Microbiology, Ch 22, Nester's 9th

The portal of entry of Bacillus anthracis is the: A) respiratory tract. B) epidermis. C) gastrointestinal tract. D) epidermis OR gastrointestinal tract. E) respiratory tract, epidermis, OR gastrointestinal tract.

- respiratory tract, epidermis, OR gastrointestinal tract.

A common viral rash of childhood with the popular name chickenpox is also known as: A) bariola. B) rubella. C) rubeola. D) varicella-zoster. E) salmonella.

varicella-zoster. When/if it reactivates from latency as shingles it is then called herpes-zoster.

The antimicrobial aspect(s) of the skin is/are: A. dead layers. B. saltiness. C. acidity. D. antimicrobial peptides. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

The causative agent of Lyme disease is: a. Rickettsia rickettsi. b. Rickettsia prowazeki. c. Borrelia burgdorferi. d. Dermacentor andersoni.

Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi: large, Gram-negative, microaerophilic spirochete with multiple copies of linear chromosome - Also contains numerous circular and linear plasmids with genes usually found on bacterial chromosomes

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. Diaper rash (dermititis) can be caused by a number of factors. A common microbial cause is the fungus ________. A) Malassezia furfur B) Candida albicans C) Microsporum gypseum D) Cutibacterium acnes E) Streptococcus pyogenes

Candida albicans

Which of the following may aid Staphylococcus in resisting phagocytosis? A. leukocidin B. coagulase C. granulation enzyme D. hemolysin

Coagulase

The varicella-zoster virus is a member of which virus family? A) Paramyxoviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Togaviridae D) Papillomaviridae E) Retroviridae

Herpesviridae

The childhood disease that damages the body defenses and is frequently complicated by secondary infections involving mostly Gram-positive cocci is: A) German measles. B) measles. C) mumps. D) chickenpox. E) shingles.

Measles Measles = rubeola German measles = rubella

Varicella is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection. T/F

True • Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) of herpesvirus family: enveloped, double-stranded DNA virus

children 5-15 who have chickenpox and take _____ are at greater risk for developing Reye's syndrome.

aspirin Reye's syndrome is a rare but serious disease that causes swelling in the liver and brain. It can affect people of any age, but it is most often seen in children and teenagers recovering from a virus such as the flu or chickenpox. - teenagers recovering from viral infections should avoid taking aspirin

The natural host(s) for Borrelia burgdorferi is/are _________. A. mosquitoes B. birds C. ticks D. deer and field mice

deer and field mice - Ticks of the genus Ixodes transmit B. burgdorferi between hosts and are the only natural agents through which humans have been shown to become infected

Which of the signs and symptoms of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is not typical of other diseases that manifest in a similar way? A) Fever B) Rash C) Headache D) Joint pain E)Muscle pain

Rash RMSF rash starts on palms, soles and moves up extremities to the trunk. Opposite more other rashes.

Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite? A) Micrococcus luteus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Rickettsia rickettsii D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa E) Staphylococcus epidermidis

Rickettsia rickettsii Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR BACTERIA - Difficult to grow in culture.

The MMR vaccine is used to protect against: A) mononucleosis, mange, rubeola. B) measles, mumps, rubella. C) measles, mange, rubeola. D) mononucleosis, mumps, rubella. E) mumps, rubella, varicella.

measles, mumps, rubella.

Staphylococcus epidermidis can be characterized by all of the following except that it: A. does not produce coagulase. B. is not pigmented. C. produces a yellow pigment. D. can be associated with nosocomial infections.

produces a yellow pigment.

Reactivation of chickenpox is called: A) shingles. B) herpes zoster. C) pneumonia. D) exanthems. E) shingles AND herpes zoster.

shingles AND herpes zoster

The rubeola virus contains: A) single-stranded DNA. B) double-stranded DNA. C) single-stranded RNA. D) double-stranded RNA. E) single-stranded RNA OR double-stranded RNA.

single-stranded RNA. Rubella virus of togavirus family: - enveloped, single-stranded RNA • Easily cultivated in cell cultures

The most serious consequence of rubella is: A) encephalitis. B) birth defects. C) meningitis. D) deafness. E) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

- birth defects.

The principal species of Staphylococcus found on the skin is: A. aureus. B. acnes. C. pyogenes. D. epidermidis.

- epidermidis

A. The outermost layer of skin. B. In Lyme disease the nervous system signs and symptoms appear 2-8 weeks post-infection. C. A boil; a localized skin infection that penetrates into the subcutaneous tissue, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. D. Mucus-secreting epithelial cell. E. A bacterial toxin that causes sloughing of the outer epidermis. F. A localized collection of pus within a tissue. G. A common skin condition in which pores on the face, neck, chest, or back become plugged and the surrounding skin becomes inflamed. H. Fungus that lives on the skin and can be responsible for disease of the hair, nails, and skin. I. Plasma-clotting virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus that serves as an identifying characteristic. J. Slight changes in a viral surface antigen render antibodies made against the previous version only partially protective. K. A protein in the cell wall of Group A streptococci that is associated with virulence. L. Lesions of the oral cavity caused by measles virus that resemble a grain of salt on a red base. M. Multidrug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis. N. An nflammation of the lungs accompanied by filling of the air sacs with fluids such as pus and blood. O. A worldwide epidemic. P. A post-streptococcal sequela thought to be due to circulating immune complexes. Q. Condition resulting from the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. R. Test for tuberculosis involving the intracutaneous injection of 0.1 mL of PPD into the forearm; relies on a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction triggered by past infection, significant exposure to tuberculosis. S. A tough layer of dead cells and debris accumulated on an epithelial surface. T. Caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

A. epidermis B. Early disseminated infection C. Furuncle D. goblet cell E. exfoliatin F. abscess G. acne H. dermatophyte I. coagulase J. antigenic drift K. M protein L. Koplik spots M. Multidrug-resistant TB, MDR-TB N. pneumonia O. Pandemic P. Rhuematic fever Q. Shingles R. Tuberculin skin test, TST S. pseudomembrane T. walking pneumonia

Why is Legionella pneumophila detected using immunofluorescence? A) It stains poorly with conventional dyes. B) It is Gram-non-reactive. C) It is an acid-fast bacterium. D) It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall. E) It is a virus.

