Peds from Mom

B Meningicoccal, HPV, HM

12 yr old Heather is at the pediatrician for her immunization shots. Which ones should she receive? A DTap, IPV, MMR, Varicella B Meningicoccal, HPV, HM C HepB, IPV, HiB, PVC, DTap, RV D HiB, Varicella, HepA, PVC, MMR, DTap

C Immunization during eczema exacerbations

A 12-month-old child with infantile eczema is seen at the clinic for several open lesions on the arms and legs. What should a nurse caution the child's parents against? A Initiating a diet free of milk products. B The use of topical hydrocortisone cream. C Immunization during eczema exacerbations. D Adding cornstarch to bath water

C Markedly edematous neck

A 5-year-old child who has received no vaccinations is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of diphtheria. Which of the following signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to see? A Conjunctival hemorrhages B Macular papular rash C Markedly edematous neck D Strawberry-red tongue

C Candida albicans

A breastfed baby has thrush and a bright-red diaper rash. The baby's mother is complaining of severe pain each time the baby feeds. The nurse suspects that which of the following organisms is likely responsible for these complaints? A Streptococcus pyogenes B Staphylococcus aureus C Candida albicans D Herpes simplex

C. Lips and mucous membranesRationale: Assessment of color is more easily made in areas where the epidermis is thin, such as the lips and mucous membranes

A nurse can assess cyanosis in a dark-skinned patient by noting the color of the: A. Conjunctiva B. Sclera C. Lips and mucous membranes D. Soles of the feet

B Otitis Externa is usually cause by bacteria or fungus in the ear canal

Causes of Otitis Externa include A Sinus infection B Bacteria or fungus C Virus D All of the above

D Does not try to babble and may startle only when touched. Babies should be able to follow sound by 4 mths, babble by 6 mths, and attempt speach thereafter

Clues for hearing loss in infants are A Yells or screams when touched B Sleeps for more than 4 hrs at a time C Bounces when touched D Does not try to babble

B. Sensorimotor. This stage includes children of the age of birth to 2 years (24 months).

According to Piaget's Theory of Development, what stage would a 14-month-old be in? A. Formal operational B. Sensorimotor C. Preoperational D. Concrete operational

C. The birth weight should DOUBLE at 6 months and triple at 1 year. Therefore, if the infant weighed 8 lbs. at birth, he or she should weigh 16 lbs. at 6 months.

An infant weighed 8 lbs. at birth. How many lbs. should the infant weigh at 6 months?* A. 24 lbs B. 10 lbs C. 16 lbs D. 32 lbs

A a bilateral blink

An internal corneal reflex would be demonstrated by which of the following? A. a bilateral blink B. a bilateral pupillary constriction C. a bilateral horizontal deviation of the eye D. bilateral tearing

A Because the client cannot speak, a total airway obstruction has occurred. The client is in acute distress and requires emergency treatment. Leaving the client alone to clear the throat would be appropriate for a client with partial airway obstruction, as evidenced by choking but with an ability to speak. Adequate humidification is appropriate for the client with recurrent epistaxis or nasal congestion. It does not matter what the client is choking on.

As Nurse Ryan enters the room, he saw the client choking and unable to speak. Which intervention should the nurse implement first for the client? A Calling for help immediately B Leaving the client alone to clear his throat. C Telling the client to adequately humidify the room D Trying to determine what the client is choking on

Answer: b. Genetic recessive inheritance Feedback: These can all cause hearing loss, but genetic recessive inheritance is the most common

As the nurse performs auditory screening on an infant, the parents ask about potential causes of hearing loss. The nurse reviews many causes but states which as the most common cause of hearing loss? a. Aminoglycoside medication use b. Genetic recessive inheritance c. Mechanical ventilation d. Bacterial meningitis

B D & F Tilting head Closing eye to see Squinting

At a well-child exam, a 3-year-old boy is diagnosed with strabismus. Which of the following clinical manifestations does the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder? Select all that apply: A Positioning self close to TV B Tilting head to one side to see C Difficulty doing close work D Closing one eye to see E Excessive eye rubbing F Squinting

Option A: During this period, which lasts up to the age of 18-21 years, the individual develops a sense of "self." Peers have a major big influence over behavior, and the major decision is to determine a vocational goal

At the community center, the nurse leads an adolescent health information group, which often expands into other areas of discussion. She knows that these youths are trying to find out "who they are," and discussion often focuses on which directions they want to take in school and life, as well as peer relationships. According to Erikson, this stage is known as: · A. identity vs. role confusion. · B. adolescent rebellion. · C. career experimentation. · D. relationship testing

C 4-6 Yrs

At what age should a child receive their first DTaP vaccine? A Birth B 12-15 months C 4-6 yrs D 12 yrs

B Eczema

Atopic Dermatitis is often called A Acne B Eczema C Psoriasis D Pimples

A Staphylococcus Aureus

Bacterial infections in children are commonly caused by A Staphylococcus Aureus B Escherichia coli C Salmonella D Giardiasis

C thermoregulation means children are less able to regulate body temperature properly

Because of the lack of subcutaneous fat in children's skin, what is likely? A Children will not become obese B Children are better able to bounce when they fall C thermoregulation means children are less able to regulate body temperature properly D None of the above

Option C: The primary purpose of administering corticosteroids to a child with nephritic syndrome is to decrease proteinuria

Dr. Jones prescribes corticosteroids for a child with nephritic syndrome. What is the primary purpose of administering corticosteroids to this child? · A. To increase blood pressure · B. To reduce inflammation · C. To decrease proteinuria · D. To prevent infection

D Systemic absorption and subsequent adverse effects may occur if the medication enters the nasolacrimal canal. The nurse therefore applies pressure to the inner canthus, causing occlusion of this canal and minimizing the risk for systemic adverse effects. Applying pressure on the eyelid rim would not occlude this canal. Having the client close his eyes tightly may cause some of the medication to be expelled. Positioning has no effect on the blood flow of medication into the nasolacrimal canal and subsequent absorption

During eyedrop instillation, which intervention would the nurse perform to prevent systemic adverse effects from drug absorption? A Applying pressure on the eyelid rim B Having the client close his eyes tightly C Placing the client in the supine position for a few minutes D Applying pressure on the inner canthus

B Amblyopia

Glasses are not a common therapeutic management for which of the following? A Hyperopia B Amblyopia C Myopia D Astigmatism

C Amount of time and times per day breastfeeding

How should fluid intake be estimated in a breastfeeding infant? A. Number of poopy diapers per day B. Volume of spit-up C. Amount of time and times per day breastfeeding D. Diaper output weight

Option A: Topical corticosteroids are administered sparingly and rubbed into the area thoroughly.

Hydrocortisone cream 1% is given to a child with eczema. The nurse gives instruction to the mother to apply the cream by? · A. Apply a thin layer of cream and spread it into the area thoroughly. · B. Avoid cleansing the area before the application. · C. Apply a thick layer of the cream to affected areas only. D. Apply the cream to other areas to avoid occurrence

Option C: Epiglottitis is a bacterial infection of the epiglottis primarily caused by Hib. Administration of the vaccine has decreased the incidence of epiglottitis

Immunization of children with Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) vaccine decreases the incidence of which of the following conditions? · A. Bronchiolitis · B. Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) · C. Epiglottitis D. Pneumoni

A Strep throat, or acute pharyngitis, results in a red throat, edematous lymphoid tissues, enlarged lymph nodes, fever, and sore throat. Pain over the sinus area and purulent nasal secretions would be evident with sinusitis. Foul-smelling breath and respirations indicate adenoiditis. A weak cough and high-pitched noisy respirations are associated with foreign-body aspiration

Inigo is diagnosed with "strep throat." Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to the client? A A fiery red pharyngeal membrane and fever B Pain over the sinus area and purulent nasal secretions C Foul-smelling breath and noisy respirations D Weak cough and high-pitched noise on respirations

Option C: The mode of transmission of this bacteria is through direct contact with an infected person through sharing objects or bathing together.

Jayson, 1-year-old child, has a staph skin infection. Her brother has also developed the same infection. Which behavior by the children is most likely to have caused the transmission of the organism? A. Sharing pacifiers B. Coughing on each other C. Bathing together D. Eating off the same plate

D Moderate hearing loss 0-20 dB is normal, while 20-40 db is mild loss, 60-80 dB is severe loss and greater than 80 is profound loss

Jim is having his hearing tested and is unable to hear sounds in the 40-60 dB range. This indicates that Jim A Is normal B Has profound hearing loss C Needs hearing aids D Has moderate hearing loss

Option B: Ortolani's sign is felt and heard when a newborn's or neonate's hip is flexed and abducted.

Nurse Kevin is assessing a newborn for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH); he would expect to assess which of the following? · A. Characteristic limp · B. Ortolani's sign · C. Symmetrical gluteal folds · D. Trendelenburg's signs

B Swimmer's ear - an ear that remains wet repeatedly due to swimming activities is prone to Otitis Externa

Otitis Externa is also known as A Inner ear infection B Swimmer's ear C Audio externa infection D None of the above

F C& D Answers C& D are basically "All of the above"

Results of retinopathy of prematurity are A No side affects B Retinal detachment and blindness C Neovasularization D A & B E A & C F C & D

Option B: SIDS can occur any time between 1 week and 1 year of age. The incidence peaks at 2 to 4 months of age

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is one of the most common causes of death in infants. At what age is the diagnosis of SIDS most likely? · A. At 1 to 2 years of age · B. At I week to 1 year of age, peaking at 2 to 4 months · C. At 6 months to 1 year of age, peaking at 10 months · D. At 6 to 8 weeks of age

The answers are B, D and E. These strategies can sometimes help prevent a tantrum. In addition, being aware of potential triggers (sickness, tired, hungry etc.) and praising their good behavior.

The mother of a 2-year-old verbalizes concern about how her child has suddenly developed temper tantrums. She asks about preventive measures. What are some preventive measures you can educate the mother about? Select-all-that-apply: A. Avoid giving the child choices B. Distract the child C. Give in to the child's request D. Prepare the child for a change in activity or an event a few minutes before it occurs E. Avoid new activities when the child is hungry or tired

C Nocturnal anal itching

The nurse assesses what clinical manifestation to be the priority in a child with Enterobius (pinworm)? A Chronic or relapsing diarrhea B Flatulence C Nocturnal anal itching D Weight loss

ANS: A The posterior fontanelle closes between 2 and 3 months of age.

The nurse is aware that the age at which the posterior fontanelle closes is _____ months.a. 2 to 3b. 3 to 6c. 6 to 9d. 9 to 12

C The presence of blood trickling down the throat

The nurse is caring for a child following tonsillectomy. Which of the following observations should the nurse immediately report? A The presence of dark brown blood on the teeth B An episode of vomiting C The presence of blood trickling down the throat D A complaint of a sore throat

A, B D

The nurse should assess a child suspected of having tinea capitis for which of the following? Select all that apply: A Scale and black dots B Presence of kerions C Creamy-white plaques on the buccal Mucosa D Scalp scaling with alopecia E Warts on the periungual regions F Orolabial lesions

D - Especially with a family history of vision problems, a child should be tested as soon as they are able to follow instructions and cooperate with an eye exam

Vision screening for a child is usually done A At birth and every well check up B Once the child turns 14 and is elligible for their learners permit C Whenever the child is able to cooperate with an eye exam D No later than their 5th birthday, or when they start school

D Antibiotic drops or ointment

What is the treatment for bacterial conjunctivitus? A antihistamine and/or mast cell stabilizer drops B oral antibitoics C antiherpetic agent D Antibiotic drops or ointment

D Occurs when light enters the globe and focuses on the back of the retina (answer B, farsighted is when a child can see far away but not up close)

What is true of hyperopia? A It is a rare childhood defect B It causes a child to be farsighted, which means they can see up close but not far away C It can be treated with vision therapy D It occurs when light enters the eye and focuses on the back of the retina

D air conduction is normally 2 times as long as bone conduction

When comparing air conduction vs. bone conduction, which is expected to occur? A. bone conduction is normally 2 times as long as air conduction B. bone conduction and air conduction are equal C. air conduction is normally 3 times as long as bone conduction D. air conduction is normally 2 times as long as bone conduction

A Infants and Young children

Which group of people is more likely to develop atopic dermatitis? A Infants and young children B . Teenagers C Adults 20 to 49 D Older adults

D Clarithromycin has not been shown to induce Stevens-Johnson syndrome. All other options are potential triggers.

Which of the following drugs is not implicated as a trigger for Stevens-Johnson syndrome? A Valproic acid B Sulfonamides C Penicillin D Clarithromycin

C Antibiotic ointment

Which of the following is not corredt treatment for periorbital cellulitis? A Oral antibiotics B Warm soaks C Antibiotic ointment D IV antibiotics

D A and B

Which of the following make ears prone to infection? A enlarged adenoids B placement of the eustachian tubes C premature birth D A and B

B. Rolling head side to side C. Loss of appetite E. Crying

nurse is assessing an infant. Which of the following findings are clinical manifestations of acute otitis media? (Select all that apply.) A. Decreased pain in the supine position B. Rolling head side to side C. Loss of appetite D. Increased sensitivity to sound E. Crying

D HiB, Varicella, HepA, PVC, MMR, DTap

14 Month old Jim is at the pediatrician for her immunization shots. Which ones should she receive? A Covid19 B Dtap, IPV, MMR, Varicella, HepB C DTap, IPV, MMR, Varicella, Meningicoccal D HiB, Varicella, HepA, PVC, MMR, DTap

A HepB, IPV, HiB, PVC, DTap, RV

6 month old Bailey is at the pediatrician for her immunization shots. Which ones should she receive? A HepB, IPV, HiB, PVC, DTap, RV B Meningicoccal, HPV, HM C DTap, IPV, MMR, Varicella D Covid19

Option C: Many clients have unrealistic expectations of reconstructive surgery and envision an appearance identical or equal in quality to the preburn state.

A 12-year-old male with facial burns asks the nurse if he will ever look the same. Which response is best for the nurse to provide? A. "With reconstructive surgery, you can look the same." B. "We can remove the scars with the use of a pressure dressing." C. "You will not look exactly the same." D. You shouldn't start worrying about your appearance right now."

Answer: d. Following the facility's policy., e. Questioning the client without the parent present. Feedback: All clients brought into the emergency department are to be asked about injuries related to abuse. The boy is safe in the hospital at this time, so immediate notification or protection is not necessary. Laws vary from state to state, but all states have protective laws for children. Each facility has policies and procedures reflecting implementation of those laws, and these must be followed when a nurse suspects abuse

A 15-year-old boy with facial trauma is brought into the emergency department by his mother. Upon completion of the admission history, the nurse suspects that another person intentionally caused the child's injuries. What are the appropriate nursing actions in this situation? (Select all that apply.) a. Calling the police. b. Calling Protective Services. c. Asking the intern to validate the nurse's suspicion. d. Following the facility's policy. e. Questioning the client without the parent present.

D Give the medication as ordered.

