Penny OB/GYN Review

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

what is focal adenomyosis in the form of a mass called?

adenomyoma

what is the term for ectopic endometrial tissue within the uterus that leads to abnormal uterine bleeding?

adenomyosis

what is the difference between patients with adenomyosis and endometriosis?

adenomyosis- older, multiparous endometriosis- young, fertility troubles

what is the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus?

adnexa

what is the primary mode of hand hygiene in the clinical setting?

alcohol based rub

what doppler artifact occurs when the doppler sampling rate is not high enough to display the doppler shift frequency?

aliasing

hematometrocolpos is typically associated with the presence of an imperforate hymen in young girls. what are the clinical signs?

amenorrhea, cyclic abdominal pain, abdominal mass, enlarged uterus, urinary retention

define: amenorrhea dysmenorrhea hypomenorrhea polymenorrhea dyspareunia menometrorrhagia metrorrhagia menorrhagia hydrocolpos hydrometrocolpos hematometra hematocolpos hematometrocolpos pyometra

amenorrhea- absent flow dysmenorrhea- painful menstruation hypomenorrhea- light flow polymenorrhea- frequent menstruation dyspareunia- painful intercourse menometrorrhagia- heavy intermenstrual bleeding metrorrhagia- intermenstrual bleeding menorrhagia- heavy flow hydrocolpos- fluid in vagina hydromEtrocolpos- fluid in vag and utErus hematometra- blood in uterus hematocolpos- blood in vagina hematometrocolpos- blood in uterus and vag pyometra- pus in the uterus

anteverted and anteflexed are the most common uterine positions. how are they positioned?

anteverted- body tilts forward, 90* angle with vag anteflexed- body tilts forward, possibly coming in contact with the cervix

where do the ovarian arteries branch from?

aorta

where is the space of retzius?

between anterior bladder wall and pubic symphysis

where is the rectouterine pouch (posterior cul-de-sac/pouch of douglas) located?

between the rectum and uterus

where is the vesicouterine pouch (anterior cul-de-sac) located?

between uterus and bladder

what is another name for bicornuate uterus?

bicornis unicollis cornu- horn collis- cervix bicornis = 2 horns unicollis = 1 cervix

what structures are in the true pelvis?

bladder small bowel sigmoid colon rectum ovaries fallopian tubes uterus

what is the area of attachment of the fallopian tubes to the uterus?

cornua

what is the largest part of the uterus?

corpus

fibroid growth is stimulated by which hormone?

estrogen

what is sonohysterography?

evaluation of the endometrium using saline infusion into the endometrial lumen during transvaginal sonography

what is the inferior portion of the cervix closest to the vagina?

external os

what layer of the endometrium is significantly altered as a result of hormonal stimulation during the menstrual cycle?

functional layer

what is the most superior and widest portion of the uterus?

fundus

what are the four major regions of the uterus?

fundus, corpus (body), isthmus (lus), and cervix

endovaginal transducers may be cleaned by submerging in a(n) ____-based solution

glutaraldehyde

what is a unicornuate uterus?

has only one horn (fallopian)

what is a bicornuate uterus?

heart shaped uterus share one cervix and vagina

what is a simple fluid accumulation within the vagina secondary to an imperforate hymen?

hydrocolpos

what is the term for anechoic fluid distending the uterus and vagina within a pediatric patient?

hydrometrocolpos

what muscles are located lateral to the uterus?

iliopsoas

what is a subseptate uterus?

incomplete septum

what are the 3 layers of the vagina?

inner mucosal middle muscular adventitia

what is adenomyosis?

invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium

what section of the uterus is also referred to as the lower uterine segment?

isthmus

what lab test may be used as a tumor marker for ovarian dysgerminoma?

lactate dehydrogenase

where are the cardinal ligaments located?

lateral cervix to lateral fornix of vagina

a weakening in the ________ muscles can result in the prolapse of the pelvic organs.

levator ani (and coccygeus)

what do the group of muscles called the pelvic diaphragm consist of?

levator ani and coccygeus

what is the difference between a levoverted and dextroverted uterus?

levoverted- uterus located on the left dextroverted- uterus located on the right

what is the name of the imaginary line that divides the pelvis into the true/lesser and false/major pelvis?

linea terminalis

what is the term for abnormally heavy and prolonged menstrual flow between periods?

menometrorrhagia

a patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with a history of adenomyosis that was diagnosed following an MRI of the pelvis. what are the most likely sonographic findings?

myometrial cysts with enlargement of the posterior uterine wall

which ducts give rise to the uterus, vagina, and fallopian tubes

müllerian ducts (aka paramesonephric)

which two arteries anastomose to form the uterine arteries?

ovarian and internal iliac

where are the suspensory ligaments (aka infundibulopelvic ligament) located?

ovaries to pelvic side wall

what pouch is considered the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity, making it the most likely place for fluid to collect in the pelvis?

pouch of douglas

which vessels supply blood to the deep layers of the myometrium?

radial arteries

what does a hysteroscopic uterine septoplasty accomplish?

resectioning of the septum

how is a retroverted and retroflexed uterus positioned?

retroverted- body tilts back without a bend retroflexed- body tilts back, coming in contact with the cervix

what artifact could be noted emanating from air or gas within the endometrium in a patient with endometritis?

ring-down

what does the bony pelvis consist of?

sacrum coccyx innominate bones (ilium, ischium, pubic symphysis)

what bones mark the posterior border of the pelvic cavity?

sacrum and coccyx

what is the most common uterine anomaly that also has a clear association with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion?

septate uterus

what is a septate uterus?

septum that divides the uterine cavity in half

what are the 3 layers of the uterus?

serosal/perimetrium myometrium endometrium

what are the arteries in the functional layer of the endometrium that are altered by the hormones of the ovary and are shed with menstruation?

spiral arteries

which location of fibroids can lead to abnormal uterine bleeding, and a higher incidence of spontaneous abortion?

submucosal

what are the different locations for fibroids?

submucosal intramural subserosal pedunculated

upon sonographic evaluation of a patient complaining of abnormal distention, you visualize a large, hypoechoic mass distorting the anterior border of the uterus. what is the most likely location of this mass?

subserosal fibroid

which ligament of the ovary contains the ovarian artery and vein, lymphatics, and nerves?

suspensory ligament

what is the breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen in the breast and alters the sonographic appearance of the endometrium?

tamoxifen

TRUE OR FALSE: all venous structures mirror their arterial counterparts with the exception of the left ovarian vein, which instead of returning blood to the IVC, drains directly into the left renal vein.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: diethylstilbestrol (DES) was given from the 1940-1970s to treat threatened abortion and premature labor. a female fetus exposed to DES in utero has an increased likelihood of developing a congenital uterine malformation.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: pedunculated fibroids may undergo torsion, thus cutting off the blood supply to the mass. this lack of blood supply results in necrosis, and clinically, the patient will present with acute, localized pelvic pain.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: pre-puberty the cervix is equal to or greater than the fundus. post-puberty the fundus is larger than the cervix.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: pseudoprecocious puberty has been linked with ovarian, adrenal, and liver tumors.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the broad ligaments and suspensory ligament of the ovary are actually double folds of peritoneum.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: it is safe to assume that when there are congenital anomalies recognized on a uterus sonogram, coexisting anomalies may be present in the kidneys. (Explain)

true, because the uterus and kidneys develop around the same time

what is the most common disorder of sex development (ambiguous genitalia)?

turner syndrome (monosomy x)

how do the uterine arteries branch?

uterine artery ⬇ arcuate arteries (superficial myometrium) ⬇ radial arteries (deep myometrium) ⬇ ⬇ strAight and spiral arteries (bAsal and functional/decidual endometrium)

where are the round ligaments located?

uterine cornea to labia majora

what is the congenital malformation of the uterus that results in complete duplication of the genital tract?

uterus didelphys

where is the uterosacral ligament located?

uterus to sacrum

what is hysterosalpingography?

utilize contrast to evaluate the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes

what is twin embolization syndrome?

-vascular products travel from the demised twin to the surviving twin through common vascular channels within the shared placenta. -CNS and kidneys affected -neurological complications -hydrocephalus -porencephaly

when is the heart fully formed?

10 weeks

what is the normal embryonic heart rate between 5 and 6 weeks?

100 to 110 bpm

the second trimester typically refers to weeks:

14 to 26

by when should the fetal stomach be visualized?

14 weeks

what is the normal embryonic heart rate by 9 weeks?

154 bpm

approximately when does the corpus luteum resolve?

16 weeks gestation

edwards syndrome is an example of anueploidy in which there is an additional copy of a chromosome. which chromosome is affected?

18

how fast does the gestational sac grow?

1mm per day

how fast does the cerebellum grow?

1mm per week and correlates with the fetal gestational age

how many standard deviations below normal is IUGR?

2

what is the makeup of the normal umbilical cord?

2 arteries 1 vein

which chromosome is affected with down syndrome?

21

what is considered to be advanced maternal age?

35 and older

what is the minimum IRP value for bhCG that indicates a gestational sac should definitely be visualized by transabdominal ultrasound?

4000

how many chromosomes do normal diploid cells have?

46

what measurement should a placenta not exceed?

4cm

what is the average age at which menopause occurs?

51, with a range of 42-58

an 84-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. her endometrial thickness should not exceed:

5mm

with endometrial atrophy, the endometrial thickness should not exceed:

5mm

when does the normal postpartum uterus return to its nongravid size?

6 to 8 weeks after delivery

how many lobes make up the cerebrum and what are they?

6- frontal two temporal two parietal occipital

what measurement is considered abnormal for a nuchal fold?

6mm or larger

at what measurement is the yolk sac linked with a high rate of pregnancy failure?

7 mm

when does the fetal lip typically close by?

8 weeks

an asymptomatic 65-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with pelvic pain but no vaginal bleeding. her endometrial thickness should not exceed:

8mm

how long does a normal pregnancy last?

9 months, 40 weeks, 280 days

what measurement should be scrutinized closely in fetuses at risk for IUGR?

AC

what is the formula for the abdominal diameter?

AC = 1.57 x (AD1 + AD2)

what lab value may be elevated with chorioangioma?

AFP

what protein is produced by the yolk sac, fetal GI tract, and fetal liver?

AFP

what protein produced by the yolk sac and fetal liver is found in excess in the maternal circulation in the presence of a neural tube defect?

AFP

what tumor marker is elevated with a yolk sac tumor?

AFP

which renal cystic disease results in the development of cysts late in adulthood?

APKD

what are the sonographic findings of thanatophoric dysplasia?

CLOVERLEAF skull frontal bossing hydrocephalus bowing of the limbs

what fetal karyotyping procedure is done at 10-13 weeks where a needle or plastic catheter is placed into the placental mass for aspiration of trophoblastic cells?

CVS

what is the earliest procedure that can be done for fetal karyotyping?

CVS

what is the genetic disorder characterized by an absent or hypoplastic thymus?

DiGeorge syndrome

what would increase a patients likelihood of suffering from thromboembolism?

ERT

what is a thecoma?

ESTROGEN producing, benign ovarian sex-cord-stromal tumor

what is the first structure noted within the decidualized endometrium?

GS

what is the most common cause of enlarged, echogenic kidneys in utero?

IPKD

which renal cystic disease is associated with bilaterally enlarged echogenic kidneys and microscopic renal cysts?

IPKD

there are numerous noncommunicating cysts noted within the left renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation. what is the most likely etiology of these masses?

MCDK disease

due to the opening in the ventral wall, what lab value is elevated with limb-body wall complex (LBWC)?

MSAFP

what lab value is elevated in the presence of gastroschisis and omphalocele?

MSAFP

which lab value is particularly helpful in detecting neural tube defects?

MSAFP

what is the earliest sonographic measurement that can be obtained to date the pregnancy?

MSD/GS

a female patient presents to the sonography department with a clinical history of clomid treatment. she is complaining of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. what circumstance is most likely causing her clinical symptoms?

OHS

a 26-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of infertility and oligomenorrhea. sonographically, you discover that the ovaries are enlarged and contain multiple, small follicles along their periphery, with prominent echogenic stromal elements. what is the most likely diagnosis?

PCOS

what does the sonographic finding of the cogwheel sign indicate?

PID

what is fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome?

PID leads to a perihepatic infection and causes the development of adhesions between the liver and diaphragm, resulting in an inflamed liver capsule, thus leading to a clinical presentation much like cholecystitis -RUQ pain -ff in morison pouch -elevated LFTs

what three primary vesicles is the brain divided into?

