NUR 221 Test 2

A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which assessment finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock a. Inspiratory crackles b. Heart rate 45 beats/min c. Cool, clammy extremities d. Temperature 101.2° F (38.4° C)

b. Heart rate 45 beats/min

While caring for a patient who has been admitted with a pulmonary embolism, the nurse notes a change in the patient's oxygen saturation (SpO2) from 94% to 88%. Which action should the nurse take? a. Suction the patient's oropharynx. b. Increase the prescribed O2 flowrate. c. Teach the patient to cough and deep breathe. d. Help the patient to sit in a more upright position.

b. Increase the prescribed O2 flowrate.

A nurse is caring for a patient whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates a blood pressure of 92/54 mm Hg, a pulse of 64 beats/min, and a high pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Elevate head of bed to 30 degrees. b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. c. Hold nitroprusside if systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg d. Titrate dobutamine to keep systolic BP is greater than 90 mm Ha.

b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr.

A patient has just been admitted with a 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn injury. To maintain adequate nutrition, the nurse should plan to take which action? a. Administer vitamins and minerals intravenously. b. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral nutrition. c. Infuse total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter. d. Encourage an oral intake of at least 5000 kcal per day.

b. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral nutrition.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has cardiogenic shock? a. Check temperature every 2 hours b. Monitor breath sounds frequently. c. Maintain patient mm supine position d. Assess skin for flushing and itching.

b. Monitor breath sounds frequently.

3. A patient is admitted to the burn unit with burns to the head, face, and hands. Initially, wheezes are heard, but an hour later, the lung sounds are decreased, and no wheezes are audible. What action should the nurse take? a. Encourage the patient to cough and auscultate the lungs again. b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation. c. Document the results and continue to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. d. Reposition the patient in high-Fowler's position and reassess breath sounds.

b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation.

A patient with circumferential burns of both legs develops a decrease in dorsalis pedis pulse strength and numbness in the toes. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the pulses every hour. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Elevate both legs above heart level with pillows. d. Encourage the patient to flex and extend the toes.

b. Notify the health care provider.

A patient admitted with acute respiratory failure has ineffective airway clearance from thick secretions. Which nursing intervention would specifically address this patient problem? a. Encourage use of the incentive spirometer. b. Offer the patient fluids at frequent intervals. c. Teach the patient the importance of ambulation. d. Titrate oxygen level to keep O2 saturation above 93%.

b. Offer the patient fluids at frequent intervals.

A patient with extensive electrical burn injuries is admitted to the emergency department. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Assess pain level. b. Place on heart monitor. c. Check potassium level. d. Assess oral temperature.

b. Place on a heart monitor

A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) in shock of unknown etiology. What should be the nurse's first action? a. Obtain the blood pressure. b. Check the level of orientation. c. Administer supplemental oxygen d. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram.

c. Check level of orientation

To evaluate the effectiveness of the pantoprazole (Protonix) given to a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse perform? a. Auscultate bowel sounds. b. Ask the patient about nausea. c. Check stools for occult blood. d. Palpate for abdominal tenderness.

c. Check stools for occult blood

The nurse is caring for an older patient who was hospitalized 2 days earlier with community-acquired pneumonia. Which assessment information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Persistent cough of blood-tinged sputum. b.Monitor central venous pressures. c.Place patient in the prone position. d.Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

d.Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

The health care provider prescribes the following interventions for a 67-kg patient who has septic shock with a blood pressure of 70/42 mm Hg and Oz saturation of 90% on room air. In which order will the nurse implement the actions? a. Obtain blood and urine cultures. b. Give vancomycin by IV infusion. c. Start norepinephrine 0.5 mcg/min d. Infuse normal saline 2000 ml over 30 minutes e. Administer oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 95%

e. Administer oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 95% d. Infuse normal saline 2000 ml over 30 minutes c. Start norepinephrine 0.5 mcg/min a. Obtain blood and urine cultures. b. Give vancomycin by IV infusion.