It stains poorly with conventional dyes. This is from Ch 21.

Which genus does not include skin-invading molds? A) Epidermophyton. B) Microsporum. C) Trichophyton. D) Ixodes. E) These are all skin molds.

Ixodes. - this is in the lyme disease section. The most important vector of Lyme disease in the eastern U.S. is: Ixodes scapularis.

Which of the following may be added to normal media to make it more selective for staphylococci? A. 0.5% HCl B. 7.5% salt C. 1.0% glucose D. 5.0% mannose

- 7.5% salt Staphylococci: SALT-TOLERANT, use nutrients and produce antimicrobial substances active against other Gram positive bacteria

Which description of vegetative Bacillus anthracis is correct? It is an endospore-forming, Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium. It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, encapsulated, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium. It is an endospore-forming, Gram-positive, motile, rod-shaped bacterium. It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, spherical, encapsulated bacterium. It is an acid-fast, non-motile, spherical, nonspore-forming, encapsulated bacterium.

- It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, encapsulated, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium. I picked A - wrong

You are studying for your NCLEX exams with a group of friends. Each of you presents a case study to the other students in your group. Your friend Sue gives the following information in her case study: the patient is a child, who presents with a high fever (41oC) and a rash. The parents report that three days prior to the onset of the rash, the child had a runny nose, diarrhea, and conjunctivitis, all of which they thought indicated influenza. The child has not received any of the common recommended vaccines because until recently, he had been receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia that was diagnosed at 9 months. Rubeola can be effectively prevented with the MMR vaccine. The child in this case has not received any vaccines, because he has been receiving chemotherapy. Why wasn't he given the MMR vaccine? A) It is an attenuated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient. B) It is an inactivated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient. C) The MMR vaccine is known to cause complications such as autism, and this child already has enough problems with leukemia. D) It is a toxoid vaccine—these vaccines contain deactivated microbial toxins; since the child is severely immunocompromised, the toxin used in the vaccine will damage all of his cells. E) The patient is a child, so will not be able to tolerate any egg proteins that may be present in the MMR vaccine, which is produced in eggs.

- It is an attenuated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient.

In S. pyogenes, which of the following interferes with phagocytosis? A) M protein B) Protein A C) Collagen D) Pilin E) Peptidoglycan

- M protein

The member of the normal microbiota sometimes considered responsible for tinea versicolor is: A) Staphylococcus species. B) diphtheroids. C) Candida species. D) Malassezia species. E) Streptococcus species.

- Malassezia species. Fungal diseases: Malassezia furfur generally harmless, commonly found • Can cause scaly rash, dandruff, or tinea versicolor - TINEA VERSICOLOR characterized by patchy scaliness and increased pigmentation of light skin or decreased pigmentation of dark

The existence of extensive scalded skin syndrome does not indicate that Staphylococcus is growing in all the affected areas. Why not? Scalded skin occurs when a person eats exfoliatin-contaminated food, not by an infection. This condition isn't caused by Staphylococcus at all. This condition is caused by an endotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. This microbe grows in the blood; endotoxins it releases are transported to the skin, where it causes the observed effect. This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.

- This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.

In many people, the growth of C. acnes within hair follicles leads to: A) eczema. B) carbuncles. C) boils. D) acne. E) all of these.

- acne Cutibacterium acnes multiples in the sebum -> acne "Cutibacterium acnes (formerly Propionibacterium acnes) is the relatively slow-growing, typically aerotolerant anaerobic, Gram-positive bacterium (rod) linked to the skin condition of ACNE"

Which of the following virulence factors used by Staphylococcus puts holes in host cells? A) Protein A B) Alpha toxin C) Leukocidin D) Clumping factor E) Membrane attack complex

- alpha toxin Table 22.3 Alpha toxin - makes holes in host cell membranes.

Diphtheroids: A. are part of the normal flora of the skin. B. are responsible for body odor. C. include P. acnes. D. include Malassezia spp. E. are part of the normal flora of the skin, are responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes.

- are part of the normal flora of the skin, are responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes. Normal skin flora, 3 groups: diphtheroids, staphylococcus (G+), Malassezia yeasts - Acne vulgaris - Cutibacterium (Proprionibacteria) acnes is a diphtheroid.

A protein associated with a more virulent form of Staphylococcus is: A) leukocidin. B) coagulase. C) mannose. D) streptokinase. E) catalase.

- coagulase p.577 "Staphylococcus aureus can be distinguished from most other staphylococci because it produces COAGULASE and CLUMPING FACTOR. Coagulates causes a large clot to form in plasma...both coagulase and clumping factor are important virulence factors for S. aureus. Other staphylococcal strains, such as Staphylyococcus epidermidis, cause disease infrequently and lack the genes for coagulase and clumping factor."

In humans the most common type of anthrax disease is: A. cutaneous anthrax resulting from the introduction of spores into a break in the skin. B. pulmonary anthrax from inhalation of spores attached to dust. C. gastrointestinal anthrax resulting from consumption of undercooked food contaminated with spores. D. tick borne anthrax resulting from direct introduction of vegetative Bacillus anthracis to the blood stream of a host.

- cutaneous anthrax resulting from the introduction of spores into a break in the skin.

You are studying for your NCLEX exams with a group of friends. Each of you presents a case study to the other students in your group. Your friend Sue gives the following information in her case study: the patient is a child, who presents with a high fever (41oC) and a rash. The parents report that three days prior to the onset of the rash, the child had a runny nose, diarrhea, and conjunctivitis, all of which they thought indicated influenza. The child has not received any of the common recommended vaccines because until recently, he had been receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia that was diagnosed at 9 months. Confirmation of the rubeola diagnosis can by made by: A) measuring the intensity of the rash. B) presence of rubella antibodies in the blood. C) detecting Koplik spots on the oral mucosa. D) detecting rubeola viruses using a Gram stain. E) treating the patient with antibiotics.