PMR prosencephalon mesencephalon rhombencephalon

what is a common cause of PID?

STDs like chlamydia and gonorrhea

what sign is indicative of a monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy?

T sign

what is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate, and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction?

UPJ obstruction

what is one of the most common nosocomial infection?

UTI

what does VACTERL stand for?

Vertebral anomalies Anal atresia Cardiac defects Tracheal-Esophageal abnormalities Renal anomalies Limb anomalies

how can you differentiate between a fibroid and focal myometrial contraction?

a fibroid will alter the shape of the myometrium, wheras myometrial contractions typically disappear within 20 to 30 minutes

what is TORCH?

a group of infections that can cross the placenta and influence the development of the fetus

acrania can be broken down into anencephaly and exencephaly. what is exencephaly?

a normal amount of cerebral tissue is present

what is heterozygous achondroplasia?

a type of dwarfism with shortening of the proximal bones (rhizomelia)

what is a trident hand?

a wide separation between the middle and ring finger

what is the meaning of dysplasia?

abnormal development of a structure

what causes an atrioventricular defect (AVSD)?

abnormal development of the central portion of the heart

vasa previa is often associated with velamentous cord insertion. what is that?

abnormal insertion of the cord into the membranes beyond the placental edge

what is the most commonly identified predictor of poor outcome in a first trimester ultrasound?

abnormally large yolk sac

what is secondary amenorrhea?

absence of menstruation due to pregnancy or postmenopause

what is prune belly syndrome?

absent abdominal musculature undescended testis urinary tract abnormalities

what are the sonographic findings of radial ray defect?

absent or hypoplastic radius cardiac anomalies VACTERL association

what are the sonographic findings of caudal regression syndrome?

absent sacrum and coccyx

which twin in twin-reversed arterial perfusion has no heart, head, cervical spine, and upper limbs, the pump or acardiac twin?

acardiac twin

what is the name of the rare, lethal condition in which there is absent mineralization of the skeletal bones?

achondrogenesis

what disorder results in abnormal bone growth and dwarfism?

achondroplasia

what are the four most common skeletal dysplasias?

achondroplasia achondrogenesis osteogenesis imperfecta thanatophoric dysplasia

what is the most common location for chorioangioma?

adjacent to the umbilical cord insertion site at the placenta

what is the sonographic appearance of an ectopic pregnancy?

adnexal ring sign between the ovary and ut free fluid in the pelvis and morison pouch psuedogestational sac poorly decidualized endometrium

the "sunburst" of the cerebral sulci is the sonographic finding of what disorder?

agenesis of the corpus callosum

what structures develop during the 4th week of pregnancy?

alimentary canal- foregut, midgut, hindgut neural tube- head and spine

an anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. what is the most likely diagnosis?

allantoic cyst

what is the term for a mass that may be noted in the umbilical cord adjacent to the umbilical vessels?

allantoic cyst

what is the most severe form of holoprosencephaly?

alobar

what are the 3 main types of holoprosencephaly?

alobar, semilobar, lobar

what fetal karyotyping procedure is done at 15-20 weeks where an needle is inserted through the abdomen and into the amniotic sac to remove amniotic fluid?

amniocentesis

what are the 3 postulated causes for LBWC?

amnion rupture, vascular occlusion, embryonic malformation

what is the term for a group of abnormalities associated with the entrapment of fetal parts and fetal amputation?

amniotic band syndrome

why is pulmonary hypoplasia associated with oligohydramnios?

amniotic fluid plays a role in the development of fetal lungs, so a fetus, surrounded by little or no amniotic fluid is at risk for pulmonary hypoplasia

what is the most common location of an ectopic pregnancy?

ampulla

what is the most common site of fertilization?

ampulla

what are the sonographic findings of amniotic band syndrome?

amputation of fetal parts severe edema thin, linear bands facial clefting

what causes a cleft lip or palate?

an abnormal or incomplete closure of lip and palate

what is the foramen ovale of the fetal heart?

an opening in the atrial septum, for blood to flow from the right to left atrium

what is fetal karyotyping?

analysis of fetal chromosomes, recommended for woman of advanced maternal age

what is the sonographic appearance of the cavum septum pellucidum?

anechoic box-shaped structure in the axial scan plane

what is the sonographic appearance of a serous cystadenoma?

anechoic lesion with septations and/or papillary projections

what is another name for a blighted ovum?

anembryonic pregnancy

when the cephalic end of the neural tube fails to close, _______ occurs. when the distal end of the neural tube fails to close, _______ occurs.

anencephaly spina bifida

what are the two most common neural tube defects?

anencephaly and spina bifida

what is the condition in which there are an abnormal number of whole chromosomes?

aneuploidy

what is the term for the absence of the eye(s)?

anophthalmia

what is the congenital maldevelopment of the rectum and absence of the anal opening termed?

anorectal atresia

what is the most common type of atresia that leads to bowel obstruction?

anorectal atresia

what is the most common type of colonic atresia?

anorectal atresia

what is stein-leventhal syndrome?

another name for PCOS

what type of cycle do birth control pills produce?

anovulatory

what is the uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward and comes in contact with the cervix?

anteflexed

what are the anterior and posterior fontanelles referred to as?

anterior bregma posterior lambda

what is the most common cause of hypertelorism?

anterior cephalocele that displaces the orbits laterally

what is the sonographic appearance of a fetal goiter?

anterior fetal neck mass

where is the fourth ventricle located?

anterior to the cerebellum

the left ventricular outflow tract leads to which artery?

aorta

what genetic disorder includes craniosynostosis, midline facial hypoplasia, and syndactyly?

apert syndrome

what is the most common form of spina bifida?

aperta

how does the third ventricle communicate with the fourth ventricle?

aqueduct of sylvius

what is aqueductal stenosis?

aqueduct of sylvius may be narrowed, thus preventing flow of CSF from the third to fourth ventricle

what is the most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero?

aqueductal stenosis

arachnoid cysts can be confused with porencephaly. what is the difference between the two?

arachnoid cysts do not communicate with the ventricular system

what is the middle layer of the meninges?

arachnoid membrane

which structure is responsible for the reabsorption of CSF into the venous system?

arachnoid villi or arachnoid granulations

what is a cisterna magna of less than 2mm associated with?

arnold-chiari II malformation

when do the amnion and chorion (gs) typically fuse?

around 14 weeks

what is the vein of galen aneurysm?

arteriovenous malformation that occurs within the fetal brain

what abnormality results in limitation of the fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures?

arthrogryposis

what does the LVOT include?

ascending aorta

what is the origin for a majority of the upper genital tract infections?

ascending infection from the lower genital tract

what is the primary purpose of performing serial doppler evaluations of the umbilical artery?

assess for signs of placental insufficiency

what should the cervical length measure?

at least 3cm

what is the term for an abnormal opening in the septum between the two atria of the heart?

atrial septal defect (ASD)

how do the ovaries look postmenopausal?

atrophied and hard to find

which form of endometrial hyperplasia is at an increased risk for progressing into endometrial carcinoma?

atypical adenomatous hyperplasia

what is the form of inheritance in which at least one parent has to be a carrier of an abnormal gene for it to be passed to the fetus?

autosomal dominant

what is APKD?

autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

what is another term for infantile polycystic kidney disease (IPKD)?

autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

what hormone do the trophoblastic cells produce?

b-hCG

what are the two layers of the endometrium?

basal and functional layer

what is the outer layer of the endometrium called?

basal layer

how should you measure the endometrium?

basal layer to basal layer

how can OHS result in ovarian torsion?

because of the cystic enlargement of the ovaries

what becomes of the graafian follicle after rupture?

becomes the corpus luteum

what is considered premature delivery?

before 37 weeks

what are nabothian cysts?

benign cervical cysts

what is a gartner duct cyst?

benign cyst in the vagina

what are endometrial polyps?

benign nodule of hyperplastic endometrial tissue

what is an ovarian fibroma?

benign ovarian masses that may be complicated by meigs syndrome

what is a brenner tumor (transitional cell tumor)?

benign ovarian tumor that can undergo malignant degeneration

when is the nuchal fold measurement typically obtained?

between 15 and 21 weeks

when does the axial skeleton begin to form?

between 6-8th week

where is the urachus located?

between the apex of the bladder and umbilicus

what is the most common location for coarctation of the aorta?

between the left subclavian and ductus arteriosis

where is the cerebellar vermis located?

between the two lobes of the cerebellum

what are the typical sonographic findings of APKD?

bilateral enlarged echogenic bladder is present normal amniotic fluid

what are the typical sonographic findings of IPKD?

bilateral enlarged echogenic undetected bladder oligohydramnios

what is potter syndrome?

bilateral renal agenesis

what is the sonographic appearance of a theca lutein cyst?

bilateral, multiloculated measuring up to 15cm

what is the term for a placenta that consists of two separate discs of equal size?

bilobed placenta

what is the name for the measurement taken from the lateral margin of one orbit to the lateral margin of the next orbit?

binocular diameter

what does a normal ductus venosus waveform in the first trimester look like?

biphasic with a positive a-wave

what is the abnormality where the bladder is located outside the pelvis?

bladder exstrophy

what is the anechoic or complex mass located between the lower uterine segment and the posterior bladder wall?

bladder flap hematoma

what is the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium?

blastocyst

what structure does the morula differentiate into?

blastocyst

what is subchorionic hemorrhage?

bleed between the endometrium and gestational sac

what is a bladder outlet obstruction?

blockage of the flow of urine out of the bladder

what does a cephalic index of more than 85 denote?

brachycephalic head

what is the term for a round, or short and wide head shape?

brachycephaly

what is arnold-chiari II malformation?

brain tissue extends into spinal canal; associated with spina bifida

where do the uterine arteries branch from and what do they supply?

branch from internal iliac arteries supply uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries

what is a benign congenital neck cyst found most often near the angle of the mandible?

branchial cleft cyst

what is tamoxifen?

breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen on the breast, thus slowing the growth of cancer

what is the sonographic appearance of asherman syndrome using sonohysterography?

bright bands of tissue traversing the uterine cavity

what is another name for osteogenesis imperfecta?

brittle bone disease

what is the pelvic ligament that extends from the lateral aspect of the uterus to the side walls of the pelvis?

broad ligament

the sonographic pelvic examination of a female patient reveals an extensive amount of ascites. in the transverse plane, you visualize two echogenic structures extending from the side walls of uterus to the pelvic side walls bilaterally. what structure are you seeing?

broad ligaments

what are nonimmune hydrops?

buildup of fluid within at least two fetal body cavities

how is fetal age determined?

by LMP

what disorder is associated with bowing of the long bones?

campomelic dysplasia

what is an elevation in the tumor marker CA-125 associated with?

cancer of the ovary, endometrium, breast, GI tract and lungs endometriosis, PID, fibroids, and pregnancy

what does the letter C in VACTERL association stand for?

cardiac

which ligaments house the vasculature of the uterus?

cardinal

if cardiomegaly is suspected on a 28 week fetus, what measurement would assist the most in confirming the diagnosis?

cardiothoracic ratio

what is the condition associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx?

caudal regression syndrome

what does FSH do?

causes the development of multiple follicles on the ovaries

at what level is the nuchal fold measurement obtained?

cavum septum pellucidum

what is the anechoic midline brain structure located between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles?

cavum septum pellucidum

what is the term for close-set eyes and a nose with a single nostril?

cebocephaly

where does the umbilical cord normally insert?

central portion of placenta

what is the most common fetal presentation?

cephalic

what formula is used to calculate the cephalic index?

cephalic index = BPD/OFD x 100

what are encephaloceles?

cephaloceles which include brain tissue

what is the term for the treatment of an incompetent cervix?

cerclage

what is the largest part of the brain?

cerebrum

what are the two main parts of the brain?

cerebrum and cerebellum

what is the most common malignancy in women younger than 50?

cervical carcinoma

what is the term for the painless dilation of the cervix in the second or early third trimester?

cervical incompetence

what is the progression of PID into the cervix termed?

cervicitis

what is the rigid region of the uterus located between the vagina and isthmus?

cervix

what is the most common placental tumor?

chorioangioma

what is the fetal contribution to the placenta?

chorion frondosum, derived from the blastocyst and containing the chorionic villi

what part of the placenta is closest to the fetus?

chorionic plate

what three parts does the placenta consist of?

chorionic plate placenta substance basal layer

what structure allows the blastocyst to link with the maternal endometrium?

chorionic villi

what three main procedures are used to obtain material for fetal karyotyping?

