PMP Practice TEST2

How many processes exist within the project procurement management knowledge area?

3 There are just three processes in the project procurement management knowledge area: plan procurement management, conduct procurements, and control procurements.

There are how many tools and techniques for the conduct procurements process?

5 The five tools and techniques for the conduct procurements process are expert judgment, advertising, bidder conferences, data analysis, and interpersonal and team skills.

How many outputs does the control quality process create?

6 There are six outputs created by the control quality process: quality control measurements, verified deliverables, work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

How many processes are there in the project risk management knowledge area?

7 There are seven processes in the project risk management knowledge area: plan risk management, identify risks, perform qualitative risk analysis, perform quantitative risk analysis, plan risk responses, implement risk responses, and control risks

There are five tools and techniques for the conduct procurements process. Which of the following is a tool and technique used by the conduct procurements process?

A is correct. Advertising is one the five tools and techniques used by the conduct procurements process. The five tools and techniques for the conduct procurements process are expert judgment, advertising, bidder conferences, data analysis, and interpersonal and team skills. B, C, and D are incorrect.

There are four outputs of the monitor stakeholder engagement process. Which one of the following is an output of the monitor stakeholder engagement process?

A is correct. Change requests are one of the four outputs of the monitor stakeholder engagement process. The outputs are work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

Which one of the following is an output of control procurements?

A is correct. Closed procurements is the only output listed. The seven outputs of control procurements are closed procurements, work performance information, procurement documentation updates, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

Virtual teams is a tool and technique for the acquire resources process. What must increase if a project utilizes virtual teams?

A is correct. Communication must increase when the project uses virtual teams

What plan quality process tool and technique would compare the benchmarks of using multiple materials to determine the best material for the project?

A is correct. Data gathering includes the activity of benchmarking multiple solutions for the best project options. B, C, and D are incorrect.

In which knowledge area does direct and manage project work reside?

A is correct. Direct and manage project work resides in the project integration management knowledge area. B, C, and D are incorrect.

In the knowledge area of project schedule management, in which process does leads and lags exist?

A is correct. Leads and lags are a tool and technique used with sequence activities, develop schedule, and control schedule. B, C, and D are incorrect.

Organizational theory is one of the tools and techniques for the plan resource management process. Which organizational theory suggests that people's needs develop over time based on their experiences?

A is correct. McClelland's Theory of Needs suggests that people's needs develop over time and are based on their life experiences. The three needs in McClelland's theory are power, affiliation, and achievement. B, C, and D are incorrect. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs states that we have five needs: physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization. Hertzberg's Theory of Motivation identifies hygiene agents that do not motivate but whose absence can demotivate. Hertzberg also identifies agents that do motivate employees. Ouchi's Theory Z, sometimes called the Japanese management style, identifies organizations as familial environments where employees should be involved in the decision-making.

There are six tools and techniques for the identify risk process. Which one of the following is a tool and technique used by the identify risk process?

A is correct. Of all the choices presented, only data analysis is one of the tools and techniques actually used by the identify risk process. The six tools and techniques for the identify risk process are expert judgment, data gathering, data analysis, interpersonal and team skills, prompt lists, and meetings. B, C, and D are incorrect.

There are three tools and techniques for the monitor risks process. Which one of the following is one of the three tools and techniques for the monitor risks process?

A is correct. Of all the choices, only the data analysis is one of the tools and techniques for the monitor risks process. The other tools and techniques of the monitor risks process are audits and meetings. B, C, and D are incorrect.

There are six inputs to the conduct procurements process. Which one of the following is an input to the conduct procurements process?

A is correct. Of all the choices, only the seller proposals is an input to the conduct procurement process. The six inputs to this process are the project management plan, project documents, procurement documentation, seller proposals, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. B, C, and D are incorrect.

What is the only output of the perform quantitative risk analysis process?

A is correct. Project document updates are the only output of the perform quantitative risk analysis process. B, C, and D are incorrect.

One of the tools and techniques for the manage project team process is interpersonal and team skills. What type of power is the project manager using when he references the CEO who assigned him to the project so that the project will be done accordingly?

A is correct. Referent power happens when the project manager refers to someone else in the company with higher powers to move the project forward. B, C, and D are incorrect. Expert power is when the project team sees the project manager as someone who is steeped in experience. Coercive power is when the project team feels threatened by the project manager. Reward power is when the project team believes the project manager can reward them for their work.

The collect requirements process generates two outputs. Which of the following is an output of the collect requirements process?

A is correct. Requirement documentation and the requirement traceability matrix are the two outputs of the collect requirements process. B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not outputs of the collect requirements process.