A 2 year-old child is being treated with Amoxicillin suspension, 200 milligrams per dose, for acute otitis media. The child weighs 30 lb. (15 kg) and the daily dose range is 20-40 mg/kg of body weight, in three divided doses every 8 hours. The nurse should? A Recognize that antibiotics are over-prescribed B Call the practitioner to clarify the dose C Hold the medication as the dosage is too low D Give the medication as ordered

C Delayed language development

A 3-year-old child, with a history of frequent ear infections, has been diagnosed with mixed hearing loss. For which of the following complications should the nurse carefully assess the child? A Recurring temporal headaches B Inflammation of the mandible C Delayed language development D Serosanguineous discharge from the ear

Option A: Redness, tenderness or swelling may happen at the site of injection. This will be relieved through cool application for the first 24 hours, followed by warm compress if inflammation persists

A 4 month-year-old infant has just received diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DtaP). Hours later, the mother reports to the clinic because her child develops redness and swelling at the injection site. The nurse instructs the mother to do which of the following? · A. Application of cold compress · B. Application of hot compress · C. Monitor for signs of fever · D. Report to the clinic for a repeat injection on the other site

The answer is C. The nurse will follow contact precautions, which includes following standard precautions as well. Impetigo is a HIGHLY contagious skin infection. Therefore, the nurse should always where a gown and gloves when providing care to the patient to prevent transmission of the infection

A 4 year old is admitted to your unit with a severe case of impetigo. It is important the nurse follows _______________ while providing care to this patient: A. Droplet precautions B. Standard precautions only C. Contact precautions D. Airborne precaution

B Bluish streaks in tissues surrounding the eye

A child has been diagnosed with periorbital cellulitis. For which of the following signs/ symptoms should the nurse assess? A Yellow-tinged sclerae B Bluish streaks in tissues surrounding the eye C Subconjunctival hemorrhages D Absence of the red reflex during eye examination

B. Impetigo Rationale: Impetigo is seen at all ages, but is particularly common in children. The crust is honey-colored and easily removed and is associated with pruritis. The disease is highly contagious and spreads by contact.

A child has been sent to the school nurse with pruritus and honey-colored crusts on the lower lip and chin. The nurse believes theses lesions most likely are: A. Chickenpox B. Impetigo C. Shingles D. Herpes simplex type 1

Option B: Initially, when a preschool client is admitted to the hospital for burns, the primary focus is on assessing and managing an effective airway.

A child has third-degree burns of the hands, face, and chest. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority? A. Impaired urinary elimination related to fluid loss B. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema C. Disturbed body image related to physical appearance D. Risk for infection related to epidermal disruption

Option D: The initial therapeutic management of acute bacterial meningitis includes isolation precautions, initiation of antimicrobial therapy, and maintenance of optimum hydration. Nurses should take necessary precautions to protect themselves and others from possible infection

A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following nursing measures should the nurse do first? A. Assess vital signs B. Institute seizure precautions C. Assess neurologic status D. Place in respiratory isolation

C Tinnitus is the most common complaint of clients with otological disorders, especially disorders involving the inner ear. Symptoms of tinnitus range from mild ringing in the ear, which can go unnoticed during the day, to a loud roaring in the ear, which can interfere with the client's thinking process and attention span.

A client is diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear. Which of the following is the most common client complaint associated with a disorder in this part of the ear? A Hearing loss B Pruritus C Tinnitus D Burning of the ear

B A subjective symptom such as ringing in the ears can be felt only by the client.

A client who is complaining of tinnitus is describing a symptom that is: A Objective B Subjective C Functional D Prodromal

C. the right pupil constricts when a light is shone into the left pupil

A consensual light reflex is present when which of the following occurs? A. the right pupil dilates when a light is shone on the left pupil B. the left pupil dilates immediately after the light is removed from the left pupil C. the right pupil constricts when a light is shone into the left pupil D. the left pupil constricts after the light is removed from the right pupi

B The most significant adverse reactions to gentamicin and other aminoglycosides are ototoxicity (indicated by vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss) and nephrotoxicity (indicated by urinary cells or casts, oliguria, proteinuria, and reduced creatinine clearance). These adverse reactions are most common in elderly and dehydrated clients, those with renal impairment, and those receiving concomitant therapy with another potentially ototoxic or nephrotoxic drug. Gentamicin isn't associated with aplastic anemia, cardiac arrhythmias, or seizures.

A female client with a severe staphylococcal infection is receiving the aminoglycoside gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) by the I.V. route. The nurse should assess the client for which adverse reaction to this drug? A Aplastic anemia B Ototoxicity C Cardiac arrhythmias D Seizures

D To prevent eye discomfort, the client must protect the eyes for 48 hours after taking medication for photochemotherapy. Protecting the eyes for a shorter period increases the risk of eye injury.

A female client with atopic dermatitis is prescribed medication for photochemotherapy. The nurse teaches the client about the importance of protecting the skin from ultraviolet light before drug administration and for 8 hours afterward and stresses the need to protect the eyes. After administering medication for photochemotherapy, the client must protect the eyes for: A 4 hours. B 8 hours. C 24 hours. D 48 hours.

C. Pityriasis rosea Rationale: Pityriasis rosea begins with a single lesion, 1 to 2 inches in diameter, known as a herald patch. This lesion is scaly with a raised border and a pink center, and is typically found on the patient's chest, abdomen, back, groin, or axillae. Seven to 14 days after the initial eruption, smaller matching spots of the rash become widespread on both sides of the body. Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, causes a patient's resistance to infection has been lowered. Herpes simplex type 1, commonly known as a cold sore, is characterized by a vesicle at the corner of the mouth, on the lips, or on the nose. Impetigo contagiosa consists of macular lesions that rupture and form a dried exudate on the face, hands, arms, and legs.

A female patient has come into a dermatology clinic and reports that she has a single 1-inch lesion that was scaly with a raised border and a pink center on her chest. Now, a little more than a week later, she has smaller matching spots of the rash on both sides of her chest. The nurse observes pink, oval-shaped spots that are ¼ to ½ inch across. What condition does the nurse suspect the physician will diagnose? A. Herpes zoster B. Herpes simplex type 1 C. Pityriasis rosea D. Impetigo contagiosa

Answer: b. Collaborating with the school nurses regarding safety programs in schools., c. Organizing a support group for parents of visually impaired children., d. Collaborating with the Maternal-Child Division to prevent preterm births., e. Organizing a playgroup for visually impaired children.Feedback: The question addresses prevention of visual impairment, so responses must address that issue. School-age children who are visually impaired are just as responsible as others their age. Not all athletes might be required to wear or purchase protective eye equipment

A nurse develops a plan to prevent and manage visual impairment in her community. For infants and children as old as 10, which strategies would she include? (Select all that apply.) a. Meeting with sports coaches to plan for all athletes to purchase protective eyewear. b. Collaborating with the school nurses regarding safety programs in schools. c. Organizing a support group for parents of visually impaired children. d. Collaborating with the Maternal-Child Division to prevent preterm births. e. Organizing a playgroup for visually impaired children.

C. Speech delays

A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child who has had three ear infections in the past 5 months. The nurse should know that the child is at risk for developing which of the following as a long-term complication? A. Balace difficulties B. Prolonged hearing loss C. Speech delays D. Mastoiditis

Answer: c. A toddler who tends to hold his head to the right side more than the left

A nurse performs vision screening in the community. Which child should the nurse refer for additional evaluation? a. A preschool-age boy who often attends school in clothes with clashing colors b. An 11-month-old infant who looks at books for a minute and tosses them away c. A toddler who tends to hold his head to the right side more than the left d. An infant whose optic disc the nurse is unable to visualize

D Irrigation of the ear canal is contraindicated with perforation of the tympanic membrane because the solution entering the inner ear may cause dizziness, nausea, vomiting, and infection.

A nurse would question an order to irrigate the ear canal in which of the following circumstances? A Ear pain B Hearing loss C Otitis externa D Perforated tympanic membrane

Answer: a. It is shorter, wider, and more horizontal than an older child's Eustachian tube

A parent asks the nurse why her children get fewer ear infections as they grow older. The nurse bases on her answer on which aspects of the infant's Eustachian tube? a. It is shorter, wider, and more horizontal than an older child's Eustachian tube. b. It is shorter, wider, and more diagonal than an older child's Eustachian tube. c. It is shorter, narrower, and more diagonal than an older child's Eustachian tube. d. It is shorter, narrower, and more horizontal than an older child's Eustachian tube.

Answer: a. "Is the infant wheezing?", c. "What makes you think that your baby might need to be seen in the clinic?", e. "What is the infant's temperature?" Feedback: Nasal drainage, cough, and waking during the night often occur with infant colds. These yes/no questions provide little valuable information to determine whether the cold has taken on a more serious appearance that necessitates a clinic visit. Open-ended questions, or specific questions about indicators of increased severity, provide the data to make the decision.

A parent calls the clinic to determine if a 6-month-old infant needs to be seen by a healthcare provider for cold-like symptoms. Which questions yield answers that will provide the nurse with the information needed to respond to the parent? (Select all that apply.) a. "Is the infant wheezing?" b. "Does the infant have nasal drainage?" c. "What makes you think that your baby might need to be seen in the clinic?" d. "Does the infant cough?" e. "What is the infant's temperature?"

A. Use cool, wet dressings and baths to promote vasoconstrictionRationale: Wet dressings and using Burow's solution help promote the healing process. Cold compresses may be applied to decrease circulation to the area (vasoconstriction). Short nails prevent skin damage, but not pruritus.

A patient developed a severe contact dermatitis of the hands, arms, and lower legs after spending an afternoon picking strawberries. The patient states that the itching is severe and cannot keep from scratching. Which instruction would be most helpful in managing the pruritus? A. Use cool, wet dressings and baths to promote vasoconstriction B. Trim the fingernails short to prevent skin damage from scratching C. Expose the areas to the sun to promote drying and healing of the lesions D. Wear cotton gloves and cover all other affected areas with clothing to prevent environmental irritation

D. To cause fluorescence of the infected hairsRationale: Tinea capitis is commonly known as ringworm of the scalp. Microsporum audouinii is the major fungal pathogen. The use of the diagnostic Woods lamp causes the infected hairs to turn a brilliant blue green

A school nurse assesses a child who has an erythematous circular patch of vesicles on her scalp with alopecia and complains of pain and pruritis. Why would the nurse use a Woods lamp? A. To dry out the lesions B. To reduce the pruritus C. To kill the fungus D. To cause fluorescence of the infected hairs

C Hemangioma

A tangled group of blood vessels that are typically reduced by age 5 are called A Capillary epidemiosis B Tinea Pedis C Hemangioma D Birthmark

4 Apply a thin layer of cream and rub it into the area thoroughly.Atopic dermatitis is a superficial inflammatory process involving primarily the epidermis. A topical corticosteroid may be prescribed and should be applied sparingly (thin layer) and rubbed into the area thoroughly. The affected area should be cleaned gently before application. A topical corticosteroid should not be applied over extensive areas. Systemic absorption is more likely to occur with extensive application.

A topical corticosteroid is prescribed by a health care provider for a child with atopic dermatitis (eczema). Which instruction should the nurse give the parent about applying the cream? 1.Apply the cream over the entire body. 2.Apply a thick layer of cream to affected areas only. 3.Avoid cleansing the area before application of the cream. 4.Apply a thin layer of cream and rub it into the area thoroughly.

Option D: The client is taught to report changes in wound healing such as blister formation, signs of infection, and opening of a previously healed area. Sterile dressings are applied until the wound is assessed and a plan of care developed.

A young adult is being treated for second and third-degree burns over 25% of his body and is now ready for discharge. The nurse evaluates his understanding of discharge instructions relating to wound care and is satisfied that he is prepared for home care when he makes which statement? A. "I will need to take sponge baths at home to avoid exposing the wounds to unsterile bath water." B. "I can expect occasional periods of low-grade fever and can take Tylenol every 4 hours." C. "I must wear my Jobst elastic garment all day and can only remove it when I'm going to bed." D. If any healed areas break open I should first cover them with a sterile dressing and then report it."

D Atropine, an anticholinergic drug, has mydriatic effects causing pupil dilation. This allows more light onto the retina and may cause photophobia and blurred vision. Atropine doesn't paralyze the blink reflex or cause miosis (pupil constriction). Driving may be contraindicated to blurred vision.

After the nurse instills atropine drops into both eyes for a client undergoing ophthalmic examination, which of the following instructions would be given to the client? A "Be careful because the blink reflex is paralyzed." B "Avoid wearing your regular glasses when driving." C "Be aware that the pupils may be unusually small." D "Wear dark glasses in bright light because the pupils are dilated."

B Fever above 100 - Fever of 104 is common, but fever of 100 could indicate any number of illnesses, not just Otitis media

All of the following are symptoms of Otitis Media except A Postauricular and cervical lymph node enlargement B Fever above 100 C Pulling at the ears D Crying while trying to suck

B Side-lying position is most effective to facilitate drainage of secretions from the mouth and pharynx; reduces possibility of airway obstruction. Sims' position is on side with top knee flexed and thigh drawn up to chest and lower knee less sharply flexed: used for vaginal or rectal examination. Supine position increases risk for aspiration, would not facilitate drainage of oral secretions. Prone position can develop airway obstruction and aspiration, unable to observe the child for signs of bleeding such as increased swallowing

An 8-year-old boy is returned to his room following a tonsillectomy. He remains sleepy from the anesthesia but is easily awakened. The nurse should place the child in which of the following positions? A Sims' B Side-lying C Supine D Prone

B Bradypnea

An 8-year-old, African immigrant is admitted to the pediatric unit with elevated viral titers for the poliovirus. For which of the following signs/symptoms should the nurse carefully monitor the child? A Petechial rash B Bradypnea C Tinnitus D Flank pain

C After birth, the infant of a diabetic mother is often hypoglycemic

An 8.5 lb, 6 oz infant is delivered to a diabetic mother. Which nursing intervention would be implemented when the neonate becomes jittery and lethargic? A Administer insulin B Administer oxygen C Feed the infant glucose water (10%) D Place infant in a warmer

D Reinforce the need to pad the side rails and headboard of the child's hospital bed

An immunized child with a serious puncture wound has been diagnosed with tetanus. Which of the following actions is critical for the unit charge nurse to perform? A Check that the child is maintained on contact isolation. B Order a hypothermia mattress and prescribed antiviral medications for the child. C Assign only fully immunized nurses to care for the child. D Reinforce the need to pad the side rails and headboard of the child's hospital bed.

Answer: a. Administer acetaminophen to relieve discomfort. Feedback: A flat position could exacerbate the discomfort. Elevating the affected ear slightly is recommended. An infant with a bulging tympanic membrane because of acute otitis media will have pain. Parents are taught to administer acetaminophen to relieve the discomfort associated with acute otitis media. Decongestants are not recommended for treatment of acute otitis media. Placing infants to sleep with a pacifier can increase the incidence of otitis media.

An infant has acute otitis media. Which would be the most important instruction for the nurse to teach the parents? a. Administer acetaminophen to relieve discomfort. b. Keep the baby in a flat position during sleep. c. Administer a decongestant. d. Place the baby to sleep with a pacifier.

C. pull the pinna up and back to straighten the auditory canal

Before inserting an otoscope in an adult client, which of the following maneuvers should the examiner perform A. irrigate the ear canal to make sure the tympanic membrane is visible B. have the client blow his or her nose to make sure pressure is equalized between the external ear and the middle ear. C. pull the pinna up and back to straighten the auditory canal D. tilt the client's head toward the side being examined

D Plugged feeling in the ear and reverberation of the client's own voice

Chad, a 5-year-old preschooler, is brought to the clinic due to an ear problem. Which assessment data would cause the nurse to suspect serous otitis media? A Bright red, bulging or retracted tympanic membrane and fever. B Inflammation of the external ear and crust formation on the auditory canal C Sensorineural hearing loss and complaints of tinnitus D Plugged feeling in the ear and reverberation of the client's own voice.

D Serous otitis media is manifested by a plugged feeling in the ear, reverberation of the client's own voice, and hearing loss. A bright red, bulging or retracted tympanic membrane and fever suggest suppurative otitis media. Inflammation of the external ear and crust formation on the auditory canal suggest external otitis media. Sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus indicate otosclerosis

Chad, a 5-year-old preschooler, is brought to the clinic due to an ear problem. Which assessment data would cause the nurse to suspect serous otitis media? A Bright red, bulging or retracted tympanic membrane and fever. B Inflammation of the external ear and crust formation on the auditory canal C Sensorineural hearing loss and complaints of tinnitus D Plugged feeling in the ear and reverberation of the client's own voice.