chorionic villi sampling (CVS) amniocentesis cordocentesis

during a 12-week sonogram, bilateral echogenic structures are noted within the lateral ventricles of the fetal cranium. what do these structures represent?

choroid plexus

what is the term for an abnormally shaped placenta caused by the membranes inserting inward from the edge of the placenta, producing a curled-up placental contour?

circumvallate placenta

what is the largest cistern in the head?

cisterna magna

what is the bending of the fifth digit towards the fourth digit called?

clinodactyly

what is the most common finding of abnormal external genitalia in the female?

clitoromegaly

what is the embryonic structure that develops into the rectum and urogenital sinus?

cloaca

what is another name for OEIS complex?

cloacal exstrophy

what medication is administered to cause the ovaries to produce follicles?

clomid

what is spina bifida occulta?

closed lesion, typically covered by skin no herniation of the spinal contents

what is the term for the narrowing of the aortic arch?

coarctation of the aorta

what is the term for the enlargement of the occipital horns and narrowing of the frontal horns?

colpocephaly

what is the most severe form of placental abruption and what does it lead to?

complete abruption, leads to the development of a retroplacental hematoma located between the placenta and myometrium

what is the most common form of gestational trophoblastic disease?

complete molar pregnancy

what is the sonographic appearance of a hemorrhagic cyst?

complex or echogenic depending on the hemorrhage, also weblike or lacy appearance

what is the sonographic appearance of sacrococcygeal teratoma?

complex or solid mass extending posteriorly and inferiorly from the distal fetal spine

what is meigs syndrome?

condition of having a benign ovarian tumor with ASCITES and PLEURAL EFFUSION

what abnormality is associated with a mass consisting of abnormal bronchial and lung tissue?

congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CAM)

what causes nonimmune hydrops?

congenital fetal anomalies and infections

division of the inner cell mass after day 13 will result in what form of twin pregnancy?

conjoined

what is the purpose of the isthmus?

connects the interstitial area to the ampulla

what is the sonographic appearance of an endometrial polyp?

contains a small vessel, has cystic areas within it

what happens if the graafian follicle fails to ovulate?

continues to enlarge and can become a follicular cyst (3-8cm)

what is compensatory renal hypertrophy?

contralateral kidney will enlarge in the presence of unilateral agenesis

what fetal karyotyping procedure is done after 17 weeks where a needle is placed through the abdomen and into the umbilical vein at the area of the cord insertion to draw a sample of fetal blood?

cordocentesis

what suture is located between the frontal and two parietal bones?

coronal suture

which structure remains after the corpus luteum has regressed?

corpus albicans

what is the term for the band of tissue that allows communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres?

corpus callosum

sonographically, a normal-appearing 7-week IUP is identified. within the adnexa, an ovarian cystic structure with a thick, hyperechoic rim is also discovered. what does this ovarian mass most likely represent?

corpus luteum cyst

what is the most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy?

corpus luteum cyst

does oogenesis occur in the medulla or cortex of the ovary?

cortex

what is the most accurate sonographic measurement of pregnancy?

crown rump length (CRL)

what is the term for the removal of tissue from the endometrium by scraping?

curettage

what are two external findings related to holoprosencephaly?

cyclopia- one eye proboscis- false nose above the eyes

what is a choledochal cyst?

cystic dilation of the CBD

what is an inherited disorder in which mucus secreting organs such as the lungs, pancreas, and other digestive organs produce thick and sticky secretions instead of normal secretions?

cystic fibrosis

what two abnormalities are associated with echogenic bowel?

cystic fibrosis down syndrome (T21)

a large, cystic mass containing a thick midline septation is noted in the cervical spine of a fetus. what is the name of this mass?

cystic hygroma

what disorder results in an abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue?

cystic hygroma

a 25-year-old patient presents to the sonography department complaining of pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and oligomenorrhea. an ovarian mass, thought to be a chocolate cyst, is noted during the examination. what is the most common sonographic appearance of this mass?

cystic mass with low-level echoes

what is the sonographic appearance of cystic hygroma?

cystic neck mass divided in the midline by a thick fibrous band of tissue

what is the most common benign ovarian tumor?

cystic teratoma (dermoid)

what are choroid plexus cysts?

cysts located within the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles

among TORCH, what is the most common congenital infection?

cytomegalovirus

what cerebral malformation is associated with agenesis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis?

dandy-walker malformation

what is a missed abortion?

dead fetus retained in the uterus

what is the maternal contribution to the placenta?

decidua basalis, endometrium below placenta

what is the first non-specific sonographically identifiable sign of a pregnancy?

decidual reaction

how does menopause affect the uterus and ovaries?

decrease in size; ovaries become echogenic and lack follicles

what causes pulmonary hypoplasia?

decreased number of lung cells, airways, and alveoli

what causes dandy-walker malformation?

development abnormality in the roof of the fourth ventricle

what is the importance of the rhombencephalon?

develops into the fourth ventricle and other essential brain structures

twins who share an amniotic sac are referred to as monoamniotic. what are twins who have separate amniotic sacs referred to as?

diamniotic

what abnormality is associated with an abnormal opening in the fetal diaphragm that allows the herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity?

diaphragmatic hernia

what does the visualization of the fetal stomach within the fetal chest indicate?

diaphragmatic hernia

what is the most common lesion that occupies the chest, resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia?

diaphragmatic hernia

what is the most common reason for fetal cardiac malposition?

diaphragmatic hernia

twins who share a placenta are referred to as monochorionic. what are twins who have separate placentas referred to as?

dichorionic

division of the inner cell mass before day 4 will result in what form of monozygotic twins?

dichorionic diamniotic

the sonographic examination of twins reveals a triangular extension of the placenta at the base of the membrane. what does this finding indicate?

dichorionic diamniotic

what is the sonographic finding of an endometrial polyp?

diffuse thickening of the endometrium

how is RPOC treated?

dilatation and curettage

what is hydrocephalus?

dilation of the ventricular system caused by an increase in CSF

what is the first sonographic manifestation of TTTS?

discordant fetal growth

what is the most common form of twinning?

dizygotic twins

what does a cephalic index of less than 75 denote?

dolichocephalic head

what is the term for an elongated, narrow head shape?

dolichocephaly, also known as scaphocephaly

what happens during ovulation?

dominant follicle ruptures and releases the ovum into the peritoneal cavity along with some follicular fluid

what twin suffers from anemia and growth restriction in twin-twin transfusion syndrome, the donor or recipient?

donor

a 38-year-old pregnant woman presents to the sonography department for an obstetrical sonogram with abnormal maternal serum screening. her alpha-fetoprotein and estriol are low, whereas her hCG is elevated. what are these laboratory findings most consistent with?

down syndrome

what is trisomy 21?

down syndrome

what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of duodenal atresia, increased nuchal translucency (1T), increased nuchal fold thickness (2T), pyelectasis, widened pelvic angles, and absent nasal bones point to?

down syndrome (T21)

what is the most common chromosomal abnormality?

down syndrome (T21)

a 22-week fetus with clinodactyly, an echogenic intracardiac focus, and hyperechoic bowel is noted during a screening obstetrical sonogram. what are these findings consistent with?

down synrome (T21)

what is pergonal?

drug that consists of FSH and LH, often given with hCG

what is the fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch?

ductus arteriosis

what structure shunts blood into the IVC from the umbilical vein?

ductus venosus

why is PID linked with infertility and ectopic pregnancy?

due to the formation of scar tissue

what is the cerebellum?

dumbbell-shaped structure in the posterior cranium

what abnormality is associated with the congenital malformation or absence of the duodenum?

duodenal atresia

what is the most common renal anomaly?

duplex collecting system

what is the outermost layer of the meninges?

dura mater

how is it helpful to determine the number of yolk sacs with monochorionic twins in the first trimester?

each yolk sac has its own amniotic sac

what is the cause of obstructive cystic dysplasia?

early renal obstruction

what is the term for the malformation or malpositioning of the tricuspid valve?

ebstein anomaly

what is the dangling choroid sign?

echogenic choroid plexus hanging limp and surrounded by CSF within the dilated lateral ventricle

what abnormality is associated with the calcification of the papillary muscle or chordae tendineae of the left ventricle?

echogenic intracardiac focus (EIF)

where is rhabdomyoma located?

echogenic tumors within the myocardium

what is the sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration?

echogenic, TRIANGULAR-shaped mass on the LEFT side of the fetal chest

what is the abnormality where the heart is located either partially or completely outside the chest?

ectopic cordis

a 35-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of tubal ligation and positive pregnancy test. what condition should be highly suspected?

ectopic pregnancy

what is the most common cause of pelvic pain with a positive pregnancy test?

ectopic pregnancy

what is trisomy 18?

edwards syndrome

what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of strawberry shaped skull, choroid plexus cysts, micrognathia, rockerbottom feet, omphalocele, clenched fists, and a single umbilical artery point to?

edwards syndrome (T18)

what is the second most common chromosomal abnormality?

edwards syndrome (T18)

what trisomy is a strawberry shaped skull associated with?

edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)

which syndrome is most common in the amish community and is associated with short limb dwarfism, polydactyly, and congenital heart defects?

ellis-van creveld syndrome

what does the inner part of the blastocyst develop into?

embryo amnion umbilical cord primary and secondary yolk sacs

what structures develop during the 5th week of pregnancy?

embryonic heart

what abnormality is associated with meninges and brain tissue herniating through a bony defect in the calvarium?

encephalocele

what is menopause?

end of menstruation with advanced age

sacrococcygeal teratoma containedes elements of the three different germ cell layers. what are those?

endoderm mesoderm ectoderm

a 60-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding. the sonographic examination reveals an endometrium that measures 4mm. there are no other significant sonographic findings. what is the most likely diagnosis?

endometrial atrophy

a 68-year-old patient presents to the sonography department complaining of vaginal bleeding. what is the most likely cause of her bleeding?

endometrial atrophy

what does an endometrial thickness threshold of less than 5mm indicate, along with postmenopausal vaginal bleeding?

endometrial atrophy

what is the most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding?

endometrial atrophy

what does an endometrial thickness threshold of 4-5mm indicate, along with postmenopausal vaginal bleeding?

endometrial carcinoma

what is the most common gynecological malignancy?

endometrial carcinoma

a 67-year-old patient on HRT presents to the sonography department with abnormal uterine bleeding. sonographically, the endometrium is diffusely thickened, contains small cystic areas, and measures 9mm in thickness. what is the most likely cause of her bleeding?

endometrial hyperplasia

what is an increase in the number of endometrial cells termed?

endometrial hyperplasia

what abnormalities is tamoxifen associated with?

endometrial hyperplasia, polyps, and cancer

a 34-year-old patient presents to the sonography department for an endovaginal sonogram complaining of intermenstrual bleeding. the sonographic findings include a focal irregularity and enlargement of one area of the endometrium. what is the most likely diagnosis?

endometrial polyps

a patient presents to the sonography department with complaints of infertility and painful menstrual cycles. sonographically, you discover a cystic mass on the ovary consisting low-level echoes. based on the clinical and sonographic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

endometrioma

what is the benign, blood-containing tumor that forms from the implantation of ectopic endometrial tissue?

endometrioma, aka chocolate cyst

what is the progression of PID into the endometrium termed?

endometritis

what is an arcuate uterus?

endometrium has a concave contour at the uterine fundus

what is megacystis?

enlarged bladder

what is the sonographic finding of dandy-walker malformation?

enlarged cisterna magna that communicates with a distended fourth ventricle through a defect in the cerebellum

what is the sequela of OHS?

enlarged ovaries large follicles known as theca lutein cysts (theca lutein cysts occur because of high b-hCG, which is given as part of fertility treatment) ovarian torsion

what are the sonographic signs of ebstein anomaly?

enlarged right atrium fetal hydrops malpositioned tricuspid

what is mega cisterna magna?

enlargement of the cisterna magna without involvement of the fourth ventricle

what is pyelectasis?

enlargement of the urinary bladder, ureter, and renal calices

what membrane lines each ventricle?

ependyma

what is immune hydrops associated with?

erythroblastosis fetalis and Rh isoimmunization

what is the term for the congenital absence of the esophagus?

esophageal atresia

what form of permanent birth control would be seen sonographically as echogenic, linear structures within the lumen of both isthmic portions of the fallopian tubes?

essure devices

what hormones do the ovaries produce?

estrogen and progesterone

what is the term for a condition in which there is no nose and a proboscis separating two close-set orbits.