Which finding about a patient who is receiving vasopressin to treat septic shock indicates an immediate need for the nurse to contact the health care provider? a. The patient's urine output is 18 mL/hr. b. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/min. c. The patient's peripheral pulses are weak d. The patient reports diffuse chest pressure

d. The patient reports diffuse chest pressure

The emergency department (ED) nurse receives report that a seriously injured patient involved in a motor vehicle crash is being transported to the facility with an estimated arrival in 5 minutes. What should the nurse obtain in preparation for the patient's arrival? a. A dopamine infusion b. A hypothermia blanket c. Lactated Ringer's solution d. Two 16-gauge IV catheters

d. Two 16-gauge IV catheters

A 78-kg patient in septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. After initial fluid volume resuscitation, the patient's urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. c. Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. d. Use norepinephrine to keep systolic BP above 90 mm Hg.

a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.

Which preventive actions by the nurse will help limit the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in patients admitted to the hospital? (Select all that apply.) a. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery b. Use aseptic technique when manipulating invasive lines or devices. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis. e. Advocate for parenteral nutrition for patients who cannot take in adequate calories

a. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery b. Use aseptic technique when manipulating invasive lines or devices. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis.

A patient arrives in the emergency department with facial and chest burns caused by a house fire. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate for breath sounds. b. Determine the extent and depth of the burns. c. Give the prescribed hydromorphone (Dilaudid). d. Infuse the prescribed lactated Ringer's solution.

a. Auscultate for breath sounds.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. To decrease the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Elevate head of bed to 30 to 45 degrees. b. Give enteral feedings at no more than 10 mL/hr. c. Suction the endotracheal tube every 2 to 4 hours. d. Limit the use of positive end-expiratory pressure.

a. Elevate head of bed to 30 to 45 degrees.

A patient with cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 102/50, pulse 128, respirations 28. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is high, and cardiac output is low. Which treatment would the nurse expect to be prescribed? a. Furosemide b. Hydrocortisone c. Epinephrine drip d. 5% albumin infusion

a. Furosemide

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and acute kidney injury has several drugs prescribed. Which drug should the nurse discuss with the health care provider before giving? a. Gentamicin 60 mg IV b. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg IV c. Sucralfate (Carafate) 1 gram per NG tube d. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 60 mg IV

a. Gentamicin 60 mg IV

A patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. New onset of confusion b. Decreased bowel sounds c. Heart rate 112 beats/min d. Pale. cool. and dry extremities

a. New onset of confusion

Which information about a patient who is receiving cisatracurium (Nimbex) to prevent asynchronous breathing with the positive pressure ventilator requires action by the nurse? a. No sedative is ordered for the patient. b. The patient does not respond to voice. c. The patient's oxygen saturation is 90% to 93%. d. The patient has no cough reflex when suctioned.

a. No sedative is ordered for the patient.

A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving mechanical ventilation using synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). The settings include fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 80%, tidal volume of 450, rate of 16/minute, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 5 cm. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. O2 saturation of 99% b. Heart rate 106 beats/min c. Crackles audible at lung bases d. Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min

a. O2 saturation of 99%

A nurse is caring for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia who is obese. Which position will provide the best gas exchange? a. On the left side b. On the right side c. In the tripod position d. In the high-Fowler's position

a. On the left side

A patient with suspected neurogenic shock after a diving accident has arrived in the emergency department. A cervical collar is in place. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature c. Infuse large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Provide high-flow O2 (100%) by nonrebreather mask. e. Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation.

a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature d. Provide high-flow O2 (100%) by nonrebreather mask. e. Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is intubated and receiving positive pressure ventilation to treat acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Red-brown drainage from nasogastric tube b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 32 mg/dL c. Scattered coarse crackles heard throughout lungs d. Arterial blood gases: pH of 7.31, PaCO2 of 50, and PaO2 of 68

a. Red-brown drainage from nasogastric tube

An employee spills industrial acid on both arms and legs at work. What action should the occupational health nurse take? a. Remove non-adherent clothing and wristwatch. b. Apply an alkaline solution to the affected area. Place a cool compress on the area of exposure. Cover the affected area with dry, sterile dressings.

a. Remove non-adherent clothing and wristwatch.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding Is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Skin cool and clammy b. Heart rate of 118 beats/min c. Blood pressure of 92/56 mm Hg d. O2 saturation of 93% on rOOM air

a. Skin cool and clammy

The charge nurse observes the following actions being taken by a new nurse on the burn unit. Which action by the new nurse would require immediate intervention by the charge nurse? a. The new nurse uses clean gloves when applying antibacterial cream to a burn wound. b. The new nurse obtains burn cultures when the patient has a temperature of 95.2° F (35.1° C). c. The new nurse gives PRN fentanyl (Sublimaze) IV to a patient 5 minutes before a dressing change. d. The new nurse calls the health care provider when a nondiabetic patient's serum glucose is elevated.

a. The new nurse uses clean gloves when applying antibacterial cream to a burn wound.

