthritis and conjunctivitis. What is the mostlikely cause of the latest symptoms?
severe, radiating abdominal pain
Which symptoms will a nurse observe most commonly in clients with pancreatitis?
Diarrhea Dumping syndrome produces weakness, dizziness, sweating, palpitations, abdominal cramps, and DIARRHEA, which result from the rapid emptying (dumping) of large amounts of hypertonic chyme (a liquid mass of partly digested food) into the jejunum. This concentrated solution in the gut draws fluid from the circulating blood into the intestine, causing HYPOVOLEMIA. The DROP IN BP can produce SYNCOPE. As the syndrome progresses, the sudden appearance of carbohydrates in the jejunum stimulates the pancreas to secrete EXCESS INSULIN, which in turn causes HYPOGLYCEMIA
A client with a gastrojejunostomy is beginning to take solid food. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing dumping syndrome?
Measure blood glucose concentration every 4 to 6 hours
A client with acute pancreatitis has been started on total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse perform after administration of the TPN?
Vitamin K Clients with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas typically require vitamin K before surgery to correct a prothrombin deficiency.
A client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following should a nurse administer to the client before surgery?
yellow sclerae. Yellow sclerae are an early sign of jaundice, which occurs when the common bile duct is obstructed.
A client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note...
The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.
A client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for discharge?
metabolic acidosis Diarrhea causes a bicarbonate deficit. With loss of the relative alkalinity of the lower GI tract, the relative acidity of the upper GI tract predominates, leading to metabolic acidosis.
A client with enteritis reports frequent diarrhea. What assessment should the nurse should anticipate?
Approximately 75% The Billroth II is a wide resection that involves removing approximately 75% of the stomach and decreases the possibility of lymph node spread or metastatic recurrence
A client with gastric cancer is scheduled to undergo a Billroth II procedure. The client's spouse asks how much of the client's stomach will be removed. What would be the most accurate response from the nurse?
Hairy leukoplakia Hairy leukoplakia is a condition often seen in people who are HIV positive in which white patches with rough, hairlike projections form, typically on lateral border of the tongue. Aphthous stomatitis is typically a recurrent round or oval sore or ulcer on the inside of the lips and cheeks or underneath the tongue and is not associated with HIV. Erythroplakia describes a red area or red spots on the lining of the mouth and is not associated with HIV. Nicotine stomatitis is a white patch in the mouth caused by extreme heat from smoking.
A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) comes to the clinic and is experiencing white patches on the lateral border of the tongue. What type of lesions does the nurse document? a) hairy leukoplakia b) aphthous stomatitis c) erythroplakia d) nicotine stomatitis
Vitamin A Vitamin A deficiency results in night blindness and eye and skin changes
A client with severe and chronic liver disease is showing manifestations related to inadequate vitamin intake and metabolism. He reports difficulty driving at night because he cannot see well. Which of the following vitamins is most likely deficient for this client?
Endoscopy Through endoscopy, a biopsy of the gastric mucosa and of any suspicious lesions can be obtained. Endoscopy may reveal lesions that, because of their size or location, are not evident on x-ray studies.
A health care provider suspects that a client has peptic ulcer disease. With which diagnostic procedure would the nurse most likely prepare to assist?
This is called an anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal
A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a(n):
Low Fowler's
A nurse cares for a client who is post op bariatric surgery. Which position will the nurse place the client in order to best promote comfort?
Stimulate GI peristalsis
A nurse cares for a client who is post op from bariatric surgery. Once able, the nurse encourages oral intake for what primary purpose?
"You should avoid pregnancy for at least 18 months after surgery."
A nurse cares for a female client of childbearing age who will undergo bariatric surgery. When teaching the client about precautions after surgery, which teaching will the nurse include that is specific to this population?
Gently washing the area surrounding the stoma using a facecloth and mild soap For a client with an ostomy, maintaining skin integrity is a priority. The nurse should gently wash the area surrounding the stoma using a facecloth and mild soap. Scrubbing the area around the stoma can damage the skin and cause bleeding. The faceplate opening should be no more than 1/8-inch to 1/6-inch larger than the stoma. This size protects the skin from exposure to irritating fecal material
A nurse is applying an ostomy appliance to the ileostomy of a client with ulcerative colitis. Which action is appropriate?
Diarrhea Tachycardia Diaphoresis Dumping syndrome is manifested by hypotension, diarrhea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis. The client often reports a feeling of fullness, nausea, and vomiting.
A nurse is assessing a client receiving tube feedings and suspects dumping syndrome. What would lead the nurse to suspect this? Select all that apply
Alcohol abuse and smoking The nurse should mention that risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers include alcohol abuse, smoking, and stress
A nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention...