ethmocephaly

what is the fetal form of pulmonary sequestration?

extrapulmonary sequestration

what is holoprosencephaly?

failure of prosencephalon to divide correctly into right and left hemispheres

what causes anophthalmia?

failure of the optic vesicle to form

what is salpingitis?

fallopian tubes become inflamed due to infection

what is proboscis?

false nose above the orbits

what is the term for the double fold of dura mater that divides the cerebral hemispheres?

falx cerebri

what is meckel-gruber syndrome?

fatal disorder associated with cystic renal disease, occipital encephalocele, and polydactyly

what demographic is affected by yolk sac tumors?

females younger than 20

with Rh isoimmunization, the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy what?

fetal RBCs

a shunt is the most common treatment for hydrocephalus. what does the shunt drain the cerebrospinal fluid from the dilated lateral ventricles into?

fetal abdomen

what is the most common cause of intellectual disability in the united states?

fetal alcohol syndrome

what do the roberts sign and deuel sign indicate?

fetal demise

what is the term for the isolated enlargement of the fetal thyroid?

fetal goiter

a coexisting pericardial effusion and pleural effusion is consistent with what anomaly?

fetal hydrops

what is the abnormality where there is an accumulation of fluid within at least two fetal body cavities?

fetal hydrops

what organ(s) produce amniotic fluid after 12 weeks?

fetal kidneys

what structures can be visualized during the 7th week of pregnancy?

fetal limb buds rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

what is meconium?

fetal stool

what contributes the majority of amniotic fluid?

fetal urine

how does IUGR manifest?

fetus is uniformly small OR asymmetrically where the femur is normal while the other measurements are small for gestation

what is the term for a fetus that dies in the first trimester and is maintained throughout the pregnancy?

fetus papyraceus

what is the most common benign gynecologic tumor, and the leading cause of hysterectomy and gyn surgery?

fibroid

what is a common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding?

fibroids within the uterine cavity

what is the purpose of the fimbria?

fingerlike projections that draw the unfertilized egg into the tube

what is the cause of multicystic dysplastic kidney disease (MCDK)?

first trimester obstruction of the ureter

what are the weeks for the first, second, and third trimesters?

first- 1-13 second 14-28 third 29-40

what is the development of adhesions between the liver and diaphragm due to PID referred to as?

fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome

what are the two sonographic findings helpful in making the diagnosis of renal agenesis?

flattened "lying down" adrenal gland no identifiable renal artery branches

what is the difference between hydrosalpinx, pyosalpinx, and hematosalpinx?

fluid, pus, or blood within the fallopian tubes respectively

what is the amnion?

fluid-filled sac containing the embryo

what is the cisterna magna and where is it located?

fluid-filled space located posterior to the cerebellum and between the cerebellar vermis

what is the double bubble sign of duodenal atresia?

fluid-filled stomach and proximal duodenum

what is the maternal dietary supplement that has been shown to significantly reduce the likelihood of the fetus suffering from a neural tube defect?

folate

what hormone causes the ovaries to develop follicles, and where is that hormone produced?

follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) released by the anterior pituitary

what happens during menopause?

follicles cease to mature, leading to a reduction in the amounts of estrogen and progesterone

what are the two phases of the ovarian cycle?

follicular and luteal

what is a hemorrhagic cyst?

follicular cyst that contains blood

what is the term for the spaces between the fetal cranial bones?

fontanelles aka soft spots

what is the fetal presentation where the feet are closest to the cervix?

footling breech

what is the term for the opening in the base of the cranium through which the spinal cord travels?

foramen magnum

how does CSF travel from the fourth ventricle to the cisterna magna?

foramen of magendie

the foramen of bochdalek leads to left-sided diaphragmatic hernia. which foramen leads to right-sided diaphragmatic hernia?

foramen of morgagni

how does CSF travel from the fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space?

foramina of luschka

how does CSF travel from the lateral ventricles into the third ventricle?

foramina of monroe

what is the prosencephalon?

forebrain

what are the recesses of the vagina?

fornices

what are choroid plexus papillomas?

found within choroid plexus, produce an increase in the production of CSF, leading to ventriculomegaly

how many ventricles are part of the ventricular system and what is their primary function?

four ventricles that provide cushioning for the brain

which ventricle is located anterior to the cerebellar vermis?

fourth ventricle

with what structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with dandy-walker malformation communicate?

fourth ventricle

what is the fetal presentation when the fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix?

frank breech

what is another name for dizygotic twins?

fraternal twins

what is the sonographic appearance of anencephaly?

froglike bulging eyes absent cranium

how do you obtain the three vessel view for fetal heart evaluation?

from an apical four chamber view, slide the transducer cephalad

what does idiopathic mean?

from an unknown cause

how is the BPD taken?

from outer to inner

how is nuchal translucency measured?

from the outer occipital bone to the outer edge of the skin

how is the cisterna magna measured?

from the vermis to the inner margin of the occipital bone

what is the term for the premature opening of the internal os and the subsequent bulging of the membranes into the dilated cervix?

funneling

when is alobar holoprosencephaly diagnosed?

fused thalami monoventricle absent corpus callosum, cavum septum pellucidum, third ventricle, interhemispheric fissure, falx cerebri

what is sirenomelia?

fusion of the lower extremities

evidence of polyhydramnios should warrant a careful investigation of which fetal system, genitourinary or gastrointestinal?

gastrointestinal

are MSAFP levels higher in gastroschisis or omphalocele?

gastroschisis

is the prognosis better for gastroschisis or omphalocele?

gastroschisis

what anomaly of the fetal digestive system has been associated with maternal use of aspirin during pregnancy?

gastroschisis

what is the term for the herniation of abdominal contents through a right-sided, periumbilical abdominal wall defect?

gastroschisis

what are the two most common ventral abdominal wall defects?

gastroschisis omphalocele

what is the most common origin of intracranial hemorrhage?

germinal matrix

what is the most common type of diabetes during pregnancy?

gestational diabetes

what is the most common sex-cord-stromal, estrogen producing tumor with malignant potential?

granulosa cell tumor

what is open lip schizencephaly?

gray matter-lined clefts containing CSF

what is gestational trophoblastic disease?

group of disorders that result from an abnormal combination of male and female gametes

what is the germinal matrix?

group of thin-walled, pressure-sensitive vessels located in the subependymal layer of the ventricles

what hormone does the placenta produce?

hCG

what hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy?

hCG

which hormones does the placenta produce?

hCG PAPP-A estriol inhibin A

what three laboratory values typically compromise the triple screen test?

hCG maternal serum AFP (MSAFP) estriol

what is a dermoid mesh?

hair appears as numerous linear interfaces within the cystic area of a dermoid

what is mesoblastic nephroma?

hamartoma of the kidney

what is the most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age?

head circumference

what does pulsatile flow in the umbilical vein of a 34 week gestation indicate?

heart failure in fetus

what is the most common tumor of the umbilical cord?

hemangioma

a 13-year-old girl presents to the sonography department with a history of cyclic pain, abdominal swelling, and amenorrhea. sonographically, you visualize an enlarged uterus and a distended vagina that contains anechoic fluid with debris. what is the most likely diagnosis?

hematocolpos

what is the anomaly of the spine in which there is absence of all or part of a vertebral body and posterior element?

hemivertebra

what is erythroblastosis fetalis/Rh isoimmunization?

hemolytic anemia pregnant mother's Rh negative antibodies cross the placenta and attack the RBCs of her unborn child

what is the most common abnormality of the fetal liver?

hepatomegaly

ovulation induction drugs increase the likelihood of multiple gestations and what else?

heterotopic pregnancies

what is the most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia?

heterozygous achondroplasia

during the early follicular and late luteal phase, what pattern does the ovarian artery demonstrate?

high resistance

which lab values are high and low with down syndrome (T21)?

high- hCG and inhibin A low- estriol and PAPP-A

what is the rhombencephalon?

hindbrain

what is the term for the functional bowel disorder within the fetus that is caused by the absence of intestinal nerves?

hirschsprung disease

what are the risk factors for developing PID?

history of PID IUD postabortion post childbirth douching multiple sexual partners early sexual contact STDs

what factors increase the risk for multiple gestation?

history of multiple gest assisted reproductive therapy (ART) ovulation induction drugs advanced maternal age obesity

what is the most common cause of hypotelorism?

holoprosencephaly

what is dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

hormonal imbalance resulting in endometrial changes with bleeding

what does fusion of the lower poles of the kidney describe?

horseshoe kidney

the sonographic finding of a fluid-filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with which disorder?

hydranencephaly

what is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric exam?

hydronephrosis

what is the term for the dilation of the renal collecting system secondary to the obstruction of normal urine flow?

hydronephrosis

what abnormalities is the vein of galen aneurysm associated with?

hydrops and cardiomegaly

what does the sonographic appearance of a tubular, simple-appearing, anechoic structure within the adnexa describe?

hydrosalpinx

what is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHS)?

hyperstimulation of ovaries by fertility drugs. results in enlarged follicular ovarian cysts (theca lutein cysts)

what is the term for the increased distance between the orbits?

hypertelorism

when the sonographic three-line sign is present, what is the appearance of the functional layer of the endometrium?

hypoechoic

what is the sonographic appearance of an ovarian fibroma?

hypoechoic, solid mass with posterior attenuation mimic pedunculated fibroid

what is the sonographic appearance of a thecoma?

hypoechoic, solid unilateral mass with posterior attenuation

what are the effects of asherman syndrome?

hypomenorrhea, amenorrhea, pregnancy loss, infertility

if posterior shadowing from the skull, ribs, and long bones is demonstrated, which abnormality can be ruled out?

hypophosphatasia

what are the group of anomalies characterized sonographically as a small or absent left ventricle?

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

what is the leading cause of cardiac death in the neonatal period, with 95% dying within the first month of life if surgery is not performed?

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

what is the term for a small or absent right ventricle?

hypoplastic right heart syndrome

what is the term for the abnormal ventral curvature of the penis as a result of a shortened urethra that exits on the ventral penile shaft?

hypospadias

what is the term for a reduction in the distance between the orbits?

hypotelorism

what is the radiographic procedure used to evaluate the patency of the fallopian tubes?

hysterosalpingography

what is another name for monozygotic twins?

identical twins

what is the purpose of the corpus luteum if fertilization does or does not occur?

if fertilization occurs- produce progesterone to maintain pregnancy until the placenta can take over if fertilization doesn't occur- corpus luteum regresses and becomes the corpus albicans

which hydrops occurs when the mother has Rh-negative blood and the fetus has Rh-positive blood?

immune hydrops

what does the I in OEIS complex stand for?

imperforate anus

what causes a subchorionic hemorrhage?

implantation

where is the secondary yolk sac located?

in the chorionic cavity, between the amnion and chorion

what typically causes IUGR?

inadequate transfer of nutrients from mother to the fetus; dysfunction of the placenta

what is the most common cause of abnormal serum screening tests?

incorrect dating of the pregnancy

does the MSAFP value increase or decrease with anencephaly?

increase

does the MSAFP value increase or decrease with gastroschisis?

increase

what is the whirlpool sign?

indicator of a torsed ovarian pedicle adjacent to the ovary, appearing as a round mass with concentric hypoechoic and hyperechoic rings that demonstrate swirling color doppler

what is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

infection of the upper genital tract (reproductive organs)

what is endometritis?

inflammation of the endometrium

what structure divides the cerebrum into left and right hemispheres?

interhemispheric fissure

what marks the superior portion of the cervix?

internal os

what is the name for the measurement taken between the orbits?

interocular diameter

an ectopic pregnancy that forms in which portion of the fallopian tube will have the greatest complications?

interstitial

what are the five parts of the fallopian tube?

interstitial isthmus ampulla infundibulum fimbria

what is the most common sonographic finding of fetal infections, especially cytomegalovirus?

intracranial calcifications

what is the most likely fetal cranial finding with TORCH infections?

intracranial calcifications

what causes porencephaly?

intracranial hemorrhage

what is the most common location for fibroids?

intramural

are the ovaries intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?

intraperitoneal (GLOSS)

what is a heterotopic pregnancy?

intrauterine and ectopic pregnancy at the same time

what is an IUD?

intrauterine device used to prevent implantation of the fertilized ovum

what are the causes of fetal hepatomegaly?

intrauterine infections fetal anemia (Rh) incompatibility beckwith-wiedemann syndrome

what is asherman syndrome?

intrauterine synechiae that result from uterine surgery such as a D&C.

