Penny OB/GYN Review
what is focal adenomyosis in the form of a mass called?
adenomyoma
what is the term for ectopic endometrial tissue within the uterus that leads to abnormal uterine bleeding?
adenomyosis
what is the difference between patients with adenomyosis and endometriosis?
adenomyosis- older, multiparous endometriosis- young, fertility troubles
what is the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus?
adnexa
what is the primary mode of hand hygiene in the clinical setting?
alcohol based rub
what doppler artifact occurs when the doppler sampling rate is not high enough to display the doppler shift frequency?
aliasing
hematometrocolpos is typically associated with the presence of an imperforate hymen in young girls. what are the clinical signs?
amenorrhea, cyclic abdominal pain, abdominal mass, enlarged uterus, urinary retention
define: amenorrhea dysmenorrhea hypomenorrhea polymenorrhea dyspareunia menometrorrhagia metrorrhagia menorrhagia hydrocolpos hydrometrocolpos hematometra hematocolpos hematometrocolpos pyometra
amenorrhea- absent flow dysmenorrhea- painful menstruation hypomenorrhea- light flow polymenorrhea- frequent menstruation dyspareunia- painful intercourse menometrorrhagia- heavy intermenstrual bleeding metrorrhagia- intermenstrual bleeding menorrhagia- heavy flow hydrocolpos- fluid in vagina hydromEtrocolpos- fluid in vag and utErus hematometra- blood in uterus hematocolpos- blood in vagina hematometrocolpos- blood in uterus and vag pyometra- pus in the uterus
anteverted and anteflexed are the most common uterine positions. how are they positioned?
anteverted- body tilts forward, 90* angle with vag anteflexed- body tilts forward, possibly coming in contact with the cervix
where do the ovarian arteries branch from?
aorta
where is the space of retzius?
between anterior bladder wall and pubic symphysis
where is the rectouterine pouch (posterior cul-de-sac/pouch of douglas) located?
between the rectum and uterus
where is the vesicouterine pouch (anterior cul-de-sac) located?
between uterus and bladder
what is another name for bicornuate uterus?
bicornis unicollis cornu- horn collis- cervix bicornis = 2 horns unicollis = 1 cervix
what structures are in the true pelvis?
bladder small bowel sigmoid colon rectum ovaries fallopian tubes uterus
what is the area of attachment of the fallopian tubes to the uterus?
cornua
what is the largest part of the uterus?
corpus
fibroid growth is stimulated by which hormone?
estrogen
what is sonohysterography?
evaluation of the endometrium using saline infusion into the endometrial lumen during transvaginal sonography
what is the inferior portion of the cervix closest to the vagina?
external os
what layer of the endometrium is significantly altered as a result of hormonal stimulation during the menstrual cycle?
functional layer
what is the most superior and widest portion of the uterus?
fundus
what are the four major regions of the uterus?
fundus, corpus (body), isthmus (lus), and cervix
endovaginal transducers may be cleaned by submerging in a(n) ____-based solution
glutaraldehyde
what is a unicornuate uterus?
has only one horn (fallopian)
what is a bicornuate uterus?
heart shaped uterus share one cervix and vagina
what is a simple fluid accumulation within the vagina secondary to an imperforate hymen?
hydrocolpos
what is the term for anechoic fluid distending the uterus and vagina within a pediatric patient?
hydrometrocolpos
what muscles are located lateral to the uterus?
iliopsoas
what is a subseptate uterus?
incomplete septum
what are the 3 layers of the vagina?
inner mucosal middle muscular adventitia
what is adenomyosis?
invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium
what section of the uterus is also referred to as the lower uterine segment?
isthmus
what lab test may be used as a tumor marker for ovarian dysgerminoma?
lactate dehydrogenase
where are the cardinal ligaments located?
lateral cervix to lateral fornix of vagina
a weakening in the ________ muscles can result in the prolapse of the pelvic organs.
levator ani (and coccygeus)
what do the group of muscles called the pelvic diaphragm consist of?
levator ani and coccygeus
what is the difference between a levoverted and dextroverted uterus?
levoverted- uterus located on the left dextroverted- uterus located on the right
what is the name of the imaginary line that divides the pelvis into the true/lesser and false/major pelvis?
linea terminalis
what is the term for abnormally heavy and prolonged menstrual flow between periods?
menometrorrhagia
a patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with a history of adenomyosis that was diagnosed following an MRI of the pelvis. what are the most likely sonographic findings?
myometrial cysts with enlargement of the posterior uterine wall
which ducts give rise to the uterus, vagina, and fallopian tubes
müllerian ducts (aka paramesonephric)
which two arteries anastomose to form the uterine arteries?
ovarian and internal iliac
where are the suspensory ligaments (aka infundibulopelvic ligament) located?
ovaries to pelvic side wall
what pouch is considered the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity, making it the most likely place for fluid to collect in the pelvis?
pouch of douglas
which vessels supply blood to the deep layers of the myometrium?
radial arteries
what does a hysteroscopic uterine septoplasty accomplish?
resectioning of the septum
how is a retroverted and retroflexed uterus positioned?
retroverted- body tilts back without a bend retroflexed- body tilts back, coming in contact with the cervix
what artifact could be noted emanating from air or gas within the endometrium in a patient with endometritis?
ring-down
what does the bony pelvis consist of?
sacrum coccyx innominate bones (ilium, ischium, pubic symphysis)
what bones mark the posterior border of the pelvic cavity?
sacrum and coccyx
what is the most common uterine anomaly that also has a clear association with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion?
septate uterus
what is a septate uterus?
septum that divides the uterine cavity in half
what are the 3 layers of the uterus?
serosal/perimetrium myometrium endometrium
what are the arteries in the functional layer of the endometrium that are altered by the hormones of the ovary and are shed with menstruation?
spiral arteries
which location of fibroids can lead to abnormal uterine bleeding, and a higher incidence of spontaneous abortion?
submucosal
what are the different locations for fibroids?
submucosal intramural subserosal pedunculated
upon sonographic evaluation of a patient complaining of abnormal distention, you visualize a large, hypoechoic mass distorting the anterior border of the uterus. what is the most likely location of this mass?
subserosal fibroid
which ligament of the ovary contains the ovarian artery and vein, lymphatics, and nerves?
suspensory ligament
what is the breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen in the breast and alters the sonographic appearance of the endometrium?
tamoxifen
TRUE OR FALSE: all venous structures mirror their arterial counterparts with the exception of the left ovarian vein, which instead of returning blood to the IVC, drains directly into the left renal vein.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: diethylstilbestrol (DES) was given from the 1940-1970s to treat threatened abortion and premature labor. a female fetus exposed to DES in utero has an increased likelihood of developing a congenital uterine malformation.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: pedunculated fibroids may undergo torsion, thus cutting off the blood supply to the mass. this lack of blood supply results in necrosis, and clinically, the patient will present with acute, localized pelvic pain.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: pre-puberty the cervix is equal to or greater than the fundus. post-puberty the fundus is larger than the cervix.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: pseudoprecocious puberty has been linked with ovarian, adrenal, and liver tumors.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the broad ligaments and suspensory ligament of the ovary are actually double folds of peritoneum.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: it is safe to assume that when there are congenital anomalies recognized on a uterus sonogram, coexisting anomalies may be present in the kidneys. (Explain)
true, because the uterus and kidneys develop around the same time
what is the most common disorder of sex development (ambiguous genitalia)?
turner syndrome (monosomy x)
how do the uterine arteries branch?
uterine artery ⬇ arcuate arteries (superficial myometrium) ⬇ radial arteries (deep myometrium) ⬇ ⬇ strAight and spiral arteries (bAsal and functional/decidual endometrium)
where are the round ligaments located?
uterine cornea to labia majora
what is the congenital malformation of the uterus that results in complete duplication of the genital tract?
uterus didelphys
where is the uterosacral ligament located?
uterus to sacrum
what is hysterosalpingography?
utilize contrast to evaluate the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes
what is twin embolization syndrome?
-vascular products travel from the demised twin to the surviving twin through common vascular channels within the shared placenta. -CNS and kidneys affected -neurological complications -hydrocephalus -porencephaly
when is the heart fully formed?
10 weeks
what is the normal embryonic heart rate between 5 and 6 weeks?
100 to 110 bpm
the second trimester typically refers to weeks:
14 to 26
by when should the fetal stomach be visualized?
14 weeks
what is the normal embryonic heart rate by 9 weeks?
154 bpm
approximately when does the corpus luteum resolve?
16 weeks gestation
edwards syndrome is an example of anueploidy in which there is an additional copy of a chromosome. which chromosome is affected?
18
how fast does the gestational sac grow?
1mm per day
how fast does the cerebellum grow?
1mm per week and correlates with the fetal gestational age
how many standard deviations below normal is IUGR?
2
what is the makeup of the normal umbilical cord?
2 arteries 1 vein
which chromosome is affected with down syndrome?
21
what is considered to be advanced maternal age?
35 and older
what is the minimum IRP value for bhCG that indicates a gestational sac should definitely be visualized by transabdominal ultrasound?
4000
how many chromosomes do normal diploid cells have?
46
what measurement should a placenta not exceed?
4cm
what is the average age at which menopause occurs?
51, with a range of 42-58
an 84-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. her endometrial thickness should not exceed:
5mm
with endometrial atrophy, the endometrial thickness should not exceed:
5mm
when does the normal postpartum uterus return to its nongravid size?
6 to 8 weeks after delivery
how many lobes make up the cerebrum and what are they?
6- frontal two temporal two parietal occipital
what measurement is considered abnormal for a nuchal fold?
6mm or larger
at what measurement is the yolk sac linked with a high rate of pregnancy failure?
7 mm
when does the fetal lip typically close by?
8 weeks
an asymptomatic 65-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with pelvic pain but no vaginal bleeding. her endometrial thickness should not exceed:
8mm
how long does a normal pregnancy last?
9 months, 40 weeks, 280 days
what measurement should be scrutinized closely in fetuses at risk for IUGR?
AC
what is the formula for the abdominal diameter?
AC = 1.57 x (AD1 + AD2)
what lab value may be elevated with chorioangioma?
AFP
what protein is produced by the yolk sac, fetal GI tract, and fetal liver?
AFP
what protein produced by the yolk sac and fetal liver is found in excess in the maternal circulation in the presence of a neural tube defect?
AFP
what tumor marker is elevated with a yolk sac tumor?
AFP
which renal cystic disease results in the development of cysts late in adulthood?
APKD
what are the sonographic findings of thanatophoric dysplasia?
CLOVERLEAF skull frontal bossing hydrocephalus bowing of the limbs
what fetal karyotyping procedure is done at 10-13 weeks where a needle or plastic catheter is placed into the placental mass for aspiration of trophoblastic cells?
CVS
what is the earliest procedure that can be done for fetal karyotyping?
CVS
what is the genetic disorder characterized by an absent or hypoplastic thymus?
DiGeorge syndrome
what would increase a patients likelihood of suffering from thromboembolism?
ERT
what is a thecoma?
ESTROGEN producing, benign ovarian sex-cord-stromal tumor
what is the first structure noted within the decidualized endometrium?
GS
what is the most common cause of enlarged, echogenic kidneys in utero?
IPKD
which renal cystic disease is associated with bilaterally enlarged echogenic kidneys and microscopic renal cysts?
IPKD
there are numerous noncommunicating cysts noted within the left renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation. what is the most likely etiology of these masses?
MCDK disease
due to the opening in the ventral wall, what lab value is elevated with limb-body wall complex (LBWC)?
MSAFP
what lab value is elevated in the presence of gastroschisis and omphalocele?
MSAFP
which lab value is particularly helpful in detecting neural tube defects?
MSAFP
what is the earliest sonographic measurement that can be obtained to date the pregnancy?
MSD/GS
a female patient presents to the sonography department with a clinical history of clomid treatment. she is complaining of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. what circumstance is most likely causing her clinical symptoms?
OHS
a 26-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of infertility and oligomenorrhea. sonographically, you discover that the ovaries are enlarged and contain multiple, small follicles along their periphery, with prominent echogenic stromal elements. what is the most likely diagnosis?
PCOS
what does the sonographic finding of the cogwheel sign indicate?
PID
what is fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome?
PID leads to a perihepatic infection and causes the development of adhesions between the liver and diaphragm, resulting in an inflamed liver capsule, thus leading to a clinical presentation much like cholecystitis -RUQ pain -ff in morison pouch -elevated LFTs
what three primary vesicles is the brain divided into?