Omeprazole (Prilosec)
A nurse practitioner prescribes drug therapy for a patient with peptic ulcer disease. Choose the drug that can be used for 4 weeks and has a 90% chance of healing the ulcer.
Proton pump inhibitors. Proton pump inhibitors are the strongest inhibitors of acid secretions. The H2-receptor antagonists are the next most powerful
A nurse practitioner, who is treating a patient with GERD, knows that this type of drug helps treat the symptoms of the disease. The drug classification is: a) Proton pump inhibitors b) H2-receptor antagonists c) Antacids
"Older adults have a slightly higher prevalence of obesity in comparison to the general population."
A nurse prepares community teaching on healthy lifestyle modifications to a group of older adults. When discussing obesity rates of older adults in comparison with the rest of the population, what will the nurse include?
30 mg/dL
A nurse should monitor blood glucose levels for a patient diagnosed with hyperinsulinism. What blood glucose level does the nurse recognize as inadequate to sustain normal brain function?
Colonoscopy Diverticulosis is typically diagnosed by colonoscopy, which permits visualization of the extent of diverticular disease and biopsy of tissue to rule out other diseases. In the past, barium enema was the preferred diagnostic test, but it is now used less frequently than colonoscopy. CT with contrast agent is the diagnostic test of choice if the suspected diagnosis is diverticulitis; it can also reveal abscesses.
A patient is suspected to have diverticulOsis without symptoms of diverticulitis. What diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate educating the patient about prior to scheduling?
Achalasia Achalasia is absent or ineffective peristalsis of the distal esophagus accompanied by failure of the esophageal sphincter to relax in response to swallowing.
A patient tells the nurse that it feels like food is "sticking" in the lower portion of the esophagus. What motility disorder does the nurse suspect these symptoms indicate?
He will need to undergo an upper endoscopy every 6 months to detect malignant changes. In the patient with Barrett's esophagus, the cells lining the lower esophagus have undergone change and are no longer squamous cells. The altered cells are considered precancerous and are a precursor to esophageal cancer. To facilitate early detection of malignant cells, upper endoscopies may be performed every 6 to 12 months.
A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has a diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus and has been admitted to a medical unit. The nurse is writing a care plan for this patient. What information is essential to include?
decompression Negative pressure exerted through a tube inserted in the stomach removes secretions and gaseous substances from the stomach, preventing abdominal distention, nausea, and vomiting.
A preoperative client scheduled to have an open cholecystectomy says to the nurse, "The doctor said that after surgery, I will have a tube in my nose that goes into my stomach. Why do I need that?" What most common reason for a client having a nasogastric tube in place after abdominal surgery should the nurse include in a response?
"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."
A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?
Duodenol Ulcers
Clients with Type O blood are at higher risk for which of the following GI disorders?
0.9% NS The administration of several liters of an isotonic solution is immediately prescribed. Hypovolemia occurs because massive amounts of fluid and electrolytes move from the intestinal lumen into the peritoneal cavity and deplete the fluid in the vascular space
Medical management of a patient with peritonitis includes fluid, electrolyte, and colloid replacement. The nurse knows to prepare the initial, most appropriate intravenous solution. Which of the following is the correct solution?
Fowler The client should be placed in the Fowler position to facilitate breathing and promote comfort. This position expands the lungs because the diaphragm is pulled downward and the abdominal viscera are pulled away from the lungs.
Postoperatively, a client with a radical neck dissection should be placed in which position?
Nurse should withhold enteric coated aspirin Enteric coated tablets (enteric coated aspirin) are not to be crushed and a change in the form of the medications is required
The client is experiencing swallowing difficulties and is now scheduled to receive a gastric feeding. The client has the following oral medications prescribed: furosemide, digoxin, enteric coated aspirin, and vitamin E. The nurse would withhold which medication?
Infuse a solution containing 10% dextrose and water. If the parenteral nutrition solution runs out, a solution of 10% dextrose and water is infused to prevent hypoglycemia. The nurse would then order the next parenteral nutrition bag from the pharmacy
The client is receiving a 25% dextrose solution of parenteral nutrition. The infusion machine is beeping, and the nurse determines the intravenous (IV) bag is empty. The nurse finds there is no available bag to administer. What is the priority action by the nurse?
amylase Amylase is secreted by the exocrine pancreas. Lipase aids in the digestion of fats. Trypsin aids in the digestion of proteins. Secretin is the major stimulus for increased bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas
The digestion of carbohydrates is aided by...
lactulose (Cephulac) Lactulose is administered to detoxify ammonium and to act as an osmotic agent, drawing water into the bowel, which causes diarrhea in some clients
The nurse is administering medications to a client that has elevated ammonia due to cirrhosis of the liver. What medication will the nurse give to detoxify ammonium and to act as an osmotic agent?