When admitting a patient with possible respiratory failure and a high PaCO2, which assessment information should be immediately reported to the health care provider? a. The patient appears somnolent. b. The patient reports feeling weak. c. The patient's blood pressure is 164/98. d. The patient's oxygen saturation is 90%.

a. The patient appears somnolent.

The nurse is caring for a patient who arrived in the emergency department with acute respiratory distress. Which assessment finding by the nurse requires the most rapid action? a. The patient's PaO2 is 45 mm Hg. b. The patient's PaCO2 is 33 mm Hg. c. The patient's respirations are shallow. d. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min.

a. The patient's PaO2 is 45 mm Hg.

Prone positioning is being used for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is effective? a. The patient's PaO2 is 89 mm Hg, and the SaO2 is 91%. b. Endotracheal suctioning results in clear mucous return. c. Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 48 hours. d. The skin on the patient's back is intact and without redness.

a. The patient's PaO2 is 89 mm Hg, and the SaO2 is 91%.

Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is high b. The patient reports intermittent chest pressure c. The patient's extremities are cool, and pulses are 1+ d. The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields.

a. The patient's serum creatinine level is high

A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase after having deep partial-thickness face and neck burns has been having difficulty with body image over the past several months. Which statement by the patient best indicates that the problem is resolving? a. "I'm glad the scars are only temporary." b. "I will avoid using a pillow, so my neck will be OK." c. "Do you think dark beige makeup will cover this scar?" d. "I don't think my boyfriend will want to look at me now."

b. "I will avoid using a pillow, so my neck will be OK."

A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase 6 months after a severe face and neck burn tells the nurse, "I'm sorry that I'm still alive. My life will never be normal again." Which response should the nurse make? a. "Most people recover after a burn and feel satisfied with their lives." b. "It's true that your life may be different. What concerns you the most?" c. "Why do you feel that way? It will get better as your recovery progresses." d. "It is really too early to know how much your life will be changed by the burn."

b. "It's true that your life may be different. What concerns you the most?"

Which statement by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the patient's caregiver is accurate? a. "PEEP will push more air into the lungs during inhalation." b. "PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation." c. "PEEP will prevent lung damage while the patient is on the ventilator." d. "PEEP allows the breathing machine to deliver 100% O2 to the lungs."

b. "PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation."

Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with burns who reports a level 8 (0 to 10 scale) pain. b. A patient with smoke inhalation who has wheezes and altered mental status. c. A patient with full-thickness leg burns who is scheduled for a dressing change. d. A patient with partial thickness burns who is receiving IV fluids at 500 mL/hr.

b. A patient with smoke inhalation who has wheezes and altered mental status.

The following interventions are prescribed by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after eating strawberries. Which will the nurse complete first? a. Give diphenhydramine. b. Administer epinephrine. c. Start continuous ECG monitoring. d. Draw blood for complete blood count

b. Administer epinephrine

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. b. Administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. c. Start norepinephrine to keep blood pressure above 90 mm Hg. d. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL

b. Administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr.

The nurse reviews the electronic health record for a patient scheduled for a total hip replacement. Which assessment data shown in the accompanying figure increase the patient's risk for respiratory complications after surgery? a. Older age and anemia b. Albumin level and weight loss c. Recent arthroscopic procedure d. Confusion and disorientation to time

b. Albumin level and weight loss

The oxygen saturation (SpO2) for a patient with left lower lobe pneumonia is 90%. The patient has wheezes and a weak cough effort. Which action should the nurse take? a. Position the patient on the left side. b. Assist the patient with staged coughing. c. Place a humidifier in the patient's room. d. Schedule a 4-hour rest period for the patient.

b. Assist the patient with staged coughing.