PMR prosencephalon mesencephalon rhombencephalon
what is a common cause of PID?
STDs like chlamydia and gonorrhea
what sign is indicative of a monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy?
T sign
what is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate, and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction?
UPJ obstruction
what is one of the most common nosocomial infection?
UTI
what does VACTERL stand for?
Vertebral anomalies Anal atresia Cardiac defects Tracheal-Esophageal abnormalities Renal anomalies Limb anomalies
how can you differentiate between a fibroid and focal myometrial contraction?
a fibroid will alter the shape of the myometrium, wheras myometrial contractions typically disappear within 20 to 30 minutes
what is TORCH?
a group of infections that can cross the placenta and influence the development of the fetus
acrania can be broken down into anencephaly and exencephaly. what is exencephaly?
a normal amount of cerebral tissue is present
what is heterozygous achondroplasia?
a type of dwarfism with shortening of the proximal bones (rhizomelia)
what is a trident hand?
a wide separation between the middle and ring finger
what is the meaning of dysplasia?
abnormal development of a structure
what causes an atrioventricular defect (AVSD)?
abnormal development of the central portion of the heart
vasa previa is often associated with velamentous cord insertion. what is that?
abnormal insertion of the cord into the membranes beyond the placental edge
what is the most commonly identified predictor of poor outcome in a first trimester ultrasound?
abnormally large yolk sac
what is secondary amenorrhea?
absence of menstruation due to pregnancy or postmenopause
what is prune belly syndrome?
absent abdominal musculature undescended testis urinary tract abnormalities
what are the sonographic findings of radial ray defect?
absent or hypoplastic radius cardiac anomalies VACTERL association
what are the sonographic findings of caudal regression syndrome?
absent sacrum and coccyx
which twin in twin-reversed arterial perfusion has no heart, head, cervical spine, and upper limbs, the pump or acardiac twin?
acardiac twin
what is the name of the rare, lethal condition in which there is absent mineralization of the skeletal bones?
achondrogenesis
what disorder results in abnormal bone growth and dwarfism?
achondroplasia
what are the four most common skeletal dysplasias?
achondroplasia achondrogenesis osteogenesis imperfecta thanatophoric dysplasia
what is the most common location for chorioangioma?
adjacent to the umbilical cord insertion site at the placenta
what is the sonographic appearance of an ectopic pregnancy?
adnexal ring sign between the ovary and ut free fluid in the pelvis and morison pouch psuedogestational sac poorly decidualized endometrium
the "sunburst" of the cerebral sulci is the sonographic finding of what disorder?
agenesis of the corpus callosum
what structures develop during the 4th week of pregnancy?
alimentary canal- foregut, midgut, hindgut neural tube- head and spine
an anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. what is the most likely diagnosis?
allantoic cyst
what is the term for a mass that may be noted in the umbilical cord adjacent to the umbilical vessels?
allantoic cyst
what is the most severe form of holoprosencephaly?
alobar
what are the 3 main types of holoprosencephaly?
alobar, semilobar, lobar
what fetal karyotyping procedure is done at 15-20 weeks where an needle is inserted through the abdomen and into the amniotic sac to remove amniotic fluid?
amniocentesis
what are the 3 postulated causes for LBWC?
amnion rupture, vascular occlusion, embryonic malformation
what is the term for a group of abnormalities associated with the entrapment of fetal parts and fetal amputation?
amniotic band syndrome
why is pulmonary hypoplasia associated with oligohydramnios?
amniotic fluid plays a role in the development of fetal lungs, so a fetus, surrounded by little or no amniotic fluid is at risk for pulmonary hypoplasia
what is the most common location of an ectopic pregnancy?
ampulla
what is the most common site of fertilization?
ampulla
what are the sonographic findings of amniotic band syndrome?
amputation of fetal parts severe edema thin, linear bands facial clefting
what causes a cleft lip or palate?
an abnormal or incomplete closure of lip and palate
what is the foramen ovale of the fetal heart?
an opening in the atrial septum, for blood to flow from the right to left atrium
what is fetal karyotyping?
analysis of fetal chromosomes, recommended for woman of advanced maternal age
what is the sonographic appearance of the cavum septum pellucidum?
anechoic box-shaped structure in the axial scan plane
what is the sonographic appearance of a serous cystadenoma?
anechoic lesion with septations and/or papillary projections
what is another name for a blighted ovum?
anembryonic pregnancy
when the cephalic end of the neural tube fails to close, _______ occurs. when the distal end of the neural tube fails to close, _______ occurs.
anencephaly spina bifida
what are the two most common neural tube defects?
anencephaly and spina bifida
what is the condition in which there are an abnormal number of whole chromosomes?
aneuploidy
what is the term for the absence of the eye(s)?
anophthalmia
what is the congenital maldevelopment of the rectum and absence of the anal opening termed?
anorectal atresia
what is the most common type of atresia that leads to bowel obstruction?
anorectal atresia
what is the most common type of colonic atresia?
anorectal atresia
what is stein-leventhal syndrome?
another name for PCOS
what type of cycle do birth control pills produce?
anovulatory
what is the uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward and comes in contact with the cervix?
anteflexed
what are the anterior and posterior fontanelles referred to as?
anterior bregma posterior lambda
what is the most common cause of hypertelorism?
anterior cephalocele that displaces the orbits laterally
what is the sonographic appearance of a fetal goiter?
anterior fetal neck mass
where is the fourth ventricle located?
anterior to the cerebellum
the left ventricular outflow tract leads to which artery?
aorta
what genetic disorder includes craniosynostosis, midline facial hypoplasia, and syndactyly?
apert syndrome
what is the most common form of spina bifida?
aperta
how does the third ventricle communicate with the fourth ventricle?
aqueduct of sylvius
what is aqueductal stenosis?
aqueduct of sylvius may be narrowed, thus preventing flow of CSF from the third to fourth ventricle
what is the most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero?
aqueductal stenosis
arachnoid cysts can be confused with porencephaly. what is the difference between the two?
arachnoid cysts do not communicate with the ventricular system
what is the middle layer of the meninges?
arachnoid membrane
which structure is responsible for the reabsorption of CSF into the venous system?
arachnoid villi or arachnoid granulations
what is a cisterna magna of less than 2mm associated with?
arnold-chiari II malformation
when do the amnion and chorion (gs) typically fuse?
around 14 weeks
what is the vein of galen aneurysm?
arteriovenous malformation that occurs within the fetal brain
what abnormality results in limitation of the fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures?
arthrogryposis
what does the LVOT include?
ascending aorta
what is the origin for a majority of the upper genital tract infections?
ascending infection from the lower genital tract
what is the primary purpose of performing serial doppler evaluations of the umbilical artery?
assess for signs of placental insufficiency
what should the cervical length measure?
at least 3cm
what is the term for an abnormal opening in the septum between the two atria of the heart?
atrial septal defect (ASD)
how do the ovaries look postmenopausal?
atrophied and hard to find
which form of endometrial hyperplasia is at an increased risk for progressing into endometrial carcinoma?
atypical adenomatous hyperplasia
what is the form of inheritance in which at least one parent has to be a carrier of an abnormal gene for it to be passed to the fetus?
autosomal dominant
what is APKD?
autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
what is another term for infantile polycystic kidney disease (IPKD)?
autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
what hormone do the trophoblastic cells produce?
b-hCG
what are the two layers of the endometrium?
basal and functional layer
what is the outer layer of the endometrium called?
basal layer
how should you measure the endometrium?
basal layer to basal layer
how can OHS result in ovarian torsion?
because of the cystic enlargement of the ovaries
what becomes of the graafian follicle after rupture?
becomes the corpus luteum
what is considered premature delivery?
before 37 weeks
what are nabothian cysts?
benign cervical cysts
what is a gartner duct cyst?
benign cyst in the vagina
what are endometrial polyps?
benign nodule of hyperplastic endometrial tissue
what is an ovarian fibroma?
benign ovarian masses that may be complicated by meigs syndrome
what is a brenner tumor (transitional cell tumor)?
benign ovarian tumor that can undergo malignant degeneration
when is the nuchal fold measurement typically obtained?
between 15 and 21 weeks
when does the axial skeleton begin to form?
between 6-8th week
where is the urachus located?
between the apex of the bladder and umbilicus
what is the most common location for coarctation of the aorta?
between the left subclavian and ductus arteriosis
where is the cerebellar vermis located?
between the two lobes of the cerebellum
what are the typical sonographic findings of APKD?
bilateral enlarged echogenic bladder is present normal amniotic fluid
what are the typical sonographic findings of IPKD?
bilateral enlarged echogenic undetected bladder oligohydramnios
what is potter syndrome?
bilateral renal agenesis
what is the sonographic appearance of a theca lutein cyst?
bilateral, multiloculated measuring up to 15cm
what is the term for a placenta that consists of two separate discs of equal size?
bilobed placenta
what is the name for the measurement taken from the lateral margin of one orbit to the lateral margin of the next orbit?
binocular diameter
what does a normal ductus venosus waveform in the first trimester look like?
biphasic with a positive a-wave
what is the abnormality where the bladder is located outside the pelvis?
bladder exstrophy
what is the anechoic or complex mass located between the lower uterine segment and the posterior bladder wall?
bladder flap hematoma
what is the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium?
blastocyst
what structure does the morula differentiate into?
blastocyst
what is subchorionic hemorrhage?
bleed between the endometrium and gestational sac
what is a bladder outlet obstruction?
blockage of the flow of urine out of the bladder
what does a cephalic index of more than 85 denote?
brachycephalic head
what is the term for a round, or short and wide head shape?
brachycephaly
what is arnold-chiari II malformation?
brain tissue extends into spinal canal; associated with spina bifida
where do the uterine arteries branch from and what do they supply?
branch from internal iliac arteries supply uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries
what is a benign congenital neck cyst found most often near the angle of the mandible?
branchial cleft cyst
what is tamoxifen?
breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen on the breast, thus slowing the growth of cancer
what is the sonographic appearance of asherman syndrome using sonohysterography?
bright bands of tissue traversing the uterine cavity
what is another name for osteogenesis imperfecta?
brittle bone disease
what is the pelvic ligament that extends from the lateral aspect of the uterus to the side walls of the pelvis?
broad ligament
the sonographic pelvic examination of a female patient reveals an extensive amount of ascites. in the transverse plane, you visualize two echogenic structures extending from the side walls of uterus to the pelvic side walls bilaterally. what structure are you seeing?
broad ligaments
what are nonimmune hydrops?
buildup of fluid within at least two fetal body cavities
how is fetal age determined?
by LMP
what disorder is associated with bowing of the long bones?
campomelic dysplasia
what is an elevation in the tumor marker CA-125 associated with?
cancer of the ovary, endometrium, breast, GI tract and lungs endometriosis, PID, fibroids, and pregnancy
what does the letter C in VACTERL association stand for?
cardiac
which ligaments house the vasculature of the uterus?
cardinal
if cardiomegaly is suspected on a 28 week fetus, what measurement would assist the most in confirming the diagnosis?
cardiothoracic ratio
what is the condition associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx?
caudal regression syndrome
what does FSH do?
causes the development of multiple follicles on the ovaries
at what level is the nuchal fold measurement obtained?
cavum septum pellucidum
what is the anechoic midline brain structure located between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles?
cavum septum pellucidum
what is the term for close-set eyes and a nose with a single nostril?
cebocephaly
where does the umbilical cord normally insert?
central portion of placenta
what is the most common fetal presentation?
cephalic
what formula is used to calculate the cephalic index?
cephalic index = BPD/OFD x 100
what are encephaloceles?
cephaloceles which include brain tissue
what is the term for the treatment of an incompetent cervix?
cerclage
what is the largest part of the brain?
cerebrum
what are the two main parts of the brain?
cerebrum and cerebellum
what is the most common malignancy in women younger than 50?
cervical carcinoma
what is the term for the painless dilation of the cervix in the second or early third trimester?
cervical incompetence
what is the progression of PID into the cervix termed?
cervicitis
what is the rigid region of the uterus located between the vagina and isthmus?
cervix
what is the most common placental tumor?
chorioangioma
what is the fetal contribution to the placenta?
chorion frondosum, derived from the blastocyst and containing the chorionic villi
what part of the placenta is closest to the fetus?
chorionic plate
what three parts does the placenta consist of?
chorionic plate placenta substance basal layer
what structure allows the blastocyst to link with the maternal endometrium?