Option A: By 12 months, 50 percent of children can walk well.

Cherry, the mother of an 11-month-old girl, Elizabeth, is in the clinic for her daughter's immunizations. She expresses concern to the nurse that Elizabeth cannot yet walk. The nurse correctly replies that, according to the Denver Developmental Screen, the median age for walking is: · A. 12 months. · B. 15 months. · C. 10 months. · D. 14 months.

F B and C - though a young child may point to communicate, it should be minimal with the majority of their communication being vocal

Clues for normal hearing in a young child are A Points to communicate B Plays with others C Answers the phone D None of the above E A and B F B and C

B the external auditory canal or tympanic membrane prevent sound from reaching the middle ear Option A is sensorineural hearing loss

Conductive hearing loss means A hair cells in the cochlea or along the auditory nerve are damaged B the external auditory canal or tympanic membrane prevent sound from reaching the middle ear C Hearing aids will be required for life D A & B

C In the Weber tuning fork test the nurse places the vibrating tuning fork in the middle of the client's head, at the midline of the forehead, or above the upper lip over the teeth. Normally, the sound is heard in equally in both ears by bone conduction. If the client has a sensorineural hearing loss in one ear, the sound is heard in the other ear. If the client has a conductive hearing loss in one ear, the sound is heard in that ear.

During a hearing assessment, the nurse notes that the sound lateralizes to the clients left ear with the Weber test. The nurse analyzes this result as: A A normal finding B A conductive hearing loss in the right ear C A sensorineural or conductive loss D The presence of nystagmus

B When a client experiences epistaxis, the nurse should compress the soft outer portion of the nares against the septum for approximately 5 to 10 minutes. the client should sit upright, breathe through the mouth, and refrain from talking. Performing abdominal thrusts is appropriate for the client with a foreign-body aspiration. Applying an ice collar to the neck is commonly done for a client after a tonsillectomy. Warm saline throat gargles are appropriate for the client with pharyngitis.

For a client diagnosed with epistaxis, which intervention would be included in the care plan? A Performing several abdominal thrust (Heimlich) maneuvers B Compressing the nares to the septum for 5 to 10 minutes C Applying an ice collar to the neck area D Encouraging warm saline throat gargles

C Is caused by a genetic defect

For a patient with Amblyopia, all of the following are true except A Vision is structurally normal, but poor B One eye becomes stronger while one becomes weaker C Is caused by a genetic defect D Usually appears before the age of 10

Option C: Older children with pneumococcal pneumonia may complain of chest pain.

Fred is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would Nurse Nica expect to assess? · A. Mild cough · B. Slight fever · C. Chest pain · D. Bulging fontanel

A. Yes

H is a 9 month-old male who is in the pharmcy today with his father who has been asked to pick up baby food. JH exclusively received breast milk from birth to 7 months of age. Pureed table foods and fortified cereals were added to his diet after that. When his mom returned to work at 8 months, breast milk was replaced with soy-based infant formula in his diet. His dad's been coming to this pharmacy for a long time and feels comfortable asking questions. His question is as follows:If JH weighs 13kg, will 8 oz. 5 times per day of 20 kcal/oz. formula meet his caloric needs if he requires 50-75 kcal/kg/day? A. Yes B. No

A. Prebiotics are indigestible sugars which are normally found in breast milk. JH was exposed to prebiotics while breastfeeding and they can be found in most soy formulas. He doesn't necessarily need them but they aren't harmful

JH is a 9 month-old male who is in the pharmcy today with his father who has been asked to pick up baby food. JH exclusively received breast milk from birth to 7 months of age. Pureed table foods and fortified cereals were added to his diet after that. When his mom returned to work at 8 months, breast milk was replaced with soy-based infant formula in his diet. His dad's been coming to this pharmacy for a long time and feels comfortable asking questions. His question is as follows:A new brand of soy formula is advertised to contain "prebiotics." What are those, and does JH need them? A. Prebiotics are "good" bacteria that are normally found in our intestines. Supplementing preiotics can help prevent gastrointestinal infections. He doesn't necessarily need them but they aren't harmful B. Prebiotics are indigestible sugars which are normally found in breast milk. JH was exposed to prebiotics while breastfeeding and they can be found in most soy formulas. He doesn't necessarily need them but they aren't harmful C. Prebiotics are indigestible sugars which are normally found in breast milk which help prevent infections in various ways. They aren't typically found in formula and they can be harmful in children with weakened immune systems D. Prebiotics are "good" bacteria that are normally found in our intestines. Supplementing prebiotics can help prevent gastrointestinal infections. He could benefit from supplementation at his current age

A. JH should be considered "obese" since his weight is >95th percentile

JH is a 9 month-old male who is in the pharmcy today with his father who has been asked to pick up baby food. JH exclusively received breast milk from birth to 7 months of age. Pureed table foods and fortified cereals were added to his diet after that. When his mom returned to work at 8 months, breast milk was replaced with soy-based infant formula in his diet. His dad's been coming to this pharmacy for a long time and feels comfortable asking questions. His question is as follows:At his last pediatrician visit, JH was >95th percentile for weight andd between the 50th and 75th percentile for length. He was in the same ranges at his last visit at 6 months of age. Which of the following is a correct assessment of this patient? A. JH should be considered "normal" since he does not meet criteria for overweight or obesity B. JH should be considered "obese" since his weight is >95th percentile C. JH should be considered "overweight" since he >95th percentile D. JH cannot be assessed without the calculation of his BMI

Option C: A recent episode of pharyngitis is the most important factor in establishing the diagnosis of rheumatic fever.

Molly, with suspected rheumatic fever, is admitted to the pediatric unit. When obtaining the child's history, the nurse considers which information to be most important? · A. A fever that started 3 days ago · B. Lack of interest in food · C. A recent episode of pharyngitis · D. Vomiting for 2 days

Option C: If the child is hungry he/she more likely would finish his meals. Therefore, the mother should be advised not to give snacks to the child. The child is a "busy toddler." He/she will not be able to keep still for a long time.

Mrs. Byers tells the nurse that she is very worried because her 2-year old child does not finish his meals. What should the nurse advise the mother? · A. Make the child seat with the family in the dining room until he finishes his meal · B. Provide quiet environment for the child before meals · C. Do not give snacks to the child before meals · D. Put the child on a chair and feed him

Option A: Instrumentation and spinal fusion cause considerable pain. Therefore, the adolescent needs vigorous pain management, which involves assessment, administration of pain medication, and evaluation of the response. In the immediate postoperative period, the child is conscious of sensation and surroundings.

Nurse Cheryl is assessing Fred, a 14-year-old boy who had scoliosis; besides checking neurologic status directly after Harrington rod instrumentation and spinal fusion, she should be regarded with which of the following factors? · A. Comfort level · B. Dietary tolerance · C. Physical therapy needs · D. Understanding of the procedure

B The actual cause of acne is unknown. Oily skin or the consumption of foods such as chocolate. nuts. or fatty foods are not causes of acne. Exacerbations that coincide with the menstrual cycle result from hormonal activity. Heat. humidity. and excessive perspiration may play a role in exacerbating acne but does not cause it

Nurse Imee is implementing a teaching plan to a group of adolescents regarding the causes of acne. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing statement regarding the cause of this disorder? o A. "Acne is caused by oily skin" o B. "The actual cause is not known" o C. "Acne is caused by eating chocolate" o D. "Acne is caused as a result of exposure to heat and humidity"

Option C: The nurse should obtain objective information about the child's nutritional intake, such as by asking about what the child ate for a specific meal.

Nurse Sunshine suspects that a child, age 4, is being neglected physically. To best assess the child's nutritional status, the nurse should ask the parents which question? · A. "Has your child always been so thin?" · B. "Is your child a picky eater?" · C. "What did your child eat for breakfast?" · D. "Do you think your child eats enough?"

C It cycles through periods of flares and remissions

One detail about atopic dermatitis is: A It affects the face more than the rest of the body B It can leave pockmarks on the skin C It cycles through periods of flares and remissions D It is worse in autumn

4. Apply the lotion to cool, dry skin at least 30 minutes after bathing. Permethrin is massaged thoroughly and gently into all skin surfaces (not just the areas that have the rash) from the head to the soles of the feet. Care should be taken to avoid contact with the eyes. The lotion should not be applied until at least 30 minutes after bathing and should be applied only to cool, dry skin. The lotion should be kept on for 8 to 14 hours, and then the child should be given a bath. The child should be clothed during the 8 to 14 hours of treatment contact time.

Permethrin (Elimite) is prescribed for a child with a diagnosis of scabies. The nurse should give which instruction to the parents regarding the use of this treatment? 1.Apply the lotion to areas of the rash only. 2.Apply the lotion and leave it on for 6 hours. 3.Avoid putting clothes on the child over the lotion. 4.Apply the lotion to cool, dry skin at least 30 minutes after bathing.

C The middle ear contains the three ossicles—malleus, incus, and stapes—which, along with the tympanic membrane and oval window, form an amplifying system.

Physiologically, the middle ear, containing the three ossicles, serves primarily to: A Maintain balance B Translate sound waves into nerve impulses C Amplify the energy of sound waves entering the ear D Communicate with the throat via the Eustachian tube

C After nasal surgery, drainage tricking down the posterior pharynx (seen with a flashlight) accompanied by frequent swallowing, belching, or hematemesis indicate continued bleeding. Anxiety is common because of the necessity to breathe through the mouth. Discoloration around the eyes occurs with surgical trauma and is to be expected. Tarry stools indicate previous, but not current bleeding

Professor Mcgonagall had undergone nasal surgery with posterior packing in place, which assessment data would alert the nurse to the possibility of active bleeding? A Appearance of anxiety B Discoloration around the eyes C Frequent swallowing D Black, tarry stool

B Immature vasculature of the eyes

Retinopathy of Prematurity is a term for which of the below? A Anisometropia B Immature vasculature of the eyes C Inclusion of the eyes D In Utero vasculitis

C. Her findings are abnormal and require further evaluation

SJ is a 22 month-old child who will be starting daycare in a few months. Her height and weight are obtained as part of her intake examination and her measurements are plotted on the pediatric growth charts. She is found to be below the 2nd percentiles for height/stature and between the 5th and 10th percentiles for weight. What do these findings most likely indicate? A. She is overweight B. She has fallen off of her previous growth curve C. Her findings are abnormal and require further evaluation D. She can't be assessed without calculating and plotting her BMI

The answers are: B and E. These are the two types of bacteria that tend to cause impetigo....staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pyogenes

Select all the most common infectious agents that cause impetigo: A. Sacroptes scabiei B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Haemophilus influenzae E. Streptococcus pyogenes F. Listeria monocytogenes

A Ignores request to clean their room - Typically poor school performance, speaking very loud and asking for things to be repeated are signs of hearing loss

Signs of hearing loss in older children include A Ignores request to clean their room B Does average in school C Speaks minimally when in a group D Speaks at an average volume

Option D: Meningitis is an infection of the meninges, the outer membrane of the brain. Since it is surrounded by cerebrospinal fluid, a lumbar puncture will help to identify the organism involved.

The adolescent patient has symptoms of meningitis: nuchal rigidity, fever, vomiting, and lethargy. The nurse knows to prepare for the following test: · A. blood culture. · B. throat and ear culture. · C. CAT scan. D. lumbar puncture

C If the laceration is the result of a penetrating injury, an object may be noted protruding from the eye. This object must never be removed except by the ophthalmologist because it may be holding ocular structures in place. Application of an eye patch or irrigation of the eye may disrupt the foreign body and cause further tearing of the sclera. (The only option that will prevent further disruption is to assess visual acuity

The client arrives in the emergency room with a penetrating eye injury from wood chips while cutting wood. The nurse assesses the eye and notes a piece of wood protruding from the eye, what is the initial nursing action? A Remove the piece of wood using a sterile eye clamp B Apply an eye patch C Perform visual acuity tests D Irrigate the eye with sterile saline

· Option C: Deep partial-thickness burns are pink or red in color, swollen, painful, with blisters that may ooze a clear fluid.

The client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears pink, has blisters, and is very painful. How will the nurse categorize this injury? A. Full-thickness B. Partial-thickness superficial C. Partial-thickness deep D. Full-thickness deep

C Treatment for contusion begins at the time of injury. Ice is applied immediately. The client then should be seen by a physician and receive a thorough eye examination to rule out the presence of other eye injuries.

The client sustains a contusion of the eyeball following a traumatic injury with a blunt object. Which intervention is initiated immediately? A Notify the physician B Irrigate the eye with cold water C Apply ice to the affected eye D Accompany the client to the emergency room

Option C: Inhalation injuries are present in 7% of clients admitted to burn centers. Drooling and difficulty swallowing can mean that the client is about to lose his airway because of this injury. The absence of breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi indicates impending airway obstruction and demands immediate intubation.

The client who is burned is drooling and having difficulty swallowing. Which action will the nurse take first? A. Assesses level of consciousness and pupillary reactions B. Ascertains the time food or liquid was last consumed C. Auscultates breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi D. Measures abdominal girth and auscultates bowel sounds

D Psoriatic patches are covered with silvery-white scales. Affected areas include the scalp, elbows, knees, shins, trunk, and sacral area

The clinic nurse is assessing the skin of a white client who is diagnosed with psoriasis. Which of the following characteristic is associated with this skin disorder? A Clear, thin nail beds B Red-purplish scaly lesions C Oily skin and no episodes of pruritus D Silvery-white scaly patches on the scalp, elbow, knees, and sacral regions

B Visual acuity is assessed in one eye at a time, and then in both eyes together with the client comfortably standing or sitting. The right eye is tested with the left eye covered; then the left eye is tested with the right eye covered. Both eyes then are tested together. Visual acuity is measured with or without corrective lenses and the client stands at a distance of 20ft. from the chart.

The clinic nurse is preparing to test the visual acuity of a client using a Snellen chart. Which of the following identifies the accurate procedure for this visual acuity test? A Both eyes are assessed together, followed by the assessment of the right and then the left eye. B The right eye is tested followed by the left eye, and then both eyes are tested. C The client is asked to stand at a distance of 40ft. from the chart and is asked to read the largest line on the chart. D The client is asked to stand at a distance of 40ft from the chart and to read the line than can be read 200 ft away by an individual with unimpaired vision.

1. The child is 18 months oldLindane is a pediculicide product that may be prescribed to treat scabies. It is contraindicated for children younger than 2 years because they have more permeable skin, and high systemic absorption may occur, placing the children at risk for central nervous system toxicity and seizures. Lindane also is used with caution in children between the ages of 2 and 10 years. Siblings and other household members should be treated simultaneously

The clinic nurse is reviewing the health care provider's prescription for a child who has been diagnosed with scabies. Lindane has been prescribed for the child. The nurse questions the prescription if which is noted in the child's record? 1.The child is 18 months old. 2.The child is being bottle-fed. 3.A sibling is using lindane for the treatment of scabies. 4.The child has a history of frequent respiratory infections.

C The bones in the middle ear transmit and amplify air pressure waves from the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the cochlea, which is the inner ear. The tympanic membrane separates the other from the middle ear.

The ear bones that transmit vibrations to the oval window of the cochlea are found in the: A Inner ear B Outer ear C Middle ear D Eustachian tube

B Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child's normal growth pattern

The family of a 6-year-old with a fractured femur asks the nurse if the child's height will be affected by the injury. Which statement is true concerning long bone fractures in children? A Growth problems will occur if the fracture involves the periosteum B Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child's normal growth pattern C Children usually heal very quickly, so growth problems are rare D Adequate blood supply to the bone prevents growth delay after fractures

Option D: Intact skin is a major barrier to infection and other disruptions in homeostasis. No matter how much time has passed since the burn injury, the client remains at high risk for infection as long as any area of skin is open.

