Neuro
The nurse enters the client's room and finds the client with an altered level of consciousness (LOC). Which is the nurse's priority concern? A) Airway clearance B) risk of injury C) deficient fluid volume D) risk for impaired skin integrity
Airway clearance - The most important consideration in managing the patient with altered LOC is to establish an adequate airway and ensure ventilation.
a trauma pt in the icu has been declared brain dead. what dx test is used in making the determination of brain death? MRI, EEG, EMG, CT
EEG
Which cerebral lobes is the largest and controls abstract thought? A) frontal B) temporal C) parietal D) occipital
Frontal - The frontal lobe also controls information storage or memory and motor function. The temporal lobe contains the auditory receptive area. The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory cortex, which analyzes sensory information and relays interpretation to the thalamus and other cortical areas. The occipital lobe is responsible for visual interpretation.
A patient is treated for a neurologic dysfunction affecting facial expressions. The affected cranial nerve originates in the: A) cerebral hemisphere B) midbrain C) pons D) medulla
Pons - Cranial nerves V through VIII connect to the brain in the pons. Cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) affects facial expressions and muscle movements. (P 1952
A nurse is working on a neurological unit with a nursing student who asks the difference between primary and secondary headaches. The nurse's correct response will include which of the following statements? A) "A secondary headache is one for which no organic cause can be identified." B) A secondary headache is located in the frontal area." C) "A secondary headache is associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor." D) "A migraine headache is an example of a secondary headache."
"A secondary HA is associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor." A secondary headache is a symptom associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor or an aneurysm. A primary headache is one for which no organic cause can be identified. These types include migraine, tension, and cluster headaches. Secondary headaches can be located in all areas of the head.
Which of the following areas of the brain are responsible for temperature regulation? A) hypothalamus B) thalamus C) pons D) medulla
Hypothalamus - The hypothalamus also controls and regulates the autonomic nervous system and maintains temperature by promoting vasoconstriction or vasodilation. The thalamus acts primarily as a relay station for all sensation except smell. The medulla and pons are essential for respiratory function.
A nurse is completing a neurological assessment and determines that the client has significant visual deficits. A brain tumor is considered. Considering the functions of the lobes of the brain, which area will most likely contain the neurologic deficit? A) frontal B) Parietal C) Temporal D) Occipital
Occipital - The vision center is located in the occipital lobe. There is little other functioning that may interfere with the visual process in the other lobes of the brain.
The spinal cord is composed of 31 pairs of spinal nerves. How many pairs of thoracic nerves are contained within the spinal column? A) twelve B) five C) one D) eight
12 - There are twelve pairs of thoracic nerves, five lumbar and sacral nerves, eight cervical, and one coccygeal.
A nurse assesses the patient's LOC using the Glasgow Coma Scale. What score indicates severe impairment of neurologic function? A) 6 B) 12 C) 3 D) 9
3 - LOC, a sensitive indicator of neurologic function, is assessed based on the criteria in the Glasgow Coma Scale: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response (Barlow, 2012). The patient's responses are rated on a scale from 3 to 15. A score of 3 indicates severe impairment of neurologic function, brain death, or pharmacologic inhibition of the neurologic response. A score of 15 indicates that the patient is fully responsive (see Chapter 68).
The nurse is aware that burr holes may be used in neurosurgical procedures. Which of the following is a reason why a neurosurgeon may choose to create a burr hole in a patient? A) visualization of a hemorrhage B) aspiration of a brain abscess C) Access for IV fluids D) assess visual acuity
Aspiration of a brain abscess - Burr holes may be used in neurosurgical procedures to make a bone flap in the skull, to aspirate a brain abscess, or to evacuate a hematoma.
A nurse is preparing a client for a lumbar puncture. The client has heard about post-lumbar puncture headaches and asks what causes them. The nurse tells the client that these headaches are caused by which of the following? A) CSF leakage at the puncture site B) damage to the spinal cord C) traumatic puncture D) not ambulating soon enough after the procedure
CSF leakage at the puncture site - The headache is caused by cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) leakage at the puncture site. The supply of CSF in the cranium is depleted so that there is not enough to cushion and stabilize the brain. When the client assumes an upright position, tension and stretching of the venous sinuses and pain-sensitive structures occur.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a cerebral aneurysm. Which diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate to monitor the status of the aneurysm? A) milligram B) electroencephalogram C) echoencephalography D) cerebral angiography
Cerebral angiography - The nurse would anticipate a cerebral angiography, which detects distortion of the cerebral arteries and veins . A milligram detects abnormalities of the spinal canal. An electroencephalogram records electrical impulses of the brain. An echoencephalography is an ultrasound of the structures of the brain.