chorionic villi
what three main procedures are used to obtain material for fetal karyotyping?
chorionic villi sampling (CVS) amniocentesis cordocentesis
during a 12-week sonogram, bilateral echogenic structures are noted within the lateral ventricles of the fetal cranium. what do these structures represent?
choroid plexus
what is the term for an abnormally shaped placenta caused by the membranes inserting inward from the edge of the placenta, producing a curled-up placental contour?
circumvallate placenta
what is the largest cistern in the head?
cisterna magna
what is the bending of the fifth digit towards the fourth digit called?
clinodactyly
what is the most common finding of abnormal external genitalia in the female?
clitoromegaly
what is the embryonic structure that develops into the rectum and urogenital sinus?
cloaca
what is another name for OEIS complex?
cloacal exstrophy
what medication is administered to cause the ovaries to produce follicles?
clomid
what is spina bifida occulta?
closed lesion, typically covered by skin no herniation of the spinal contents
what is the term for the narrowing of the aortic arch?
coarctation of the aorta
what is the term for the enlargement of the occipital horns and narrowing of the frontal horns?
colpocephaly
what is the most severe form of placental abruption and what does it lead to?
complete abruption, leads to the development of a retroplacental hematoma located between the placenta and myometrium
what is the most common form of gestational trophoblastic disease?
complete molar pregnancy
what is the sonographic appearance of a hemorrhagic cyst?
complex or echogenic depending on the hemorrhage, also weblike or lacy appearance
what is the sonographic appearance of sacrococcygeal teratoma?
complex or solid mass extending posteriorly and inferiorly from the distal fetal spine
what is meigs syndrome?
condition of having a benign ovarian tumor with ASCITES and PLEURAL EFFUSION
what abnormality is associated with a mass consisting of abnormal bronchial and lung tissue?
congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CAM)
what causes nonimmune hydrops?
congenital fetal anomalies and infections
division of the inner cell mass after day 13 will result in what form of twin pregnancy?
conjoined
what is the purpose of the isthmus?
connects the interstitial area to the ampulla
what is the sonographic appearance of an endometrial polyp?
contains a small vessel, has cystic areas within it
what happens if the graafian follicle fails to ovulate?
continues to enlarge and can become a follicular cyst (3-8cm)
what is compensatory renal hypertrophy?
contralateral kidney will enlarge in the presence of unilateral agenesis
what fetal karyotyping procedure is done after 17 weeks where a needle is placed through the abdomen and into the umbilical vein at the area of the cord insertion to draw a sample of fetal blood?
cordocentesis
what suture is located between the frontal and two parietal bones?
coronal suture
which structure remains after the corpus luteum has regressed?
corpus albicans
what is the term for the band of tissue that allows communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres?
corpus callosum
sonographically, a normal-appearing 7-week IUP is identified. within the adnexa, an ovarian cystic structure with a thick, hyperechoic rim is also discovered. what does this ovarian mass most likely represent?
corpus luteum cyst
what is the most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy?
corpus luteum cyst
does oogenesis occur in the medulla or cortex of the ovary?
cortex
what is the most accurate sonographic measurement of pregnancy?
crown rump length (CRL)
what is the term for the removal of tissue from the endometrium by scraping?
curettage
what are two external findings related to holoprosencephaly?
cyclopia- one eye proboscis- false nose above the eyes
what is a choledochal cyst?
cystic dilation of the CBD
what is an inherited disorder in which mucus secreting organs such as the lungs, pancreas, and other digestive organs produce thick and sticky secretions instead of normal secretions?
cystic fibrosis
what two abnormalities are associated with echogenic bowel?
cystic fibrosis down syndrome (T21)
a large, cystic mass containing a thick midline septation is noted in the cervical spine of a fetus. what is the name of this mass?
cystic hygroma
what disorder results in an abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue?
cystic hygroma
a 25-year-old patient presents to the sonography department complaining of pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and oligomenorrhea. an ovarian mass, thought to be a chocolate cyst, is noted during the examination. what is the most common sonographic appearance of this mass?
cystic mass with low-level echoes
what is the sonographic appearance of cystic hygroma?
cystic neck mass divided in the midline by a thick fibrous band of tissue
what is the most common benign ovarian tumor?
cystic teratoma (dermoid)
what are choroid plexus cysts?
cysts located within the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles
among TORCH, what is the most common congenital infection?
cytomegalovirus
what cerebral malformation is associated with agenesis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis?
dandy-walker malformation
what is a missed abortion?
dead fetus retained in the uterus
what is the maternal contribution to the placenta?
decidua basalis, endometrium below placenta
what is the first non-specific sonographically identifiable sign of a pregnancy?
decidual reaction
how does menopause affect the uterus and ovaries?
decrease in size; ovaries become echogenic and lack follicles
what causes pulmonary hypoplasia?
decreased number of lung cells, airways, and alveoli
what causes dandy-walker malformation?
development abnormality in the roof of the fourth ventricle
what is the importance of the rhombencephalon?
develops into the fourth ventricle and other essential brain structures
twins who share an amniotic sac are referred to as monoamniotic. what are twins who have separate amniotic sacs referred to as?
diamniotic
what abnormality is associated with an abnormal opening in the fetal diaphragm that allows the herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity?
diaphragmatic hernia
what does the visualization of the fetal stomach within the fetal chest indicate?
diaphragmatic hernia
what is the most common lesion that occupies the chest, resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia?
diaphragmatic hernia
what is the most common reason for fetal cardiac malposition?
diaphragmatic hernia
twins who share a placenta are referred to as monochorionic. what are twins who have separate placentas referred to as?
dichorionic
division of the inner cell mass before day 4 will result in what form of monozygotic twins?
dichorionic diamniotic
the sonographic examination of twins reveals a triangular extension of the placenta at the base of the membrane. what does this finding indicate?
dichorionic diamniotic
what is the sonographic finding of an endometrial polyp?
diffuse thickening of the endometrium
how is RPOC treated?
dilatation and curettage
what is hydrocephalus?
dilation of the ventricular system caused by an increase in CSF
what is the first sonographic manifestation of TTTS?
discordant fetal growth
what is the most common form of twinning?
dizygotic twins
what does a cephalic index of less than 75 denote?
dolichocephalic head
what is the term for an elongated, narrow head shape?
dolichocephaly, also known as scaphocephaly
what happens during ovulation?
dominant follicle ruptures and releases the ovum into the peritoneal cavity along with some follicular fluid
what twin suffers from anemia and growth restriction in twin-twin transfusion syndrome, the donor or recipient?
donor
a 38-year-old pregnant woman presents to the sonography department for an obstetrical sonogram with abnormal maternal serum screening. her alpha-fetoprotein and estriol are low, whereas her hCG is elevated. what are these laboratory findings most consistent with?
down syndrome
what is trisomy 21?
down syndrome
what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of duodenal atresia, increased nuchal translucency (1T), increased nuchal fold thickness (2T), pyelectasis, widened pelvic angles, and absent nasal bones point to?
down syndrome (T21)
what is the most common chromosomal abnormality?
down syndrome (T21)
a 22-week fetus with clinodactyly, an echogenic intracardiac focus, and hyperechoic bowel is noted during a screening obstetrical sonogram. what are these findings consistent with?
down synrome (T21)
what is pergonal?
drug that consists of FSH and LH, often given with hCG
what is the fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch?
ductus arteriosis
what structure shunts blood into the IVC from the umbilical vein?
ductus venosus
why is PID linked with infertility and ectopic pregnancy?
due to the formation of scar tissue
what is the cerebellum?
dumbbell-shaped structure in the posterior cranium
what abnormality is associated with the congenital malformation or absence of the duodenum?
duodenal atresia
what is the most common renal anomaly?
duplex collecting system
what is the outermost layer of the meninges?
dura mater
how is it helpful to determine the number of yolk sacs with monochorionic twins in the first trimester?
each yolk sac has its own amniotic sac
what is the cause of obstructive cystic dysplasia?
early renal obstruction
what is the term for the malformation or malpositioning of the tricuspid valve?
ebstein anomaly
what is the dangling choroid sign?
echogenic choroid plexus hanging limp and surrounded by CSF within the dilated lateral ventricle
what abnormality is associated with the calcification of the papillary muscle or chordae tendineae of the left ventricle?
echogenic intracardiac focus (EIF)
where is rhabdomyoma located?
echogenic tumors within the myocardium
what is the sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration?
echogenic, TRIANGULAR-shaped mass on the LEFT side of the fetal chest
what is the abnormality where the heart is located either partially or completely outside the chest?
ectopic cordis
a 35-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of tubal ligation and positive pregnancy test. what condition should be highly suspected?
ectopic pregnancy
what is the most common cause of pelvic pain with a positive pregnancy test?
ectopic pregnancy
what is trisomy 18?
edwards syndrome
what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of strawberry shaped skull, choroid plexus cysts, micrognathia, rockerbottom feet, omphalocele, clenched fists, and a single umbilical artery point to?
edwards syndrome (T18)
what is the second most common chromosomal abnormality?
edwards syndrome (T18)
what trisomy is a strawberry shaped skull associated with?
edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)
which syndrome is most common in the amish community and is associated with short limb dwarfism, polydactyly, and congenital heart defects?
ellis-van creveld syndrome
what does the inner part of the blastocyst develop into?
embryo amnion umbilical cord primary and secondary yolk sacs
what structures develop during the 5th week of pregnancy?
embryonic heart
what abnormality is associated with meninges and brain tissue herniating through a bony defect in the calvarium?
encephalocele
what is menopause?
end of menstruation with advanced age
sacrococcygeal teratoma containedes elements of the three different germ cell layers. what are those?
endoderm mesoderm ectoderm
a 60-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. the sonographic examination reveals an endometrium that measures 4mm. there are no other significant sonographic findings. what is the most likely diagnosis?
endometrial atrophy
a 68-year-old patient presents to the sonography department complaining of vaginal bleeding. what is the most likely cause of her bleeding?
endometrial atrophy
what does an endometrial thickness threshold of less than 5mm indicate, along with postmenopausal vaginal bleeding?
endometrial atrophy
what is the most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding?
endometrial atrophy
what does an endometrial thickness threshold of 4-5mm indicate, along with postmenopausal vaginal bleeding?
endometrial carcinoma
what is the most common gynecological malignancy?
endometrial carcinoma
a 67-year-old patient on HRT presents to the sonography department with abnormal uterine bleeding. sonographically, the endometrium is diffusely thickened, contains small cystic areas, and measures 9mm in thickness. what is the most likely cause of her bleeding?
endometrial hyperplasia
what is an increase in the number of endometrial cells termed?
endometrial hyperplasia
what abnormalities is tamoxifen associated with?
endometrial hyperplasia, polyps, and cancer
a 34-year-old patient presents to the sonography department for an endovaginal sonogram complaining of intermenstrual bleeding. the sonographic findings include a focal irregularity and enlargement of one area of the endometrium. what is the most likely diagnosis?
endometrial polyps
a patient presents to the sonography department with complaints of infertility and painful menstrual cycles. sonographically, you discover a cystic mass on the ovary consisting low-level echoes. based on the clinical and sonographic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
endometrioma
what is the benign, blood-containing tumor that forms from the implantation of ectopic endometrial tissue?
endometrioma, aka chocolate cyst
what is the progression of PID into the endometrium termed?
endometritis
what is an arcuate uterus?
endometrium has a concave contour at the uterine fundus
what is megacystis?
enlarged bladder
what is the sonographic finding of dandy-walker malformation?
enlarged cisterna magna that communicates with a distended fourth ventricle through a defect in the cerebellum
what is the sequela of OHS?
enlarged ovaries large follicles known as theca lutein cysts (theca lutein cysts occur because of high b-hCG, which is given as part of fertility treatment) ovarian torsion
what are the sonographic signs of ebstein anomaly?
enlarged right atrium fetal hydrops malpositioned tricuspid
what is mega cisterna magna?
enlargement of the cisterna magna without involvement of the fourth ventricle
what is pyelectasis?
enlargement of the urinary bladder, ureter, and renal calices
what membrane lines each ventricle?
ependyma
what is immune hydrops associated with?
erythroblastosis fetalis and Rh isoimmunization
what is the term for the congenital absence of the esophagus?
esophageal atresia
what form of permanent birth control would be seen sonographically as echogenic, linear structures within the lumen of both isthmic portions of the fallopian tubes?
essure devices
what hormones do the ovaries produce?
estrogen and progesterone
what is the term for a condition in which there is no nose and a proboscis separating two close-set orbits.