- detecting Koplik spots on the oral mucosa. Rubeola is measles. KOPLIK SPOTS of mucous membranes are identifying feature.

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. You send a skin scraping to the hospital lab for analysis. The report comes back indicating the presence of unicellular organisms that stained with calcofluor white stain, which binds to chitin. This organism is thus a ________, which is a ________ organism. A) virus; parasitic B) bacterium; prokaryotic C) protozoan; eukaryotic D) fungus; eukaryotic E) protozoan; multicellular

- fungus; eukaryotic

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. The mother asks you whether her child needs penicillin. You tell her: A) yes—diaper rash is a serious infection, and should be treated promptly with this antibiotic. B) yes—penicillin interrupts protein synthesis, so will kill any type of cell, including a fungus. C) no—penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis, but C. albicans is a fungus, so has a chitin cell wall. D) no—penicillin is no longer an effective antibiotic for treating any type of infection. A different antibiotic is needed. E) no—killing C. albicans with an antibiotic increases the risk of endotoxic shock.

- no—penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis, but C. albicans is a fungus, so has a chitin cell wall.

Warts are caused by: A) papillomaviruses. B) parvovirus. C) adenoviruses. D) herpes virus. E) coronavirus.

- papillomaviruses. Warts are caused by Papillomaviruses that infect skin via minor abrasions • Warts are small tumors (papillomas) consisting of multiple protrusions of tissue covered by skin or mucous membrane

The protein produced by S. aureus that interferes with phagocytosis is: A. protein M. B. collagen. C. protein A. D. capsular protein.

- protein A. S. aureus strains have many different virulence factors • Nearly all have cell wall component protein A; many synthesize polysaccharide capsule; Both interfere with phagocytosis - Protein A binds the Fc portion of antibodies Protein M is S. pyogenes - strep throat Collagen is part of connective tissue - gives the skin elasticity.

You are studying for your NCLEX exams with a group of friends. Each of you presents a case study to the other students in your group. Your friend Sue gives the following information in her case study: the patient is a child, who presents with a high fever (41oC) and a rash. The parents report that three days prior to the onset of the rash, the child had a runny nose, diarrhea, and conjunctivitis, all of which they thought indicated influenza. The child has not received any of the common recommended vaccines because until recently, he had been receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia that was diagnosed at 9 months. The signs and symptoms of the patient suggest that he has: A) rubella. B) rubeola. C) varicella. D) shingles. E) candidiasis.

- rubeola. Measles = rubeola Signs and Symptoms - FEVER, RUNNY NOSE, cough, and SWOLLEN, RED, WEEPY EYES - Fine red RASH appears within a few days, lasts ~1 week

The oily layer that lubricates the hair follicles of the skin is: A) suder. B) eczema. C) sebum. D) acnus. E) mucus.

- sebum Made by sebaceous glands open into hair follicles, moves up the hair to the outside, keeps hair and skin soft and water-repellent.

You are studying for your NCLEX exams with a group of friends. Each of you presents a case study to the other students in your group. Your friend Sue gives the following information in her case study: the patient is a child, who presents with a high fever (41oC) and a rash. The parents report that three days prior to the onset of the rash, the child had a runny nose, diarrhea, and conjunctivitis, all of which they thought indicated influenza. The child has not received any of the common recommended vaccines because until recently, he had been receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia that was diagnosed at 9 months. The rubeola virus damages the respiratory mucous membranes of an infected person, putting them at risk of: A) secondary bacterial infections such as pneumonia and otitis media. B) primary bacterial infections such as pneumonia and otitis media. C) type I hypersensitivities such as asthma and anaphylaxis. D) autoimmune disease such as leukocyte adhesion deficiency. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

- secondary bacterial infections such as pneumonia and otitis media. Rubeola (measles) - • Often secondary infections lead to EARACHES, bacterial PNEUMONIA; caused by S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes, H. influenzae

Which of the following pertains to Borrelia burgdorferi? A. coccus B. bacillus C. spirochete D. filament

- spirochete

The bacteria that appear to maintain balance between the members of the normal flora and play a vital role in limiting colonization by pathogens are: A. staphylococci. B. diptheroids. C. Candida spp. D. Malassezia spp. E. streptococci

- staphylococci. Staphylococci: salt-tolerant, use nutrients and produce antimicrobial substances active against other Gram positive bacteria

Rubella, rubeola, and varicella-zoster are all only acquired via: A) the gastrointestinal route. B) the respiratory route. C) wounds. D) blood transfusions. E) arthropods.

- the respiratory route Problem with this question is that the portal(s) of entry for varicella-zoster virus is/are: - skin AND respiratory route.

The portal(s) of entry for varicella-zoster virus is/are: A) the skin. B) the respiratory tract. C) the genitourinary tract. D) the genitourinary tract AND the gastrointestinal tract. E) the skin AND the respiratory tract.

- the skin AND the respiratory tract. "Transmitted by respiratory secretions and skin lesions"

The vector for RMSF is a(n): A) mosquito. B) flea. C) tick. D) fly. E) deer.

- tick Transmitted by tick bite. Humans are accidental hosts. Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are obligate intracellular bacteria

You are studying for your NCLEX exams with a group of friends. Each of you presents a case study to the other students in your group. Your friend Sue gives the following information in her case study: the patient is a child, who presents with a high fever (41oC) and a rash. The parents report that three days prior to the onset of the rash, the child had a runny nose, diarrhea, and conjunctivitis, all of which they thought indicated influenza. The child has not received any of the common recommended vaccines because until recently, he had been receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia that was diagnosed at 9 months. In rare cases, the rubeola virus leads to rapid breathing, shortness of breath, and dusky skin color; these are signs and symptoms of: A) viral meningitis. B) otitis media. C) strep throat. D) viral pneumonia. E) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.

- viral pneumonia. These are respiratory signs/symptoms - rapid breathing, SOB, the cyanosis from lack of O2 that makes me think pneumonia instead of the others. - Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive neurological disorder of children and young adults that affects the central nervous system (CNS). It is a slow, but persistent, viral infection caused by defective measles virus. - Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a progressive, usually fatal brain disorder occurring months to usually years after an attack of measles. It causes mental deterioration, myoclonic jerks, and seizures. Is why we need to keep up on vaccinations - so we don't see more cases of this down the road.