The family of a client who has been burned asks at what point the client will no longer be at greater risk for infection. What is the nurse's best response? A. "As soon as he finishes his antibiotic prescription." B. "As soon as his albumin level returns to normal." C. When fluid remobilization has started." D. "When the burn wounds are closed."

B General wound care is appropriate initially. This includes washing the bite area with lots of water because infections occur frequently with animal bites, especially those on the arms or hands. Next, the mother should be advised to determine the extent of the injury and then to follow-up with the child's physician if needed. A trip to the local care center would be warranted if the bite injury was extensive or there was severe bleeding. Although knowledge of when the child last had a tetanus vaccination is important, the child's wound takes priority. For rabies injections, there needs to be a history of rabies or unusual behavior in the pet.

The mother of 2-year-old who has been bitten by the family dog asks the nurse what to do about the bite. What should the nurse tell the mother?* A You need to take the child to the local urgent care center immediately." B "Wash the bite area with lots of running water, and then check the injury." C "Determine when the child's latest tetanus vaccine was administered." D "Make an appointment to see the child's physician now to start rabies shots."

1. Fine grayish red linesScabies is a parasitic skin disorder caused by an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei (itch mite). Scabies appears as burrows or fine, grayish red, threadlike lines. They may be difficult to see if they are obscured by excoriation and inflammation. Purple-colored lesions may indicate various disorders, including systemic conditions. Thick, honey-colored crusts are characteristic of impetigo or secondary infection in eczema. Clusters of fluid-filled vesicles are seen in herpesvirus infection

The mother of a 3-year-old child arrives at a clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been scratching the skin continuously and has developed a rash. The nurse assesses the child and suspects the presence of scabies. The nurse bases this suspicion on which finding noted on assessment of the child's skin? 1.Fine grayish red lines 2.Purple-colored lesions 3.Thick, honey-colored crusts 4.Clusters of fluid-filled vesicles

2. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury 3. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. 6. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiency because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults.Pediatric considerations in the care of a burn victim include the following: Scarring is more severe in a child than in an adult. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. The higher proportion of body fluid to mass in a child increases the risk of cardiovascular problems. Burns involving more than 10% of total body surface area require some form of fluid resuscitation. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiencies because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults

The nurse caring for a child who sustained a burn injury plans care based on which pediatric considerations associated with this injury? Select all that apply. 1. Scarring is less severe in a child than in an adult. 2. A delay in growth may occur after a burn injury. 3. An immature immune system presents an increased risk of infection for infants and young children. 4. The lower proportion of body fluid to mass in a child increases the risk of cardiovascular problems. 5. Fluid resuscitation is unnecessary unless the burned area is more than 25% of the total body surface area. 6. Infants and young children are at increased risk for protein and calorie deficiency because they have smaller muscle mass and less body fat than adults.

C See clearly out of one eye

The nurse in a preschool is assessing the vision and hearing of the 3- and 4-year-old children. Which of the following findings would indicate that a child may have amblyopia? The child is unable to: A hear sounds at high frequency levels. B hear music played at low decibel levels. C see clearly out of one eye. D see objects at far distances.

Option B: Persons with exudative lesions or weeping dermatitis should not give direct client care or handle client-care equipment until the condition resolves. Strict isolation requires the use of a mask, gown, and gloves.

The nurse in charge is evaluating the infection control procedures on the unit. Which finding indicates a break in technique and the need for education of staff? A. The nurse puts on a mask, a gown, and gloves before entering the room of a client in strict isolation. B. A nurse with open, weeping lesions of the hands puts on gloves before giving direct client care. C. The nurse aide is not wearing gloves when feeding an elderly client. D. client with active tuberculosis is asked to wear a mask when he leaves his room to go to another department for testing.

D Instill diluted alcohol in the affected ear

The nurse is admitting a client in the emergency room with a foreign body in the ear identified as an insect. Which of the following interventions is a priority for the nurse to perform? A Irrigate the affected ear B Instil a cortisone ointment into the affected ear C Instill an antibiotic ointment into the affected ear D Instill diluted alcohol in the affected ear

Option C: Over 90% percent of babies can sit unsupported by nine months. Most babies cannot say "mama" in the sense that it refers to their mother at this time

The nurse is assessing a 9-month-old boy for a well-baby check-up. Which of the following observations would be of most concern? · A. The baby cannot say "mama" when he wants his mother. · B. The mother has not given him finger foods. · C. The child does not sit unsupported. D. The baby cries whenever the mother goes out

C tympanometry

The nurse is assisting with the diagnostic test to determine the extent of effusion of the middle ear. What is the name of this test? A culture of the ear B tympanic fluid culture C tympanometry Dtympanotomy

Answer: a. Ineffective Airway Clearance related to impaired swallowing and bleeding. Feedback: Priorities reflect airway, breathing, and circulation. Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern related to obstruction by enlarged tonsils refers to pre-tonsillectomy breathing. Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to inadequate intake is a priority, but airway takes precedence. The same is true for pain

The nurse is caring for a child following a tonsillectomy. Which nursing diagnosis is the greatest priority for this child?a. Ineffective Airway Clearance related to impaired swallowing and bleeding.b. Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern related to obstruction by enlarged tonsils.c. Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to inadequate intake.d. Acute Pain related to inflammation of the pharynx

D Wrap the child's hand in mittens or socks to prevent scratching

The nurse is caring for a toddler with atopic dermatitis. The nurse should instruct the parents to? A Dress the child warmly to avoid chilling B Clean the affected areas with tepid water and detergent C Keep the child away from other children for the duration of the rash D Wrap the child's hand in mittens or socks to prevent scratching

2. Neurological assessment Sensorium is an accurate guide to determine the adequacy of fluid resuscitation. The burn injury itself does not affect the sensorium, so the child should be alert and oriented. Any alteration in sensorium should be evaluated further. A neurological assessment would determine the level of sensorium in the child. Options 1, 3, and 4 would not provide an accurate assessment of the adequacy of fluid resuscitation

The nurse is monitoring a child with burns during treatment for burn shock. The nurse understands that which assessment provides the most accurate guide to determine the adequacy of fluid resuscitation?1.Skin turgor 2.Neurological assessment 3.Level of edema at burn site 4.Quality of peripheral pulses

B Discrete rose pink macules will appear first on the trunk and fade when pressure is applied

The nurse is performing a physical assessment on an infant with roseola. Which of the following characteristics of the skin lesions would the nurse expect to find? A Macule that rapidly progresses to papule and then vesicles B Discrete rose pink macules will appear first on the trunk and fade when pressure is applied C Koplick spots appear first followed by a rash that appears first on the face and spreads downward D Erythema on the face, primarily on cheeks giving a "slapped face" appearance

B The examiner stands 1-2 feet away from the client and asks the client to block one external ear canal. The nurse whispers a statement and asks the client to repeat it. Each ear is tested separately.

The nurse is performing a voice test to assess hearing. Which of the following describes the accurate procedure for performing this test? A Stand 4 feet away from the client to ensure that the client can hear at this distance. B Whisper a statement and ask the client to repeat it. C Whisper a statement with the examiners back facing the client. D Whisper a statement while the client blocks both ears

Option B: Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) contains a trace amount of streptomycin, neomycin, and polymyxin.

The nurse is reviewing the child's record who is scheduled to receive inactivated polio vaccine (IPV). Which of the following would prompt the nurse to withhold the administration? · A. History of upper respiratory infections. · B. History of an anaphylactic reaction to streptomycin. · C. History of recent diarrheal episodes. D. History of redness at the previous injection site.

D Prolonged exposure to the sun. unusual cold. or other conditions can damage the skin. The outdoor construction worker would fit into a high-risk category for the development of an integumentary disorder. An adolescent may be prone to the development of acne. but this does not occur in all adolescents. Immobility and lack of nutrition would increase the older person's risk but the older client is not at as high a risk as the outdoor construction worker. The physical education teacher is at low or no risk of developing an integumentary problem.

The nurse is reviewing the healthcare record of a male clients scheduled to be seen at the health care clinic. The nurse determines that which of the following individuals is at the greatest risk for development of an integumentary disorder? A An adolescent B An older female C A physical education teacher D An outdoor construction worker

A Formula or breast milk are the perfect food and source of nutrients and liquids up to 1 year of age.

The nurse is teaching the parents of a 3 month-old infant about nutrition. What is the main source of fluids for an infant until about 12 months of age? A Formula or breastmilk B Dilute nonfat dry milk C Warmed fruit juice D Fluoridated tap water

B Cellulitis is a skin infection into deeper dermal and subcutaneous tissues that results in a deep red erythema without sharp borders and spreads widely throughout tissue spaces. Warm compresses may be used to decrease the discomfort, erythema, and edema. After tissue and blood cultures are obtained, antibiotics will be initiated. The nurse should provide supportive care as prescribed to manage symptoms such as fatigue, fever, chills, headache, and myalgia. Heat lamps can cause more disruption to already inflamed tissue. Cold compresses and alternating cold and hot compresses are not the best measures.

The nurse prepares to care for a male client with acute cellulites of the lower leg. The nurse anticipates that which of the following will be prescribed for the client? A Cold compress to the affected area B Warm compress to the affected area C Intermittent heat lamp treatments four times daily D Alternating hot and cold compresses continuously

C Diaper rash

The nurse should assess for what related condition in a 4-month-old infant who has oral candidiasis? A Herpes simplex infection B Aphthous ulcers C Diaper rash D Eczema

Option D: Minor burns are common occurrences. The use of space heaters can cause a fire if clothing, bedding, and other flammable objects are near them.

The nurse should teach the community that a minor burn injury could be caused by what common occurrence? A. Chimney sweeping every year B. Cooking with a microwave oven C. Use of sunscreen agents D. Use of space heaters

C tonsillar pillars

The oropharynx is separated from the mouth by which of the following? A. Frenulum B. posterior pharyngeal wall C. tonsillar pillars D. dorsum of the tongue

A. reflection of light off the inner retina

The red light reflex is caused by the A. refraction of light off the conjunctiva B. reflection of light off the inner retina C. reflection of light off the choroids layer D. condenstaion of light as it passes through the aqueous humor

A. hard and soft palates

The roof of the mouth is divided into 2 parts known as the: A. hard and soft palates B. anterior and posterior palates C. frontal and ethmoid arches D. superior lingual and uvular arches

1. Lesions most often are located on the arms and chest."Impetigo is a contagious bacterial infection of the skin caused by b-hemolytic streptococci or staphylococci, or both. Impetigo is most common during hot, humid summer months. Impetigo may begin in an area of broken skin, such as an insect bite or atopic dermatitis. Impetigo is extremely contagious. Lesions usually are located around the mouth and nose, but may be present on the hands and extremities.

The school nurse has provided an instructional session about impetigo to parents of the children attending the school. Which statement, if made by a parent, indicates a need for further instruction? 1."It is extremely contagious." 2."It is most common in humid weather." 3."Lesions most often are located on the arms and chest." 4."It might show up in an area of broken skin, such as an insect bite."

Answer: a. Instructing the parents to take the child to an ophthalmologist. Feedback: Glass can cause injury to the cornea. Any attempt to manipulate the eye or remove the glass can cause further injury to the cornea. Additional history is important, but the priority is to have the child examined and treated by an ophthalmologist. The nurse should not question the child about the parent's responsibility to care for the child. A suspicion of neglect or abuse needs to be reported to the designated authority. That is not the priority at this time. A visual pain scale is not appropriate for a person who is visually impaired

The school nurse is assessing a 10-year-old with a very inflamed and closed eye who complains of severe pain of 5 days' duration. The child states that it is probably a bit of glass from breaking an old Christmas tree ornament. What is the priority action by the nurse? a. Instructing the parents to take the child to an ophthalmologist. b. Flushing the eye with normal saline. c. Looking into the eye with magnification. d. Asking why the parents did not care for the injury.

4 White sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital areaPediculosis capitis is an infestation of the hair and scalp with lice. The nits are visible and attached firmly to the hair shaft near the scalp. The occiput is an area in which nits can be seen. Maculopapular lesions behind the ears or lesions that extend to the hairline or neck are indicative of an infectious process, not pediculosis. White flaky particles are indicative of dandruff

The school nurse is conducting pediculosis capitis (head lice) assessments. Which finding indicates a child has a "positive" head check? 1.Maculopapular lesions behind the ears 2.Lesions in the scalp that extend to the hairline or neck 3.White flaky particles throughout the entire scalp region 4.White sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital area

C. Wavy threadlike lines on the body and pruritusRationale: Scabies is manifested by brown threadlike lines on the body, especially the hands, anus, and body folds. Pruritus is severe

The school nurse recognizes the signs of scabies when a child presents with: A. Small fluid filled blisters that sting when scratched B. Dry scaly patches in body creases that itch C. Wavy threadlike lines on the body and pruritus D. Cluster of papular lesions with pruritus

A Sudoriferous (sweat), ceruminous, and sebaceous (oil)

The three major glands of the skin are ________, ________, and ________. A Sudoriferous, ceruminous, and sebaceous B Subcutaneous, cerebrium, sudoriferous C Cermunious, Sudoriferous, subdermal D Sebaceous, ceruminous, occipital

C. Fungal skin infections Rationale: T. capitis, M. audouinii, T. corporis, and T. pedis are all examples of fungal skin infections. These dermatophytoses are superficial infections. These are not bacterial in origin. An example of a bacterial skin infection is cellulitis. These are not viral in nature. An example of a viral skin infection is herpes zoster. Not all of these fungal infections are commonly acquired at health clubs. T. pedis, or athlete's foot, can be found between the toes of a person whose feet perspire heavily; it also can be spread from contaminated public bathroom facilities and swimming pools

Tinea capitis, Microsporum audouinii, Tinea corporis, and Tinea pedis are examples of: A. Bacterial skin infections B. Viral skin infections C. Fungal skin infections D. Infections commonly acquired in health clubs

A. air/bone conduction

Tuning fork hearing tests measure hearing by which of the following mechanisms? A. air/bone conduction B. bone/vestibular conduction C. air/water conduction D. bone/water conduction

Option C: Vitamin K is given as a prophylaxis for hemorrhagic disease. It is administered intramuscular (IM) in the vastus lateralis muscle. The vastus lateralis muscle lies lateral to the midline of the thigh and wraps about 1/4 the distance around the thigh.

Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the medication in which muscle site? A. Deltoid B. Triceps C. Vastus lateralis D. Biceps

B It is thinner

What characteristic of children's skin (compared to adults) makes them more susceptible to bacterial invasions and infection? A It is newer B It is thinner C It is less porous D All of the above

D Cranial nerves 9 and 10 are the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The gag reflex would be evaluated.