what are the most common forms of malignant gestational trophoblastic disease?

invasive mole and choriocarcinoma

what is the cause of UPJ obstruction?

irregular development of smooth muscle

why is sirenomelia lethal?

it is accompanied by bilateral renal agenesis

what is the sonographic finding of posterior urethral valves?

keyhole sign

what sex chromosome anomaly is associated with hypogonadism and subnormal intelligence in males?

klinefelter syndrome

what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of hypogonadism, small testis, tall stature, long legs and arms, and gynecomastia point to?

klinefelter syndrome (XXY)

which chromosomal abnormality is found exclusively in males?

klinefelter syndrome (XXY)

what is the term for an abnormal posterior curvature of the spine?

kyphosis

a differential diagnosis of diaphragmatic hernia is eventration of the diaphragm. what is that?

lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm

what sign is indicative of a dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy?

lambda sign (aka twin peak/delta sign)

what suture is located between the two parietal bones and occipital bone?

lamdoidal suture

what do the two neural processes of the fetal spine develop into?

lamina, pedicle, transverse process

what are the sonographic findings for achondrogenesis?

large skull shortened limbs demineralization of skull, spine, pelvis, limbs distended abdomen narrow chest

what is the sonographic appearance of a mucinous cystadenoma?

large with debris, septations, and papillary projections, usually unilateral

what is the sonographic appearance of the vein of galen aneurysm?

large, anechoic mass within the midline of the cranium with turbulent flow

what are theca lutein cysts?

largest and least common cyst

during which phase of the endometrial cycle would the endometrium yield the three-line sign?

late proliferative

what is ventriculomegaly?

lateral ventricle measuring more than 10mm

what ratio is used to assess fetal lung maturity?

lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio (L/S ratio)

on which side of the heart is the bicuspid aka mitral valve?

left

where does the blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enter into?

left atrium

which heart chamber is closest to the fetal spine?

left atrium

what is the most common location of diaphragmatic hernia?

left side; referred to as bochdalek hernia

what is another name for a fibroid?

leiomyoma

what is the malignant counterpart of a fibroid?

leiomyosarcoma

which two yellow fruits is spina bifida associated with?

lemon and banana

what is the sonographic appearance of arnold-chiari II malformation (spina bifida)?

lemon shaped skull banana shaped cerebellum obliterated cisterna magna enlarged massa intermedia hydrocephalus

at what level is the lateral ventricle measured?

level of the atrium

what does the letter L in VACTERL association stand for?

limb

what is the purpose of the corpus callosum?

links the left and right cerebral hemispheres in the midline; allows communication

The placenta consists of approximately 10 to 30 cotyledons. what does this mean?

lobes of chorionic villi

what is the purpose of the choroid plexus and where is it located?

located at the atrium of the lateral ventricles where the temporal and occipital horn meet. produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

what is the purpose of the ampulla?

longest and most tortuous segment; location of fertilization and area where ectopic pregnancies often embed

how can you differentiate the intradecidual sign from the pseudogestational sac of an ectopic pregnancy?

look for the double sac or double decidual sign

what is the sonographic appearance of placenta accreta?

loss of the normal hypoechoic interface between the placenta and myometrium

will an ectopic pregnancy have a high or low hCG?

low hCG

during the late follicular and early luteal phase, what pattern does the ovarian artery demonstrate?

low resistance

what is the most likely pulsed doppler characteristic of endometrial carcinoma?

low-impedance flow

which is the situation in which the placental edge extends into the lower uterine segment but ends more than 2cm away from the internal os?

low-lying placenta

what is the sonographic finding of bladder exstrophy?

lower abdominal wall mass inferior to the umbilicus

what is the most common location for spina bifida?

lumbosacral region

what is the term for the unusual protuberance of the tongue?

macroglossia

what is the major risk for the fetus of a mother with gestational diabetes?

macrosomia

what is gynecomastia?

male breast enlargement

is UPJ obstruction more common in males or females?

males

what is clubfoot?

malformation of the bones of the foot

what is a krukenberg tumor?

malignant ovarian tumor that most likely metastasized from the GI tract, more specifically the stomach

what cord insertion is at the edge of the placenta?

marginal aka battledore

what is the most common placenta hemorrhage identified with sonography?

marginal placental abruption

what is the sonographic appearance of congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CAM)?

mass with cystic and solid components

what is the name of the thalamic tissue located within the third ventricle of the brain that can become enlarged with arnold-chiari II malformation?

massa intermedia

what connects the two lobes of the thalamus?

massa intermedia also known as interthalmic adhesion

what is the rare condition where the mother suffers from edema and fluid buildup similar to her hydropic fetus?

maternal mirror syndrome

what is the most common risk factor for fetal intrauterine intracranial hemorrhage?

maternal platelet disorder

what forms the placenta?

maternal- decidua basalis fetal- chorion frondosum

what is the purpose of the fetal thymus?

maturation of T cells which are specialized white blood cells

which disorder is associated with IPKD?

meckel-gruber syndrome

what is the hypoechoic material within the colon?

meconium

what is a cisterna magna measurement of more than 10mm associated with?

mega cisterna magna dandy-walker complex

what is the cause of prune belly syndrome?

megacystis

what is the term for the mass that protrudes from the spine with spina bifida?

meningocele or myelomeningocele

what is the difference between (spina bifida aperta) meningocele and myelomeningocele?

meningocele- herniation of meninges contains CSF myelomeningocele- contains meninges and nerve roots

what is climacteric?

menopause

what is another name for sirenomelia?

mermaid syndrome

what is the most common solid fetal renal tumor?

mesoblastic nephroma

what is the term for a normal shaped skull?

mesocephaly

what is the drug used to medically treat an ectopic pregnancy?

methotrexate

which suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead?

metopic suture

what is a clinical feature of a patient with an endometrial polyp?

metrorrhagia

what is the term for a small mandible and recessed chin?

micrognathia

what are the findings of abnormal external genitalia in the male?

micropenis hypospadias undescended testicle

what is the term for small eyes?

microphthalmia

what is the term for small ears?

microtia

what is the mesencephalon?

midbrain

where is an omphalocele located?

midline

what is the difference between the mirena and paragard IUD?

mirena- plastic t shaped IUD that distorts the uterine cavity and releases small amounts of progestin to impede implantation and produce lighter menstrual bleeding paragard- copper t shaped IUD that inhibits sperm transport to prevent fertilization or transplantation

if mifepristone is administered and then misoprostol is given 2 days later, what is being treated for this patient?

missed abortion

what are common conditions associated with theca lutein cysts?

molar pregnancy and OHS

what is another name for gestational trophoblastic disease?

molar pregnancy or hydatidiform mole

what is the difference between monozygotic and dizygotic twins?

mono- single zygote di- two zygotes

division of the inner cell mass between 4 to 8 days will result in what form of monozygotic twins?

monochorionic diamniotic

division of the inner cell mass between day 8-13 will result in what form of monozygotic twins?

monochorionic monoamniotic

what is the least probable form for monozygotic twins?

monochorionic monoamniotic

how can you determine chorionicity in the first trimester?

monochorionic twins will have a thin membrance separating the two sacs dichorionic twins will have a thick membrane separating the two sacs

what is another name for turner syndrome?

monosomy x

what is the term for a zygote that undergoes rapid cell division and eventually forms into a cluster of cells?

morula

what is a dysgerminoma?

most common malignant germ cell tumor of the ovary

what are serous cystadenomas?

mostly benign, large, bilateral neoplasms

macroglossia can be difficult to differentiate from epignathus. what is epignathus?

mostly solid oral teratoma

are serous or mucinous cystadenomas larger?

mucinous

is pseudomyxoma peritonei associated with serous or mucinous cystadenocarcinomas?

mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

what are the risk factors for preeclampsia and anemia?

multiple gestations

what would most likely be confused with a uterine leiomyoma?

myometrial contraction

what is an example of false-positive placenta previa?

myometrial contractions that occur in the lower uterine segment

a 38-year-old female patient presents to the sonography department for a pelvic sonogram with an indication of pelvic pain. upon sonography interrogation, the sonographer notes an anechoic mass within the cervix. this mass most likely represents what?

nabothian cyst

what does an endometrial thickness threshold of greater than 5mm indicate, along with postmenopausal vaginal bleeding?

needs an endometrial biopsy

what is the most common malignant adrenal mass in neonates?

neuroblastoma

what is anhydramnios?

no amniotic fluid

acrania can be broken down into anencephaly and exencephaly. what is anencephaly?

no cerebral hemispheres present

how can you identify renal agenesis on a fetus?

non-visualization of kidneys and bladder, plus severe oligohydramnios

what is abnormal uterine bleeding?

nonhormonal changes in menstrual bleeding caused by endocrine abnormalities or lesions within the uterus

what form of dwarfism with congenital heart defects is considered the male version of turner syndrome?

noonan syndrome

during an 18-week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted within the renal fossa of a male fetus. the other kidney appears to be normal. what is the amniotic fluid level like?

normal amniotic fluid level

what is the term for the umbilical cord encircling the fetal neck?

nuchal cord

what is the anechoic space along the posterior aspect of the fetal neck?

nuchal translucency

what is amniocity?

number of amniotic sacs

what is zygosity?

number of fertilized eggs

what is chorionicity/placentation?

number of placentas

what type of patient is most likely to get fibroids?

obese black nonsmokers perimenopausal

what is noncommunicating hydrocephalus?

obstruction is located within the ventricular system

what is communicating hydrocephalus?

obstruction lies outside the ventricular system

what muscle is located lateral to the ovaries?

obturator internus

what is the most common location for a cephalocele?

occipital region

what are the two types of spina bifida?

occulta and aperta

what is the name for the measurement obtained from the lateral to medial wall of the same orbit?

ocular diameter

what abnormalities are pulmonary hypoplasia associated with?

oligohydramnios potter syndrome

what are the sonographic findings of preeclampsia?

oligohydramnios, IUGR, gestational trophoblastic disease, placental abruption, or an elevated S/D ratio

what is the term for persistent herniation of the bowel, and potentially other abdominal organs, into the base of the umbilical cord?

omphalocele

which herniation is covered by peritoneum?

omphalocele

when does fertilization typically occur?

on day 15, with the union of the egg and sperm in the fallopian tube

where are endometriomas most commonly found?

on the ovary

what are the names of the three ossification centers of the fetal vertebra?

one centrum, two neural processes

what is the sonographic appearance of PCOS?

one or both ovaries contain 12 or more follicles (or 25 in total) measuring between 2 and 9mm and the ovarian volume should exceed 10ml

how much of the fetal chest does the normal heart fill up?

one-third (33%)

what is gamete intrafallopian tube transfer (GIFT)?

oocytes and sperm are placed in the fallopian tube by means of laparoscopy

what is spina bifida aperta?

open lesion, mass that protrudes beyond the bony defect

what is the purpose of the 3 apertures of the fourth ventricle and what are their names?

opening through which CSF travels two lateral apertures- foramina of luschka median aperture- foramen of magendie

what is the term for the group of disorders that results in multiple fractures that can occur in utero?

osteogenesis imperfecta

what skeletal dysplasia is associated with a bell-shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures?

osteogenesis imperfecta

the primary yolk sac regresses and separates into two membranes. what are the outer and inner membranes referred to as?

outer- chorionic/gestational sac inner- amniotic sac

what is the most common cause of ovarian torsion?

ovarian cyst or mass

what is the pelvic ligament that provides support to the ovary and extends from the ovary to the lateral surface of the uterus

ovarian ligament

a 24-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting. the sonographic examination reveals an enlarged ovary with no detectable doppler signal. what is the most likely diagnosis?

ovarian torsion

what is endometrioid carcinoma?

ovarian tumor with a high incidence of being malignant

why is color doppler not always the most effective analysis of a torsed ovary?

ovary receives blood from both the ovarian artery and a uterine artery branch, so if one of these vessels is occluded, the other vessel is still providing flow

what can cause fetal goiter?

overtreatment of maternal grave disease, iodine deficiency, hypothyroidism

what is another name for fallopian tubes?

oviducts

what is the purpose of LH aka luteinizing hormone?

ovulation

what is mittelschmerz pain?

ovulation pain

what is in vitro fertilization?

ovum fertilized outside the body, then 4-8 developing embryos are placed into the uterus through a catheter

what are the landmarks for the biparietal diameter (BPD)?

paired thalami third ventricle cavum septum pellucidum falx cerebri

what is PAPP-A screening?