The preferred host of Ixodes scapularis is the: A. wood rat. B. white-footed mouse. C. moose. D. human.

- white-footed mouse

The antimicrobial aspect(s) of the skin is/are: A. dryness. B. saltiness. C. acidity. D. toxicity. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Too dry, salty, acidic, and toxic for most pathogens - Those that tolerate often shed with dead skin cells.

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. In the laboratory, rubella virus, VZV, rubeola virus and Rickettsia rickettsii must be cultivated in host cells. Candida albicans does not need to be cultured in cells—why? A) Candida albicans is not an obligate intracellular parasite. B) This fungus is an aquatic organism that requires fresh water for culture. C) Candida species are yeasts and require a medium such as bread for culture. D) Candida albicans is an obligate intracellular parasite. E) Yeasts are autotrophs and are thus able to grow independent of other organisms.

Candida albicans is not an obligate intracellular parasite. Nope, it's a yeast - a fungus.

The MMR vaccine is used to protect against measles, mange, and rubella. T/F

False MMR = Measles, Mumps, Rubella.

Two weeks following a hiking trip in which several ticks were noticed and numerous mosquitoes were biting, a 25-year-old man notices a rash shaped like a red ring on the back of his thigh. He was not concerned because he had no other symptoms. Three months later he noticed significant pain in his elbows and his knees. What is the most likely cause of his illness? A. West Nile encephalitis B. Lyme disease C. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever D. Ehrlichiosis

Lyme disease - the rash in a red ring.

A public health official was asked to speak about immunizations during a civic group lunch. One parent asked if rubella was still a problem. In answering the question,the official cautioned women planning to have another child to have their present children immunized against rubella. Why did the official make this statement to the group? A) Rubella is spread very easily by respiratory secretions and is largely asymptomatic. However, it can cause birth defects/stillbirth in pregnant women. Women with other children would want to prevent these children from acquiring the virus before attempting to conceive a new child in order to protect the fetus. B) Rubella is passed very easily between children, so the official was trying to protect the child that would soon be born from this infection that might be brought in by its siblings after it was born. C) The official is getting kickbacks and bribes from the companies making the vaccines, and he's trying to pad his pockets by getting as many people immunized as possible, regardless of whether they need it or not. D) Rubella infections often lead to very serious and potentially fatal complications. While a woman is pregnant, she may not be able to take care of a sick child as easily. The vaccine will prevent the child already in the family from falling ill and potentially dying due to these possible complications. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

Rubella is spread very easily by respiratory secretions and is largely asymptomatic. However, it can cause birth defects/stillbirth in pregnant women. Women with other children would want to prevent these children from acquiring the virus before attempting to conceive a new child in order to protect the fetus. Rubella (German measles, 3-day measles) Early in pregancy, virus particles can cross placenta, infect fetus; less likely later in pregnancy - Nearly all types of fetal cells susceptible - Some are killed, others develop persistent infection with impaired cell division and chromosomal damage - Yields pattern of fetal abnormalities: congenital rubella syndrome - May include eye defects, brain damage, deafness, heart defects, low birth weight; stillborn babies

Bacterial attachment to fibronectin and fibrinogen coating plastic devices like catheters and heart valves is a virulence mechanism of: A. Staphylococcus B. Streptococcus C. Clostridium D. Pseudomonas

Staphylococcus Staphylococcus clumping factor

Why might Candida albicans become pathogenic in an individual receiving antibacterial medications? A) This fungal organism can actually utilize the destroyed bacterial cells as a nutrient source and begin to multiply out of control. This can cause a pathogenic state. B) This is an opportunistic pathogen not normally found in normal microbiota. As such, when the bacterial normal microbiota is wiped out by broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs, this opportunist can adhere to and colonize the area left behind. C) This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state. D) This is a protozoan species and part of the normal microbiota. When the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this protozoan cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state.

This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state. Not really a usual member but is found among them.

Diphtheroids are responsible for body odor. T/F

True

The skin-invading molds are collectively called dermatophytes. T/F

True Dermatophytes are group of skin-invading molds including members of genera Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton Dermatophytes can invade hair, nails, keratin in skin • Result in jock itch, athlete's foot, ringworm, or Latinized names describing location: tinea capitis (scalp), tinea barbae (beard), tinea axillaris (armpit), tin

Complications of measles may include pneumonia and encephalitis. T/F

True Often secondary infections lead to earaches, bacterial pneumonia. Very rarely, 2-10 years later, measles followed by subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

Coagulase-positive S. aureus is often involved in disease. T/F

True So, so true. Somewhere I saw a chart...

Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses. T/F

True • Mycoses = diseases caused by fungi

CMV is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection. T or F

True, HHV5

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. Your patient comments that she has noticed the same signs and symptoms on her grandmother who has Alzheimer's diasese and who uses adult diapers. She asks you whether it is possible that her grandmother also has a Candida infection. You tell her A) No. Candida is part of the skin normal microbiota of infants only. This organism is never present on the skin of older adults. B) Yes. Candida is present among the skin normal microbiota and may cause infection in anyone who wears a diaper, regardless of age. C) No. Older adults have an exceptionally strong immune system and so are unlikely to develop a fungal skin infection. D) Yes. The older an individual gets, the more Candida cells accumulate on their skin, so it is only a matter of time before the person develops a skin infection. E) No. Older adults have extremely oily skin. Sebum (skin oil) has natural antifungal properties, so the chances of an adult developing a fungal infection are very small.

Yes. Candida is present among the skin normal microbiota and may cause infection in anyone who wears a diaper, regardless of age. i know it's yes but in an earlier question we were asked which of the following is NOT a part of normal skin microbiota and Candida was the NOT. Oh! It's not part of the normal microbiota but IS present. "Yeast Candida albicans found in normal microbiota" - Can invade deep layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues

The S. aureus product that causes scalded skin syndrome is: A) lipases. B) exfoliation toxin. C) leukocidins. D) protein M. E) peeling toxin.

exfoliation toxin. "Exfoliatin is a Staphylococcus aureus exotoxin[1] that causes a blistering of the skin known as staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, usually in infants."

The secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide ________ to the microbiota. A. water B. amino acids C. lipids D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Use substances in sweat, sebum as nutrients; byproducts inhibit other microbes.

Why is it important to continue vaccinating children in the United States against measles, even though it is now a rare disease in the Western Hemisphere? A) A rare complication of measles is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) that is characterized by progressive brain degeneration, and generally results in death within 2 years. B) Measles that occurs during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, premature labor, and low-birth-weight babies. C) Occasionally, the measles virus causes viral pneumonia, with rapid breathing, shortness of breath, and dusky skin color from lack of adequate O2 in the blood. D) Encephalitis is a rare but serious complication of measles that sometimes results in permanent brain damage, with mental disability, deafness, and epilepsy. E) All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

Which of the following is considered a function of skin? A) Regulation of body temperature B) Prevention of fluid loss C) Synthesis of vitamin D D) Production of cytokines E) All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct. A and B definitely, C I think so and at that point it has to be ALL.

Which of the following organisms is not normally found on the skin? A) Staphylococci B) Diphtheroids C) Candida species D) Malassezia species E) Staphylococci AND diphtheroids

- Candida species Most microbial inhabitants in three groups • DIPHTHEROIDS: oily regions (forehead, upper chest, back) - Cutibacterium (Propionibacteria) most common: obligate anaerobes, grow within hair follicles • STAPHYLOCOCCI: salt-tolerant, use nutrients and produce antimicrobial substances active against other Gram positive bacteria • MALASSEZIA: tiny lipid-dependent yeasts

Which of the following is an important function of the skin? A) Hold muscle to bone B) Manufacture blood cells C) Produce antibodies D) Control body temperature E) All of the answer choices are correct.

- Control body temperature Tough but flexible. - Serves as a blood reservoir, barrier to keep things in/out = primary defense along with mucus membranes. Skin: prevents entry, regulates body temperature, restricts fluid loss, senses the environment

The most important vector of Lyme disease in the eastern U.S. is: a. Dermacentor virabilis b. Dermacentor andersoni c. Staphylococcus aureus d. lxodes scapularis

- Ixodes scapularis Black-legged (deer) tick Ixodes scapularis most important vector.

Which of the following normal skin flora is a small yeast? A. staphylococci B. diphtheroids C. Candida spp. D. Malassezia spp.

- Malassezia spp. - MALASSEZIA: tiny lipid-dependent yeasts We already established that Malassezia are not diphtheroids, they are not bacteria like staphylococci (G+) and Candida is a yeast but it's not supposed to be on the skin normally.

Which of the following is NOT true about diphtheroids? A) They are part of the normal microbiota of the skin. B) They are responsible for body odor. C) They include Cutibacterium acnes. D) They include Malassezia species. E) These are all true.

- They include Malassezia species. These little yeasts are not lumped in with the diphtheroids.

Which is deemed the most serious staphylococcal skin infection? A. tinea versicolor B. folliculitis C. furuncles D. carbuncles

- carbuncles Folliculitis (pimples) -> Furuncle (boils) -> Carbuncle - May worsen to form carbuncle, a large area of redness, swelling, pain, draining pus Staphylococcus aureus caused folliculitis.

S. aureus clumping factor: A) causes fibrinogen to clump together. B) causes bacteria to clump together in plasma. C) reacts with prothrombin. D) produces staphylothrombin. E) causes phagocytes to clump bacteria.

- causes bacteria to clump together in plasma. Table 22.3 - clumping factor - attaches the bacteria to fibrin, fibrinogen and plastic devices.

. Staphylococci can be divided into pathogenic and relatively nonpathogenic strains based on whether or not they synthesize _________. A. catalase B. coagulase C. leukocidins D. a capsule

- coagulase Coag-positive is S. aureus Coag-negative is the other Staphylococcus species, including S. epidermidis.

The surface layer of the skin is the: A) cutaneous. B) keratin. C) epidermis. D) dermis. E) hypodermis.

- epidermis Epidermis: SURFACE LAYER made from layers of flat cells • Outermost =dead,filled with water-resistant keratin • Constantly flake off and replaced • Dermis: nerves, glands, blood and lymphatic vessels • Subcutaneous tissue: fat, other cells that support skin

The unique characteristic of Lyme disease is: A. erythema migrans. B. induration. C. carbuncle. D. furuncle.

- erythema migrans Signs and Symptoms • Early localized infection: erythema migrans, or circular skin rash, follows few days, weeks after tick bite Erythema migrans (New Latin, literally, "migrating redness") is an expanding rash often seen in the early stage of Lyme disease.

Which of the following is a fairly reliable method of characterizing strains of S. aureus? A. complement fixation B. protein fingerprint C. genome typing D. LPS pattern

- genome typing I don't know what protein fingerprinting is, S. aureus is G+ so no LPS. Let's look at the DNA!

Many childhood diseases caused by viral infections of the upper respiratory tract can usually be diagnosed by: A) inspection of the rash. B) the type of cough. C) the type of fever. D) the incubation period. E) the gender of the patient.

- inspection of the rash.

The Rickettsial disease that killed Howard Ricketts and Stanislaus Prowazek was: A) louse-borne typhus. B) tick-borne typhus. C) yellow fever. D) bubonic plague. E) unidentified.

- louse-borne typhus Ricketts studied Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) but was unable to grow it on lab media . He went on to study similar LOUSE-BORNE TYPHUS which he got and dies from. - Stanislaus Prowazek, studying same disease, met same fate at nearly the same age - Louse-borne typhus named Rickettsia prowazekii - Agent of RMSF named Rickettsia rickettsii

The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the: A. throat. B. urethra. C. nasal chamber. D. bladder.

- nasal chamber. S. aureus found in NOSTRILS of nearly everyone - 20% (text says 30%) of healthy adults carry continuously for year or more; 60% will be colonized during a given year

he growth stage of the vector that is mainly responsible for transmitting Lyme disease is the: A. nymph stage. B. egg. C. moulter. D. adult.