There are ten outputs of the plan procurement management process. Which of the following is one of the outputs of the plan procurement management process?

A is correct. Source selection is the only output of the plan procurement management process listed. The ten outputs are the procurement management plan, procurement strategy, bid documents, procurement statement of work, source selection criteria, make-or-buy decisions, independent cost estimates, change requests, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

The develop team process has six outputs. Which one of the following is an output of the develop project team process?

A is correct. Team performance assessments is one of the six outputs of the develop team process. The other five outputs are change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, enterprise environmental factors updates, and organizational process assets updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

There are seven outputs of the control procurement process. Which of the following is an output of the control procurements process?

A is correct. The closed procurements is an output of the control procurements process. The seven outputs of control procurements are closed procurements, work performance information, procurement documentation updates, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

Which develop schedule process tool and technique can reveal the float for an individual activity?

A is correct. The critical path method can reveal the amount of float available for a project activity. B, C, and D are incorrect.

The define activities process creates five outputs. Which one of the following is an output that the define activities process creates?

A is correct. The define activities process creates the activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, change requests, and project management plan updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

The define scope process creates how many outputs?

A is correct. The define scope process creates just two outputs: the project scope statement and the project document updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

In which project management knowledge area does the determine budget process reside?

A is correct. The determine budget process resides in the project cost management knowledge area. B, C, and D are incorrect.

There are just five tools and techniques for the plan procurement process. Which of the following is not one of the tools and techniques for the plan procurement process?

A is correct. The enterprise environmental factors are not one of the tools and techniques for the plan procurement process. B, C, and D are incorrect. The tools and techniques are expert judgment, data gathering, data analysis, source selection material, and meetings.

What is the only output of the perform qualitative risk analysis process?

A is correct. The only output of perform qualitative analysis are project document updates. Specifically, you'll update the risk register and the assumptions log. B, C, and D are incorrect.

Of the choices presented, what is the only tool and technique a project manager can use in the monitor and control project work process?

A is correct. The only tool and technique presented that's utilized during the monitor and control project work process is expert judgment. There are four actual tools and techniques for monitoring and controlling project work: expert judgment, data analysis, decision-making, and meetings. B, C, and D are incorrect.

There are four tools and techniques for the develop project charter process. Of the following, what tool and technique is used to develop the project charter?

A is correct. The only tool and technique shown that is used to develop the project charter is expert judgment. B, C, and D are incorrect. The other tools for developing the project charter are data gathering (brainstorming, focus groups, interviews), interpersonal and team skills (conflict management, facilitation, meeting management) and meetings.

Which tool and technique does control scope use the most?

A is correct. The only tool and technique that's used for the control scope process is data analysis. The project manager will compare the results of project execution against the requirements and project scope. B, C, and D are incorrect.

The collect requirement process uses seven inputs: the project charter, the project management plan, project documents, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and two other inputs. What are the other two inputs needed for the collect requirements process?

A is correct. The other two inputs to the collect requirements process are business documents and organizational process assets. B, C, and D are incorrect.

In what process group does the perform qualitative risk analysis process reside?

A is correct. The perform qualitative risk analysis process is a project planning process. B, C, and D are incorrect.

What project procurement process is responsible for determining the type of contract that is appropriate for a project purchase?

A is correct. The plan procurement management process is responsible for determining which type of contract is most appropriate for the project. B, C, and D are incorrect.

How many outputs does the plan risk management process create?

A is correct. The plan risk management process creates just one output: the risk management plan

What plan serves as an input to the control scope process?

A is correct. The plan that serves as an input to the control scope process is the project management plan.

There are six outputs of the conduct procurements process. Which one of the following is not an output of the conduct procurements process?

A is correct. The procurement statement of work is not an output of the conduct procurements process. B, C, and D are incorrect. The six outputs of the conduct procurements process are selected sellers, agreements, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates.

The develop project charter process takes place during project initiation and in which project management knowledge area?

A is correct. The project charter is created during project initiation; it is a process that's part of the project integration management knowledge area. B, C, and D are incorrect. They are not valid answers because the develop project charter process does not exist in these knowledge areas.

There are just three outputs of the plan communications management process. Which of the following is an output of the plan communications management process?

A is correct. The project documents updates, the communication management plan, and the project document updates are the only outputs of the plan communications management process. B, C, and D are incorrect.

There are four inputs to the develop project charter process. Which one of the following is not an input of the develop project charter process?