A patient admitted with burns over 30% of the body surface 2 days ago now has dramatically increased urine output. Which action should the nurse plan to support maintaining kidney function? a. Monitoring white blood cells (WBCs). b. Continuing to measure the urine output. c. Assessing that blisters and edema have subsided. d. Encouraging the patient to eat adequate calories.

b. Continuing to measure the urine output.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has burns of the ears, head, neck, and right arm and hand. The nurse should place the patient in which position? a. Place the right arm and hand flexed in a position of comfort. b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers. c. Assist the patient to a supine position with a small pillow under the head. d. Position the patient in a side-lying position with rolled towel under the neck.

b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers.

A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 78%. The patient is increasingly lethargic. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate? a. Administration of 100% O2 by non-rebreather mask b. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation c. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy with frequent suctioning d. Initiation of continuous positive pressure ventilation (CPAP)

b. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation

When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes dry, pale, and hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth? a. First-degree skin destruction b. Full-thickness skin destruction c. Deep partial-thickness skin destruction d. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction

b. Full-thickness skin destruction

A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert two large-bore IV catheters. b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask. c. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions. d. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.

b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask.

Which actions should the nurse start to reduce the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Obtain arterial blood gases daily. b. Provide a "sedation holiday" daily. c. Give prescribed pantoprazole (Protonix). d. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees. e. Provide oral care daily with chlorhexidine (0.12%) solution

b. Provide a "sedation holiday" daily. c. Give prescribed pantoprazole (Protonix). d. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees. e. Provide oral care daily with chlorhexidine (0.12%) solution

A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside infusion to treat cardiogenic shock. Which finding indicates that the drug is effective? a. No heart murmur b. Skin is warm and pink c. Decreased troponin level d. Blood pressure of 92/40 mm Hg

b. Skin warm and pink

A nurse is caring for a patient with ARDS who is being treated with mechanical ventilation and high levels of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates that the PEEP may need to be reduced? a. The patient's PaO2 is 50 mm Hg and the SaO2 is 88%. b. The patient has subcutaneous emphysema on the upper thorax. c. The patient has bronchial breath sounds in both the lung fields. d. The patient has a first-degree atrioventricular heart block with a rate of 58 beats/min.

b. The patient has subcutaneous emphysema on the upper thorax.

Norepinephrine has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration and hypotension. Which data indicate that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before starting the norepinephrine? a. The patient is receiving low dose dopamine. b. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. c. The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/min. d. The patient has had no urine output since admission.

b. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg.

Eight hours after a thermal burn covering 50% of a patient's total body surface area (TBSA), the nurse assesses the patient. The patient weighs 92 kg (202.4 lb). Which information would be a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood pressure is 95/48 per arterial line. b. Urine output of 41 mL over past 2 hours. c. Serous exudate is leaking from the burns. d. Heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia of 108.

b. Urine output of 41 mL over past 2 hours.

4. A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be given in the first 24 hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first 8 hours, what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids? a. 219 mL/hr b. 625 mL/hr c. 938 mL/hr d. 1875 mL/hr

c. 938 mL/hr

Which patient is most appropriate for the burn unit charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the hospital medical unit? a. A patient who has twice-daily burn debridements to partial-thickness facial burns. b. A patient who just returned from having a cultured epithelial autograft to the chest. c. A patient who has a 15% weight loss from admission and will need enteral feedings. d. A patient who has blebs under an autograft on the thigh and has an order for bleb aspiration.

c. A patient who has a 15% weight loss from admission and will need enteral feedings.

Which diagnostic test will provide the nurse with the most specific information to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions for a patient with ventilatory failure? a. Chest x-ray b. O2 saturation c. Arterial blood gas analysis d. Central venous pressure monitoring

c. Arterial blood gas analysis

A patient has just arrived in the emergency department after an electrical burn from exposure to a high-voltage current. What is the priority nursing assessment? a. Oral temperature b. Peripheral pulses c. Extremity movement d. Pupil reaction to light

c. Extremity movement

An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy. Hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR ). Whch intervention should the nurse anticipate? a. Increase the rate tor the dopamme mtusion. b. Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin infusion. c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion. d. Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline infusion.

c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion.