part of a first trimester screening that analyzes hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A, along with nuchal translucency (NT)

what are the common forms of gestational trophoblastic disease?

partial and complete

what is acrania?

partial or completely absent cranium

what is trisomy 13?

patau syndrome

what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of hypotelorism, cleft lip, microphthalmia, heart defects, and polydactyly point to?

patau syndrome (T13)

what trisomy is most often associated with holoprosencephaly?

patau syndrome (T13)

which chromosomal abnormality is uniformly fatal and is associated with holoprosencephaly and abnormal facies?

patau syndrome (T13)

where is an ectopic kidney most often located?

pelvis

what is another name for hydronephrosis?

pelvocaliectasis pyelectasis caliectasis

what are the group of anomalies that combines ectopic cordis and an existing omphalocele?

pentalogy of cantrell

what is another name for cordocentesis?

percutaneous umbilical cord sampling (PUBS)

what is the term for fluid around the heart?

pericardial effusion

what is another term for the late proliferative phase?

periovulatory phase

what is the essure device?

permanent form of birth control where small coils are placed in the proximal isthmic segment of the fallopian tubes. over time scar tissue develops around the coils and obstructs the fallopian tubes

what is tubal sterilization/ligation?

permanent form of sterilization in which the fallopian tubes are severed

what is the term for absent long bones with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips?

phocomelia

what is the term for the migration of the embryologic bowel into the base of the umbilical cord at 9 weeks?

physiologic bowel herniation

what is the term for the normal midgut herniation into the base of the umbilical cord?

physiological bowel herniation

what is the innermost layer of the meninges?

pia mater

what are the three layers of the meninges?

pia mater arachnoid membrane dura mater

what are the muscles that may be confused with the ovaries on a pelvic sonogram?

piriformis and iliopsoas

describe fetal circulation.

placenta umbilical vein (oxygenated blood) -half of the blood goes to the liver through the left portal vein -half of the blood is shunted into the IVC via the ductus venosus blood from the IVC enters the right atrium -can enter the left atrium through the foramen ovale -can enter right ventricle through the tricuspid valve and go into the --pulmonary artery to lungs to pulmonary veins to left atrium to ascending aorta (supplies blood to head, thorax, and upper extremities) to superior vena cava to right atrium --descending ao through the ductus arteriosus to supply blood to abdomen, lower extremities, and then exits the abdomen via the umbilical arteries umbilical arteries placenta

what is the term for the abnormal adherence of the placenta TO the myometrium?

placenta accreta AIP

what does the outer part of the blastocyst develop into?

placenta and chorion

what is the term for the invasion of the placenta WITHIN the myometrium?

placenta increta AIP

what is the term for the penetration of the placenta THROUGH the uterine serosa and possibly into the adjacent pelvic organs?

placenta percreta AIP

what is a common cause of painless vaginal bleeding in the second and third trimesters?

placenta previa

what is the term for the placenta covering the internal os of the cervix?

placenta previa

what is the term for the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus?

placental abruption

what is the term for the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall?

placental abruption

asymmetric IUGR is most commonly caused by ________, while symmetric IUGR is most commonly caused by ________.

placental insufficiency chromosomal anomalies

what does the "bat-wing" sign describe the appearance of?

pleural effusion

what is a common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

are duodenal and esophageal atresia associated with oligohydramnios or polyhydramnios?

polyhydramnios

what is the term for excessive amniotic fluid?

polyhydramnios

following an intracranial hemorrhage, a cyst is noted within the cerebrum that communicates with the lateral ventricles. what is the term for this?

porencephaly

what is the term for the development of a cystic cavity within the cerebrum?

porencephaly

where does the follicular fluid from the ruptured follicle settle?

posterior cul de sac

what is the dandy-walker complex?

posterior fossa abnormalities that involve the cystic dilation of the cisterna magna and fourth ventricle

what is a common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in male fetuses?

posterior urethral valves

what is injected into the fetus during a selective termination procedure?

potassium chloride

what can doppler assessment of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) help determine?

potential hypoxia in fetuses that are small for dates

what is the sonographic appearance of an endometrioma?

predominantly cystic mass with low-level echoes

what condition is pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks gestation?

preeclampsia

what is the term for the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension accompanied by proteinuria

preeclampsia

what is eclampsia?

preeclampsia with seizures

what is preeclampsia?

pregnancy induced hypertension and proteinuria

what is the most common fetal arrhythmia?

premature atrial contractions (PAC)

what is craniosynostosis?

premature fusion of the fetal sutures, leading to an irregular shaped skull

what increases the likelihood of developing placenta previa?

previous c-section

what is the purpose of the yolk sac?

produces AFP and plays a role in angiogenesis and hematopoiesis

what hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, maintains the thickness of the endometrium after ovulation?

progesterone

which hormone stimulates the formation of the cervical mucous plug found with pregnancy?

progesterone

what is the purpose of estrogen?

proliferation of the endometrium induction of salt and water retention stimulates contractile motions within the uterine myometrium and fallopian tubes

what are the two phases of the endometrial cycle?

proliferative and secretory phase.

what is frontal bossing?

prominent forehead

what are cephaloceles?

protrusions of intracranial contents through a defect in the skull

what is the purpose of the infundibulum?

provides an opening to the peritoneal cavity within the pelvis

what is precocious puberty?

pubertal before age 8

the right ventricular outflow tract leads to which artery?

pulmonary

what does the RVOT include?

pulmonary artery

what is the sonographic appearance of transposition of the great vessels?

pulmonary artery and aorta are parallel to each other instead of the normal crisscross orientation

what is described as the absence of the pulmonary valve, which in turn prohibits blood flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery and essentially to the lungs.

pulmonary atresia

what is the most worrisome consequence of oligohydramnios?

pulmonary hypoplasia

what is the term for the underdevelopment of the lungs?

pulmonary hypoplasia

what would a newborn most likely suffer from if he or she were born prior to 32 weeks as a result of multiple gestation complications?

pulmonary hypoplasia hypoxia

what abnormality is associated with a separate mass of nonfunctioning lung tissue with its own blood supply?

pulmonary sequestration

what is the cause of hypoplastic heart syndrome?

pulmonary stenosis or atresia

which twin in twin-reversed arterial perfusion has a 50% perinatal mortality rate secondary to polyhydramnios and prematurity, but otherwise is considered to be normal. is it the pump twin or acardiac twin?

pump twin

what is the term for the presence of pus within the uterus?

pyometra

what is the term for conjoined twins being joined back-to-back in the sacral region?

pyopagus

what is the name for the absence or underdevelopment of the radius?

radial ray defect

what substance does hysterosalpingography utilize for the visualization of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes?

radiographic contrast

what is a common characteristic of a leiomyosarcoma?

rapid growth over a short period of time

what can cause a bladder flap hematoma?

recent c-section

what twin suffers from hydrops in twin-twin transfusion syndrome, the donor or recipient?

recipient

what paired abdominal muscles extend from the xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic bone?

rectus abdominis

what is selective reduction?

reducing twins, triplets, quadruplets, and quintuplet pregnancies

patients in their late second or third trimester may suffer from supine hypotensive syndrome. what is that?

reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by the baby compressing the IVC

what is the purpose of the hypothalamus?

release gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) which stimulates the release of FSH and LH by the anterior pituitary gland

what preserves the corpus luteum of pregnancy?

release of hCG by the trophoblastic cells of pregnancy

what is a myomectomy?

removal of fibroid

what is a polypectomy?

removal of polyps

if there is an obstruction at the level of the ureteropelvic junction (UPJ), what structures will be dilated?

renal pelvis and calices

what might cause excessive and sustained postpartum vaginal bleeding?

retained products of conception (RPOC)

what causes a teratoma?

retention of an unfertilized ovum that differentiates into three germ cell layers (ecto, meso, endoderm)

what is the most common fetal cardiac tumor?

rhabdomyoma

what are the sonographic findings of achondroplasia?

rhizomelia/micromelia macrocrania frontal bossing flattened nasal bridge trident hand

during a first-trimester sonogram, you note a round, cystic structure within the fetal head. what does this represent?

rhombencephalon

on which side of the heart is the tricuspid valve?

right

on what side does ovarian torsion most commonly occur?

right side

where is the moderator band located?

right ventricle

what pedal abnormality is associated with trisomy 13 and 18?

rocker bottom foot

what causes amniotic band syndrome?

rupture of the amnion

what is another name for caudal regression syndrome?

sacral agenesis

how can spina bifida occulta be recognized?

sacral dimple hemangioma lipoma tuft of hair

what is the most common congenital neoplasm frequently found in females?

sacrococcygeal teratoma

what is the optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia?

sagittal

what suture is located between the two parietal bones?

sagittal suture

what procedure is used to better visualize endometrial polyps?

saline infusion sonohysterography

what does the sonographic appearance of a hyperemic fallopian tube indicate?

salpingitis

what is the quadruple screen test?

same as triple screen test, along with inhibin A

what is the name for the large gap between the first and second toes?

sandal gap

what is the term for the development of fluid-filled clefts within the cerebrum?

schizencephaly

what is the term for the deformity of the spine in which there is an abnormal lateral curvature?

scoliosis

what is a yolk sac tumor, aka endodermal sinus tumor?

second most common malignant germ cell tumor characterized by rapid growth

what is the testicular equivalent of an ovarian dysgerminoma?

seminoma

a 50-year-old female patient presents for a pelvic ultrasound after ascites was identified on an upper abdominal exam. a thin walled, multiloculated cystic ovarian mass with papillary projections is identified in the right ovary. the left ovary and uterus are unremarkable. what do these findings suggest?

serous cystadenocarcinoma

a 55-year-old patient presents to the sonography department with a history of pelvic pressure, abdominal swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. a pelvic sonogram reveals a large, multiloculated cystic mass with papillary projections. what is the most likely diagnosis?

serous cystadenocarcinoma

what is the most common malignancy of the ovary?

serous cystadenocarcinoma

what is difference in sonographic appearance between a serous cystadenoma vs a serous cystadenocarcinoma?

serous cystadenocarcinomas have typically the same appearance, but the papillary projections and septations are more prominent

what is the hCG discriminatory zone?

serum level of 1,000-2,000 in which a gestational sac should be visualized

what is a sertoli-leydig cell tumor, also known as androblastoma?

sex-cord-stromal ovarian neoplasm associated with virilization (increased androgen production, hirusitism)

what are the most common sonographic findings for LBWC?

short/absent umbilical cord ventral wall defects limb defects craniofacial defects scoliosis

what is micromelia?

shortening of the entire extremity

what is acromelia?

shortening of the hand and foot bones

what is mesomelia?

shortening of the middle segments (rad/ulna & tibia/fibula)

what is rhizomelia?

shortening of the proximal bone (humerus and femur)

what condition is associated with bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, and fusion of the lower extremities?

sirenomelia

what is holt-oram syndrome?

skeletal abnormalities of the hands and arms

what does fetal meconium typically consist of?

skin hair bile

what are the sonographic findings of obstructive cystic dysplasia?

small echogenic cysts along the margin hydronephrosis thickened bladder

what are paraovarian cysts?

small cysts located adjacent to the ovary that most likely arise from the fallopian tubes or broad ligaments

what is the intradecidual sign?

small gestational sac surrounded by the thickened, echogenic endometrium

what is the sonographic appearance of a brenner tumor?

small, hypoechoic, solid unilateral tumor that may have calcifications

what is lissencephaly?

smooth brain - lack of sulci and gyri

what is the sonographic appearance of a krukenberg tumor?

smooth-walled, hypoechoic, or hyperechoic bilateral tumors accompanied by ascites

what is the sonographic appearance of the mesoblastic nephroma?

solid homogenous mass within the renal fossa and may completely replace the kidney. it may contain cystic components

what is the sonographic appearance of sertoli-leydig cell tumor?

solid, hypoechoic ovarian mass complex, partially cystic

what disorder is myelomeningocele associated with?

spina bifida

what is the term for the defect that occurs when the embryonic neural tube fails to close.

spina bifida

what does the neural tube give rise to?

spine and brain

what suture is located between the two parietal and temporal bones?

squamosal suture

what is the purpose of the FSH?

stimulates follicle growth in ovaries. the cells surrounding the follicles release estrogen and cause the endometrium to thicken.

what is ovulation induction?

stimulation of the ovaries by hormonal therapy to treat infertility

what landmarks should be included in the abdominal circumference image?

stomach thoracic spine umbilical vein

what is the chorion?