When the nurse observes that the client has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and plantar flexion of the feet, the nurse records the client's posture as A) flaccid B) decerebrate C) decorticate D) normal
Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing. The client's head and neck arch backward, and the muscles are rigid. In decorticate posturing, which results from damage to the nerve pathway between the brain and spinal cord and is also very serious, the client has flexion and internal rotation of the arms and wrists, as well as extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.
After a seizure, the nurse should place the patient in which of the following positions to prevent complications? A) High Fowler's, to prevent aspiration B) Side-lying, to facilitate drainage of oral secretions C) Supine, to rest the muscles of the extremities D) Semi-Fowler's, to promote breathing
Semi-fowler's : To prevent complications, the patient is placed in the side-lying position to facilitate drainage of oral secretions, and suctioning is performed, if needed, to maintain a patent airway and prevent aspiration.
A client is receiving hypothermic treatment for uncontrolled fever related to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? A) shivering B) capillary refill of 2 seconds C) cool, dry skin D) urine output of 100ml/hr
Shivering - Shivering can increase intracranial pressure by increasing vasoconstriction and circulating catecholamines. Shivering also increases oxygen consumption. A capillary refill of 2 seconds, urine output of 100mL/hr, and cool, dry skin are expected findings.
The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a client diagnosed with a stroke and cannot elicit a gag reflex. This deficit is related to which of the following cranial nerves? A) VIII B) X C) III D) VII
X - CN X is the vagus nerve and has to do with the gag reflex, laryngeal hoarseness, swallowing ability, and the symmetrical rise of the uvula and soft palate. CN VII is the facial nerve and has to do with symmetry of facial movements and the ability to discriminate between the tastes of sugar and salt. The inability to close one eyelid indicates impairment of this nerve. CN VIII is the acoustic nerve. It has to do with hearing, air and bone conduction, and balance. CN III is the oculomotor nerve and has to do with pupillary response, conjugate movements, and nystagmus.
The nurse is caring for a comatose client. The nurse knows she should assess the client's motor response. Which method may the nurse use to assess the motor response? A) observing the reaction of pupils to light B) observing the client's response to painful stimulus C) using the Romberg test D) assessing the client's sensitivity to temperature, touch, and pain
observing the client's response to painful stimulus - The nurse evaluates motor response in a comatose or unconscious client by administering a painful stimulus. This action helps determine if the client makes an appropriate response by reaching toward or withdrawing from the stimulus. The Romberg test is used to assess equilibrium in a noncomatose client. Pupils are examined for their reaction to light to assess sensitivity in the third cranial (oculomotor) nerve. Sensitivity to temperature, touch, and pain is a test to assess the sensory function of the client and not motor response.
A client preparing to undergo a lumbar puncture states he doesn't think he will be able to get comfortable with his knees drawn up to his abdomen and his chin touching his chest. He asks if he can lie on his left side. Which statement is the best response by the nurse? A) "Lying on your left side will be fine during the procedure." B) "Although the required position may not be comfortable, it will make the procedure safer and easier to perform." C) "I'll report your concerns to the physician." D) "There's no other option but to assume the knee-chest position."
"Although the required position may not be comfortable, it will make the procedure safer and easier to perform." - The nurse should explain that the knee-chest position is necessary to make the procedure safer and easier to perform. Lying on his left side won't make the procedure easy or safe to perform. The nurse shouldn't simply tell the client there is no other option because the client is entitled to understand the rationale for the required position. Reporting the client's concerns to the physician won't meet the client's needs in this situation.