On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25% total body surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 58%, Hgb 18.2 mg/dL (172 g/L), serum K+ 4.9 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L), and serum Na+ 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Which of the following prescribed actions should be the nurse's priority? a. Monitoring urine output every 4 hours b. Continuing to monitor the laboratory results c. Increasing the rate of the ordered IV solution d. Typing and crossmatching for a blood transfusion

c. Increasing the rate of the ordered IV solution

When the nurse educator is evaluating the skills of a new registered nurse (RN) caring for patients with shock. which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock d. Increasing the nitroprusside for a patient with cardiogenic shock and a high SVR

c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock

After a patient who has septic shock receives 2 L of normal saline intravenously, the central venous pressure is 10 mm Hg and the blood pressure is 82/40 mm Hg. What medication should the nurse anticipate? a. Furosemide b. Nitroglycerin c. Norepinephrine d. Sodium nitroprusside

c. Norepinephrine

The nurse assesses vital signs for a patient admitted 2 days ago with gram-negative sepsis: temperature of 101.2° F, blood pressure of 90/56 mm Hg, pulse of 92 beats/min, and respirations of 34 breaths/min. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Give the scheduled IV antibiotic. b. Give the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). c. Obtain oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry. d. Notify the health care provider of the patient's vital signs.

c. Obtain oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry.

After change-of-shift report in the progressive care unit, who should the nurse care for first? a. Patient who had an inferior myocardial infarction 2 days ago and has crackles in the lung bases. b. Patient who had a T5 spinal cord injury 1 week ago and currently has a heart rate of 54 beats/min. c. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new prescriptions for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics. d. Patient admitted with anaphylaxis 3 hours ago who has clear lung sounds and a blood pressure of 108/58 mm Hg.

c. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new prescriptions for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics.

A patient who was found unconscious in a burning house is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The nurse notes that the patient's skin color is bright red. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Insert two large-bore IV lines. b. Check the patient's orientation. c. Place the patient on 100% O2 using a nonrebreather mask. d. Assess for singed nasal hair and dark oral mucous membranes.

c. Place the patient on 100% O2 using a nonrebreather mask.

25. After reviewing the information shown in the accompanying figure for a patient with pneumonia and sepsis, which information is most important to report to the health care provider? Physical Assessment • Petechia noted on chest and legs • Crackles heard bilaterally in lung bases • No redness or swelling at central line IV site Laboratory Data • Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 34 mg/dL • Hematocrit 30% • Platelets 50,000/MI Vital Signs • Temperature 100° F (37.8° C) • Pulse 102/min • Respirations 26/min • BP 110/60 mm Hg • O2 saturation 93% on 2L O2 via nasal cannula a. Temperature and IV site appearance b. Oxygen saturation and breath sounds c. Platelet count and presence of petechiae d. Blood pressure, pulse rate, respiratory rate

c. Platelet count and presence of petechiae

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a patient who had a large burn 48 hours ago. Which result requires priority action by the nurse? a. Hematocrit of 53% b. Serum sodium of 147 mEq/L c. Serum potassium of 6.1 mEq/L d. Blood urea nitrogen of 37 mg/dL

c. Serum potassium of 6.1 mEq/L

Which nursing action is a priority for a patient who has suffered a burn injury while working on an electrical power line? a. Inspect the contact burns. b. Check the blood pressure. c. Stabilize the cervical spine. d. Assess alertness and orientation.

c. Stabilize the cervical spine.

Esomeprazole is prescribed for a patient who incurred extensive burn injuries 5 days ago. Which nursing assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the drug? a. Bowel sounds b. Stool frequency c. Stool occult blood d. Abdominal distention

c. Stool occult blood

A patient who has neurogenic shock is receiving a phenylephrine infusion through a right forearm IV. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse indicates a need for Immediate action? a. The patient's heart rate is 58 beats/min. b. The patient's extremities are warm and dry. c. The patient s IV infusion site is cool and pale. d. The patient's urine output is 28 mL over the past hour

c. The patient s IV infusion site is cool and pale.