Hematemesis Hematemesis is vomiting blood.
The nurse is assessing a client with an ulcer for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage. The nurse interprets which condition as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage?
Pancreatitis can elevate the diaphragm and alter the breathing pattern.
The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is admitted to the intensive care unit to monitor for pulmonary complications. What is the nurse's understanding of the pathophysiology of pulmonary complications related to pancreatitis?
1.5 L (1,500mL) Daily fluid intake and output are monitored to detect early signs of dehydration (minimal fluid intake of 1.5 L/day, minimal output of 0.5 mL/kg/h).
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with gastritis. To promote fluid balance when treating gastritis, the nurse knows that what minimal daily intake of fluids is required?
Clamp the tubing and give the patient a rest period. When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse should allow tepid fluid to enter the colon slowly. If cramping occurs, the nurse should clamp off the tubing and allow the patient to rest before progressing. Water should flow in over a 5- to 10-minute period.
The nurse is irrigating a colostomy when the patient says, "You will have to stop, I am cramping so badly." What is the priority action by the nurse?
Keep the vent lumen above the patient's waist to prevent gastric content reflux.
The nurse is managing a gastric (Salem) sump tube for a patient who has an intestinal obstruction and will be going to surgery. What interventions should the nurse perform to make sure the tube is functioning properly?
Peritonitis The nurse should report to the physician that the client has signs/symptoms of peritonitis. Signs/symptoms of a pelvic abscess include anorexia, chills, fever, diaphoresis, and diarrhea. Signs/symptoms of an ileus include absent bowel sounds, nausea, and abdominal distention. Signs/symptoms of hemorrhage include tachycardia, hypotension, anxiety, and bleeding
The nurse is monitoring a client's postoperative course after an appendectomy. The nurse's assessment reveals that the client has vomited, has abdominal tenderness and rigidity, and has tachycardia. The nurse reports to the physician that the client has signs/symptoms of which complication?
Borborygmus
The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment for a patient with diarrhea and auscultates a loud rumbling sound in the left lower quadrant. What will the nurse document this sound as on the nurse's notes?
Metoclopramide The client is prescribed carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet), which is used for Parkinson's disease. Metoclopramide can have extrapyramidal effects, and these effects can be increased in clients with Parkinson's disease
The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a slightly overweight client seen in the Emergency Department with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse notes in the client's record that the client is taking carbidopa/levodopa. Which order for the client by the health care provider should the nurse question?
Smoking history of 20 years Male gender Previous treatment for gastroesophageal reflux disease
The nurse is reviewing the chart of a client with swallowing problems. Which factors would raise suspicion that the client has cancer of the esophagus? Select all that apply.
Stool cultures negative for microorganisms or parasite Stool cultures fail to reveal an etiologic microorganism or parasite, but occult blood and white blood cells (WBCs) often are found in the stool.
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with Crohn disease. Which of the following would the nurse most likely find?
Change in bowel habits The chief characteristic of cancer of the colon is a change in bowel habits, such as alternating constipation and diarrhea. Excess gas, daily bowel movements, and abdominal cramping when having a bowel movement are not indicators of colon cancer
The nurse is talking with a group of clients who are older than age 50 years about the recognition of colon cancer to access early intervention. What should the nurse inform the clients to report immediately to their primary care provider?
Prevents ulceration in clients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Misoprostol (Cytotec) is a synthetic prostaglandin that protects the gastric mucosa against ulceration and is used in clients who take NSAIDs. Misoprostol should be taken with food.
The nurse is teaching a client with peptic ulcer disease who has been prescribed misoprostol. What information from the nurse would be most accurate about misoprostol?
Administer prescribed metoclopramide. Metoclopramide (Reglan) is administered to increase peristalsis of the feeding tube into the duodenum. Placing the client on the right side, not the left side, helps to facilitate movement and placement. Having the client swallow or even to drink water facilitates placement of the tube past the epiglottis, not into the duodenum.
The nurse is to insert a postpyloric feeding tube. How can the nurse aid in placement of the tube past the pylorus?
Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed.
Which type of jaundice seen in adults is the result of increased destruction of red blood cells?
Drink at least 8 to 10 large glasses of fluid every day The nurse should instruct a client with diverticulosis to drink at least 8 to 10 large glasses of fluid every day. The client should include unprocessed bran in the diet because it adds bulk, and should avoid the use of laxatives or enemas except when recommended by the physician. In addition, regular exercise should be encouraged if the client's current lifestyle is somewhat inactive.
What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client being treated for diverticulosis?
Continuous feedings Continuous feedings should be administered to a client who is at risk of diarrhea due to hypertonic feeding solutions. Bolus or intermittent feedings cause sudden distention of the small intestine, and cyclic feedings are not advised
What type of feedings should be administered to a client who is at risk of diarrhea due to hypertonic feeding solutions?