What equipment would be necessary to complete an evaluation of cranial nerves 9 and 10 during a physical assessment? A A cotton ball B A penlight C An ophthalmoscope D A tongue depressor and flashlight

D A birthmark caused by a capillary malformation in utero

What is a port wine stain? A A birth mark a child gets because the mother drank while pregnant B A permanent birthmark caused by the improper severing of the umbilical chord C A birthmark that is inherited D A birthmark caused by a capillary malformation in utero

A Pressure on the outside of the ear, or tragus, is a key sign of Otitis Externa. Fever up to 104 and pain while swallowing are symptoms of Otitis Media

What is a symptom of Otitis Externa? A Pressure on the tragus is painful B Periods of lethargy and decreased appetite C Fever up to 104 D Pain while swallowing

A When the cornea or lens curvature is uneven so light rays are refracted unevenly

What is astigmatism? A When the cornea or lens curvature is uneven so light rays are refracted unevenly B When light enters the globe and focusses on the front of the retina C When light enters the globe andfocuses on the back of the retina D When the eye is abnormally shaped due to a birth defect

D Ointment and drops are only needed if a secondary infection sets in

What is not true of nasolacrimal duct massage? A Can require a probe by a Dr to relieve the obstruction B It can be concerning to parents C It usually goes away on it's own D Always requires the use of a bacterial eye ointment or drops

D All of the above. In addition, hot/cool compresses, Antix drops as well as education on feeding practices and home environment contributors (smoking)

What is the best treatment for Otitis Media? A Alternating tylenol and ibuprofen to ease pain and allow the viral infection to run its course B Pressure equalizing tubes C Numbing ear drops D All of the above

D An edematous eustachian tube that blocks airflow to the middle ear allows fluid to pool. It may occur as part of another infection and is sometimes associated with diarrhea, vomiting and fever

What is the cause of otitis media? A blocked eustachian tube B a sinus infection C None of the above D A & B

A FolliculitisRationale: Folliculitis is an infection of a hair follicle, usually from Staphylococcus aureus bacteria. The infection may involve one or several follicles. It often occurs after shaving. A furuncle, also known as a boil, is an inflammation that begins deep in the hair follicles and spreads to the surrounding skin, and is often located in the posterior area of the neck, the forearm, buttocks, and the axillae. A carbuncle is a cluster of furuncles. It is an infection of several hair follicles that spreads to surrounding tissue. A felon occurs when the soft tissue under and around an area, such as the fingernail, becomes infected. The involved finger becomes erythematous, edematous, and tender.

What is the term for an infection of a hair follicle? A. Folliculitis B. A furuncle C. A carbuncle D. A felon

D. Abdomen Rationale: Tinea corporis is known as ringworm of the body. It occurs on parts of the body with little or no hair.

What should the nurse examine in assessing a patient for tinea corporis? A. Soles of the feet B. Scalp C. Armpits D. Abdomen

C. Use dependable birth control to avoid pregnancyRationale: Accutane has a destructive effect on fetal development. Dependable birth control is important to avoid a pregnancy

What would the nurse stress to the 17-year-old girl who has been prescribed Accutane for her acne? A. Avoid alcoholic beverages B. Drink at least 1000mL of fluid daily C. Use dependable birth control to avoid pregnancy D. Avoid exposure to the sun

A The nurse should anticipate that the infant may have fetal alcohol syndrome and should assess for signs and symptoms of it. These include the characteristics listed in choice A.

When assessing a newborn whose mother consumed alcohol during the pregnancy, the nurse would assess for which of these clinical manifestations? A wide-spaced eyes, smooth philtrum, flattened nose B strong tongue thrust, short palpebral fissures, simian crease C negative Babinski sign, hyperreflexia, deafness D shortened limbs, increased jitteriness, constant sucking

B Impetigo is a contagious, superficial skin infection caused by beta-hemolytic streptococci. If the condition is severe, the physician typically prescribes systemic antibiotics for 7 to 10 days to prevent glomerulonephritis, a dangerous complication. The client's nails should be kept trimmed to avoid scratching; however, mitts aren't necessary. Topical antibiotics are less effective than systemic antibiotics in treating impetigo

When caring for a male client with severe impetigo, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care? A Placing mitts on the client's hands B Administering systemic antibiotics as prescribed C Applying topical antibiotics as prescribed D Continuing to administer antibiotics for 21 days as prescribed

C Snellen chart

When completing a measurement of the client's visual acuity, which of the following would be appropriate? A Visual field B Ophthalmoscope- C Snellen chart D Penlight

D. corner of the eye to the occiput

When examining the set of the ear, the top of the pinna should match an imaginary line drawn from the A. tip of the lateral point of the eyebrow to the occiput B. tip of the nose to the crown of the head. C. tip of the corner of the mouth to the crown of the head D. corner of the eye to the occiput

D the most successful treatments for cataract surgery on young children is a at young age

When is the best time for a child to be treated for cataracts? A In the early morning B After the age of 6 when the child will be less likely to touch the eyes C In the summer after seasonal irritants have diminished D As soon as the diagnosis is made

D Playing cooperatively with other preschoolers. Cooperative play is typical of the late preschool period

When observing 4 year-old children playing in the hospital playroom, what activity would the nurse expect to see the children participating in? A Competitive board games with older children B Playing with their own toys along side with other children C Playing alone with hand held computer games D Playing cooperatively with other preschoolers

C Cranial nerve VIII brings sound and information about one's position and movement in space into the brain

Which CN is the auditory nerve? A V B II C VIII D None of the above

A Threatening a child with abandonment will destroy the child's trust in his family.

Which action by the mother of a preschooler would indicate a disturbed family interaction? A Tells her child that if he does not sit down and shut up she will leave him there. B Explains that the injection will burn like a bee sting. C Tells her child that the injection can be given while he's in her lap. D Reassures child that it is acceptable to cry

B This is a convenient method for administering medications to an infant. Option D is partially correct however, the infant is never placed in a reclining position during a procedure due to a potential aspiration

Which nursing approach would be most appropriate to use while administering an oral medication to a 4 month old? A Place medication in 45cc of formula B Place medication in an empty nipple C Place medication in a full bottle of formula D Place in supine position. Administer medication using a plastic syringe

C Tactile stimulation is imperative for an infant's normal emotional development. After the trauma of surgery, sensory deprivation can cause failure to thrive

Which nursing intervention would be a priority during the care of a 2 month old after surgery? A Minimize stimuli for the infant B Restrain all extremities C Encourage stroking of the infant D Demonstrate to the mother how she can assist with her infant's care.

d All

Which of the following are factors for ROP? A Low BW B Sepsis C Hypothermia D All of the above

B Children have ......... Thinner epidermis than adults • Less subcutaneous fat and loose it quickly • Blood vessels that are closer to the surface • Skin that absorbs substances more quickly Darker skin tones have more pronounced cutaneous reactions. Ex keloids Sebaceous and sweat glands become fully functional as the child ages. Ex body odor and acne

Which of the following are typical of children as opposed to adult skin? A More subcutaneous fat B Blood vessels are closer to the surface C Sebaceous and sweat glands are fully functional D All of the above

C A 7 month-old who continues to breastfeed and who is now ready to add table foods

Which of the following full-term infants should be given iron supplements to prevent deficiency? A. A 2 month-old who is currently exclusively breastfeeding B. A 6 month-old who received mostly formula, and will continue to do so as table foodds are started C. A 7 month-old who continues to breastfeed and who is now ready to add table foods D. A 2 month-old who is currently receiving only formula

E A& C - tactile objects were not mentioned in the slide

Which of the following indicates a visual impairment? A Child has a dull or vacant stare B child does not "fix and follow", does not make eye contact, is unaffected by tactile objects, does not focus on facial expressions C Toddler or older child rubs, shuts or covers eyes, Squints and blinks frequently, bumps into things, tilts head forward D A & B E A&C F All of the above

A Psoriasis occurs equally among women and men, although the incidence is lower in darker skinned races and ethnic groups. A genetic predisposition has been recognized in some cases. Emotional distress, trauma, systemic illness, seasonal changes, and hormonal changes are linked to exacerbations

Which of the following individuals is least likely to be at risk of developing psoriasis? A A 10 year-old-African American B A woman experiencing menopause C A client with a family history of the disorder D An individual who has experienced a significant amount of emotional distress

Option C: Current CDC evidence-based guidelines indicate that droplet precautions for clients with meningococcal meningitis can be discontinued when the client has received antibiotic therapy for 24 hours.

Which of the following information about a client who has meningococcal meningitis has the best indicator that you can discontinue droplet precautions? A. Pupils are equal and reactive to light B. Temperature is lower than 100°F (37.8°C) C. Appropriate antibiotics have been given for 24 hours D. Cough is productive of clear, nonpurulent mucus

A When giving medications, a nurse follows the five R's of medication administration. The drops may be warmed to prevent pain or dizziness, but this action is not essential. An emesis basin would be used for irrigation of the ear. Put the client in the lateral position to prevent the drops from draining out for 5 minutes, not semi-fowlers position.

Which of the following interventions is essential when instilling Cortisporin suspension, 2 gtt right ear? A Verifying the proper client and route B Warming the solution to prevent dizziness C Holding an emesis basin under the client's ear D Positioning the client in the semi-fowlers position

D. tonsils

Which of the following is NOT considered a border for the oral cavity? A. lips B. cheeks C. tongue D. tonsils

A Distorted red reflex, with a while pupil that is opaque in appearance All remaining answers are symptoms of juvenile glaucoma

Which of the following is a sign of juvenile cataracts? A Distorted red reflex, with a while pupil that is opaque in appearance B Enlarged appearance of the eye C Continual blinking or squeezing D Tearing or watering of the eye

E All of the above - in addition, a child might show signs of photophobia, corneal enlargement and clouding, and enlarged appearance of the eye

Which of the following is a typical sign of infant glaucoma? A Rubbing eyes B Tearing or conjunctivitis C Eyelid squeezing or spasm D Painless peripheral visual loss E All of the above

B Amblyopia

Which of the following is also known as lazy eye? A Hyperopia B Amblyopia C Myopia D Glaucoma

D 20/60

Which of the following is considered impaired vision? A 20/40 B 20/20 C 40/40 D 20/60

A SJS is a milder form of toxic epidermal necrolysis with less than 10% body surface area detachment. All other statements are correct.

Which of the following is incorrect about Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)? A It is a milder form of toxic epidermal necrolysis with less than 20% body surface area detachment B Nevirapine is a trigger C Loss of vision could be a complication D Corticosteroid may be used in the treatment of patients with SJS

D Previous serious eye injury, family history of eye injury, chronic corticosteroid use - history of a family eye injury would not be genetically passed to an infant

Which of the following is not an increased risk for developing a visual impairment? A Developmental delay, family history of eye disease, previous serious eye injury B Diabetes, HIV, Chronic corticosteroid use, prematurity C Genetic syndrome, African American heritage, chronic ear infections D Previous serious eye injury, family history of eye injury, chronic corticosteroid use

D Asian American heritage

Which of the following is not an increased risk for developing visual impairment? A Prematurity B Genetic syndrome C Chronic ear infections D Asian American heritage

C It is normal until age 10 - it is actually normal until around 6 mths

Which of the following is not part of strabismus? A Misalignment of the eyes B Abnormal cover test C Is normal until age 10 D It is caused by eyes developing at different rates

C Can only be diagnosed by a routine eye exam

Which of the following is not true of Myopia? A Light enters the globe and focuses on the front of the retina B Nearsighted - can see close up bot not far away C It can only be diagnosed by a routine eye exam D May cause children to squint to improve distance vision

Option C: Children receiving varicella vaccine should avoid aspirin or aspirin-containing products because of the risk of Reye's syndrome

Which of the following is not true regarding the varicella vaccine? · A. It is administered subcutaneously. · B. Children 13 years and older (With no history of chickenpox or have not previously vaccinated) need two doses given at least 28 days apart. · C. Give aspirin for any injection-related pain. · D. The most common mild side effects are pain, redness, or swelling at the injection site.

A Antihistamine drops are used to treat allergic conjunctivitis

Which of the following is proper treatment for Allergic conjunctivitis? A Antihistamine drops B Oral antibiotics C A & B D None of the above

B Have people wash their hands prior to contact with the child.

Which of the following is the best method to prevent the spread of infection to an immunosuppressed child? A Assign the same nurses to care for the child each day. B Have people wash their hands prior to contact with the child. C Administer antibiotics prophylactically to the child. D Limit visitors to family members only.

D - None of the above - PET are a straw that stays in place, but will eventually fall out on their own. They allow the tympanic membrane to move keeping the ears from getting clogged up. Ear drops are required 2-3 times a day and ear plugs are required if swimming in lakes, ponds or rivers

Which of the following is true about PET? A They require no special care once installed properly B They become a permanent stint to prevent the ears from becoming clogged C They prevent the tympanic membrane from moving, and thus introducing harmful bacteria to the ear drum D None of the above

C Turner syndrome in addition to down syndrome and fetal alcohol syndrome all can make a child more susceptible to cataracts

Which of the following makes a child more susceptible to cataracts? A Prematurity B Leukemia C Turner syndrome D Angioblastoma

C Red reflex test

Which of the following nursing assessments in an infant is MOST valuable in identifying serious visual defects? A Visual acuity B Pupil response to light C Red reflex test D Cover test

·Option C: Rheumatic fever results from a delayed reaction to inadequately treated group A ?-hemolytic streptococcal infection.

Which of the following organisms is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever?· A. Streptococcal pneumonia · B. Haemophilus influenza · C. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus D. Staphylococcus aureus

C Lid laceration with underlying structural involvement, corneal abrasion with corneal penetration

Which of the following require a referral to an ophthalmologist? A traumatic hyphema, foreign body embedded in the eye, myopia B Blowout fracture, extensive animal bite, strabismus C Lid laceration with underlying structural involvement, corneal abrasion with corneal penetration D All of the above

A, C & D

Which of the following requires 2 doses for immunity? A Hepatitis A B Hepatitis B C MMR D Varicella

D. It is associated with brain and vision development but clinical outcomes have not been established

Which of the following statements is true about docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) supplementation in infant formulas? A. Supplementation with DHA is necessary to promote vitamin D absorption B. It is associated with increased scores of learning and intelligence later in childhood C. DHA is not absorbed systemically but it is a food source for favorable bacteria in the gut which have been linked with improved immune function D. It is associated with brain and vision development but clinical outcomes have not been established

A Four-year-olds are egocentric and interested in having the focus on themselves. They will not be interested in what it feels like to other children. Preschoolers are concrete thinkers and would literally interpret any analogies so they are not helpful in explaining procedures. Assurance of confidential communication is most appropriate for the adolescent. In addition, confidentiality is not maintained if the child plans to harm themselves, harm someone else, or discloses abuse

Which of these statements, when made by the nurse, is most effective when communicating with a 4-year-old? A "Tell me where you hurt." B "Other children like having their blood pressure taken." C "This will be like having a little stick in your arm." D "Anything you tell me is confidential."

A Antihistamines

Which over-the-counter (OTC) medications should a nurse instruct the parent of a child with glaucoma to avoid? A Antihistamines. B NSAIDs. C Antacids. D Salicylates.

D Providing information for the client is the best technique for a new diagnosis

Which technique would be best in caring for a client following receiving a diagnosis of a state IV tumor in the brain? A Offering the client pamphlets on support groups for brain cancer B Asking the client if there is anything he or his family needs C Reminding the client that advances in technology are occurring everyday D Providing accurate information about the disease and treatment options

A Average circumference of the head for a neonate ranges between 32 to 36 cm. An increase in size may indicate hydrocephaly or increased intracranial pressure.

While performing a physical examination on a newborn, which assessment should be reported to the physician? A Head circumference of 40 cm B Chest circumference of 32 cm C Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp D Heart rate of 160 and respirations of 40

C When a new problem is identified, it is important for the nurse to collect accurate assessment data. This is crucial to ensure that client needs are adequately identified in order to select the best nursing care approaches. The nurse should try to discover the reason for the refusal which may be that the client has developed untoward side effects

While the nurse is administering medications to a client, the client states "I do not want to take that medicine today." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best? A "That's OK, its alright to skip your medication now and then." B "I will have to call your doctor and report this." C "Is there a reason why you don't want to take your medicine?" D "Do you understand the consequences of refusing your prescribed treatment?"