- nymph stage

Approximately 90% of S. aureus strains are resistant to: A. methicillin. B. tetracyclin. C. polymyxin B. D. penicillin.

- penicilliin

The secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide ________ to the microbiota. A) water B) amino acids OR water C) lipids AND amino acids D) water, amino acids, AND lipids E) sebum OR amino acids

- water, amino acids, AND lipids They break down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol for food. Also, these products toxic to other bacteria. Break down proteins too.

If an individual in the infectious stage of chickenpox comes into contact with a person who had chickenpox as a child, that second person: A) will be unaffected by the contact. B) will develop a second case of chickenpox. C) will develop shingles. D) will develop a second case of chickenpox OR will develop shingles. E) will remain healthy if they receive zoster immune globulin.

- will be unaffected by the contact.

After being bitten by an infected tick, transfer of the rickettsial organism occurs: A) within 5 minutes. B) within 20 minutes. C) within 4-10 hours. D) immediately. E) after 7 days.

- within 4-10 hours Transmitted by tick bite - 4-10 hours of feeding

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is an example of a(n): A) animalosis. B) tickonosis. C) plantonosis. D) zoonosis. E) aviosis.

- zoonosis Zoonosis maintained in various species of ticks, mammals - Humans are accidental host

Lyme disease is spread from human to human by mosquito vectors. T/F

False

A frequent complication of scalded skin syndrome is a secondary infection caused by: A. M. luteus. B. S. pyogenes. C. Pseudomonas spp. D. S. epidermidis.

Pseudomonas spp.

In which of the following does a rash start on the palms and soles and progress toward the trunk? A) Epidemic typhus B) Typhoid C) Measles D) Impetigo E) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Rash from blood leakage appears on palms, wrists, ankles, soles; spreads up arms and legs to rest of body.

Which of the following statements regarding S. aureus and S. pyogenes is FALSE? A) S. aureus appears as clusters of spherical cells while S. pyogenes appears as chains of spherical cells. B) S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure. C) S. aureus is catalase positive and coagulase positive while S. pyogenes is catalase negative and coagulase negative. D) The Fc receptor of S. aureus is protein A while the Fc receptor of S. pyogenes is protein G. E) S. aureus is a facultative anaerobe while S. pyogenes is an obligate fermenter.

S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure. Both Staphylococus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are Gram positive so stain PURPLE.

In addition to S. aureus, impetigo may also involve: A) M. luteus. B) S. pyogenes. C) S. epidermidis. D) Pseudomonas species. E) Cutibacterium species

S. pyogenes. Causes pus-tonsiled strep throat too. Pyogenes - generation of pus.

Why is it important to give the MMRV vaccine to healthy, non-immune contacts of people with immunodeficiencies? A) The MMRV vaccine is a toxoid vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity. B) The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by antibodies from their close contacts. C) The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity. D) The MMRV vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by antibodies from their close contacts. E) The MMRV vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd trending.

The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity. Attenuated vaccines contained weakened but still able to replicate microorganisms. Possibility of causing severe disease.

Which is true of MRSA strains? A) They are all resistant to vancomycin. B) They carry the R plasmid AND they are all resistant to vancomycin. C) They may be susceptible to linezolid. D) The carry the R plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid. E) The carry the F plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid.

The carry the R plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid. Pretty much just rules out the rest. - not all MRSA is resistant to vancomycin - Yes to R plasmid but no to B because no to A - No to E as F plasmid is fertility plasmid I want the R plasmid one so had to be D.

Why are secondary infections a common complication of measles? A) The causative agent damages the keratinized epidermal layer. B) The causative agent severely suppresses the immune system. C) Phagocytes are killed by the causative agent of measles. D) The causative agent damages the respiratory mucous membranes. E) The causative agent prevents B cells from producing protective antigens.

The causative agent damages the respiratory mucous membranes.

Why is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome sometimes fatal? A) The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk secondary bacterial infection. B) The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of both dehydration and secondary bacterial infection. C) The causative organism is Gram-negative and may cause endotoxic shock. D) Exfoliatin can bind to cardiac cells, causing disruption of the heart rhythm and heart failure. E) The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of severe dehydration.

The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of both dehydration and secondary bacterial infection.

Rickettsia rickettsii is an obligate intracellular pathogen. This means that: A) it is a virus. B) it needs oxygen for growth. C) it cannot grow in the presence of oxygen. D) it can only grow within host cells. E) it is non-motile.

it can only grow within host cells. Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR BACTERIA - Difficult to grow in culture.

What is eschar (a sign of cutaneous anthrax)? A) A small, red, fluid-filled vesicle B) An ulcer surrounded by swelling C) A large black scar D) Dead tissue resembling a flat scab E) Swelling with trapped gas

Dead tissue resembling a flat scab Yes, the pic in the book shows black tissue but don't be misled! An eschar (/ˈɛskɑːr/; Greek: eschara) is a slough or piece of DEAD TISSUE that is cast off from the surface of the skin, particularly after a burn injury, but also seen in gangrene, ulcer, fungal infections, necrotizing spider bite wounds, tick bites associated with spotted fevers, and exposure to cutaneous anthrax.

The major vector of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in the western U.S. is: a. Rickettsia rickettsi. b. Rickettsia prowazeki. c. Borrelia burgdorferi. d. Dermacentor andersoni.

Dermacentor andersoni. A is the bacteria that causes RMSF B is the cause of louse-borne typhus C is the cause of lyme disease D is the type of tick that carries the bacteria - the vector. Table 22.7 a zoonosis transmitted by the bite of an infected tick, usually Dermacentor species.

Which statement regarding Staphyloccocus aureus is FALSE? A) MRSA strains that can be traced to hospitals and clinics are referred to as HA-MRSA (hospital-acquired MRSA). B) CA-MRSA strains have a group of genes that codes for a leukocyte-destroying leukocidin. C) Evidence proves that CA-MRSA strains are more virulent than HA-MRSA because they produce leukocidin. D) MRSA strains are resistant to nearly all β-lactam antibiotics except ceftaroline, a new cephalosporin. E) Some hospitals screen patients for MRSA when they are discharged so they do not take a MRSA strain home with them.