ethmocephaly
what is the fetal form of pulmonary sequestration?
extrapulmonary sequestration
what is holoprosencephaly?
failure of prosencephalon to divide correctly into right and left hemispheres
what causes anophthalmia?
failure of the optic vesicle to form
what is salpingitis?
fallopian tubes become inflamed due to infection
what is proboscis?
false nose above the orbits
what is the term for the double fold of dura mater that divides the cerebral hemispheres?
falx cerebri
what is meckel-gruber syndrome?
fatal disorder associated with cystic renal disease, occipital encephalocele, and polydactyly
what demographic is affected by yolk sac tumors?
females younger than 20
with Rh isoimmunization, the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy what?
fetal RBCs
a shunt is the most common treatment for hydrocephalus. what does the shunt drain the cerebrospinal fluid from the dilated lateral ventricles into?
fetal abdomen
what is the most common cause of intellectual disability in the united states?
fetal alcohol syndrome
what do the roberts sign and deuel sign indicate?
fetal demise
what is the term for the isolated enlargement of the fetal thyroid?
fetal goiter
a coexisting pericardial effusion and pleural effusion is consistent with what anomaly?
fetal hydrops
what is the abnormality where there is an accumulation of fluid within at least two fetal body cavities?
fetal hydrops
what organ(s) produce amniotic fluid after 12 weeks?
fetal kidneys
what structures can be visualized during the 7th week of pregnancy?
fetal limb buds rhombencephalon (hindbrain)
what is meconium?
fetal stool
what contributes the majority of amniotic fluid?
fetal urine
how does IUGR manifest?
fetus is uniformly small OR asymmetrically where the femur is normal while the other measurements are small for gestation
what is the term for a fetus that dies in the first trimester and is maintained throughout the pregnancy?
fetus papyraceus
what is the most common benign gynecologic tumor, and the leading cause of hysterectomy and gyn surgery?
fibroid
what is a common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding?
fibroids within the uterine cavity
what is the purpose of the fimbria?
fingerlike projections that draw the unfertilized egg into the tube
what is the cause of multicystic dysplastic kidney disease (MCDK)?
first trimester obstruction of the ureter
what are the weeks for the first, second, and third trimesters?
first- 1-13 second 14-28 third 29-40
what is the development of adhesions between the liver and diaphragm due to PID referred to as?
fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome
what are the two sonographic findings helpful in making the diagnosis of renal agenesis?
flattened "lying down" adrenal gland no identifiable renal artery branches
what is the difference between hydrosalpinx, pyosalpinx, and hematosalpinx?
fluid, pus, or blood within the fallopian tubes respectively
what is the amnion?
fluid-filled sac containing the embryo
what is the cisterna magna and where is it located?
fluid-filled space located posterior to the cerebellum and between the cerebellar vermis
what is the double bubble sign of duodenal atresia?
fluid-filled stomach and proximal duodenum
what is the maternal dietary supplement that has been shown to significantly reduce the likelihood of the fetus suffering from a neural tube defect?
folate
what hormone causes the ovaries to develop follicles, and where is that hormone produced?
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) released by the anterior pituitary
what happens during menopause?
follicles cease to mature, leading to a reduction in the amounts of estrogen and progesterone
what are the two phases of the ovarian cycle?
follicular and luteal
what is a hemorrhagic cyst?
follicular cyst that contains blood
what is the term for the spaces between the fetal cranial bones?
fontanelles aka soft spots
what is the fetal presentation where the feet are closest to the cervix?
footling breech
what is the term for the opening in the base of the cranium through which the spinal cord travels?
foramen magnum
how does CSF travel from the fourth ventricle to the cisterna magna?
foramen of magendie
the foramen of bochdalek leads to left-sided diaphragmatic hernia. which foramen leads to right-sided diaphragmatic hernia?
foramen of morgagni
how does CSF travel from the fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space?
foramina of luschka
how does CSF travel from the lateral ventricles into the third ventricle?
foramina of monroe
what is the prosencephalon?
forebrain
what are the recesses of the vagina?
fornices
what are choroid plexus papillomas?
found within choroid plexus, produce an increase in the production of CSF, leading to ventriculomegaly
how many ventricles are part of the ventricular system and what is their primary function?
four ventricles that provide cushioning for the brain
which ventricle is located anterior to the cerebellar vermis?
fourth ventricle
with what structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with dandy-walker malformation communicate?
fourth ventricle
what is the fetal presentation when the fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix?
frank breech
what is another name for dizygotic twins?
fraternal twins
what is the sonographic appearance of anencephaly?
froglike bulging eyes absent cranium
how do you obtain the three vessel view for fetal heart evaluation?
from an apical four chamber view, slide the transducer cephalad
what does idiopathic mean?
from an unknown cause
how is the BPD taken?
from outer to inner
how is nuchal translucency measured?
from the outer occipital bone to the outer edge of the skin
how is the cisterna magna measured?
from the vermis to the inner margin of the occipital bone
what is the term for the premature opening of the internal os and the subsequent bulging of the membranes into the dilated cervix?
funneling
when is alobar holoprosencephaly diagnosed?
fused thalami monoventricle absent corpus callosum, cavum septum pellucidum, third ventricle, interhemispheric fissure, falx cerebri
what is sirenomelia?
fusion of the lower extremities
evidence of polyhydramnios should warrant a careful investigation of which fetal system, genitourinary or gastrointestinal?
gastrointestinal
are MSAFP levels higher in gastroschisis or omphalocele?
gastroschisis
is the prognosis better for gastroschisis or omphalocele?
gastroschisis
what anomaly of the fetal digestive system has been associated with maternal use of aspirin during pregnancy?
gastroschisis
what is the term for the herniation of abdominal contents through a right-sided, periumbilical abdominal wall defect?
gastroschisis
what are the two most common ventral abdominal wall defects?
gastroschisis omphalocele
what is the most common origin of intracranial hemorrhage?
germinal matrix
what is the most common type of diabetes during pregnancy?
gestational diabetes
what is the most common sex-cord-stromal, estrogen producing tumor with malignant potential?
granulosa cell tumor
what is open lip schizencephaly?
gray matter-lined clefts containing CSF
what is gestational trophoblastic disease?
group of disorders that result from an abnormal combination of male and female gametes
what is the germinal matrix?
group of thin-walled, pressure-sensitive vessels located in the subependymal layer of the ventricles
what hormone does the placenta produce?
hCG
what hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy?
hCG
which hormones does the placenta produce?
hCG PAPP-A estriol inhibin A
what three laboratory values typically compromise the triple screen test?
hCG maternal serum AFP (MSAFP) estriol
what is a dermoid mesh?
hair appears as numerous linear interfaces within the cystic area of a dermoid
what is mesoblastic nephroma?
hamartoma of the kidney
what is the most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age?
head circumference
what does pulsatile flow in the umbilical vein of a 34 week gestation indicate?
heart failure in fetus
what is the most common tumor of the umbilical cord?
hemangioma
a 13-year-old girl presents to the sonography department with a history of cyclic pain, abdominal swelling, and amenorrhea. sonographically, you visualize an enlarged uterus and a distended vagina that contains anechoic fluid with debris. what is the most likely diagnosis?
hematocolpos
what is the anomaly of the spine in which there is absence of all or part of a vertebral body and posterior element?
hemivertebra
what is erythroblastosis fetalis/Rh isoimmunization?
hemolytic anemia pregnant mother's Rh negative antibodies cross the placenta and attack the RBCs of her unborn child
what is the most common abnormality of the fetal liver?
hepatomegaly
ovulation induction drugs increase the likelihood of multiple gestations and what else?
heterotopic pregnancies
what is the most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia?
heterozygous achondroplasia
during the early follicular and late luteal phase, what pattern does the ovarian artery demonstrate?
high resistance
which lab values are high and low with down syndrome (T21)?
high- hCG and inhibin A low- estriol and PAPP-A
what is the rhombencephalon?
hindbrain
what is the term for the functional bowel disorder within the fetus that is caused by the absence of intestinal nerves?
hirschsprung disease
what are the risk factors for developing PID?
history of PID IUD postabortion post childbirth douching multiple sexual partners early sexual contact STDs
what factors increase the risk for multiple gestation?
history of multiple gest assisted reproductive therapy (ART) ovulation induction drugs advanced maternal age obesity
what is the most common cause of hypotelorism?
holoprosencephaly
what is dysfunctional uterine bleeding?
hormonal imbalance resulting in endometrial changes with bleeding
what does fusion of the lower poles of the kidney describe?
horseshoe kidney
the sonographic finding of a fluid-filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with which disorder?
hydranencephaly
what is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric exam?
hydronephrosis
what is the term for the dilation of the renal collecting system secondary to the obstruction of normal urine flow?
hydronephrosis
what abnormalities is the vein of galen aneurysm associated with?
hydrops and cardiomegaly
what does the sonographic appearance of a tubular, simple-appearing, anechoic structure within the adnexa describe?
hydrosalpinx
what is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHS)?
hyperstimulation of ovaries by fertility drugs. results in enlarged follicular ovarian cysts (theca lutein cysts)
what is the term for the increased distance between the orbits?
hypertelorism
when the sonographic three-line sign is present, what is the appearance of the functional layer of the endometrium?
hypoechoic
what is the sonographic appearance of an ovarian fibroma?
hypoechoic, solid mass with posterior attenuation mimic pedunculated fibroid
what is the sonographic appearance of a thecoma?
hypoechoic, solid unilateral mass with posterior attenuation
what are the effects of asherman syndrome?
hypomenorrhea, amenorrhea, pregnancy loss, infertility
if posterior shadowing from the skull, ribs, and long bones is demonstrated, which abnormality can be ruled out?
hypophosphatasia
what are the group of anomalies characterized sonographically as a small or absent left ventricle?
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
what is the leading cause of cardiac death in the neonatal period, with 95% dying within the first month of life if surgery is not performed?
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
what is the term for a small or absent right ventricle?
hypoplastic right heart syndrome
what is the term for the abnormal ventral curvature of the penis as a result of a shortened urethra that exits on the ventral penile shaft?
hypospadias
what is the term for a reduction in the distance between the orbits?
hypotelorism
what is the radiographic procedure used to evaluate the patency of the fallopian tubes?
hysterosalpingography
what is another name for monozygotic twins?
identical twins
what is the purpose of the corpus luteum if fertilization does or does not occur?
if fertilization occurs- produce progesterone to maintain pregnancy until the placenta can take over if fertilization doesn't occur- corpus luteum regresses and becomes the corpus albicans
which hydrops occurs when the mother has Rh-negative blood and the fetus has Rh-positive blood?
immune hydrops
what does the I in OEIS complex stand for?
imperforate anus
what causes a subchorionic hemorrhage?
implantation
where is the secondary yolk sac located?
in the chorionic cavity, between the amnion and chorion
what typically causes IUGR?
inadequate transfer of nutrients from mother to the fetus; dysfunction of the placenta
what is the most common cause of abnormal serum screening tests?
incorrect dating of the pregnancy
does the MSAFP value increase or decrease with anencephaly?
increase
does the MSAFP value increase or decrease with gastroschisis?
increase
what is the whirlpool sign?
indicator of a torsed ovarian pedicle adjacent to the ovary, appearing as a round mass with concentric hypoechoic and hyperechoic rings that demonstrate swirling color doppler
what is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
infection of the upper genital tract (reproductive organs)
what is endometritis?
inflammation of the endometrium
what structure divides the cerebrum into left and right hemispheres?
interhemispheric fissure
what marks the superior portion of the cervix?
internal os
what is the name for the measurement taken between the orbits?
interocular diameter
an ectopic pregnancy that forms in which portion of the fallopian tube will have the greatest complications?
interstitial
what are the five parts of the fallopian tube?
interstitial isthmus ampulla infundibulum fimbria
what is the most common sonographic finding of fetal infections, especially cytomegalovirus?
intracranial calcifications
what is the most likely fetal cranial finding with TORCH infections?
intracranial calcifications
what causes porencephaly?
intracranial hemorrhage
what is the most common location for fibroids?
intramural
are the ovaries intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?
intraperitoneal (GLOSS)
what is a heterotopic pregnancy?
intrauterine and ectopic pregnancy at the same time
what is an IUD?
intrauterine device used to prevent implantation of the fertilized ovum
what are the causes of fetal hepatomegaly?
intrauterine infections fetal anemia (Rh) incompatibility beckwith-wiedemann syndrome
what is asherman syndrome?