Option A: Varicella-zoster immune globulin administration can prevent the development of chickenpox in high-risk clients and will typically be prescribed

While working in a pediatric clinic, you receive a telephone call from the parent of a 10-year-old who is receiving chemotherapy for leukemia. The client's sibling has chickenpox. Which of these actions will you anticipate taking next? A. Administer varicella-zoster immune globulin to the client B. Educate the parent about the correct use of acyclovir (Zovirax) C. Prepare the client for admission to a private room in the hospital D. Teach the parents regarding contact and airborne precaution

D All of the above - in addition Premature babies with Pulmonary Hypert , Syndromes and a family history of hearing loss are also at risk

Who is at risk for hearing loss? A Premature babies B Babies living in a loud household with many other siblings C Babies who have chronic ear infections D All of the above

Option B: The incidence of common infectious diseases such as measles, chickenpox, and mumps has been most effectively reduced by immunization of all school-aged children. Through vaccination, children will develop immunity without experiencing the diseases that vaccines prevent.

You are a school nurse. Which action will you take to have the most impact on the incidence of infectious disease in the school? A. Provide written information about infection control to all patients. B. Ensure that students are immunized according to national guidelines. C. Make soap and water readily available in the classrooms. Teach students how to cover their mouths when coughing

Options C and E: Because all staff who care for clients should be familiar with the various types of isolation, the nursing assistant will be able to stock the room and post the precautions on the client's door

You are preparing to care for a 6-year-old who has just undergone allogeneic stem cell transplantation and will need protective environment isolation. Which nursing tasks will you delegate to a nursing assistant? Select all that apply. A. Teaching the client to perform thorough hand washing after using the bathroom. B. Talking to the family members about the reasons for the isolation. C. Stocking the client's room with the needed PPE items. D. Reminding visitors to wear a respirator mask, gloves, and gown. E. Posting the precautions for protective isolation to the door of the client's room.

Option A: Because clients with rubeola require the implementation of airborne precautions, which include placement in a negative airflow room, this child cannot be admitted to the pediatric unit.

You are the charge nurse on the pediatric unit when a pediatrician calls wanting to admit a child with rubeola (measles). Which of these factors is of most concern in determining whether to admit the child to your unit? A. No negative-airflow rooms are available on the unit B. The infection control nurse liaison is not on the unit today C. There are several children receiving chemotherapy on the unit D. The unit is not staffed with the usual number of RNs

Option B: Clients who are neutropenic should be placed in positive-airflow rooms; placement of the child in a negative airflow room will increase the likelihood of infection for this client.

You are the pediatric unit charge nurse today and is working with a new RN. Which action by the new RN requires the most immediate action on your part? A. The new RN wears goggles to change linens of a client who has diarrhea caused by C. difficile. B. The new RN places a child who has chemotherapy-induced neutropenia into a negative-pressure room. C. The new RN admits a new client with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection to a room with another child who has RSV. The new RN tells the nursing assistant to use an N95 respirator mask when caring for a child who has pertussis

B. Is a highly contagious inflammatory disorderRationale: Impetigo contagiosa is a highly contagious inflammatory disorder. It is highly contagious to a person who directly contacts the exudate of a lesion. Impetigo contagiosa is a bacterial skin infection, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus, streptococci, or mixed bacteria. Impetigo contagiosa usually presents with a rash on the patient's face, hands, arms, and legs. Impetigo contagiosa is present in all age groups, but especially children.

You have a pediatric patient who is being evaluated for a skin rash. The preliminary diagnosis is impetigo contagiosa. Which of the following describes impetigo contagiosa? A. Is a viral skin infection B. Is a highly contagious inflammatory disorder C. Usually presents with a rash on the patient's back D. Is present in all age groups, but especially the elderly

B. The infant is able to grasp small objects with the index finger and thumb.

You note a 10-month-old is using the pincer grasp. Which option below best describes this milestone? A. The infant is able to grasp large objects with the palm and forefingers. B. The infant is able to grasp small objects with the index finger and thumb. C. The infant is able to grasp small and large objects with the middle finger and thumb. D. The infant is able to grasp large objects with the palm and thumb.

The answer is B. This is the only correct statement about impetigo. All the other statements are FALSE.

You're providing education to a group of parents about impetigo. Which statement is CORRECT about this disease? A. "It tends to affect the preadolescent and adolescent population." B "Cases of impetigo most likely to occur during the summer when the weather is warm." C. "Most cases of impetigo are not contagious." D. "Impetigo is caused by a mite parasite."

b. Assessing for airway patency.Feedback: Airway patency must be evaluated as a first priority. Only then can it be known if suctioning or oxygen is necessary. Once the airway is secured, a history can be obtained

limp 10-year-old boy is carried into the emergency department by a parent who states that the child has a severe nosebleed. What is the priority action by the nurse?a. Administering oxygen.b. Assessing for airway patency.c. Obtaining a history.d. Suctioning the blood

C It is taught that Ménière's disease is caused by edema of the semicircular canals. A low-sodium diet is often prescribed in conjunction with diuretic therapy. Protein intake should have no relation to Ménière's disease, but hypoproteinemia may aggravate edema. FIber and potassium have not been identified as instrumental in the development of Ménière's disease.

· Monique is diagnosed with Ménière's disease, which diet would be most appropriate to discuss with her? A Low-fiber B Low-potassium C Low-sodium D Low-protein

A All lesions crusted

·A four year-old child is recovering from chicken pox (varicella). The parents would like to have the child return to day care as soon as possible. In order to ensure that the illness is no longer communicable, the nurse would assess for? A All lesions crusted ·B Presence of vesicles C Elevated temperature D Rhinorrhea and coryza

Options A, B, and E: At the latency stage, sexual drives are dormant. The stage begins around the time that children enter school and become more concerned about school work, hobbies, and peer relationships. Children also usually engage in activities with peers of the same sex, which serves to consolidate a child's gender-role identity.

A clinical instructor asks a nursing student to report about the psychosexual stages of development by Sigmund Freud. Which of the following explains the latency period. Select all that apply. A. No psychosexual development takes place during this stage B. Energy is directed to physical and intellectual activities C. This stage begins at puberty and constitutes mature adult sexuality D. Males have a tendency to develop Oedipus Complex E. Children spend more time interacting with same-sex peers

Option B: Infants who develop RDS have periods during the day when they are free of symptoms because of an initial release of surfactant. The initial signs of respiratory distress includes tachypnea (60 breaths per minute), sternal and subcostal retractions, nasal flaring, cyanotic mucous membranes.

A nurse in the newborn nursery is monitoring a preterm newborn infant for respiratory distress syndrome. Which assessment signs if noted in the newborn infant would alert the nurse to the possibility of this syndrome? A. Hypotension and Bradycardia B. B. Tachypnea and retractions C. Acrocyanosis and grunting D. The presence of a barrel chest with grunting

ANS: C One of the outstanding characteristics of middle childhood is the creation of formalized groups or clubs. Peer-group identification and association are essential to a child's socialization. Poor relationships with peers and a lack of group identification can contribute to bullying. A boys-only club does not have a direct correlation with later gang activity.

A group of boys ages 9 and 10 years have formed a "boys-only" club that is open to neighborhood and school friends who have skateboards. This should be interpreted: a. Behavior that encourages bullying and sexism. b. Behavior that reinforces poor peer relationships. c. Characteristic of social development of this age. d. Characteristic of children who later are at risk for membership in gangs.

A Allow the newborn infant to signal a need

A maternity nurse is providing instruction to a new mother regarding the psychosocial development of the newborn infant. Using Erikson's psychosocial development theory, the nurse would instruct the mother to A) Allow the newborn infant to signal a need B) Anticipate all of the needs of the newborn infant C) Avoid the newborn infant during the first 10 minutes of crying D) Attend to the newborn infant immediately when crying

A. Allow the newborn infant to signal a need According to Erikson, the caregiver should not try to anticipate the newborn infant's needs at all times but must allow the newborn infant to signal needs. If a newborn is not allowed to signal a need, the newborn will not learn how to control the environment.

A maternity nurse is providing instruction to a new mother regarding the psychosocial development of the newborn infant. Using Erikson's psychosocial development theory, the nurse would instruct the mother to A. Allow the newborn infant to signal a need B. Anticipate all of the needs of the newborn infant C. Avoid the newborn infant during the first 10 minutes of crying D. Allow the infant to cry, once lessen, then attend to the infant

ANS: D One technique the nurse can offer parents of a fussy infant is to rock the infant gently and slowly while being careful to avoid sudden movements.

A mother calls the pediatrician's office because her infant is "colicky." The helpful measure the nurse would suggest to the parent is to: a. sing songs to the infant in a soft voice. b. place the infant in a well-lit room. c. walk around and massage the infant's back. d. rock the fussy infant slowly and gently.

Options C and D: Allowing the child to bring familiar objects such as a favorite pillow or blanket to promote comfort; Letting the child hold medical equipment will lessen the fear and stress from the toddler.

The nurse is preparing to care for a toddler who is admitted due to fever, diarrhea, and vomiting. The doctor diagnosed the child with acute gastroenteritis. Which interventions are appropriate for the child? Select all that apply. A. Limit parental presence to promote faster recovery B. Inform the child of his scheduled ultrasound on day 5 of his hospitalization C. Allow to bring his favorite pillow or provide activity e.g., blowing bubbles D. Allow the child to hold the thermometer before getting the temperature

C) Set limits on the child's behavior-According to Erikson, the child focuses on independence between ages 1 and 3 years. Gaining independence often means that the child has to rebel against the parents' wishes. Saying things like "no" or "mine" and having temper tantrums are common during this period of development. Being consistent and setting limits on the child's behavior are the

A mother of a 3-year-old tells a clinic nurse that the child is rebelling constantly and having temper tantrums. The nurse most appropriately tells the mother to: A) Punish the child every time the child says "no", to change the behavior B) Allow the behavior because this is normal at this age period C) Set limits on the child's behavior D) Ignore the child when this behavior occurs

ANS: B The infant usually triples his or her birth weight by about 12 months of age.

The nurse knows that an infant's birth weight should be tripled by: a. 9 months. b. 1 year. c. 18 months. d. 2 years.

Option C: Being consistent and setting limits on the child's behavior are the necessary elements in order for the toddler to learn what is acceptable so they can understand the impact of their behaviors.

A mother of a three (3)-year-old tells a clinic nurse that the child is constantly rebelling and having temper tantrums. The nurse most appropriately tells the mother to: A. Punish the child every time the child says "no", to change the behavior B. Allow the behavior because this is normal at this age period C. Set limits on the child's behavior D. Ignore the child when this behavior occurs

D. Drying the infant in a warm blanket. Newborn temperature at birth is around 37.2ºC (99ºF) because they have been confined in their mother's warm uterine environment. The newborn's temperature will immediately drop upon delivery due to various factors like the newborn's immature temperature-regulating mechanism, inability to properly conserve heat, temperature of the birthing environment, and if the newborn is not protected from heat loss following delivery.

A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the nurse prepares to prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by: A. Warming the crib pad B. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer C. Closing the doors to the room D. Drying the infant in a warm blanket

Option C: To measure the head circumference, the nurse should place the tape measure under the infant's head, wrap the tape around the occiput, and measure just above the eyebrows so that the largest area of the occiput is included.

A nurse in a newborn nursery is performing an assessment of a newborn infant. The nurse is preparing to measure the head circumference of the infant. The nurse would most appropriately: A. Wrap the tape measure around the infant's head and measure just above the eyebrows. B. Place the tape measure under the infant's head at the base of the skull and wrap around to the front just above the eyes C. Place the tape measure under the infant's head, wrap around the occiput, and measure just above the eyes D. Place the tape measure at the back of the infant's head, wrap around across the ears, and measure across the infant's mouth.

ANS: A The infant can usually drink from a cup when it is offered at about 5 months.

The parent of a 3-month-old infant asks the nurse, "At what age do infants usually begin drinking from a cup?" The nurse would reply: a. 5 months. b. 9 months. c. 1 year. d. 2 years.

Option A: The highest priority on admission to the nursery for a newborn with low Apgar scores is airway, which would involve preparing respiratory resuscitation equipment.

A nurse in a newborn nursery receives a phone call to prepare for the admission of a 43-week-gestation newborn with Apgar scores of 1 and 4. In planning for the admission of this infant, the nurse's highest priority should be to: A. Connect the resuscitation bag to the oxygen outlet B. Turn on the apnea and cardiorespiratory monitors C. Set up the intravenous line with 5% dextrose in water D. Set the radiant warmer control temperature at 36.5* C (97.6*F)

C, D, E, F. The other options are milestones for older children.

A 12-month-old arrives to the health clinic for a well visit. You're assessing the infant's developmental milestones. Select below all the milestones the child should be able to perform? A. Rides a tricycle B. Draws a triangle C. Pulls to a standing position and can take a few steps D. Follows simple commands like "wave bye-bye" E. Puts objects in a container F. Hits two small wooden blocks together G. Says 2-3 word sentences

Option A: A 16-year-old child is in the stage of identity vs role confusion. The most significant persons in this group are their peers.

A 16 year old boy is hospitalized, according to Erik Erikson, what is an appropriate intervention? A. Tell the friends to visit the child B. Encourage the boy to learn missed school lessons C. Call the priest to intervene D. Ask the patient's girlfriend to visit

Option D: Adolescents often are not sure whether they want their parents with them when they are hospitalized. Because of the importance of the peer group, separation from friends is a source of anxiety. Ideally, the members of the peer group will support their ill friend.

A 16-year-old is admitted to the hospital for acute appendicitis, and an appendectomy is performed. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate to facilitate normal growth and development? A. Allow the family to bring in the child's favorite computer games B. Encourage the parents to room-in with the child C. Encourage the child to rest and read D. Allow the child to participate in activities with other individuals in the same age group when the condition permits

C: Autonomy vs. Shame and Guilt.

A 20-month-old is in what stage of development according to Erickson's Stages of Development? A. Industry vs. Inferiority B. Initiative vs. Guilt C. Autonomy vs. Shame and Guilt D. Trust vs. Mistrust

ANS: A This indicates normal development. Reflexive grasping occurs during the first 2 to 3 months and then gradually becomes voluntary. No evidence of neurologic dysfunction is present.

A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation, will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands, but she will not voluntarily grasp it. The nurse should interpret this as: a. Normal development. b. Significant developmental lag. c. Slightly delayed development caused by prematurity. d. Suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as cerebral palsy.

The answer is C. Separation anxiety can still present in a preschooler. It usually starts to subside by 4-5 years. During the protest phase the preschooler is different than the toddler in that he or she will be crying quietly and may act out...the toddler will be loudly crying that is inconsolable. The preschooler will generally act the same as the toddler during the despair and detachment phase

A 3-year-old is hospitalized and the parent has to leave to care for other children but will be back to visit. What observation found in this preschooler would demonstrate the child is experiencing the protest phase of separation anxiety? A. Loud crying that is inconsolable B. Withdrawn and sullen C. Crying quietly and acting out D. Happy and content

B. The toddler is experiencing regression which is due to the stress of the recent hospitalization. The parent should be reassured that this is temporary. The parent should avoid adding more stress to the toddler by trying to potty train while the child is hospitalized and disciplining the child for potty accidents. The parent should NOT avoid ritualistic routines (remember the toddler loves routines and rituals).

A 3-year-old is hospitalized. The parent verbalizes to you that at home the child was potty trained but now the child is refusing to use the toilet and is voiding on themselves. The parent expresses concern. As the nurse you should tell the parent? A. Try potty training again while the child is hospitalized. B. Reassure the parent that this is temporary and is most likely occurring because the child is hospitalized. C. Advise the parent to set limits and implement discipline strategies for toilet accidents. D. Recommend the parent avoids ritualistic routines until the child is not hospitalized.

ANS: B Preschoolers cannot understand the cause and effect of illness. Their egocentrism makes them think that they are directly responsible for events, making them feel guilt for things outside of their control. Children of this age show stress by regressing developmentally or acting out. Maladaptation is unlikely. This comment does not imply excessive discipline at home.