A is correct. The project statement of work is not an input of the develop project charter process. B, C, and D are incorrect. The develop project charter process has four inputs: the business documents (specifically, the business case and benefits management plan), agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

What is the only output of the plan risk management process?

A is correct. The risk management plan is the only output of the plan risk management process. B, C, and D are incorrect.

Which of the following is an output of the sequence activities process?

A is correct. The sequence activities process creates just two outputs: project schedule network diagrams and project document updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

Which project schedule management process is responsible for creating a project network diagram?

A is correct. The sequence activities process is responsible for creating the project network diagram. The specific tool and technique this process uses is the precedence diagramming method. B, C, and D are incorrect.

There are four outputs of the identify stakeholders process. Which one of the following is an output of the identify stakeholders process?

A is correct. The stakeholder register is the only output of the identify stakeholders process shown. The four outputs are stakeholder register, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

Which one of the following is an output of the monitor communications process?

A is correct. There are four outputs of the monitor communications process: work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates. B, C, and D are incorrect.

There are how many inputs to the conduct procurements process?

A is correct. There are six inputs to the conduct procurements process: project management plan, project documents, procurement documentation, seller proposals, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. B, C, and D are incorrect.

Which of the following is an input to the perform integrated change control process?

A is correct. There are six inputs to the perform integrated change control process: the project management plan, project documents, work performance reports, change requests, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. B, C, and D are incorrect.

What is the only tool and technique from the following that is used during the close project or phase process?

A is correct. There are three tools and techniques for the close project or phase process: expert judgment, data analysis, and meetings. B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not used for the close project or phase process.

What tool(s) and technique(s) can be used to complete the develop project management plan process?

A is correct. There is only one tool and technique shown for the develop project management plan—expert judgment. B, C, and D are incorrect. The other tools and techniques for the develop project management plan include data gathering (brainstorming, checklists, focus groups, interviews), interpersonal and team skills (conflict management, facilitation, meeting management), and meetings.

What is training considered to be with regard to the estimate costs process?

A is correct. Training is an example of the cost of quality. The cost of quality is the amount of funds the organization will need to spend to ascertain the expected level of quality the project demands. B, C, and D are incorrect. Team development may have costs, but the cost of quality is the more accurate answer because it is one of the tools and techniques for the estimate costs process. Fixed costs are costs that remain steady throughout the project, such as equipment rental. Variable costs are costs that fluctuate through the project.

What tool and technique within the estimate cost process can use a parameter, such as cost per square foot, to predict a cost estimate?

B is correct. A parametric estimate can utilize a parameter and historical data, such as cost per square foot or cost per fixture, to predict the project costs. A, C, and D are incorrect.

The identify stakeholders process has seven inputs. Which of the following is not an input to the identify stakeholders process?

B is correct. Change requests are not an input to the identify stakeholders process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The seven inputs to the identify stakeholders process are the project charter, business documents, project management plan, project documents, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

Which of the following is not an input for the monitor stakeholder engagement process?

B is correct. Change requests are not one of the five inputs to the monitor stakeholder engagement process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The five inputs are the project management plan, project documents, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are six inputs to the manage project team process. Which one of the following is not an input to the manage project team process?

B is correct. Change requests is an output of the manage project team process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The six inputs to the manage project team process are the project management plan, project documents, work performance reports, team performance assessments, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

The create work breakdown structure process has four inputs. Which of the following is not an input to this process?

B is correct. Contract documentation is not one of the inputs for the create WBS process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The create WBS process has four inputs: project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

Of the following, which is an example of the control schedule process technique of schedule compression?

B is correct. Crashing is a tool and technique that adds resources to the project in an effort to reduce the overall duration. A, C, and D are incorrect. The law of diminishing returns is a law of economics that explains the diminishing value of the work as the cost of labor increases. Lags are delays added to the start time of project activities. Resource leveling is a constraint on the number of hours a resource can work on the project within a given period.

Which tool and technique used for the define scope process helps the project manager view many different solutions for the project?

B is correct. Data analysis is a tool and technique used in the defining scope process. This tool can help to identify many viable solutions for the project, such as resources. A, C, and D are incorrect.

Agreements, specifically contracts, are inputs to the determine budget process. If the project manager is responsible for selecting and authorizing a contract for the project, what type of procurement is being used?

B is correct. Decentralized contracting is when the project manager is responsible for the contract and procurement processes within the organization. A, C, and D are incorrect. Centralized contracting is when all contracts flow through a central procurement office.

One of the tools and techniques for the define activities process is the use of decomposition. What is decomposition in project schedule management?

B is correct. Decomposition is the breakdown of work packages into tasks. A, C, and D are incorrect.