The school nurse notes a 6-year-old running across the playground with friends. The child stops in mid-stride, freezing for a few seconds. Then the child resumes his progress across the playground. The school nurse suspects what in this child? A) absence sz B) complex sz C) partial sz D) Tonic-clonic sz
Absence sz - Absence seizures, formerly referred to as petit mal seizures, are more common in children. They are characterized by a brief loss of consciousness, during which physical activity ceases. The person stares blankly; the eyelids flutter; the lips move; and slight movement of the head, arms, and legs occurs. These seizures typically last for a few seconds, and the person seldom falls to the ground. Because of their brief duration and relative lack of prominent movements, these seizures often go unnoticed. People with absence seizures can have them many times a day. Partial, or focal, seizures begin in a specific area of the cerebral cortex. A generalized seizure involves the whole brain.
A nurse is continually monitoring a client with a traumatic brain injury for signs of increasing intracranial pressure. The cranial vault contains brain tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid; an increase in any of the components causes a change in the volume of the others. This hypothesis is called which of the following? A) monro-kellie B) cushing's C) dawn phenomenon D) Hashimoto's disease
Monro-Kellie - The Monro-Kellie hypothesis states that, because of the limited space for expansion in the skull, an increase in any one of its components causes a change in the volume of the others. Cushing's response is seen when cerebral blood flow decreases significantly. Systolic blood pressure increases, pulse pressure widens, and heart rate slows. The Dawn phenomenon is related to high blood glucose levels in the morning in clients with diabetes. Hashimoto's disease is related to the thyroid gland.
A client who has sustained a head injury to the parietal lobe cannot identify a familiar object by touch. The nurse knows that this deficit is which of the following? A) tactile agnosia B) visual agnosia C) positive Romberg D) Ataxia
Tactile agnosia is the inability to identify a familiar object by touch. Visual agnosia is the loss of ability to recognize objects through sight. The Romberg test has to do with balance. Ataxia is defined as incoordination of voluntary muscle action.
A client whose physical findings suggest a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, which necessitates a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, the nurse reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions given to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize? A) "You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery." B) "You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose." C) "You must restrict your fluid intake." D) " You must report ringing in your ears immediately."
You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the client must refrain from coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose for several days to avoid disturbing the surgical graft used to close the wound. The head of the bed must be elevated, not kept flat, to prevent tension or pressure on the suture line. Within 24 hours after a hypophysectomy, transient diabetes insipidus commonly occurs; this calls for increased, not restricted, fluid intake. Visual, not auditory, changes are a potential complication of hypophysectomy.
Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which type of agnosia? A) auditory B) visual C) tactile D) relationship
Auditory - Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia. Lesions in the occipital lobe may result in visual agnosia. Lesions in the parietal lobe may result in tactile agnosia. Lesions in the parietal lobe (posteroinferior regions) may result in relationship and body part agnosia.
A patient who has suffered a stroke is unable to maintain respiration and is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilator support. What portion of the brain is most likely responsible for the inability to breathe? A) frontal lobe B) occipital lobe C) parietal lobe D) brain stem
Brain stem - The brain stem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata (see Fig. 65-2). Portions of the pons help regulate respiration. Motor fibers from the brain to the spinal cord and sensory fibers from the spinal cord to the brain are located in the medulla. Reflex centers for respiration, blood pressure, heart rate, coughing, vomiting, swallowing, and sneezing are located in the medulla.
A client undergoes a craniotomy with supratentorial surgery to remove a brain tumor. On the first postoperative day, the nurse notes the absence of a bone flap at the operative site. How should the nurse position the client's head? A) flat B) turned onto the operative side C) elevated no more than 10 degrees D) elevated 30 degrees
Elevated 30 degrees - After supratentorial surgery, the nurse should elevate the client's head 30 degrees to promote venous outflow through the jugular veins. The nurse would keep the client's head flat after infratentorial, not supratentorial, surgery. However, after supratentorial surgery to remove a chronic subdural hematoma, the neurosurgeon may order the nurse to keep the client's head flat; typically, the client with such a hematoma is older and has a less expandable brain. A client without a bone flap can't be positioned with the head turned onto the operative side because doing so may injure brain tissue. Elevating the head 10 degrees or less wouldn't promote venous outflow through the jugular veins.
What does the nurse recognize as the earliest sign of serious impairment of brain circulation related to increasing ICP? A) a bounding pulse B) bradycardia C) hypertension D) lethargy and stupor
Lethargy and stupor - As ICP increases, the patient becomes stuporous, reacting only to loud or painful stimuli. At this stage, serious impairment of brain circulation is probably taking place, and immediate intervention is required.