A 4-year-old boy is hospitalized with a serious bacterial infection. He tells the nurse that he is sick because he was "bad." The nurse's best interpretation of this comment is that it is: a. A sign of stress. b. Common at this age. c. Suggestive of maladaptation. d. Suggestive of excessive discipline at home

The answer is B. The child is at risk for experiencing loss of control. Loss of control can occur when the preschooler is hospitalized or sick because the child is restricted in the normal things they usually do (dress, eat, play etc.) This can cause the child to regress, increase anxiety and fear, or act out.

A 4-year-old is hospitalized for the treatment of a brain tumor. As the nurse you know that a preschooler would struggle with which of the following issues during the hospitalization? A. Separation anxiety B. Loss of control C. Loss of relationship with peers D. Negativism

Option B: Monosyllabic babbling occurs between 3 and 6 months of age. The infant starts to produce vowels and combines them with consonants, producing syllables (e.g., ba, da, la, ga).

A clinic nurse assesses the communication patterns of a five (5)-month-old infant. The nurse determines that the infant is demonstrating the highest level of developmental achievement expected if the infant: A. Uses simple words such as "mama" B. Uses monosyllabic babbling C. Links syllables together D. Coos when comforted

Option D: This is achieved during the formal operational stage. Propositional thought is the ability of an individual to evaluate the logic of prepositions without referring to real-world circumstances.

A nurse instructor is preparing to conduct a seminar about Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development. The current topic is the concrete operational stage. Which of the following milestones during this stage should be included in the discussion, except? A. Ability to think logic about objects and events B. Ability to understand that an object does not affect its number, length, volume, or mass when it changes appearance or shape C. Increased classification skills D. Ability to exhibit propositional thought E. Ability to perform mathematical problems in both addition and subtraction

Option A: Close observation of the circumcision site during the first few hours is necessary to determine if there is a complication. A yellow exudate may be noted after 24 hours, and this is a part of normal healing. This should not be washed away because it serves a protective function. The nurse would expect that the area would be red with a small amount of bloody drainage. Because the findings identified in the question are normal, the nurse would document the assessment. Additionally, document if the infant is voiding after the procedure to ascertain that the urethra is not occluded. Instruct the parents to keep the site free from feces and covered in petrolatum until healing is complete. If the infant cries constantly and if there is redness or tenderness due to pain, it should be reported to the physician.

A nurse is assessing a newborn infant following circumcision and notes that the circumcised area is red with a small amount of bloody drainage. Which of the following nursing actions would be most appropriate? A. Document the findings B. Contact the physician C. Circle the amount of bloody drainage on the dressing and reassess in 30 minutes D. Reinforce the dressing

Option D: A newborn infant born to a woman using drugs is irritable. The infant is overloaded easily by sensory stimulation. The infant may cry incessantly and posture rather than cuddle when being held.

A nurse is assessing a newborn infant who was born to a mother who is addicted to drugs. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to note during the assessment of this newborn? A. Sleepiness B. Cuddles when being held C. Lethargy D. Incessant crying

Option B: By age 2 years, the child can use a cup and can use a spoon correctly but with some spilling.

A nurse is evaluating the developmental level of a two (2)-year-old. Which of the following does the nurse expect to observe in this child? A. Uses a fork to eat B. Uses a cup to drink C. Uses a knife for cutting food D. Pours own milk into a cup

Option C: In the preschooler, play is simple and imaginative and includes activities such as crayons and coloring books, puppets, felt and magnetic boards, and Play-Doh.

A nurse is preparing to care for a five (5)-year-old who has been placed in traction following a fracture of the femur. The nurse plans care, knowing that, which of the following is the most appropriate activity for this child? A. Large picture books B. A radio C. Crayons and coloring book D. A sports video

Option C: The aim of therapy in RDS is to support the disease until the disease runs its course with the subsequent development of surfactant. The infant may benefit from surfactant replacement therapy. In surfactant replacement, an exogenous surfactant preparation is instilled into the lungs through an endotracheal tube.

A nurse on the newborn nursery floor is caring for a neonate. On assessment the infant is exhibiting signs of cyanosis, tachypnea, nasal flaring, and grunting. Respiratory distress syndrome is diagnosed, and the physician prescribes surfactant replacement therapy. The nurse would prepare to administer this therapy by: A. Subcutaneous injection B. Intravenous injection C. Instillation of the preparation into the lungs through an endotracheal tube D. Intramuscular injection

Option C: Vitamin K is necessary for the body to synthesize coagulation factors. Vitamin K is administered to the newborn infant to prevent abnormal bleeding.

A nurse prepares to administer a vitamin K injection to a newborn infant. The mother asks the nurse why her newborn infant needs the injection. The best response by the nurse would be: A. "Your infant needs vitamin K to develop immunity." B. "Vitamin K will protect your infant from having jaundice." C. "Newborn infants are deficient in vitamin K, and this injection prevents your infant from abnormal bleeding." D. "Newborn infants have sterile bowels, and vitamin K promotes the growth of bacteria in the bowel."

Option D: Breastfeeding should be initiated within 2 hours after birth and every 2-4 hours thereafter. Early feeding of newborns with hyperbilirubinemia promotes intestinal movement and excretion of meconium which ultimately helps prevent indirect bilirubin buildup. The other options are not necessary.

A postpartum nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a newborn infant with hyperbilirubinemia who is being breastfed. The nurse provides which most appropriate instructions to the mother? A. Switch to bottle-feeding the baby for 2 weeks B. Stop the breastfeedings and switch to bottle-feeding permanently C. Feed the newborn infant less frequently D. Continue to breast-feed every 2-4 hours

A. A preschooler is in the preoperational stage of cognitive development. This stage includes children 2-7 years.

A preschooler is in what stage of development according to Piaget's Theory? A. Preoperational B. Concrete operational C. Formal operational D. Sensorimotor

C: Despair

A toddler is hospitalized and the parent had to temporarily leave the child. The child was inconsolable when the parent left, but now is quite and withdrawn. This is known as what stage of separation anxiety? A. Detachment B. Denial C. Despair D. Protest

ANS: B Traditional psychosocial theory holds that the developmental crises of adolescence lead to the formation of a sense of identity. Intimacy is the developmental stage for early adulthood. Initiative is the developmental stage for early childhood. Independence is not one of Erikson's developmental stages.

According to Erikson, the psychosocial task of adolescence is developing: a. Intimacy. c. Initiative. b. Identity. d. Independence.

B. A child in this stage possesses symbolic thinking. Therefore, they love to play pretend. This is one of the hallmark signs of this stage.

According to Piaget's Theory of Development, your patient is in the Preoperational Stage based on their age. The patient demonstrates they are in this stage by which finding below? A. The child understands time and quantity. B. The child likes to play pretend. C. This concept of object permanence is not developed yet. D. The child possesses abstract thinking rather than concrete thinking.

ANS: D These adolescents are at increased risk for health-damaging behaviors, not because of the sexual behavior itself, but because of society's reaction to the behavior. The nurse's first priority is to give the young man permission to discuss his feelings about this topic, knowing that the nurse will maintain confidentially, appreciate his feelings, and remain sensitive to his need to talk it. In recent studies among self-identified gay, lesbian, and bisexual adolescents, many of the adolescents report changing their self-labels one or more times during their adolescence.

An adolescent boy tells the nurse that he has recently had homosexual feelings. The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that: a. This indicates that the adolescent is homosexual. b. This indicates that the adolescent will become homosexual as an adult. c. The adolescent should be referred for psychotherapy. d. The adolescent should be encouraged to share his feelings and experiences.

a. An appropriate part of the assessment Routine health assessments of adolescents should include questions that assess the presence of suicidal ideation or intent. Questions such as, "Have you ever developed a plan to hurt yourself or kill yourself" should be part of that assessment. Threats of suicide should always be taken seriously and evaluated. Suggesting that the adolescent needs a plan and encouraging them to devise this plan are inappropriate statements by the nurse.

An adolescent girl tells the nurse that she is very suicidal. The nurse asks her if she has a specific plan. Asking this should be considered: a. An appropriate part of the assessment. b. Not a critical part of the assessment. c. Suggesting that the adolescent needs aplan. d. Encouraging the adolescent to devise aplan.

Option A: Adolescent stage is the time where the body starts to change and with factors including exposure from media and peer pressure that provides them the perception of an ideal body image which would then affect their dietary behaviors leading to eating disorders.

Which age group would have the most tendency towards eating disorders? A. Adolescence B. Toddlerhood C. Preschool D. Infancy

The answers are: B, E, and F. This question wants to know the FINE motor skills. Fine motor skills are skills that require small muscles for holding and using objects (using scissors, copying shaped and writing etc.). The other options A, C, and D are GROSS motor skills.

You're assessing the development of a 5-year-old. Which of the following are FINE motor skills a child should be able to perform at this age? Select-all-that-apply: A. Ride a tricycle B. Use blunt tip scissors C. Hop D. Skip E. Copy triangles and circles F. Print their first name

ANS: C The infant should be holding the head up well by 5 months of age. If head lag is present at 6 months, the child should undergo further evaluation.

The abnormal finding in an evaluation of growth and development for a 6-month-old infant would be: a. weight gain of 4 to 7 ounces per week. b. length increase of 1 inch in 2 months. c. head lag present. d. can sit alone for a few seconds.

ANS: C Puberty signals the beginning of the development of secondary sex characteristics. This begins in girls earlier than in boys. Usually a 2-year difference occurs in the age at onset. Girls and boys do not usually begin puberty at the same age; girls usually begin earlier than boys do.

Generally the earliest age at which puberty begins is: a. 13 years in girls, 13 years in boys b. 11 years in girls, 11 years in boys c. 10 years in girls; 12 years in boys d. 12 years in girls, 10 years in boys

ANS: A Magical thinking is believing that thoughts can cause events. Abstract thought does not develop until school-age years. The concept of conservation is the cognitive task of school-age children ages 5 to 7 years. Five-year-olds cannot understand another's perspective

In terms of cognitive development the 5-year-old child would be expected to: a. Use magical thinking. b. Think abstractly. c. Understand conservation of matter. d. Be unable to comprehend another person's perspective.

B. At 2 years of age a child is about HALF their adult height. Therefore, if the child is measuring 34 inches at 2 years, they should be around 68 inches (5 feet 8 inches) when they're an adult.

You're assessing the height of a 24-month-old. The child is 34 inches. Based on this measurement, what is an estimated adult height for this child? A. 6 feet 2 inches B. 5 feet 8 inches C. 5 feet 2 inches D. 6 feet

A. No, because he's now on infant formula, he's receiving vitamin D in the formula and doesn't need additional supplementation

JH is a 9 month-old male who is in the pharmacy today with his father who has been asked to pick up baby food. JH exclusively received breast milk from birth to 7 months of age. Pureed table foods and fortified cereals were added to his diet after that. When his mom returned to work at 8 months, breast milk was replaced with soy-based infant formula in his diet. His dad's been coming to this pharmacy for a long time and feels comfortable asking questions. His question is as follows:Does JH still need the vitamin D he started taking shortly after he was born,, and if so, why? A. No, because he's now on infant formula, he's receiving vitamin D in the formula and doesn't need additional supplementation B. No, because he receiving pureed vegetables, he no longer has a need for additional vitamin D C. Yes, because he's receiving soy formula, he is at risk for vitamin D deficiency D. Yes, all children need vitamin D supplementation because it is associated with improved vision

Option B: Jane is in the preconventional level stage 1 where judgment is motivated by fear of punishment. Children in this stage are responsive to rules that will affect their physical well-being.

Kim and her daughter Jane went grocery shopping to only buy essential things needed at home. As they went along the different sections of the store, Jane saw a limited-edition Barbie doll. She is tempted to get it but decides not to grab it for fear of being slapped. This behavior of Jane is considered to be in what stage of Kohlberg's Moral Development? A. Conventional Stage 3: Good Boy/Nice Girl Orientation B. Preconventional Stage 1: Punishment/Obedience Orientation C. Conventional Stage 2: Law and Order Orientation D. Preconventional Stage 2: Instrumental Relativist Orientation

Option C: According to the CDC, sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) remains to be one of the leading causes of infant death. Around 1,300 infants died in 2018 due to this condition. SIDS is defined as the sudden and unexplained death of a baby younger than 1-year-old. Most of the deaths happened between the ages of one and 6 months. Factors that increase the risk of SIDS include stomach sleeping, a sibling who died of SIDS, mothers who smoke during pregnancy, exposure to secondhand smoking, sleeping areas containing soft blankets pillows, or toys, and a lack of prenatal care.

One of the participants attending a parenting class asks the teacher "What is the leading cause of death during the first month of life? A. Bacterial sepsis B. Respiratory distress of newborn C. SIDS D. Neonatal hemorrhage

ANS: C The peer group serves as a strong support to teenagers, providing them with a sense of belonging and strength and power. During adolescence the parent/child relationship changes from one of protection-dependency to one of mutual affection and quality. Parents continue to play an important role in the personal and health-related decisions. The peer group forms the transitional world between dependence and autonomy.

Peer relationships become more important during adolescence because: a. Adolescents dislike their parents. b. Adolescents no longer need parental control. c. They provide adolescents with a feeling of belonging. d. They promote a sense of individuality in adolescents.

Option B: The respiratory rate is associated with activity and can be as rapid as 60 breaths per minute; over 60 breaths per minute are considered tachypneic in the infant.

The expected respiratory rate of a neonate within three (3) minutes of birth may be as high as: A 50 B 60 C 80 D100

ANS: D 36% of all adolescent deaths in the United States are the result of motor vehicle accidents. Drownings, firearms, and drug overdoses are major concerns in adolescence but do not cause the majority of deaths.

The most common cause of death in the adolescent age-group involves: a. Drownings. b. Firearms. c. Drug overdoses. d. Motor vehicles.

Option A: Belt-positioning booster seat is typically used for children whose weight or height exceeds the forward-facing limit for the car safety seat. This is applicable for ages 8-12-year-old and at least 4 feet, 9 inches tall.

The mother of a nine (9)-year-old who is four (4) feet tall asks a nurse which of the following car safety devices is the most appropriate to use. The best nursing response is which of the following? A. Booster belt B. Seat belt C. Front-facing convertible seat D. Rear-facing convertible seat

Option D: It is recommended that parents should wean their children off the bottle at 15-18 months of age. But If a bottle is still attached to the child at 3 years of age during naptime or bedtime, it should contain only water to prevent the risk of dental caries.

The mother of a three (3)-year-old is concerned because her child still is insisting on a bottle at nap time and bedtime. Which of the following is the most appropriate suggestion to the mother? A. Do not allow the child to have the bottle B. Allow the bottle during naps but not at bedtime C. Allow the bottle if it contains juice D. Allow the bottle if it contains water

A. The transition point for switching to the forward facing position is defined by the manufacturer of the convertible car safety seat but is generally at a body weight of 9 kg or 20 lb and 1 year of age. Convertible car safety seats are used until the child weighs at least 40 lb. Options b, c, and d are incorrect

The mother of a toddler asks a nurse when it is safe to place the car safety seat in a face-forward position. The best nursing response is which of the following? A) When the toddler weighs 20 lbs B) The seat should not be placed in a face-forward position unless there are safety locks in the car C) The seat should never be place in a face-forward position because the risk of the child unbuckling the harness D) When the weight of the toddler is greater than 40 lbs

A and C. Toddlers are grazers so they do better with small nutritious snacks rather than large meals. Plus, they tend not to like foods that are mixed like stir-fry or casseroles and are not likely to try new foods (most prefer to eat the same thing).