structure that forms the placenta

what is it called when a twin fetus, suffering from TTTS, experiences severe oligohydramnios and becomes closely adhered to the uterine wall?

stuck twin

a sonographic examination was performed on a pregnancy patient who complained of vaginal bleeding. sonographically, a crescent-shaped anechoic area is noted adjacent to the gestational sac. the gestational sac contained a 6-week single live IUP. what is the most likely diagnosis?

subchorionic hemorrhage

a 31-year-old patient presents to the sonography department for a saline infusion sonohysterogram complaining of intermenstrual bleeding and infertility. sonographically, a mass is demonstrated emanating from the myometrium and distorting the endometrial cavity. what is the most likely diagnosis?

submucosal fibroid

what is the term for an additional smaller placental lobe located separate from the main placenta?

succenturiate or accessory lobe

what are the sonographic findings for agenesis of the corpus callosum and cavum septum pellucidum?

sunburst sulci colpocephaly third ventricle migrates superiorly and appears dilated

what is an ovarian cystectomy?

surgical removal of an ovarian cyst

what structures connect the cranial bones?

sutures

what term is defined as fusion of the digits?

syndactyly

what is another name for clubfoot?

talipes equinovarus

what is the most common intracranial tumor found in utero?

teratoma

what is the term for an overriding aortic root, subaortic VSD, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy?

tetralogy of fallot

upon sonographic interrogation of a 28-week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the skull can be easily distorted. what disorder is present?

thanatophoric dysplasia

what is the most common lethal skeletal dysplasia?

thanatophoric dysplasia

what skeletal dysplasia is associated with a cloverleaf skull and hydrocephalus?

thanatophoric dysplasia

which disorder is a cloverlead-shaped skull related to?

thanatophoric dysplasia

why does doppler analysis of malignant ovarian masses reveal higher diastolic flow velocities in the abnormal vessels created with malignancy?

the abnormal vessels lack smooth muscle within their walls and thus produce a less resistive waveform

why is the atrium of the lateral ventricle the optimal site for measurement?

the atrium is the first region where ventricular enlargement occurs

what is the purpose of the occipitofrontal diameter (OFD)?

the calipers are placed at the frontal and occipital bones. this measurement is used in conjunction with the BPD to obtain the correct BPD

what causes the appearance of the chocolate cyst?

the ectopic endometrial tissue is functional, therefore during menstruation the tissue hemorrhages and forms into focal areas of bloody tumors aka endometriomas

what is menarche?

the first menstrual cycle

what happens around day 14 of the menstrual cycle?

the graafian follicle ruptures and releases the ovum, which is picked up by the fimbria and fertilized, or resorbed by the body, or passed with menstruation

how is infertility defined?

the inability to conceive after trying for one year

which lab values would decrease in the presence of edwards syndrome?

the triple screen- hCG AFP estriol

what ovarian mass is associated with a molar pregnancy and elevated hCG?

theca lutein cyst

which ovarian cyst is associated with gestational trophoblastic disease?

theca lutein cyst

what ovarian cysts are most often bilateral and associated with markedly elevated levels of hCG?

theca lutein cysts

which of the following would be described as functional cysts that are found in the presence of elevated levels of hCG?

theca lutein cysts

what are some examples of sex-cord-stromal tumors?

thecoma granulosa cell tumor fibroma sertoli-leydig cell tumor

what two tumors are associated with meigs syndrome and may also mimic a pedunculated fibroid because of its solid appearing structure?

thecoma and fibroma

what is the sonographic appearance of a decidualized endometrium?

thick and echogenic

what is the typical sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the secretory phase?

thick and echogenic

what is the sonographic appearance of endometrial carcinoma?

thickened endo with variable echogenicity, fluid, and a polyploid mass within the endo

what is the sonographic appearance of endometritis?

thickened or irregular appearing endometrium containing intraluminal fluid. gas formation may be seen and will produce ring down artifact

what ventricle does the massa intermedia pass through?

third ventricle

what structures are visualized at the correct level of the head circumference?

third ventricle thalamus cavum septum pellucidum

what are the most common forms of conjoined twinning?

thoracopagus (chest) ophalopagus (abd)

what are the different types of abortions?

threatened complete incomplete missed inevitable septic elective

what are the meninges?

three protective tissue layers that cover the brain and spinal cord

how is immune hydrops prevented?

through the administration of RhoGAM at approximately 28 weeks gestation

what are some examples of the tissues types in a teratoma?

thyroid components, bone, hair, sebum, fat, cartilage, digestive elements

the sonographic appearance of an ovarian dermoid tumor in which only the anterior elements of the mass can be seen, while the greater part of the mass is obscured by shadowing is consistent with what sign?

tip of the iceberg

what is the purpose of the biophysical profile scoring?

to check for fetal hypoxia and overall fetal wellbeing

what is saline infusion sonohysterography used for?

to determine whether the cause of vaginal bleeding is intracavitary

what does TORCH stand for?

toxoplasmosis other infections rubella cytomegalovirus herpes

what does TORCH stand for

toxoplasmosis other infections rubella cytomegalovirus herpes simplex

what is an abnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea termed?

tracheoesophageal fistula

what abnormality is associated with the pulmonary artery arising from the left ventricle, and the aorta arising from the right ventricle?

transposition of the great vessels

what chromosomal abnormality do the features of small, low set ears, cardiac defects, syndactyly, ductus venosus flow reversal, and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) point to?

triploidy

what is the chromosomal abnormality in which the fetus has 69 chromosomes instead of the normal 46?

triploidy

sonographically you identify a fetus with fusion of the thalami and a monoventricle. which chromosomal abnormality would be most likely?

trisomy 13

what trisomies are micrognathia associated with?

trisomy 13 and 18

which trisomy is the choroid plexus cyst associated with?

trisomy 18

what abnormalities are associated with an omphalocele?

trisomy 18 trisomy 13 turner syndrome beckwith-wiedemann

what trisomy is duodenal atresia associated with?

trisomy 21

what trisomy is macroglossia most often associated with?

trisomy 21

what are the most common abnormalities associated with increased NT?

trisomy 21 trisomy 18 turner syndrome congestive heart failure

what is the outer tissue layer of the blastocyst compromised of?

trophoblastic cells

which cells surround the blastocyst (conceptus) and begin to produce hCG?

trophoblastic cells

TRUE OR FALSE: APKD is associated with the development of cysts within the liver, pancreas, and spleen.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: BPD + OFD x 1.62 is equivalent to the head circumference (HC).

true

TRUE OR FALSE: CSF travels from the lateral ventricles into the third ventricle through the foramina of monroe. from the third ventricle, CSF travels to the fourth ventricle through the cerebral aqueduct. once in the fourth ventricle, the fluid can exit either through the median aperture to the cisterna magna (foramen of magendie), or lateral apertures to the subarachnoid space (foramina of luschka).

true

TRUE OR FALSE: IUGR, or fetal growth restriction, is defined as an EFW that is below the 10th percentile at any given age.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: a complex or thick walled corpus luteum cyst can resemble an ectopic pregnancy, so precaution to establish the presence of an intrauterine pregnancy should be taken in this regard, as well as careful consideration of the entire clinical picture.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: a majority of pregnancies where the heart rate is less than 80bpm at 6 weeks eventually miscarry.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: a supplement of 0.4mg of folate (folic acid) in a woman's diet significantly reduces the likelihood of her fetus developing a neural tube defect.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: a thecoma produces estrogen and can therefore lead to postmenopausal vaginal bleeding. it often appears as a hypoechoic mass, which can make it look like a pedunculated fibroid.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: abnormal uterine bleeding can have many causes, but when AUB is related to changes in hormones that directly affect the menstrual cycle, the condition is called dysfunctional uterine bleeding.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: acardiac twinning is a severe form of TTTS.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: adenomyosis is often present in the uterus afflicted with fibroid tumors.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: amniotic band syndrome may be seen simultaneously with limb-body wall complex (LBWC).

true

TRUE OR FALSE: aqueductal stenosis causes the third and lateral ventricles to expand, while the fourth ventricle remains normal.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: atrioventricular defects (AVSD) are commonly associated with aneuploidy, trisomy 21, and trisomy 18.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: because fallopian tubes experience peristalsis, within its lumen, small, hairlike, structures known as cilia shift, thereby offering a mechanism for transportation of the fertilized ovum.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: because of the lack of circulating estrogen during and after menopause, there is an increased risk for coronary heart disease and an increased threat for developing osteopenia and osteoporosis.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: beckwith-weidemann syndrome is a growth disorder synonymous with organ, skull, and tongue enlargement.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: bilateral renal agenesis may be seen with sirenomelia.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: blood is shunted directly into the IVC via a small branch of the umbilical vein called the ductus venosus.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: brachycephaly is associated with craniosynostosis, trisomy 21 and 18.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: cancer of the fallopian tubes is rare and is typically in the form of adenocarcinoma.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: choroid plexus cysts typically regress by the end of the third trimester.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CAM) is similiar to pulmonary sequestration.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: cysts are typically not identifiable in IPKD, but are evident in MCDK.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: dizygotic twinning always results in dichorionic diamniotic gestations.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: dolichocephaly is associated with craniosynostosis.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: encephaloceles are common findings of meckel-gruber syndrome.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: endometrial atrophy is a common occurrence in postmenopausal patients who present with vaginal bleeding.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: endometrial carcinoma is most often in the form of adenocarcinoma.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: endometrioid carcinoma is the most common cancer to originate within an endometrioma

true

TRUE OR FALSE: esophageal atresia is associated with trisomy 21 and 18, VACTERL, and polyhydramnios.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: fetal neck masses can cause compression of the trachea or esophagus and should be noted during an exam.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: fetal pyelectasis can be a sonographic marker for down syndrome.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: fibroids are stimulated by estrogen and can consequently experience rapid growth during pregnancy.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: for a normal biophysical profile, the amniotic fluid pocket should measure at least 1cm in two perpendicular planes.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: from second trimester to term, the fetal heart rate is typically around 150 bpm although it varies with gestational age.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: heterozygous achondroplasia is an autosomal dominant disorder, although many times it is the result of a spontaneous genetic mutation.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: hydronephrosis is common during late pregnancy.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: if the corpus callosum is absent, the cavum septum pellucidum will be absent too.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: if the twins are different sexes, then one can assume that the twins are dichorionic.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: in cases of fetus papyraceus, with monochorionic twinning, the death of one twin frequently leads to the death of the other twin.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: in cases of immune hydrops, the first pregnancy goes through normally, but if the mother gets pregnant again, the antibodies to Rh which were created in her blood from fetus A will now attack fetus B.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: in order for an autosomal recessive disease to be passed to the fetus, both parents must be carriers of the disease, whereas with an autosomal dominant disease, only one parent needs to be a carrier.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: in pediatric patients, the granulosa cell tumor is associated with pseudoprecocious puberty.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: in the fetus, the left lobe of the liver is typically larger than the right lobe.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: in the second trimester, painless vaginal bleeding is often associated with placenta previa, whereas painful vaginal bleeding can occur as a result of placental abruption.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: krukenberg tumors can be described as having a moth-eaten appearance in that it can be a solid mass containing scattered cystic spaces.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: malignant tumors tend to have resistive indices <0.4 and pulsatility indices <1.0.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: monochorionic diamniotic is the most common form of monozygotic twins.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: monochorionic monoamniotic carries the risk of conjoined twins.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: monozygotic twins result from a single zygote that splits.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: most follicular cysts regress.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: mothers with pregestational diabetes have a higher risk of miscarriage and toxemia.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: mucinous cystadenomas are often larger than serous cystadenomas, and they tend to contain echogenic material within their cystic components.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: myometrial contractions typically resolve within 15 to 30 minutes.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: normal hCG levels double every 48 hours in the first trimester.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: normal ovarian flow is said to be high resistance during menstruation and low resistance at the time of ovulation.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: normal physiologic bowel herniation resolves by 12 weeks.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: normally, the S/D ratio will decrease with advancing gestation. an elevated S/D ratio is associated with increased placental resistance and an increase in the risk of perinatal mortality and morbidity.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: nuchal thickening, edema, or redundant skin in the back of the neck is a common finding during the second trimester in fetuses with down syndrome (trisomy 21).