intrauterine synechiae that result from uterine surgery such as a D&C.
what are the most common forms of malignant gestational trophoblastic disease?
invasive mole and choriocarcinoma
what is the cause of UPJ obstruction?
irregular development of smooth muscle
why is sirenomelia lethal?
it is accompanied by bilateral renal agenesis
what is the sonographic finding of posterior urethral valves?
keyhole sign
what sex chromosome anomaly is associated with hypogonadism and subnormal intelligence in males?
klinefelter syndrome
what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of hypogonadism, small testis, tall stature, long legs and arms, and gynecomastia point to?
klinefelter syndrome (XXY)
which chromosomal abnormality is found exclusively in males?
klinefelter syndrome (XXY)
what is the term for an abnormal posterior curvature of the spine?
kyphosis
a differential diagnosis of diaphragmatic hernia is eventration of the diaphragm. what is that?
lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm
what sign is indicative of a dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy?
lambda sign (aka twin peak/delta sign)
what suture is located between the two parietal bones and occipital bone?
lamdoidal suture
what do the two neural processes of the fetal spine develop into?
lamina, pedicle, transverse process
what are the sonographic findings for achondrogenesis?
large skull shortened limbs demineralization of skull, spine, pelvis, limbs distended abdomen narrow chest
what is the sonographic appearance of a mucinous cystadenoma?
large with debris, septations, and papillary projections, usually unilateral
what is the sonographic appearance of the vein of galen aneurysm?
large, anechoic mass within the midline of the cranium with turbulent flow
what are theca lutein cysts?
largest and least common cyst
during which phase of the endometrial cycle would the endometrium yield the three-line sign?
late proliferative
what is ventriculomegaly?
lateral ventricle measuring more than 10mm
what ratio is used to assess fetal lung maturity?
lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio (L/S ratio)
on which side of the heart is the bicuspid aka mitral valve?
left
where does the blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enter into?
left atrium
which heart chamber is closest to the fetal spine?
left atrium
what is the most common location of diaphragmatic hernia?
left side; referred to as bochdalek hernia
what is another name for a fibroid?
leiomyoma
what is the malignant counterpart of a fibroid?
leiomyosarcoma
which two yellow fruits is spina bifida associated with?
lemon and banana
what is the sonographic appearance of arnold-chiari II malformation (spina bifida)?
lemon shaped skull banana shaped cerebellum obliterated cisterna magna enlarged massa intermedia hydrocephalus
at what level is the lateral ventricle measured?
level of the atrium
what does the letter L in VACTERL association stand for?
limb
what is the purpose of the corpus callosum?
links the left and right cerebral hemispheres in the midline; allows communication
The placenta consists of approximately 10 to 30 cotyledons. what does this mean?
lobes of chorionic villi
what is the purpose of the choroid plexus and where is it located?
located at the atrium of the lateral ventricles where the temporal and occipital horn meet. produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
what is the purpose of the ampulla?
longest and most tortuous segment; location of fertilization and area where ectopic pregnancies often embed
how can you differentiate the intradecidual sign from the pseudogestational sac of an ectopic pregnancy?
look for the double sac or double decidual sign
what is the sonographic appearance of placenta accreta?
loss of the normal hypoechoic interface between the placenta and myometrium
will an ectopic pregnancy have a high or low hCG?
low hCG
during the late follicular and early luteal phase, what pattern does the ovarian artery demonstrate?
low resistance
what is the most likely pulsed doppler characteristic of endometrial carcinoma?
low-impedance flow
which is the situation in which the placental edge extends into the lower uterine segment but ends more than 2cm away from the internal os?
low-lying placenta
what is the sonographic finding of bladder exstrophy?
lower abdominal wall mass inferior to the umbilicus
what is the most common location for spina bifida?
lumbosacral region
what is the term for the unusual protuberance of the tongue?
macroglossia
what is the major risk for the fetus of a mother with gestational diabetes?
macrosomia
what is gynecomastia?
male breast enlargement
is UPJ obstruction more common in males or females?
males
what is clubfoot?
malformation of the bones of the foot
what is a krukenberg tumor?
malignant ovarian tumor that most likely metastasized from the GI tract, more specifically the stomach
what cord insertion is at the edge of the placenta?
marginal aka battledore
what is the most common placenta hemorrhage identified with sonography?
marginal placental abruption
what is the sonographic appearance of congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CAM)?
mass with cystic and solid components
what is the name of the thalamic tissue located within the third ventricle of the brain that can become enlarged with arnold-chiari II malformation?
massa intermedia
what connects the two lobes of the thalamus?
massa intermedia also known as interthalmic adhesion
what is the rare condition where the mother suffers from edema and fluid buildup similar to her hydropic fetus?
maternal mirror syndrome
what is the most common risk factor for fetal intrauterine intracranial hemorrhage?
maternal platelet disorder
what forms the placenta?
maternal- decidua basalis fetal- chorion frondosum
what is the purpose of the fetal thymus?
maturation of T cells which are specialized white blood cells
which disorder is associated with IPKD?
meckel-gruber syndrome
what is the hypoechoic material within the colon?
meconium
what is a cisterna magna measurement of more than 10mm associated with?
mega cisterna magna dandy-walker complex
what is the cause of prune belly syndrome?
megacystis
what is the term for the mass that protrudes from the spine with spina bifida?
meningocele or myelomeningocele
what is the difference between (spina bifida aperta) meningocele and myelomeningocele?
meningocele- herniation of meninges contains CSF myelomeningocele- contains meninges and nerve roots
what is climacteric?
menopause
what is another name for sirenomelia?
mermaid syndrome
what is the most common solid fetal renal tumor?
mesoblastic nephroma
what is the term for a normal shaped skull?
mesocephaly
what is the drug used to medically treat an ectopic pregnancy?
methotrexate
which suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead?
metopic suture
what is a clinical feature of a patient with an endometrial polyp?
metrorrhagia
what is the term for a small mandible and recessed chin?
micrognathia
what are the findings of abnormal external genitalia in the male?
micropenis hypospadias undescended testicle
what is the term for small eyes?
microphthalmia
what is the term for small ears?
microtia
what is the mesencephalon?
midbrain
where is an omphalocele located?
midline
what is the difference between the mirena and paragard IUD?
mirena- plastic t shaped IUD that distorts the uterine cavity and releases small amounts of progestin to impede implantation and produce lighter menstrual bleeding paragard- copper t shaped IUD that inhibits sperm transport to prevent fertilization or transplantation
if mifepristone is administered and then misoprostol is given 2 days later, what is being treated for this patient?
missed abortion
what are common conditions associated with theca lutein cysts?
molar pregnancy and OHS
what is another name for gestational trophoblastic disease?
molar pregnancy or hydatidiform mole
what is the difference between monozygotic and dizygotic twins?
mono- single zygote di- two zygotes
division of the inner cell mass between 4 to 8 days will result in what form of monozygotic twins?
monochorionic diamniotic
division of the inner cell mass between day 8-13 will result in what form of monozygotic twins?
monochorionic monoamniotic
what is the least probable form for monozygotic twins?
monochorionic monoamniotic
how can you determine chorionicity in the first trimester?
monochorionic twins will have a thin membrance separating the two sacs dichorionic twins will have a thick membrane separating the two sacs
what is another name for turner syndrome?
monosomy x
what is the term for a zygote that undergoes rapid cell division and eventually forms into a cluster of cells?
morula
what is a dysgerminoma?
most common malignant germ cell tumor of the ovary
what are serous cystadenomas?
mostly benign, large, bilateral neoplasms
macroglossia can be difficult to differentiate from epignathus. what is epignathus?
mostly solid oral teratoma
are serous or mucinous cystadenomas larger?
mucinous
is pseudomyxoma peritonei associated with serous or mucinous cystadenocarcinomas?
mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
what are the risk factors for preeclampsia and anemia?
multiple gestations
what would most likely be confused with a uterine leiomyoma?
myometrial contraction
what is an example of false-positive placenta previa?
myometrial contractions that occur in the lower uterine segment
a 38-year-old female patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with an indication of pelvic pain. upon sonography interrogation, the sonographer notes an anechoic mass within the cervix. this mass most likely represents what?
nabothian cyst
what does an endometrial thickness threshold of greater than 5mm indicate, along with postmenopausal vaginal bleeding?
needs an endometrial biopsy
what is the most common malignant adrenal mass in neonates?
neuroblastoma
what is anhydramnios?
no amniotic fluid
acrania can be broken down into anencephaly and exencephaly. what is anencephaly?
no cerebral hemispheres present
how can you identify renal agenesis on a fetus?
non-visualization of kidneys and bladder, plus severe oligohydramnios
what is abnormal uterine bleeding?
nonhormonal changes in menstrual bleeding caused by endocrine abnormalities or lesions within the uterus
what form of dwarfism with congenital heart defects is considered the male version of turner syndrome?
noonan syndrome
during an 18-week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted within the renal fossa of a male fetus. the other kidney appears to be normal. what is the amniotic fluid level like?
normal amniotic fluid level
what is the term for the umbilical cord encircling the fetal neck?
nuchal cord
what is the anechoic space along the posterior aspect of the fetal neck?
nuchal translucency
what is amniocity?
number of amniotic sacs
what is zygosity?
number of fertilized eggs
what is chorionicity/placentation?
number of placentas
what type of patient is most likely to get fibroids?
obese black nonsmokers perimenopausal
what is noncommunicating hydrocephalus?
obstruction is located within the ventricular system
what is communicating hydrocephalus?
obstruction lies outside the ventricular system
what muscle is located lateral to the ovaries?
obturator internus
what is the most common location for a cephalocele?
occipital region
what are the two types of spina bifida?
occulta and aperta
what is the name for the measurement obtained from the lateral to medial wall of the same orbit?
ocular diameter
what abnormalities are pulmonary hypoplasia associated with?
oligohydramnios potter syndrome
what are the sonographic findings of preeclampsia?
oligohydramnios, IUGR, gestational trophoblastic disease, placental abruption, or an elevated S/D ratio
what is the term for persistent herniation of the bowel, and potentially other abdominal organs, into the base of the umbilical cord?
omphalocele
which herniation is covered by peritoneum?
omphalocele
when does fertilization typically occur?
on day 15, with the union of the egg and sperm in the fallopian tube
where are endometriomas most commonly found?
on the ovary
what are the names of the three ossification centers of the fetal vertebra?
one centrum, two neural processes
what is the sonographic appearance of PCOS?
one or both ovaries contain 12 or more follicles (or 25 in total) measuring between 2 and 9mm and the ovarian volume should exceed 10ml
how much of the fetal chest does the normal heart fill up?
one-third (33%)
what is gamete intrafallopian tube transfer (GIFT)?
oocytes and sperm are placed in the fallopian tube by means of laparoscopy
what is spina bifida aperta?
open lesion, mass that protrudes beyond the bony defect
what is the purpose of the 3 apertures of the fourth ventricle and what are their names?
opening through which CSF travels two lateral apertures- foramina of luschka median aperture- foramen of magendie
what is the term for the group of disorders that results in multiple fractures that can occur in utero?
osteogenesis imperfecta
what skeletal dysplasia is associated with a bell-shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures?
osteogenesis imperfecta
the primary yolk sac regresses and separates into two membranes. what are the outer and inner membranes referred to as?
outer- chorionic/gestational sac inner- amniotic sac
what is the most common cause of ovarian torsion?
ovarian cyst or mass
what is the pelvic ligament that provides support to the ovary and extends from the ovary to the lateral surface of the uterus
ovarian ligament
a 24-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting. the sonographic examination reveals an enlarged ovary with no detectable doppler signal. what is the most likely diagnosis?
ovarian torsion
what is endometrioid carcinoma?
ovarian tumor with a high incidence of being malignant
why is color doppler not always the most effective analysis of a torsed ovary?
ovary receives blood from both the ovarian artery and a uterine artery branch, so if one of these vessels is occluded, the other vessel is still providing flow
what can cause fetal goiter?
overtreatment of maternal grave disease, iodine deficiency, hypothyroidism
what is another name for fallopian tubes?
oviducts
what is the purpose of LH aka luteinizing hormone?
ovulation
what is mittelschmerz pain?
ovulation pain
what is in vitro fertilization?
ovum fertilized outside the body, then 4-8 developing embryos are placed into the uterus through a catheter
what are the landmarks for the biparietal diameter (BPD)?
paired thalami third ventricle cavum septum pellucidum falx cerebri
what is PAPP-A screening?