The mother of a toddler verbalizes her child has become a picky eater. What are some strategies the mother can implement to help her child? Select-all-that-apply: A. Have small easy to grab nutritious snacks available rather than 3 large meals a day B. Give the child new foods to try C. Use the same plate and cup for meals D. Offer food items that are mixed

ANS: A, B, C, D Children who experience frequent hunger do not have effective parental bonding. All other options are probable outcomes for a child who has unmet hunger needs.

The nurse cautions that children who have unmet hunger needs will likely display which characteristic(s)? Select all that apply. a. Irritability b. Ineffective feeding patterns c. No predictable sleep-wake cycle d. Distrust e. Effective parent bonding

ANS: B A rear-facing infant car seat should be used for infants younger than 1 year of age.

The nurse discusses child-proofing the home for safety with the mother of a 9-month-old. The statement made by the mother that indicates an unsafe behavior is: a. "I put covers on all of the electrical outlets." b. "In the car, she rides in a front-facing car seat." c. "There are locks on all of the cabinets in the house." d. "I have a gate at the top and bottom of the stairs."

ANS: C The infant can sit alone without support at about 8 months of age.

The nurse is aware that the earliest age at which an infant is able to sit steadily alone is _____ months. a. 4 b. 5 c. 8 d. 15

ANS: B For the majority of children, the milestone of walking alone is achieved between 12 and 15 months.

The nurse is aware that the earliest age at which the infant should be able to walk independently is _____ months. a. 8 to 10 b. 12 to 15 c. 15 to 18 d. 18 to 21

B and C. Option A is wrong because a bottle at night-time should be avoided, especially with juice. Option D is wrong because a 13-month-old does not possess the skills to brush his teeth without assistance.

The nurse is educating the parents of a 13-month-old on how to avoid dental caries. Which statements should the nurse include in the education about this topic to the parents? Select-all-that-apply: A. "If a bottle is given at night, be sure to water down the juice before giving it to the child". B. "When your child's first teeth erupt, it is time to go to the dentist." C. "If your water at home does not contain fluoride, fluoride supplementation may be needed". D. "To help promote autonomy in your child, he should brush his teeth by himself without assistance".

D. This is a normal pattern The phases through which young children progress when separated from their parents include protest, despair, and denial, or detachment. In the stage of protest, when the parents return, the child readily goes to them. In the stage of despair, the child may not approach them readily or may cling to a parent. In denial or detachment, when the parents return, the child becomes cheerful, interested in the environment and new persons (seemingly unaware of the lost parents), friendly with the staff, and interested in developing superficial relationships.

The parents of a two (2)-year-old boy arrive at a hospital for a visit. The child is in the playroom when the parents arrive. When the parents enter the playroom, the child does not readily approach the parents. The nurse interprets this behavior as indicating that: A. The child is withdrawn B. The child is self-centered C. The child has adjusted to the hospitalized setting D. This is a normal pattern

Option A: The heart rate is vital for life and is the most critical observation in Apgar scoring. Respiratory effect rather than rate is included in the Apgar score; the rate is very erratic.

The primary critical observation for Apgar scoring is the: A. Heart rate B. Respiratory rate C. Presence of meconium D. Evaluation of the Moro reflex

ANS: D Peer-group identification is an important factor in gaining independence from parents. Through peer relationships children learn ways to deal with dominance and hostility. They also learn how to relate to people in positions of leadership and authority and explore ideas and the physical environment. Peer-group identification helps in gaining independence rather than remaining dependent. A child's concept of appropriate sex roles is influenced by relationships with peers.

The role of the peer group in the life of school-age children is that it: a. Gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility. b. Allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time. c. Decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles. d. Provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents.

ANS: D When sex information is presented to school-age children, sex should be treated as a normal part of growth and development. Fifth graders are usually 10 to 11 years old. This age is not too young to speak about physiologic changes in their bodies. They should be encouraged to ask questions. Preadolescents need precise and concrete information.

The school nurse has been asked to begin teaching sex education in the 5th grade. The nurse should recognize that: a. Children in 5th grade are too young for sex education. b. Children should be discouraged from asking too many questions. c. Correct terminology should be reserved for children who are older. d. Sex can be presented as a normal part of growth and development.

ANS: D New solid foods should be introduced before formula or breast milk to encourage the infant to try new foods.

The statement made by a parent that indicates correct understanding of infant feeding is: a. "I've been mixing rice cereal and formula in the baby's bottle." b. "I switched the baby to low-fat milk at 9 months." c. "The baby really likes little pieces of chocolate." d. "I give the baby any new foods before he takes his bottle."

FALSE: BOWEL control occurs before bladder. The sensation to have a bowel movement is stronger than the sensation for urination.

True or False: When potty training a child it is important to remember that bladder control occurs before bowel control.

The answer is A. Animism is where the preschooler thinks inanimate objects (ex: toys) are living things and have feelings like they do.

What is an example of animism in a 3-year-old child? Select the most appropriate option below: A. The child leaves the T.V. on while she plays outside so her doll won't become bored. B. The child dresses up in a doctor outfit. C. The child uses a stick as a sword to slay dragons. D. The child copies her mother by putting on jewelry and high heels.

ANS: B Play involves increased physical skill, intellectual ability, and fantasy. Children form groups and cliques and develop a sense of belonging to a team or club. At this age children begin to see the need for rules. Conformity and ritual permeate their play. Their games have fixed and unvarying rules, which may be bizarre and extraordinarily rigid. With team play children learn about competition and the importance of winning, an attribute highly valued in the United States.

What is descriptive of the play of school-age children? a. Individuality in play is better tolerated than at earlier ages. b. Knowing the rules of a game gives an important sense of belonging. c. They like to invent games, making up the rules as they go. d. Team play helps children learn the universal importance of competition and winning.

a. Separation anxiety The major stress for children from infancy through the preschool years is separation anxiety, also called anaclitic depression. This is a major stressor of hospitalization. Loss of control, fear of bodily injury, and fear of pain are all stressors associated with hospitalization. However, separation from family is a primary stressor in this age group.

What represents the major stressor of hospitalization for children from middle infancy throughout the preschool years? a. Separation anxiety b. Loss of control c. Fear of bodily injury d. Fear of pain

ANS: D3-year-olds are able to accomplish the gross motor skill of balancing on one foot. Jumping rope, riding a two-wheel bike, and skipping on alternative feet are gross motor skills of 5-year-old

What would the nurse expect of a healthy 3-year-old child? a. Jump rope b. Ride a two-wheel bicycle c. Skip on alternate feet d. Balance on one foot for a few seconds

D. Children at this age need to be given opportunities to try new things and make their own choices. If not given opportunities to try new things or make choices on their own, the child will develop guilt and struggle with trying new things and being independent. In turn, the child will have trouble developing a sense of purpose. Therefore, the parent should avoid trying to control or make choices or decisions for the child.

When considering Erickson's Stages of Psychosocial Development for a 3-year-old which action below would potentially hinder a child's development? A. Giving the child freedom to try new things B. Offering options of play that are imaginary C. Accepting reasonable choices made by the child D. Making choices and decisions for the child

Option B: Regression is most seen among toddlers and it can be caused by stressful situations such as hospitalization, the arrival of a new sibling, or starting a new school. When a child regresses, he or she appears to be going backward in an earlier stage of development where he or she feels comfortable (e.g. toilet trained toddlers suddenly start wetting their pants when they become sick, thumbsucking)

Which age group has the greatest potential to demonstrate regression when they are sick? A Infant B Toddler C Adolescent D Young Adult

Options B, D, and E: School-age children feel a greater sense of affiliation with peers of the same sex and prefer socializing with them over family members; With a decreased attention span, play for school-age children lean towards following rules designed by others such as board games and sports; With an increase in motor skills, and independence, school-age children are prone to injuries that are caused by their physical activities.

Which of the following best describes the development of a school-age child. Select all that apply. A. Death has yet no meaning B. Same-sex peers are more important than family C. School-age children are concerned about how they appear to others D. Children enjoys playing board games and sports E. Causes of injuries include bicycle crashes, head injuries, and sprains

B Natazia (estradiol valerate and dienogest) (estradiol may supress lactation)

Which of the following drugs should be avoided in a mother exclusively breastfeeding a newborn? A. Coumadin (warfarin) B. Natazia (estradiol valerate and dienogest) C. Imitrex (sumatriptan) D. Welchol (colesevelam)

A) Adolescence

Which stage of development is most unstable and challenging regarding development of personal identity? A) Adolescence B) Toddler hood C) Childhood D) Infancy

Option A: Although it occurs throughout one's lifetime, Identity development is considered to be the primary psychosocial task of adolescence or as described by Erickson on identity versus identity confusion. Individuals in this stage start to integrate their values, abilities, inner drives, and past experiences into who they are as persons.

Which stage of development is most unstable and challenging regarding the development of personal identity? · A. Adolescence · B. Toddlerhood · C. Middle Childhood · D. Young adulthood

ANS: B In middle childhood growth in height and weight occur at a slower pace. Between the ages of 6 to 12 years, children grow 2 inches per year. In middle childhood children's weight will almost double; they gain 3 kg/year. At the end of middle childhood girls grow taller and gain more weight than boys. Children take on a slimmer look with longer legs in middle childhood.

Which statement accurately describes physical development during the school-age years? a. The child's weight almost triples. b. A child grows an average of 2 inches per year. c. Few physical differences are apparent among children at the end of middle childhood. d. Fat gradually increases, which contributes to the child's heavier appearance.

The answer is C. Option A is a description of a child that is birth to 2 years (sensorimotor stage). Option B is a description of a child that is 7-11 years (concrete operational). Option D is a child that is 11 years and beyond (formal operational).

Which statement below is TRUE regarding a 5-year-old's cognitive development based on Piaget's Theory? A. "The goal of this stage is to achieve the understanding of object permanence." B. "This child now has the ability to think logically about events." C. "This child's thinking is still egocentric and they can't understand the point of views of others." D. "This child has the ability to create hypothetical arguments."

ANS: B During the school-age years children experience a wide variety of fears, but new fears related predominantly to school and family bother children during this time. During the middle-school years children become less fearful of body safety than they were as preschoolers. Parents and other persons involved with children should discuss their fear with them individually or as a group activity. Sometimes school-age children hide their fears to avoid being teased. Hiding the fears does not end them and may lead to phobias.

Which statement best describes fear in school-age children? a. They are increasingly fearful for body safety. b. Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family. c. They should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule by peers. d. Those who have numerous fears need continuous protective behavior by parents to eliminate these fears.

A. Can you baby sit unsupported and is he/she at least 6 months old?

You bump into a new father in the pediatric nutrition aisle of your pharmacy which is within a large grocery store. He's looking at the infant cereals and wants to know if he should buy some. Which represents the MOST important parameters to assess in order to answer his question accurately? A. Can you baby sit unsupported and is he/she at least 6 months old? B. Is your baby receiving formula which contains vitamin D? C. Does your baby havev reflux and is he/she less than 6 months old? D. Can your baby hold his/her head upright and roll over?

The answers are B, C, and E. Option A is wrong because a preschooler does not understand time. It is best to give them a time frame like "we will start your IV after your eat breakfast" rather than a specific time. Option D is wrong because removing the parents from the room during the procedure may increase the child's anxiety. It is best to have them present.

You need to start an IV on a 4-year-old. Select the appropriate interventions to perform before starting the IV to help the preschooler cope with this procedure. Select-all-that-apply: A. Let the child know that at 9:00 am you will be starting the IV. B. Be honest with the child about what to expect with starting the IV. C. Have a doll available that the child can start an IV on. D. Give the child privacy and direct the parents to the waiting room while the IV is started. E. Encourage and answer all the child's questions before starting the IV.

B. Parallel play

You observe toddlers playing. The children are playing with toys, but they are not playing together. This type of play is known as? A. Solitary play B. Parallel play C. Associate play D. Co-operative

The answer is B: Cooperative. With this type of play, children play together doing the same activity by cooperating and collaborating together and have the same focus and goals...hence building a sand castle.

You see a group of children working together to build a sand castle. What type of play is this? A. Parallel B. Cooperative C. Associative D. Solidary

C. An infant at this age should be smiling. All the other options are too advanced for this infant at this age.

You're assessing a 2-month-old infant. Which finding below is a normal milestone that should be reached by this infant at this age? A. The infant can sit up with support. B. The infant holds a rattle. C. The infant smiles at its parent. D. The infant is afraid of strangers.

D The child at this age is in the Autonomy vs Shame/Guilt stage. Therefore, the child is developing independence and has discovered they're individuals separate from others, which means their actions affect others in their environment. It is important the nurse provide opportunities for autonomy (independence) like option D.

You're creating a plan of care for a 24-month-old and developing interventions to help with the development of the child. According to Erickson's Stages of Development, what intervention below would help promote development in this patient? A. Thoroughly communicate the rules to the child. B. Encourage the child to ask questions about care. C. Take time to swaddle and rock the child when crying. D. Give the child opportunities to make food and drink selections

The answer is C: Associative Play. With this type of play, children are playing/talking together in the sense they are doing the same activity together like using the same toys or use equipment but they aren't working together to accomplish something but rather focusing on their own activities.

You're developing a plan of care for a 3-year-old that includes play activities. What type of play does a child participate in at this age? A. Parallel B. Cooperative C. Associative D. Solidary

C: 9-month-old. Infants at this age understand object permanence. This is when an object can be hidden and the infant understands it still exists. This happens around 8-9 months.

You're developing a plan of care for an infant and you include activities for play. The play activities include hiding a toy and letting the infant look for it along with playing peek-a-boo. Which infant below would best benefit from this type of play? A. 6-month-old B. 2-month-old C. 9-month-old D. 4-month-old

B and D. An infant this age should have their needs responded to promptly. Appropriate interventions would be swaddling and rocking the infant. The other nursing interventions listed are more appropriate for an older infant. This infant is very young.

You're providing care to a 1-month-old infant who is hospitalized. The parents are unable to be at the bedside. The infant is crying. Select appropriate nursing interventions for this infant: A. Let the infant play with crib mobiles B. Swaddle the infant C. Attempt to play peek-a-boo with the infant D. Rock the infant E. Distract the infant with a toy

D. Negativism is doing the opposite of what is being asked and responding negatively to the command. Therefore, the nurse should not ask a question that could allow the toddler to say "no", but give options and let them pick (helps with autonomy).

You're providing caring to a 2-year-old and have noted negativism. Which statement by the nurse to the toddler will help decrease negativism when administering medications to the toddler? A. "Are you ready for your medicine?" B. "Can you take your medicine in a cup?" C. "Do you want to take your medicine now?" D. "You can take your medicine in the blue or green cup."

B. Day-time potty training should be done first. Night-time potty train takes more time and most children still need a diaper at night until about 4-5 years.

You're teaching a group of new moms about how to assess toilet training readiness in their toddler. Which statement by a participant demonstrates they did NOT understand the education provided: A. "I should start potty training once my child has had a dry diaper for 2 hours or more." B. "It is best to start night-time potty training before day-time potty training." C. "Having regular bowel movements is a sign of potty training readiness." D. "My child can sit on the toilet for at least 10 minutes without fussy, so I think I will trying potty training soon."

B: purpose. Ages 3-5 years include preschoolers, and according to Erickson's Stages of Psychosocial Development the child is in the Initiative vs. Guilt stage. The child is learning how to venture out and be independent. If they are able to do this (not discouraged or restraint) the child will develop a sense of purpose and be able to go to the next stage, which is Industry vs. Inferiority.

Your patient is 4-years-old. According to Erickson's Stages of Psychosocial Development the child should develop ____________ by the end of their developmental stage. A. trust B. purpose C. autonomy D. competence

B: Trust vs. Mistrust

Your patient is 6-months-old. According to Erickson's Stage of Development, this patient is in what stage?* A. Autonomy vs. Shame & Doubt B. Trust vs. Mistrust C. Initiative vs. Guilt D. Identity vs. Role Confusion