true

TRUE OR FALSE: obstruction of the fetal bowel most often occurs when there is a meconium plug causing the barrier.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: omphalocele has a more significant risk for heart defects and chromosomal anomalies than gastroschisis.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: one important anatomic finding is that the normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHS) from fertility treatment can result in the development of multiple, enlarged follicular cysts

true

TRUE OR FALSE: ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can initiate renal failure, thromboembolism, and acute respiratory distress syndrome.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: ovarian induction dramatically increases the risk of multiple gestations and OHS.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: ovarian torsion is more common in adolescents.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: pericardial effusion can be isolated or associated with fetal hydrops.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: placental abruption can lead to fetal death from hypoxia and possibly the death of the mother.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: preeclampsia, IUGR, and pregestational diabetes are associated with a thin placenta. fetal infections, Rh isoimmunization, and multiple gestations are associated with a thick placenta.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: rather than preventing pregnancy, congenital uterine malformations such as a bicornuate uterus or a septate uterus often lead to repeated abortions.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: sacrococcygeal teratoma is associated with hydrops and may lead to high-output congestive heart failure.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: salpingitis is a common issue caused by pelvic inflammatory disease.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: scoliosis and kyphosis can exist together. it is known as kyphoscoliosis.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: serous cystadenomas and cystic teratomas compromise most neoplasms of the ovary.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the CRL should not include the yolk sac or fetal limb buds.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the average fetal heart rate is 150bpm in the third trimester, with a range of 110 to 180bpm considered normal after the first trimester.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the average menstrual cycle lasts 28 days, with ovulation typically occurring around day 14.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the cavum septum pellucidum does not communicate with the ventricular system, and its absence is associated with multiple cerebral malformations, including agenesis of the corpus callosum.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the corpus callosum should be completely intact between 18 and 20 weeks.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the corpus luteum maintains the thickened endometrium by producing progesterone, while the trophoblastic cells maintain the corpus luteum by producing hCG.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the demise of a twin during the second or third trimester can lead to twin embolization syndrome.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the dysgerminoma is the most frequent ovarian malignancy found in childhood. children present with pseudoprecocious puberty and may have elevated hCG even though the tumor marker for dysgerminoma is an elevation in serum lactate dehydrogenase.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the earliest definitive sign of an intrauterine pregnancy should generally be visualized between 1000-2000 mIU per mL with transvaginal sonography.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the echogenicity of the small intestine should not be isoechoic to or greater than that of the fetal bone.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the fallopian tubes, which are rarely seen, can be found distended with fluid or pus with PID. this is termed salpingitis.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the fetal bladder normally fills and empties once every 30-45 minutes.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the follicular phase lasts from day 1 to 14 and initiates follicular development on the ovaries. one follicle is maintained and becomes the graafian follicle. this graafian follicle contains the developing oocyte within the cumulus oophorus.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the four-chamber view of the heart is normal in the presence of transposition of the great vessels.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the gestational sac is also referred to as the chorionic sac.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the hCG level will continue to rise until the end of the first trimester, at which time it plateaus and slowly decreases with advancing gestation.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the implantation of the blastocyst within the endometrium may cause some women to experience a small amount of vaginal bleeding. this is called implantation bleeding.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the luteal phase lasts from day 15 to 28. after the graafian follicle ruptures, it turns into the corpus luteum and secretes progesterone. it prepares the endometrium for implantation. if fertilization doesn't occur, the corpus luteum regresses and becomes the corpus albicans.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the maternal conditions linked to the development of placental abruption include hypertension, preeclampsia, cocaine use, cigarette smoking, poor nutrition, and trauma.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the measurement of the endometrium during the early proliferative phase ranges from 4 to 8mm.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the normal hypoechoic appearance of the myocardium can mimic the sonographic appearance of small pericardial effusions.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the obese fetus is defined as a fetus that has an EFW of greater than the 90th percentile.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the optimal instance to take the femur length measurement is when the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the sound beam.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the proliferative phase coincides with the follicular phase where the endometrium undergoes thickening as a result of estrogen.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the pulsatility index of the MCA varies with gestational age, but normally decreases as the pregnancy progresses.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the resistance pattern of the MCA should be greater than that of the umbilical artery, and thus should be compared when fetal shunting is suspected.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the secretory phase coincides with the luteal phase, as it occurs after ovulation and is stimulated by progesterone.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the sequela of PID range from a negligible infection to the development of a tubo-ovarian abscess, to death.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the sonographic determination of the shortening of a limb is made when the long bones measure more than four standard deviations below the norm of gestational age.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the sonographic intracranial findings consistent with intrauterine infections are the calcifications around the ventricles and ventriculomegaly.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the third ventricle connects to the fourth ventricle inferiorly by means of a long, tubelike structure called the aqueduct of sylvius or the cerebral aqueduct.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the tricuspid valve is positioned closer to the apex of the heart compared to the mitral valve.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the umbilical artery waveform is always flowing in the forward direction.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the umbilical cord will insert into the omphalocele.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: the use of IUDs has been linked with PID, ectopic pregnancy, and spontaneous abortions.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with a molar pregnancy and triploidy.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: thecomas are most often found in post menopausal women and may be associated with meigs syndrome.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: there is a definite link between microtia and down syndrome.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: there is a noticeable link between the absence of the fetal nasal bone and down syndrome.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: there is no normal-functioning renal tissue present in the kidney affected by MCDK.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: true precocious puberty is associated with intracranial tumors, or may be idiopathic.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: turner syndrome can involve the development of a cystic hygroma.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: type I, III, and IV osteogenesis imperfecta are typically diagnosed after birth.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: uncontrolled maternal pregestational diabetes has a strong associated with caudal regression syndrome and sirenomelia.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: unlike thecomas and granulosa cell tumors, fibromas are not associated with estrogen production.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: whenever any form of holoprosencephaly is suspected, a thorough facial evaluation should be performed.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: while estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) can reduce the risk of developing osteoporosis, coronary heart disease, colon cancer, and alzheimers, if it is not done with progesterone therapy, there is an increased risk for developing endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial carcinoma, breast cancer, thromboembolism, hypertension, and diabetes.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: while the ovary is in the follicular phase, the endometrium is in the proliferative phase.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: with assisted reproductive technology (ART), ovarian stimulation is used to increase follicular development, allowing the opportunity to extract multiple oocytes during one procedure.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: with diaphragmatic hernia, the stomach, bowel, and left lobe of the liver are found within the chest.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: with hydranencephaly, the falx cerebri may be partially or completely absent, the brain stem and basal ganglia are maintained, and the thalamus may be seen. there will be no cerebral cortex identified.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: with limb-body wall complex (LBWC), the fetus will appear closely connected with the placenta, and will have marked scoliosis.

true

TRUE OR FALSE: with serous cystadenocarcinoma, the tumor marker CA 125 may be elevated.

true

what is rhabdomyoma associated with?

tuberous sclerosis

webbing of the neck and short stature is found in intertile female patients with what chromosomal anomaly?

turner syndrome

what is monosomy x?

turner syndrome

what is the condition in which the fetus has only one sex chromosome?

turner syndrome

when hypoplastic left heart syndrome is found in girls, what anomaly should be expected?

turner syndrome

what chromosomal abnormality do the sonographic features of nuchal cystic hygroma and nonimmune hydrops point to?

turner syndrome (MX)

which chromosomal abnormality is found exclusively in females?

turner syndrome (MX)

what happens to the other twin in cases of fetus papyraceus in monochorionic twinning?

twin embolization syndrome

what is another name for acardiac twinning?

twin-reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP)

what do abnormal connections of placenta vessels result in?

twin-reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP) aka acardiac twin

with what high-mortality complication does shunting occur from one twin to the other?

twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)

what is the double sac sign?

two distinct layers of decidua separated by the anechoic fluid filled uterine cavity

the embryonic heart begins as how many tubes?

two tubes

what is the most common abnormality of the umbilical cord?

two-vessel cord, which only contains one umbilical artery

what is the most severe type of osteogenesis imperfecta?

type II

what is the term for the focal dilation of the abdominal portion of the umbilical vein?

umbilical vein varix

what are the sonographic findings of type II osteogenesis imperfecta?

uniformly fatal; multiple fractures in utero, skull demineralization, bell shaped chest, decreased fetal movement

what are the sonographic findings of MCDK?

unilateral or bilateral non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the area of the renal fossa

what is the cause of molar pregnancy?

unknown; normal sperm fertilizes an empty ovum

what causes endometrial hyperplasia?

unopposed estrogen stimulation

how long does sperm live?

up to 72 hours

if there is an obstruction at the level of the ureterovesicular junction (UVJ), what structures will be dilated?

ureter, renal pelvis, and calices

what is the most common cause of unilateral obstructive cystic dysplasia?

ureteropelvic or ureterovesicular junction obstruction

what is the most common cause of bilateral obstructive cystic dysplasia?

uretheral atresia posterior urethral valves

what is hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

used to combat the reduction of estrogen circulating in the female body after menopause and to combat symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal atrophy

what structures herniate in gastroschisis?

usually small intestine, but with larger defects the stomach and other organs

what is the term for linear bands of scar tissue within the uterus?

uterine synechiae

what formula is used to determine ovarian volume?

v = l x w x h x 0.5233

what are some complications of a circumvallate placenta?

vaginal bleeding placental abruption

what is the most common initial clinical presentation of PID?

vaginitis

what is the term for the death of a twin and subsequent reabsorption during the first trimester?

vanishing twin

what is a dermoid plug?

various tissues that will be a source of posterior shadowing

what is lobar holoprosencephaly?

varying degrees of fusion of the midline structures, can be consistent with life, infants may experience severe mental retardation

what is the term for the complication of fetal vessels resting over the internal os of the cervix?

vasa previa

what is thought to be the cause of gastroschisis?

vascular incident occurring to either the right umbilical vein or omphalomesenteric artery

what is the purpose of the umbilical vein vs the umbilical arteries?

vein brings oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus arteries return deoxygenated blood to the placenta

what cord insertion goes beyond the placental edge?

velamentous

what is the term for pools of maternal blood within the placental substance that appears anechoic and may contain swirling blood?

venous lakes

what is the most common form of cardiac defect?

ventricular septal defect (VSD)

what is the term for an abnormal opening in the septum between the right and left ventricles?

ventricular septal defect (VSD)

what is the dangling choroid sign associated with?

ventriculomegaly

what is the most common cranial abnormality?

ventriculomegaly

what is the term for echogenic debris within the amniotic fluid?

vernix or meconium

what does the centrum of the fetal spine develop into?

vertebral body

what structure connects the embryo to the yolk sac?

vitelline duct aka omphalomesenteric duct, which contains one artery and vein

when does the primary yolk sac regress?

week 4

when does the neural tube close?

week 6

what gelatinous material surrounds the umbilical cord?

wharton jelly, which is then covered by amnion

when is postmenopause diagnosed?

when a patient hasn't had her period for 3 to 6 months

what is the brain-sparing effect?

when fetus is starved for oxygen, redistribution of blood to the vital organs occurs in order to spare it from damage

when is physiologic bowel herniation worrisome?

when it doesn't resolve by 12 weeks

when is a patient said to have primary amenorrhea?

when she doesn't experience menarche before age 16

when can the sonographic diagnosis of clubfoot be made?

when the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula

how is rhizomelia detected?

when there is a notable difference in the gestational age measurements between the bpd and femur length

when is a blighted ovum diagnosed?

when there is no evidence of a fetal pole or yolk sac within an irregularly shaped gestational sac

what is the sonographic appearance of a torsed ovary?

whirlpool sign enlarged with or without multifollicular development

PID can progress into a tubo-ovarian complex, which is the fusion of the ovaries and dilated fallopian tubes. this can further progress into a tubo-ovarian abscess. what is the difference between the complex and abscess?

with tubo-ovarian complex, the ovaries and tubes are readily recognized as distinct structures with tubo-ovarian abscess, there is a complete loss of borders of all adnexal structures, and the development of a large conglomerated mass

where is the ovum contained?

within the cumulus oophorus of the dominant follicle

what is the most common location of a cystic hygroma?

within the neck

is homozygous achondroplasia lethal?

yes (occurs when both parents are dwarves)

what is the first structure seen with sonography within the gestational sac?

yolk sac

what structure forms the cord?

yolk sac and vitelline duct

what measurements are obtained during the first trimester?

yolk sac, gestational sac, crown rump length, and NT

how can you distinguish hypoplastic left heart syndrome from complete absence of the left heart?

you must be able to visualize a small or normal left atrium

microcephaly, decreased brain tissue, and limb abnormalities such as club foot are associated with which virus?

zika

what is the term for a fertilized egg?

zygote

what is zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)

zygote (fertilized ovum) is placed in the fallopian tube

what lab values are associated with ectopic pregnancies

↑ b-hCG ↓ hematocrit


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