part of a first trimester screening that analyzes hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A, along with nuchal translucency (NT)
what are the common forms of gestational trophoblastic disease?
partial and complete
what is acrania?
partial or completely absent cranium
what is trisomy 13?
patau syndrome
what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of hypotelorism, cleft lip, microphthalmia, heart defects, and polydactyly point to?
patau syndrome (T13)
what trisomy is most often associated with holoprosencephaly?
patau syndrome (T13)
which chromosomal abnormality is uniformly fatal and is associated with holoprosencephaly and abnormal facies?
patau syndrome (T13)
where is an ectopic kidney most often located?
pelvis
what is another name for hydronephrosis?
pelvocaliectasis pyelectasis caliectasis
what are the group of anomalies that combines ectopic cordis and an existing omphalocele?
pentalogy of cantrell
what is another name for cordocentesis?
percutaneous umbilical cord sampling (PUBS)
what is the term for fluid around the heart?
pericardial effusion
what is another term for the late proliferative phase?
periovulatory phase
what is the essure device?
permanent form of birth control where small coils are placed in the proximal isthmic segment of the fallopian tubes. over time scar tissue develops around the coils and obstructs the fallopian tubes
what is tubal sterilization/ligation?
permanent form of sterilization in which the fallopian tubes are severed
what is the term for absent long bones with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips?
phocomelia
what is the term for the migration of the embryologic bowel into the base of the umbilical cord at 9 weeks?
physiologic bowel herniation
what is the term for the normal midgut herniation into the base of the umbilical cord?
physiological bowel herniation
what is the innermost layer of the meninges?
pia mater
what are the three layers of the meninges?
pia mater arachnoid membrane dura mater
what are the muscles that may be confused with the ovaries on a pelvic sonogram?
piriformis and iliopsoas
describe fetal circulation.
placenta umbilical vein (oxygenated blood) -half of the blood goes to the liver through the left portal vein -half of the blood is shunted into the IVC via the ductus venosus blood from the IVC enters the right atrium -can enter the left atrium through the foramen ovale -can enter right ventricle through the tricuspid valve and go into the --pulmonary artery to lungs to pulmonary veins to left atrium to ascending aorta (supplies blood to head, thorax, and upper extremities) to superior vena cava to right atrium --descending ao through the ductus arteriosus to supply blood to abdomen, lower extremities, and then exits the abdomen via the umbilical arteries umbilical arteries placenta
what is the term for the abnormal adherence of the placenta TO the myometrium?
placenta accreta AIP
what does the outer part of the blastocyst develop into?
placenta and chorion
what is the term for the invasion of the placenta WITHIN the myometrium?
placenta increta AIP
what is the term for the penetration of the placenta THROUGH the uterine serosa and possibly into the adjacent pelvic organs?
placenta percreta AIP
what is a common cause of painless vaginal bleeding in the second and third trimesters?
placenta previa
what is the term for the placenta covering the internal os of the cervix?
placenta previa
what is the term for the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus?
placental abruption
what is the term for the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall?
placental abruption
asymmetric IUGR is most commonly caused by ________, while symmetric IUGR is most commonly caused by ________.
placental insufficiency chromosomal anomalies
what does the "bat-wing" sign describe the appearance of?
pleural effusion
what is a common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding?
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
are duodenal and esophageal atresia associated with oligohydramnios or polyhydramnios?
polyhydramnios
what is the term for excessive amniotic fluid?
polyhydramnios
following an intracranial hemorrhage, a cyst is noted within the cerebrum that communicates with the lateral ventricles. what is the term for this?
porencephaly
what is the term for the development of a cystic cavity within the cerebrum?
porencephaly
where does the follicular fluid from the ruptured follicle settle?
posterior cul de sac
what is the dandy-walker complex?
posterior fossa abnormalities that involve the cystic dilation of the cisterna magna and fourth ventricle
what is a common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in male fetuses?
posterior urethral valves
what is injected into the fetus during a selective termination procedure?
potassium chloride
what can doppler assessment of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) help determine?
potential hypoxia in fetuses that are small for dates
what is the sonographic appearance of an endometrioma?
predominantly cystic mass with low-level echoes
what condition is pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks gestation?
preeclampsia
what is the term for the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension accompanied by proteinuria
preeclampsia
what is eclampsia?
preeclampsia with seizures
what is preeclampsia?
pregnancy induced hypertension and proteinuria
what is the most common fetal arrhythmia?
premature atrial contractions (PAC)
what is craniosynostosis?
premature fusion of the fetal sutures, leading to an irregular shaped skull
what increases the likelihood of developing placenta previa?
previous c-section
what is the purpose of the yolk sac?
produces AFP and plays a role in angiogenesis and hematopoiesis
what hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, maintains the thickness of the endometrium after ovulation?
progesterone
which hormone stimulates the formation of the cervical mucous plug found with pregnancy?
progesterone
what is the purpose of estrogen?
proliferation of the endometrium induction of salt and water retention stimulates contractile motions within the uterine myometrium and fallopian tubes
what are the two phases of the endometrial cycle?
proliferative and secretory phase.
what is frontal bossing?
prominent forehead
what are cephaloceles?
protrusions of intracranial contents through a defect in the skull
what is the purpose of the infundibulum?
provides an opening to the peritoneal cavity within the pelvis
what is precocious puberty?
pubertal before age 8
the right ventricular outflow tract leads to which artery?
pulmonary
what does the RVOT include?
pulmonary artery
what is the sonographic appearance of transposition of the great vessels?
pulmonary artery and aorta are parallel to each other instead of the normal crisscross orientation
what is described as the absence of the pulmonary valve, which in turn prohibits blood flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery and essentially to the lungs.
pulmonary atresia
what is the most worrisome consequence of oligohydramnios?
pulmonary hypoplasia
what is the term for the underdevelopment of the lungs?
pulmonary hypoplasia
what would a newborn most likely suffer from if he or she were born prior to 32 weeks as a result of multiple gestation complications?
pulmonary hypoplasia hypoxia
what abnormality is associated with a separate mass of nonfunctioning lung tissue with its own blood supply?
pulmonary sequestration
what is the cause of hypoplastic heart syndrome?
pulmonary stenosis or atresia
which twin in twin-reversed arterial perfusion has a 50% perinatal mortality rate secondary to polyhydramnios and prematurity, but otherwise is considered to be normal. is it the pump twin or acardiac twin?
pump twin
what is the term for the presence of pus within the uterus?
pyometra
what is the term for conjoined twins being joined back-to-back in the sacral region?
pyopagus
what is the name for the absence or underdevelopment of the radius?
radial ray defect
what substance does hysterosalpingography utilize for the visualization of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes?
radiographic contrast
what is a common characteristic of a leiomyosarcoma?
rapid growth over a short period of time
what can cause a bladder flap hematoma?
recent c-section
what twin suffers from hydrops in twin-twin transfusion syndrome, the donor or recipient?
recipient
what paired abdominal muscles extend from the xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic bone?
rectus abdominis
what is selective reduction?
reducing twins, triplets, quadruplets, and quintuplet pregnancies
patients in their late second or third trimester may suffer from supine hypotensive syndrome. what is that?
reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by the baby compressing the IVC
what is the purpose of the hypothalamus?
release gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) which stimulates the release of FSH and LH by the anterior pituitary gland
what preserves the corpus luteum of pregnancy?
release of hCG by the trophoblastic cells of pregnancy
what is a myomectomy?
removal of fibroid
what is a polypectomy?
removal of polyps
if there is an obstruction at the level of the ureteropelvic junction (UPJ), what structures will be dilated?
renal pelvis and calices
what might cause excessive and sustained postpartum vaginal bleeding?
retained products of conception (RPOC)
what causes a teratoma?
retention of an unfertilized ovum that differentiates into three germ cell layers (ecto, meso, endoderm)
what is the most common fetal cardiac tumor?
rhabdomyoma
what are the sonographic findings of achondroplasia?
rhizomelia/micromelia macrocrania frontal bossing flattened nasal bridge trident hand
during a first-trimester sonogram, you note a round, cystic structure within the fetal head. what does this represent?
rhombencephalon
on which side of the heart is the tricuspid valve?
right
on what side does ovarian torsion most commonly occur?
right side
where is the moderator band located?
right ventricle
what pedal abnormality is associated with trisomy 13 and 18?
rocker bottom foot
what causes amniotic band syndrome?
rupture of the amnion
what is another name for caudal regression syndrome?
sacral agenesis
how can spina bifida occulta be recognized?
sacral dimple hemangioma lipoma tuft of hair
what is the most common congenital neoplasm frequently found in females?
sacrococcygeal teratoma
what is the optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia?
sagittal
what suture is located between the two parietal bones?
sagittal suture
what procedure is used to better visualize endometrial polyps?
saline infusion sonohysterography
what does the sonographic appearance of a hyperemic fallopian tube indicate?
salpingitis
what is the quadruple screen test?
same as triple screen test, along with inhibin A
what is the name for the large gap between the first and second toes?
sandal gap
what is the term for the development of fluid-filled clefts within the cerebrum?
schizencephaly
what is the term for the deformity of the spine in which there is an abnormal lateral curvature?
scoliosis
what is a yolk sac tumor, aka endodermal sinus tumor?
second most common malignant germ cell tumor characterized by rapid growth
what is the testicular equivalent of an ovarian dysgerminoma?
seminoma
a 50-year-old female patient presents for a pelvic ultrasound after ascites was identified on an upper abdominal exam. a thin walled, multiloculated cystic ovarian mass with papillary projections is identified in the right ovary. the left ovary and uterus are unremarkable. what do these findings suggest?
serous cystadenocarcinoma
a 55-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of pelvic pressure, abdominal swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. a pelvic sonogram reveals a large, multiloculated cystic mass with papillary projections. what is the most likely diagnosis?
serous cystadenocarcinoma
what is the most common malignancy of the ovary?
serous cystadenocarcinoma
what is difference in sonographic appearance between a serous cystadenoma vs a serous cystadenocarcinoma?
serous cystadenocarcinomas have typically the same appearance, but the papillary projections and septations are more prominent
what is the hCG discriminatory zone?
serum level of 1,000-2,000 in which a gestational sac should be visualized
what is a sertoli-leydig cell tumor, also known as androblastoma?
sex-cord-stromal ovarian neoplasm associated with virilization (increased androgen production, hirusitism)
what are the most common sonographic findings for LBWC?
short/absent umbilical cord ventral wall defects limb defects craniofacial defects scoliosis
what is micromelia?
shortening of the entire extremity
what is acromelia?
shortening of the hand and foot bones
what is mesomelia?
shortening of the middle segments (rad/ulna & tibia/fibula)
what is rhizomelia?
shortening of the proximal bone (humerus and femur)
what condition is associated with bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, and fusion of the lower extremities?
sirenomelia
what is holt-oram syndrome?
skeletal abnormalities of the hands and arms
what does fetal meconium typically consist of?
skin hair bile
what are the sonographic findings of obstructive cystic dysplasia?
small echogenic cysts along the margin hydronephrosis thickened bladder
what are paraovarian cysts?
small cysts located adjacent to the ovary that most likely arise from the fallopian tubes or broad ligaments
what is the intradecidual sign?
small gestational sac surrounded by the thickened, echogenic endometrium
what is the sonographic appearance of a brenner tumor?
small, hypoechoic, solid unilateral tumor that may have calcifications
what is lissencephaly?
smooth brain - lack of sulci and gyri
what is the sonographic appearance of a krukenberg tumor?
smooth-walled, hypoechoic, or hyperechoic bilateral tumors accompanied by ascites
what is the sonographic appearance of the mesoblastic nephroma?
solid homogenous mass within the renal fossa and may completely replace the kidney. it may contain cystic components
what is the sonographic appearance of sertoli-leydig cell tumor?
solid, hypoechoic ovarian mass complex, partially cystic
what disorder is myelomeningocele associated with?
spina bifida
what is the term for the defect that occurs when the embryonic neural tube fails to close.
spina bifida
what does the neural tube give rise to?
spine and brain
what suture is located between the two parietal and temporal bones?
squamosal suture
what is the purpose of the FSH?
stimulates follicle growth in ovaries. the cells surrounding the follicles release estrogen and cause the endometrium to thicken.
what is ovulation induction?
stimulation of the ovaries by hormonal therapy to treat infertility
what landmarks should be included in the abdominal circumference image?
stomach thoracic spine umbilical vein
what is the chorion?