Evidence proves that CA-MRSA strains are more virulent than HA-MRSA because they produce leukocidin. From Hair Follicle Infections slide: - Most MRSA originally hospital-acquired (HA-MRSA), but strains now widespread in healthy carriers, yield community-acquired (CA-MRSA) infections - Many hospitals now screen patients to limit spread

When Lyme disease was first being investigated, the observation that frequently only 1 person in a household was infected was a clue leading to the discovery that the disease was spread by arthropod bites. Why was this so? A. Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) are never inside a house. They are strictly outdoor animals, so they couldn't spread the infection inside the household. B. Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) only bite once in their life cycle. As such, they can only transmit the illness once before they die. Even if an infected mosquito was inside a house, it could therefore only infect one human. C. If the infection is spread by the bite of an arthropod, it wouldn't spread easily by respiratory secretions, direct contact, or sexual contact between individuals within the family. D. Arthropods lose their mechanical ability to bite a human after a single bite, much like certain bees that lose their stinger after a single sting. This prevents them from transmitting the infection to more than one individual in a household.

If the infection is spread by the bite of an arthropod, it wouldn't spread easily by respiratory secretions, direct contact, or sexual contact between individuals within the family. A, B and D have nutty statements in them, so no.

Please select the TRUE statement regarding impetigo. A) Signs and symptoms of impetigo result from inflammation in the keratinized outer epidermal layer. B) The causative organism of impetigo is Cutibacterium acnes. C) Patients with impetigo experience fever, pain, and malaise. D) Impetigo is an example of a pyoderma—a superficial skin disease characterized by pus production. E) Treatment of impetigo requires administering at least two different antibiotics.

Impetigo is an example of a pyoderma—a superficial skin disease characterized by pus production. "Most common type of PYODERMA, skin infection characterized by PUS production resulting from infection of insect bite, burn, scrape, or other wound" Streptococcal Impetigo is caused by: Streptococcus pyogenes, also Staphylococcus aureus; both have group A carbohydrate

Why does the rash of shingles occur in only a limited region, as opposed to the widespread rash of chickenpox? A) In chickenpox, the replicating virus originates from multiple infected nerve cells, while in shingles it is limited to the bloodstream. B) In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream. C) In chickenpox, the virus spreads through the bloodstream to all parts of the body, while in shingles, the virus remains in the chest area after inhalation. D) The chickenpox virus is a double-stranded DNA virus that is able to infect any nucleated cells, while the shingles virus is a single-stranded RNA virus that only infects epidermal cells. E) This question is misleading because the rash of both chickenpox and shingles is widespread throughout the body.

In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream. - virus replicates in nucleus of nerve cell and moves to skin, spreading locally. originates from single infected nerve cell rather than from bloodstream.

How does protein A help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes? A) It binds the Fc portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. B) It binds the Fab portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. C) It coats the bacterial cell, destroying LPS and preventing recognition by phagocytes. D) It makes holes in the cytoplasmic membrane of phagocytes, killing them. E) It degrades complement protein C5a, preventing phagocyte recruitment and attachment.

It binds the Fc portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. Acts like Streptococcus pyogenes's protein G. Table 22.3 - protein A - binds to Fc portion of antibody, thereby interfering with opsonization.

An important diagnostic sign of measles is: A) Koplik's spots. B) giant cells. C) fever. D) swollen lymph nodes. E) red, weepy eyes.

Koplik's spots • Koplik spots of mucous membranes identifying feature - check the tongue.

Which S. aureus virulence factor is not correctly matched with its function? A) Capsule—avoiding phagocytosis. B) Hyaluronidase—facilitates spread in tissues. C) Protein A—interferes with opsonization. D) α-Toxin—makes holes in host cell membranes. E) Leukocidin—kills erythrocytes.

Leukocidin—kills erythrocytes. Leukocidin kills leukocytes (WBCs).

How does coagulase help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes? A) It coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein. B) It coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. C) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area. D) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. E) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein.

It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. Table 22.3 - coagulase - may slow progress of leukocytes into affected area by producing clots in the surrounding capillaries.

Why is Rickettsia rickettsii difficult to grow in culture? A) It is a double-stranded DNA virus. B) It is an obligate intracellular parasite. C) It is resistant to multiple antibiotics. D) It is an obligate anaerobe. E) It is Gram-negative.

It is an obligate intracellular parasite. Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR BACTERIA - Difficult to grow in culture.

What is the epidemiological significance of shingles? A) It shows that, as a latent viral infection, there is always a possible reservoir available to reinfect new susceptible individuals. B) It shows that we must always be vigilant against this deadly and highly infectious secondary infection in elderly and immunocompromised individuals. C) It shows that, as a chronic viral infection, individuals infected are always infectious to others around them, even when they do not show outward symptoms. D) It shows that our fight for long-term eradication of varicella zoster virus will be a long one, depending on immunizing all newly born individuals until all the people who had ever had contracted the illness have died. E) It shows that, as a latent viral infection, there is always a possible reservoir available to reinfect new susceptible individuals AND it shows that our fight for long-term eradication of varicella zoster virus will be a long one, depending on immunizing all newly born individuals until all the people who had ever contracted the illness have died.

It shows that, as a latent viral infection, there is always a possible reservoir available to reinfect new susceptible individuals AND it shows that our fight for long-term eradication of varicella zoster virus will be a long one, depending on immunizing all newly born individuals until all the people who had ever contracted the illness have died. I know the second part reads nutty but go with it.

Which of the following is NOT involved in the pathogenesis of RMSF? A) The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells. B) Endotoxin released into the bloodstream from the rickettsial cell walls results in systemic inflammation. C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation that leads to organ damage may occur following release of endotoxin into the bloodstream. D) Host cells rupture following damage caused by bacterial cells propelling themselves from one cell to another. E) Vasculitis leads to clotting and small areas of necrosis, causing a hemorrhagic skin rash and damaging tissue in the brain, heart, kidneys, and other organs.