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives in the emergency department reporting shortness of breath on minimal exertion. Which assessment finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient has bibasilar lung crackles. b. The patient is sitting in the tripod position. c. The patient's respiratory rate is 10 breaths/min. d. The patient's pulse oximetry shows a 91% O2 saturation.

c. The patient's respiratory rate is 10 breaths/min.

Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a 90-kg patient with hypovolemic shock has been effective? a. There are no signs of hemorrhage. b. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. c. Urine output 65 mL over the past hour. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg.

c. Urine output 65 mL over the past hour

During change-of-shift report on a medical unit, the nurse learns that a patient with aspiration pneumonia who was admitted with respiratory distress has become increasingly agitated. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the prescribed PRN sedative drug. b. Offer reassurance and reorient the patient. c. Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation. d. Notify the health care provider about the patient's status.

c. Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation.

A patient with burns covering 40% total body surface area (TBSA) is in the acute phase of burn treatment. Which snack would be best for the nurse to offer to this patient? a. Bananas b. Orange gelatin c. Vanilla milkshake d. Whole grain bagel

c. Vanilla shake

Which nursing action prevents cross contamination when the patient's full-thickness burn wounds to the face are exposed? a. Using sterile gloves when removing dressings. b. Keeping the room temperature at 70° F (20° C). c. Wearing gown, cap, mask, and gloves during care. d. Giving IV antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization.

c. Wearing gown, cap, mask, and gloves during care.

After receiving change-of-shift report on a medical unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with cystic fibrosis who has thick, green-colored sputum. b. A patient with pneumonia who has crackles bilaterally in the lung bases. c. A patient with emphysema who has an oxygen saturation of 90% to 92%. d. A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions.

d. A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient in the rehabilitation phase after a burn injury to the right arm and chest? a. Keep the right arm in a position of comfort. b. Avoid the use of sustained-release narcotics. c. Teach about the purpose of tetanus immunization. d. Apply water-based cream to burned areas frequently.

d. Apply water-based cream to burned areas frequently.

The nurse observes a new onset of agitation and confusion in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which action should the nurse take first? a. Observe for facial symmetry. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Attempt to calm and reorient the patient. d. Assess oxygenation using pulse oximetry.

d. Assess oxygenation using pulse oximetry.

In which order will the nurse take these actions when doing a dressing change for a partial-thickness burn wound on a patient's chest? a. Apply sterile gauze dressing. b. Document wound appearance. c. Apply silver sulfadiazine cream. d. Give IV fentanyl (Sublimaze). e. Clean wound with saline-soaked gauze.

d. Give IV fentanyl (Sublimaze). e. Clean wound with saline-soaked gauze. c. Apply silver sulfadiazine cream. a. Apply sterile gauze dressing. b. Document wound appearance.

A patient develops increasing dyspnea and hypoxemia 2 days after heart surgery. What procedure should the nurse anticipate assisting with to determine whether the patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or pulmonary edema caused by heart failure? a. Obtaining a ventilation-perfusion scan b. Drawing blood for arterial blood gases c. Positioning the patient for a chest x-ray d. Insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter

d. Insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter

A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation develops a right pneumothorax. Which collaborative action will the nurse anticipate next? a. Increase the tidal volume and respiratory rate. b. Decrease the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2). c. Perform endotracheal suctioning more frequently. d. Lower the positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).

d. Lower the positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).

During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment is most useful in determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion? a. Check skin turgor. b. Monitor daily weight. c. Assess mucous membranes. d. Measure hourly urine output.

d. Measure hourly urine output.

Which assessment information is most important for the nurse to obtain when evaluating whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective? a. Heart rate b. Orientation c. Blood pressure d. Oxygen saturation

d. Oxygen saturation

A patient who has burns on the arms, legs, and chest from a house fire has become agitated and restless 8 hours after being admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Stay at the bedside and reassure the patient. b. Administer the ordered morphine sulfate IV. c. Assess orientation and level of consciousness. d. Use pulse oximetry to check oxygen saturation.

d. Use pulse oximetry to check oxygen saturation.

Which prescribed drug is best for the nurse to give before scheduled wound debridement on a patient with partial-thickness burns? a. ketorolac b. lorazepam (Ativan) c. gabapentin (Neurontin) d. hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

d. hydromorphone (Dilaudid)