A canker sore of the oral soft tissues Aphthous stomatitis refers to a canker sore of the oral soft tissues, including the lips, tongue, and inside of the cheeks
When assessing a client during a routine checkup, the nurse reviews the history and notes that the client had aphthous stomatitis at the time of the last visit. How is aphthous stomatitis best described by the nurse?
Assess the client's abdomen and vital signs. Signs and symptoms of perforation includes sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity); pain may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm.
When caring for a client with an acute exacerbation of a peptic ulcer, the nurse finds the client doubled up in bed with severe pain in the right shoulder. What is the initial appropriate action by the nurse?
change in mental status signs of GI bleeding
When caring for a client with cirrhosis, which symptoms should a nurse report immediately? Select all that apply.
Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix
When preparing a client for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?
Familial polyposis Family history of colon cancer or familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer. Age older than 40 years and a high-fat, high-protein, low-fiber diet are also risk factors for colorectal cancer.
Which characteristic is a risk factor for colorectal cancer?
presents with a rigid, board-like abdomen. A rigid, board-like abdomen is a sign of peritonitis, a possibly life-threatening condition. Epigastric pain occurring 90 minutes to 3 hours after eating indicates a duodenal ulcer. Anorexia and periumbilical pain are characteristic of appendicitis. Risk of rupture is minimal within the first 24 hours, but increases significantly after 48 hours. A client with a large-bowel obstruction may have ribbonlike stools.
Which client requires immediate nursing intervention? The client who: a) rigid, board-like abdomen b) epigastric pain after eating c) anorexia and periumbilical pain d) large-bowel obstruction
Bradycardia Hemorrhage may occur from carotid artery rupture as a result of necrosis of the graft or damage to the artery itself from tumor or infection. Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension may indicate hemorrhage and impending hypovolemic shock
Which clinical manifestation is not associated with hemorrhage?
Clay-colored stools
Which is a clinical manifestation of cholelithiasis?
Portal hypertension Esophageal varices are almost always caused by portal hypertension, which results from obstruction of the portal circulation within the damaged liver.
Which is the most common cause of esophageal varices?
Difficulty swallowing
Which is the primary symptom of achalasia?
Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogen-potassium adenosine triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.
Which medication classification represents a proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitor? a) Omeprazole b) Sucralfate c) Famotidine d) Metronidazole
Famotidine Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Lansoprazole and esomeprazole are proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). Metronidazole is an antibiotic
Which medication is classified as a histamine-2 receptor antagonist? a) Famotidine b) Lansoprazole c) Esomeprazole d) Metronidizole
Diet DIET seems to be a significant factor: a diet high in smoked, salted, or pickled foods and low in fruits and vegetables may increase the risk of gastric cancer. The typical patient with gastric cancer is between 50-70 YEARS of age. MEN have a higher incidence than women. Native Americans, Hispanic Americans, and African Americans are twice as likely as European Americans to develop gastric cancer.
Which of the following appears to be a significant factor in the development of gastric cancer?
Ultrasound of liver and abdomen
Which of the following diagnostic studies definitely confirms the presence of ascites?
Computed tomography scan A computed tomography scan is the diagnostic of choice if the suspected diagnosis is diverticulitis; it can also reveal one or more abscesses. A barium enema or colonoscopy may be used to diagnosis diverticulosis. Magnetic resonance imaging would not be used to diagnose diverticulitis.
Which of the following is the diagnostic of choice if the suspected diagnosis is diverticulITIS? a) Computed tomography scan b) Barium Enema c) Colonoscopy d) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Rectal bleeding
Which of the following is the most common symptom of a polyp?
Removal of the tumor There is no successful treatment for gastric carcinoma except removal of the tumor. If the tumor can be removed while it is still localized to the stomach, the patient may be cured. If the tumor has spread beyond the area that can be excised, cure is less likely.
Which of the following is the most successful treatment for gastric cancer?
Curling ulcer Curling ulcer is frequently observed about 72 hours after extensive burns and involves the antrum of the stomach or the duodenum. "Curling Ulcer think Curling Iron (Burns)"
Which ulcer is associated with extensive burn injury?
Approximately 80 to 120 mL Wound drainage tubes are usually inserted during surgery to prevent the collection of fluid subcutaneously. The drainage tubes are connected to a portable suction device (e.g., Jackson-Pratt), and the container is emptied periodically. Between 80 and 120 mL of serosanguineous secretions may drain over the first 24 hours.
While caring for a patient who has had radical neck surgery, the nurse notices an abnormal amount of serosanguineous secretions in the wound suction unit during the first postoperative day. What does the nurse know is an expected amount of drainage in the wound unit?