The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells. Pathogenesis • Bacteria taken up by capillary endothelial cells, possibly by forced endocytosis • Bacteria leave phagosome, multiply in cytoplasm, nucleus - Bacteria coat themselves with actin, use to move into adjacent host cells, cause extensive membrane damage - Cells rupture, release rickettsias into bloodstream - Infection of walls of blood vessels causes inflammatory reaction, leads to clotting in blood vessels - Produces small areas of necrosis, yields skin rash • Clotting throughout body damages kidneys, heart • Release of lipopolysaccharide from cell wall into bloodstream causes shock, generalized bleeding due to disseminated intravascular coagulation

Who would have larger numbers of bacteria living on the surface of their skin—a person living in the tropics or in the desert, and why? A) The tropics would provide more shade, so the surface of the skin wouldn't be exposed to high levels of ultraviolet radiation. This would protect the bacteria on the skin, and they would have higher numbers due to this shading effect. B) The very low humidity of the desert would lead to rapid evaporation of sweat and sebum from an individual's skin. Bacteria need these secretions for a nutrient source. Without them, bacteria would be found in much lower numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics. C) The constant secretion of high amounts of sweat would produce a highly salty environment on the skin of a person in the tropics. This would provide a local environment that would be too hostile for microbes to survive, so the number of microbes on the skin of the person in the tropics would be lower than that of the person in the desert. D) The constant secretion of large amounts of sweat would wash bacteria off of the skin of the person in the tropics. As such, the person in the desert should have much more bacteria on their skin than the person in the tropics would. E) The very high humidity of the desert would lead to slow evaporation of sweat and sebum from a person's skin. Bacteria thrive on these secretions, using them for a nutrient source. Thus bacteria would be found in much higher numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics.

The very low humidity of the desert would lead to rapid evaporation of sweat and sebum from an individual's skin. Bacteria need these secretions for a nutrient source. Without them, bacteria would be found in much lower numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics. I choose the tropics. A is goofy - wrong C - skin is left salty when sweat evaporates - which it would in the DESERT - wrong D - those bacteria are stuck on - not getting washed off with sweat. wrong E - desert doesn't have high humidity - wrong

If an immunodeficient person is exposed to VZV and belongs to a non-immune population, how can that person be protected from developing chickenpox? A) They can be passively immunized with zoster hyperimmune globulin. B) They can be actively immunized with the MMRV vaccine. C) They can be passively immunized with the MMRV vaccine. D) They can not be protected at all—they will get the disease. E) They can be given prophylactic antibiotics.

They can be passively immunized with zoster hyperimmune globulin. • Immunocompromised individuals at risk of severe VZV infections; partial protection achieved by passive immunization with ZVIG (hyper-immune globulin with high concentrations of antibody to VZV)

Which is true of MRSA? A. It stands for moxicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus. B. They have R plasmids. C. They may be sensitive to Synercid. D. All MRSA strains remain sensitive to vancomycin. E. They have R plasmids AND they may be sensitive to Synercid

They have R plasmids AND they may be sensitive to Synercid - saw this one, a little different. MRSA - methacillin resistant staphylococcus aureus.

The stage of Lyme disease that is characterized by arthritis is the: A. primary. B. third. C. second. D. fourth.

Third Three stages; individual patients may be asymptomatic in one or more - early localized, early disseminated and late disseminated. Early localized disease: At this point, the infection has not yet spread throughout the body. Lyme is the easiest to cure at this stage. Early disseminated: Bacteria are beginning to spread throughout the body Late disseminated: The Lyme bacteria have spread throughout the body and many patients develop chronic ARTHRITIS as well as an increase in neurological and cardiac symptoms.

The existence of extensive scalded skin syndrome does not indicate that Staphylococcus is growing in all the affected areas. Why not? A) This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. B) This condition is caused by an endotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. C) This condition isn't caused by Staphylococcus at all. D) This microbe grows in the blood; endotoxins it releases are transported to the skin, where it causes the observed effect. E) Scalded skin occurs when a person eats exfoliatin-contaminated food, not by an infection.

This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. Exotoxin (Staphylococcus is gram positive) S. aureus strains that produce toxin called exfoliatin • Only about 5% of strains produce this toxin • One type coded by a plasmid, one chromosomal

The main vector(s) of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in the western United States is/are ________. A) ticks B) bats AND humans C) humans D) mosquitoes AND ticks E) fleas AND mites

Ticks

Rubella is a member of which virus family? A) Paramyxoviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Togaviridae D) Papovaviridae E) Retroviridae

Togaviridae Virus families end in -viridae. Rubella virus of togavirus family: - enveloped, single-stranded RNA • Easily cultivated in cell cultures

Borrelia burgdorferi is a spirochete with a number of axial filaments. T/F

True

Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route. T/F

True

Humans are the only reservoir for varicella-zoster virus. T/F

True • Humans are only reservoir

Why is the immunization for rubella important for both boys and girls? A) As this is a sexually-transmitted disease, vaccinating girls AND boys early in their lives prevents the spread of the disease in adulthood. B) We want to achieve herd immunity, and there's no reason why only girls would be infected by this virus. By vaccinating the entire population, we achieve a higher degree of herd immunity than is possible by vaccinating only girls. C) Only boys get this disease, and one of the common complications of it is sterility, so they should be vaccinated against this virus. D) While this disease is quite very symptomatic in girls, it is completely asymptomatic in boys. Boys can be carriers and transmit it easily to girls without realizing it. This can lead to large-scale and dangerous outbreaks in the female population. E) Although boys get this disease, it doesn't cause any health problems for them, so they do not need vaccination. If girls get the disease, it almost always leads to encephalitis, so they should be protected by vaccination.

We want to achieve herd immunity, and there's no reason why only girls would be infected by this virus. By vaccinating the entire population, we achieve a higher degree of herd immunity than is possible by vaccinating only girls. Weird question.

A frequent complication of scalded skin syndrome is: A) a bacterial secondary infection. B) secondary viral infections. C) dehydration. D) dehydration and a secondary bacterial infection. E) toxemia.

dehydration and a secondary bacterial infection.