structure that forms the placenta
what is it called when a twin fetus, suffering from TTTS, experiences severe oligohydramnios and becomes closely adhered to the uterine wall?
stuck twin
a sonographic examination was performed on a pregnancy patient who complained of vaginal bleeding. sonographically, a crescent-shaped anechoic area is noted adjacent to the gestational sac. the gestational sac contained a 6-week single live IUP. what is the most likely diagnosis?
subchorionic hemorrhage
a 31-year-old patient presents to the sonography department for a saline infusion sonohysterogram complaining of intermenstrual bleeding and infertility. sonographically, a mass is demonstrated emanating from the myometrium and distorting the endometrial cavity. what is the most likely diagnosis?
submucosal fibroid
what is the term for an additional smaller placental lobe located separate from the main placenta?
succenturiate or accessory lobe
what are the sonographic findings for agenesis of the corpus callosum and cavum septum pellucidum?
sunburst sulci colpocephaly third ventricle migrates superiorly and appears dilated
what is an ovarian cystectomy?
surgical removal of an ovarian cyst
what structures connect the cranial bones?
sutures
what term is defined as fusion of the digits?
syndactyly
what is another name for clubfoot?
talipes equinovarus
what is the most common intracranial tumor found in utero?
teratoma
what is the term for an overriding aortic root, subaortic VSD, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy?
tetralogy of fallot
upon sonographic interrogation of a 28-week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the skull can be easily distorted. what disorder is present?
thanatophoric dysplasia
what is the most common lethal skeletal dysplasia?
thanatophoric dysplasia
what skeletal dysplasia is associated with a cloverleaf skull and hydrocephalus?
thanatophoric dysplasia
which disorder is a cloverlead-shaped skull related to?
thanatophoric dysplasia
why does doppler analysis of malignant ovarian masses reveal higher diastolic flow velocities in the abnormal vessels created with malignancy?
the abnormal vessels lack smooth muscle within their walls and thus produce a less resistive waveform
why is the atrium of the lateral ventricle the optimal site for measurement?
the atrium is the first region where ventricular enlargement occurs
what is the purpose of the occipitofrontal diameter (OFD)?
the calipers are placed at the frontal and occipital bones. this measurement is used in conjunction with the BPD to obtain the correct BPD
what causes the appearance of the chocolate cyst?
the ectopic endometrial tissue is functional, therefore during menstruation the tissue hemorrhages and forms into focal areas of bloody tumors aka endometriomas
what is menarche?
the first menstrual cycle
what happens around day 14 of the menstrual cycle?
the graafian follicle ruptures and releases the ovum, which is picked up by the fimbria and fertilized, or resorbed by the body, or passed with menstruation
how is infertility defined?
the inability to conceive after trying for one year
which lab values would decrease in the presence of edwards syndrome?
the triple screen- hCG AFP estriol
what ovarian mass is associated with a molar pregnancy and elevated hCG?
theca lutein cyst
which ovarian cyst is associated with gestational trophoblastic disease?
theca lutein cyst
what ovarian cysts are most often bilateral and associated with markedly elevated levels of hCG?
theca lutein cysts
which of the following would be described as functional cysts that are found in the presence of elevated levels of hCG?
theca lutein cysts
what are some examples of sex-cord-stromal tumors?
thecoma granulosa cell tumor fibroma sertoli-leydig cell tumor
what two tumors are associated with meigs syndrome and may also mimic a pedunculated fibroid because of its solid appearing structure?
thecoma and fibroma
what is the sonographic appearance of a decidualized endometrium?
thick and echogenic
what is the typical sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the secretory phase?
thick and echogenic
what is the sonographic appearance of endometrial carcinoma?
thickened endo with variable echogenicity, fluid, and a polyploid mass within the endo
what is the sonographic appearance of endometritis?
thickened or irregular appearing endometrium containing intraluminal fluid. gas formation may be seen and will produce ring down artifact
what ventricle does the massa intermedia pass through?
third ventricle
what structures are visualized at the correct level of the head circumference?
third ventricle thalamus cavum septum pellucidum
what are the most common forms of conjoined twinning?
thoracopagus (chest) ophalopagus (abd)
what are the different types of abortions?
threatened complete incomplete missed inevitable septic elective
what are the meninges?
three protective tissue layers that cover the brain and spinal cord
how is immune hydrops prevented?
through the administration of RhoGAM at approximately 28 weeks gestation
what are some examples of the tissues types in a teratoma?
thyroid components, bone, hair, sebum, fat, cartilage, digestive elements
the sonographic appearance of an ovarian dermoid tumor in which only the anterior elements of the mass can be seen, while the greater part of the mass is obscured by shadowing is consistent with what sign?
tip of the iceberg
what is the purpose of the biophysical profile scoring?
to check for fetal hypoxia and overall fetal wellbeing
what is saline infusion sonohysterography used for?
to determine whether the cause of vaginal bleeding is intracavitary
what does TORCH stand for?
toxoplasmosis other infections rubella cytomegalovirus herpes
what does TORCH stand for
toxoplasmosis other infections rubella cytomegalovirus herpes simplex
what is an abnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea termed?
tracheoesophageal fistula
what abnormality is associated with the pulmonary artery arising from the left ventricle, and the aorta arising from the right ventricle?
transposition of the great vessels
what chromosomal abnormality do the features of small, low set ears, cardiac defects, syndactyly, ductus venosus flow reversal, and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) point to?
triploidy
what is the chromosomal abnormality in which the fetus has 69 chromosomes instead of the normal 46?
triploidy
sonographically you identify a fetus with fusion of the thalami and a monoventricle. which chromosomal abnormality would be most likely?
trisomy 13
what trisomies are micrognathia associated with?
trisomy 13 and 18
which trisomy is the choroid plexus cyst associated with?
trisomy 18
what abnormalities are associated with an omphalocele?
trisomy 18 trisomy 13 turner syndrome beckwith-wiedemann
what trisomy is duodenal atresia associated with?
trisomy 21
what trisomy is macroglossia most often associated with?
trisomy 21
what are the most common abnormalities associated with increased NT?
trisomy 21 trisomy 18 turner syndrome congestive heart failure
what is the outer tissue layer of the blastocyst compromised of?
trophoblastic cells
which cells surround the blastocyst (conceptus) and begin to produce hCG?
trophoblastic cells
TRUE OR FALSE: APKD is associated with the development of cysts within the liver, pancreas, and spleen.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: BPD + OFD x 1.62 is equivalent to the head circumference (HC).
true
TRUE OR FALSE: CSF travels from the lateral ventricles into the third ventricle through the foramina of monroe. from the third ventricle, CSF travels to the fourth ventricle through the cerebral aqueduct. once in the fourth ventricle, the fluid can exit either through the median aperture to the cisterna magna (foramen of magendie), or lateral apertures to the subarachnoid space (foramina of luschka).
true
TRUE OR FALSE: IUGR, or fetal growth restriction, is defined as an EFW that is below the 10th percentile at any given age.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: a complex or thick walled corpus luteum cyst can resemble an ectopic pregnancy, so precaution to establish the presence of an intrauterine pregnancy should be taken in this regard, as well as careful consideration of the entire clinical picture.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: a majority of pregnancies where the heart rate is less than 80bpm at 6 weeks eventually miscarry.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: a supplement of 0.4mg of folate (folic acid) in a woman's diet significantly reduces the likelihood of her fetus developing a neural tube defect.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: a thecoma produces estrogen and can therefore lead to postmenopausal vaginal bleeding. it often appears as a hypoechoic mass, which can make it look like a pedunculated fibroid.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: abnormal uterine bleeding can have many causes, but when AUB is related to changes in hormones that directly affect the menstrual cycle, the condition is called dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: acardiac twinning is a severe form of TTTS.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: adenomyosis is often present in the uterus afflicted with fibroid tumors.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: amniotic band syndrome may be seen simultaneously with limb-body wall complex (LBWC).
true
TRUE OR FALSE: aqueductal stenosis causes the third and lateral ventricles to expand, while the fourth ventricle remains normal.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: atrioventricular defects (AVSD) are commonly associated with aneuploidy, trisomy 21, and trisomy 18.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: because fallopian tubes experience peristalsis, within its lumen, small, hairlike, structures known as cilia shift, thereby offering a mechanism for transportation of the fertilized ovum.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: because of the lack of circulating estrogen during and after menopause, there is an increased risk for coronary heart disease and an increased threat for developing osteopenia and osteoporosis.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: beckwith-weidemann syndrome is a growth disorder synonymous with organ, skull, and tongue enlargement.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: bilateral renal agenesis may be seen with sirenomelia.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: blood is shunted directly into the IVC via a small branch of the umbilical vein called the ductus venosus.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: brachycephaly is associated with craniosynostosis, trisomy 21 and 18.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: cancer of the fallopian tubes is rare and is typically in the form of adenocarcinoma.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: choroid plexus cysts typically regress by the end of the third trimester.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CAM) is similiar to pulmonary sequestration.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: cysts are typically not identifiable in IPKD, but are evident in MCDK.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: dizygotic twinning always results in dichorionic diamniotic gestations.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: dolichocephaly is associated with craniosynostosis.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: encephaloceles are common findings of meckel-gruber syndrome.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: endometrial atrophy is a common occurrence in postmenopausal patients who present with vaginal bleeding.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: endometrial carcinoma is most often in the form of adenocarcinoma.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: endometrioid carcinoma is the most common cancer to originate within an endometrioma
true
TRUE OR FALSE: esophageal atresia is associated with trisomy 21 and 18, VACTERL, and polyhydramnios.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: fetal neck masses can cause compression of the trachea or esophagus and should be noted during an exam.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: fetal pyelectasis can be a sonographic marker for down syndrome.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: fibroids are stimulated by estrogen and can consequently experience rapid growth during pregnancy.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: for a normal biophysical profile, the amniotic fluid pocket should measure at least 1cm in two perpendicular planes.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: from second trimester to term, the fetal heart rate is typically around 150 bpm although it varies with gestational age.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: heterozygous achondroplasia is an autosomal dominant disorder, although many times it is the result of a spontaneous genetic mutation.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: hydronephrosis is common during late pregnancy.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: if the corpus callosum is absent, the cavum septum pellucidum will be absent too.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: if the twins are different sexes, then one can assume that the twins are dichorionic.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: in cases of fetus papyraceus, with monochorionic twinning, the death of one twin frequently leads to the death of the other twin.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: in cases of immune hydrops, the first pregnancy goes through normally, but if the mother gets pregnant again, the antibodies to Rh which were created in her blood from fetus A will now attack fetus B.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: in order for an autosomal recessive disease to be passed to the fetus, both parents must be carriers of the disease, whereas with an autosomal dominant disease, only one parent needs to be a carrier.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: in pediatric patients, the granulosa cell tumor is associated with pseudoprecocious puberty.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: in the fetus, the left lobe of the liver is typically larger than the right lobe.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: in the second trimester, painless vaginal bleeding is often associated with placenta previa, whereas painful vaginal bleeding can occur as a result of placental abruption.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: krukenberg tumors can be described as having a moth-eaten appearance in that it can be a solid mass containing scattered cystic spaces.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: malignant tumors tend to have resistive indices <0.4 and pulsatility indices <1.0.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: monochorionic diamniotic is the most common form of monozygotic twins.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: monochorionic monoamniotic carries the risk of conjoined twins.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: monozygotic twins result from a single zygote that splits.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: most follicular cysts regress.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: mothers with pregestational diabetes have a higher risk of miscarriage and toxemia.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: mucinous cystadenomas are often larger than serous cystadenomas, and they tend to contain echogenic material within their cystic components.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: myometrial contractions typically resolve within 15 to 30 minutes.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: normal hCG levels double every 48 hours in the first trimester.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: normal ovarian flow is said to be high resistance during menstruation and low resistance at the time of ovulation.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: normal physiologic bowel herniation resolves by 12 weeks.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: normally, the S/D ratio will decrease with advancing gestation. an elevated S/D ratio is associated with increased placental resistance and an increase in the risk of perinatal mortality and morbidity.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: nuchal thickening, edema, or redundant skin in the back of the neck is a common finding during the second trimester in fetuses with down syndrome (trisomy 21).
true
TRUE OR FALSE: obstruction of the fetal bowel most often occurs when there is a meconium plug causing the barrier.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: omphalocele has a more significant risk for heart defects and chromosomal anomalies than gastroschisis.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: one important anatomic finding is that the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHS) from fertility treatment can result in the development of multiple, enlarged follicular cysts
true
TRUE OR FALSE: ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can initiate renal failure, thromboembolism, and acute respiratory distress syndrome.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: ovarian induction dramatically increases the risk of multiple gestations and OHS.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: ovarian torsion is more common in adolescents.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: pericardial effusion can be isolated or associated with fetal hydrops.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: placental abruption can lead to fetal death from hypoxia and possibly the death of the mother.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: preeclampsia, IUGR, and pregestational diabetes are associated with a thin placenta. fetal infections, Rh isoimmunization, and multiple gestations are associated with a thick placenta.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: rather than preventing pregnancy, congenital uterine malformations such as a bicornuate uterus or a septate uterus often lead to repeated abortions.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: sacrococcygeal teratoma is associated with hydrops and may lead to high-output congestive heart failure.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: salpingitis is a common issue caused by pelvic inflammatory disease.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: scoliosis and kyphosis can exist together. it is known as kyphoscoliosis.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: serous cystadenomas and cystic teratomas compromise most neoplasms of the ovary.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the CRL should not include the yolk sac or fetal limb buds.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the average fetal heart rate is 150bpm in the third trimester, with a range of 110 to 180bpm considered normal after the first trimester.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the average menstrual cycle lasts 28 days, with ovulation typically occurring around day 14.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the cavum septum pellucidum does not communicate with the ventricular system, and its absence is associated with multiple cerebral malformations, including agenesis of the corpus callosum.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the corpus callosum should be completely intact between 18 and 20 weeks.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the corpus luteum maintains the thickened endometrium by producing progesterone, while the trophoblastic cells maintain the corpus luteum by producing hCG.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the demise of a twin during the second or third trimester can lead to twin embolization syndrome.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the dysgerminoma is the most frequent ovarian malignancy found in childhood. children present with pseudoprecocious puberty and may have elevated hCG even though the tumor marker for dysgerminoma is an elevation in serum lactate dehydrogenase.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the earliest definitive sign of an intrauterine pregnancy should generally be visualized between 1000-2000 mIU per mL with transvaginal sonography.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the echogenicity of the small intestine should not be isoechoic to or greater than that of the fetal bone.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the fallopian tubes, which are rarely seen, can be found distended with fluid or pus with PID. this is termed salpingitis.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the fetal bladder normally fills and empties once every 30-45 minutes.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the follicular phase lasts from day 1 to 14 and initiates follicular development on the ovaries. one follicle is maintained and becomes the graafian follicle. this graafian follicle contains the developing oocyte within the cumulus oophorus.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the four-chamber view of the heart is normal in the presence of transposition of the great vessels.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the gestational sac is also referred to as the chorionic sac.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the hCG level will continue to rise until the end of the first trimester, at which time it plateaus and slowly decreases with advancing gestation.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the implantation of the blastocyst within the endometrium may cause some women to experience a small amount of vaginal bleeding. this is called implantation bleeding.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the luteal phase lasts from day 15 to 28. after the graafian follicle ruptures, it turns into the corpus luteum and secretes progesterone. it prepares the endometrium for implantation. if fertilization doesn't occur, the corpus luteum regresses and becomes the corpus albicans.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the maternal conditions linked to the development of placental abruption include hypertension, preeclampsia, cocaine use, cigarette smoking, poor nutrition, and trauma.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the measurement of the endometrium during the early proliferative phase ranges from 4 to 8mm.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the normal hypoechoic appearance of the myocardium can mimic the sonographic appearance of small pericardial effusions.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the obese fetus is defined as a fetus that has an EFW of greater than the 90th percentile.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the optimal instance to take the femur length measurement is when the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the sound beam.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the proliferative phase coincides with the follicular phase where the endometrium undergoes thickening as a result of estrogen.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the pulsatility index of the MCA varies with gestational age, but normally decreases as the pregnancy progresses.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the resistance pattern of the MCA should be greater than that of the umbilical artery, and thus should be compared when fetal shunting is suspected.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the secretory phase coincides with the luteal phase, as it occurs after ovulation and is stimulated by progesterone.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the sequela of PID range from a negligible infection to the development of a tubo-ovarian abscess, to death.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the sonographic determination of the shortening of a limb is made when the long bones measure more than four standard deviations below the norm of gestational age.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the sonographic intracranial findings consistent with intrauterine infections are the calcifications around the ventricles and ventriculomegaly.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the third ventricle connects to the fourth ventricle inferiorly by means of a long, tubelike structure called the aqueduct of sylvius or the cerebral aqueduct.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the tricuspid valve is positioned closer to the apex of the heart compared to the mitral valve.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the umbilical artery waveform is always flowing in the forward direction.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the umbilical cord will insert into the omphalocele.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: the use of IUDs has been linked with PID, ectopic pregnancy, and spontaneous abortions.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with a molar pregnancy and triploidy.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: thecomas are most often found in post menopausal women and may be associated with meigs syndrome.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: there is a definite link between microtia and down syndrome.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: there is a noticeable link between the absence of the fetal nasal bone and down syndrome.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: there is no normal-functioning renal tissue present in the kidney affected by MCDK.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: true precocious puberty is associated with intracranial tumors, or may be idiopathic.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: turner syndrome can involve the development of a cystic hygroma.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: type I, III, and IV osteogenesis imperfecta are typically diagnosed after birth.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: uncontrolled maternal pregestational diabetes has a strong associated with caudal regression syndrome and sirenomelia.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: unlike thecomas and granulosa cell tumors, fibromas are not associated with estrogen production.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: whenever any form of holoprosencephaly is suspected, a thorough facial evaluation should be performed.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: while estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) can reduce the risk of developing osteoporosis, coronary heart disease, colon cancer, and alzheimers, if it is not done with progesterone therapy, there is an increased risk for developing endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial carcinoma, breast cancer, thromboembolism, hypertension, and diabetes.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: while the ovary is in the follicular phase, the endometrium is in the proliferative phase.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: with assisted reproductive technology (ART), ovarian stimulation is used to increase follicular development, allowing the opportunity to extract multiple oocytes during one procedure.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: with diaphragmatic hernia, the stomach, bowel, and left lobe of the liver are found within the chest.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: with hydranencephaly, the falx cerebri may be partially or completely absent, the brain stem and basal ganglia are maintained, and the thalamus may be seen. there will be no cerebral cortex identified.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: with limb-body wall complex (LBWC), the fetus will appear closely connected with the placenta, and will have marked scoliosis.
true
TRUE OR FALSE: with serous cystadenocarcinoma, the tumor marker CA 125 may be elevated.
true
what is rhabdomyoma associated with?
tuberous sclerosis
webbing of the neck and short stature is found in intertile female patients with what chromosomal anomaly?
turner syndrome
what is monosomy x?
turner syndrome
what is the condition in which the fetus has only one sex chromosome?
turner syndrome
when hypoplastic left heart syndrome is found in girls, what anomaly should be expected?
turner syndrome
what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of nuchal cystic hygroma and nonimmune hydrops point to?
turner syndrome (MX)
which chromosomal abnormality is found exclusively in females?
turner syndrome (MX)
what happens to the other twin in cases of fetus papyraceus in monochorionic twinning?
twin embolization syndrome
what is another name for acardiac twinning?
twin-reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP)
what do abnormal connections of placenta vessels result in?
twin-reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP) aka acardiac twin
with what high-mortality complication does shunting occur from one twin to the other?
twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)
what is the double sac sign?
two distinct layers of decidua separated by the anechoic fluid filled uterine cavity
the embryonic heart begins as how many tubes?
two tubes
what is the most common abnormality of the umbilical cord?
two-vessel cord, which only contains one umbilical artery
what is the most severe type of osteogenesis imperfecta?
type II
what is the term for the focal dilation of the abdominal portion of the umbilical vein?
umbilical vein varix
what are the sonographic findings of type II osteogenesis imperfecta?
uniformly fatal; multiple fractures in utero, skull demineralization, bell shaped chest, decreased fetal movement
what are the sonographic findings of MCDK?
unilateral or bilateral non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the area of the renal fossa
what is the cause of molar pregnancy?
unknown; normal sperm fertilizes an empty ovum
what causes endometrial hyperplasia?
unopposed estrogen stimulation
how long does sperm live?
up to 72 hours
if there is an obstruction at the level of the ureterovesicular junction (UVJ), what structures will be dilated?
ureter, renal pelvis, and calices
what is the most common cause of unilateral obstructive cystic dysplasia?
ureteropelvic or ureterovesicular junction obstruction
what is the most common cause of bilateral obstructive cystic dysplasia?
uretheral atresia posterior urethral valves
what is hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
used to combat the reduction of estrogen circulating in the female body after menopause and to combat symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal atrophy
what structures herniate in gastroschisis?
usually small intestine, but with larger defects the stomach and other organs
what is the term for linear bands of scar tissue within the uterus?
uterine synechiae
what formula is used to determine ovarian volume?
v = l x w x h x 0.5233
what are some complications of a circumvallate placenta?
vaginal bleeding placental abruption
what is the most common initial clinical presentation of PID?
vaginitis
what is the term for the death of a twin and subsequent reabsorption during the first trimester?
vanishing twin
what is a dermoid plug?
various tissues that will be a source of posterior shadowing
what is lobar holoprosencephaly?
varying degrees of fusion of the midline structures, can be consistent with life, infants may experience severe mental retardation
what is the term for the complication of fetal vessels resting over the internal os of the cervix?
vasa previa
what is thought to be the cause of gastroschisis?
vascular incident occurring to either the right umbilical vein or omphalomesenteric artery
what is the purpose of the umbilical vein vs the umbilical arteries?
vein brings oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus arteries return deoxygenated blood to the placenta
what cord insertion goes beyond the placental edge?
velamentous
what is the term for pools of maternal blood within the placental substance that appears anechoic and may contain swirling blood?
venous lakes
what is the most common form of cardiac defect?
ventricular septal defect (VSD)
what is the term for an abnormal opening in the septum between the right and left ventricles?
ventricular septal defect (VSD)
what is the dangling choroid sign associated with?
ventriculomegaly
what is the most common cranial abnormality?
ventriculomegaly
what is the term for echogenic debris within the amniotic fluid?
vernix or meconium
what does the centrum of the fetal spine develop into?
vertebral body
what structure connects the embryo to the yolk sac?
vitelline duct aka omphalomesenteric duct, which contains one artery and vein
when does the primary yolk sac regress?
week 4
when does the neural tube close?
week 6
what gelatinous material surrounds the umbilical cord?
wharton jelly, which is then covered by amnion
when is postmenopause diagnosed?
when a patient hasn't had her period for 3 to 6 months
what is the brain-sparing effect?
when fetus is starved for oxygen, redistribution of blood to the vital organs occurs in order to spare it from damage
when is physiologic bowel herniation worrisome?
when it doesn't resolve by 12 weeks
when is a patient said to have primary amenorrhea?
when she doesn't experience menarche before age 16
when can the sonographic diagnosis of clubfoot be made?
when the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula
how is rhizomelia detected?
when there is a notable difference in the gestational age measurements between the bpd and femur length
when is a blighted ovum diagnosed?
when there is no evidence of a fetal pole or yolk sac within an irregularly shaped gestational sac
what is the sonographic appearance of a torsed ovary?
whirlpool sign enlarged with or without multifollicular development
PID can progress into a tubo-ovarian complex, which is the fusion of the ovaries and dilated fallopian tubes. this can further progress into a tubo-ovarian abscess. what is the difference between the complex and abscess?
with tubo-ovarian complex, the ovaries and tubes are readily recognized as distinct structures with tubo-ovarian abscess, there is a complete loss of borders of all adnexal structures, and the development of a large conglomerated mass
where is the ovum contained?
within the cumulus oophorus of the dominant follicle
what is the most common location of a cystic hygroma?
within the neck
is homozygous achondroplasia lethal?
yes (occurs when both parents are dwarves)
what is the first structure seen with sonography within the gestational sac?
yolk sac
what structure forms the cord?
yolk sac and vitelline duct
what measurements are obtained during the first trimester?
yolk sac, gestational sac, crown rump length, and NT
how can you distinguish hypoplastic left heart syndrome from complete absence of the left heart?
you must be able to visualize a small or normal left atrium
microcephaly, decreased brain tissue, and limb abnormalities such as club foot are associated with which virus?
zika
what is the term for a fertilized egg?
zygote
what is zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
zygote (fertilized ovum) is placed in the fallopian tube
what lab values are associated with ectopic pregnancies
↑ b-hCG ↓ hematocrit