One of the tools and techniques for the plan communications management process is communication technology. What must be considered when the project manager plans the communication technology for the project?

B is correct. Ease of use is a factor that can affect the choice of communication technology. A, C, and D are incorrect.

There are six tools and techniques for the monitor stakeholder engagement process. Which one of the following is not a tool or technique you can use as part of monitoring stakeholder engagement?

B is correct. Information management systems are not a tool and technique for monitoring stakeholder engagement. A, C, and D are incorrect. The six tools and techniques are data analysis, decision-making, data representation, communication skills, interpersonal and team skills, and meetings.

What tool and technique of the develop schedule process can be added to activities to affect their start date?

B is correct. Leads and lags can be added to activities to change their effective start date. A, C, and D are incorrect.

The manage stakeholder engagement process uses six tools and techniques in a project. Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the manage stakeholder engagement process?

B is correct. Meetings are one of the tools and techniques for the manage stakeholder engagement process. The six tools and techniques are expert judgment, inspection, communication skills, interpersonal and team skills, ground rules, and meetings.

There are five outputs of the manage quality process. Which of the following is an output of the manage quality process?

B is correct. Of all the choices presented, only change requests are an output of the manage quality process. The five outputs of the manage quality process are quality reports, test and evaluation documents, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates. A, C, and D are incorrect.

There are seven available project risk management processes in a project. Which one of the project risk management processes is responsible for creating the risk register?

B is correct. Once the risks have been identified during the identify risks process, the project team should store the risks and their characteristics in the risk register. The risk register is updated throughout the project when new risks are identified or when the status of a risk changes. A, C, and D are incorrect. However, they represent three of the seven project risk management processes in a project: plan risk management, identify risks, perform qualitative risk analysis, perform quantitative risk analysis, plan risk responses, and control risks.

Which one of the following is an input for the plan quality process?

B is correct. Project documents are an input to plan quality. Plan quality has five inputs: project charter, project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

The develop team process has four inputs. Which one of the following is not an input of the develop project team process?

B is correct. Project staff assignments is not an input to the develop team process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The four inputs are project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are eight outputs of the acquire resources process. Which one of the following is not an output of the acquire resources process?

B is correct. Resource breakdown structures are not an output of the acquire resources process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The eight outputs of the acquire resources process are physical resource assignments, project team assignments, resource calendars, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, enterprise environmental factors updates, and organizational process assets updates.

Which control schedule process tool and technique may cause the project duration to increase by limiting the number of hours per week a project team may work on the project?

B is correct. Resource optimization techniques—specifically, resource leveling—limit the amount of hours a project resource can spend on the project during a given period (for example, 30 hours per week, per resource). The constraint usually causes the project duration to increase. A, C, and D are incorrect.

Which manage quality process tool and technique inspects how the project work is being completed?

B is correct. The audit tool and technique reviews how the project work is being completed to ensure that the project work is being completed correctly and according to plan. When it comes to quality, it's always best to do the work correctly the first time. A, C, and D are incorrect.

In what project management knowledge area does the close project or phase process reside?

B is correct. The close project or phase process is part of the project integration management process group

In which knowledge area does the collect requirements process reside?

B is correct. The collect requirements process is the second of six processes in the project scope management knowledge area. The other processes included in project scope management are plan scope management, collect requirements, define scope, create the work breakdown structure, validate scope, and control scope. A, C, and D are incorrect.

Which project scope management process creates the project scope statement?

B is correct. The define scope process creates the project scope statement.

In which knowledge area does the develop project management plan process reside?

B is correct. The develop project management plan process resides in the project integration management knowledge area. A, C, and D are incorrect. Planning and initiation are project management process groups, not knowledge areas. The plan for the project is not created in the project scope management knowledge area.

In what project management knowledge area does the develop schedule process exist?

B is correct. The development of the schedule is a process called develop schedule and exists within the project schedule management knowledge area. A, C, and D are incorrect.

The difference between what was planned and what was experienced when it comes to cost can best be described as which one of the following?

B is correct. The difference between the estimated costs and the actual costs is the cost variance. A, C, and D are incorrect.

There are seven outputs of the direct and manage project work process. Which one of the following is not an output of this process?

B is correct. The direct and manage project work process does not create the final product, service, or result transition as an output of the process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The outputs of this project management process are deliverables, work performance data, issue log, change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates.

In what project management knowledge area does the estimate activity resources process reside?

B is correct. The estimate activity resources process resides in the project resource management knowledge area. A, C, and D are incorrect.

In what project management process group does the manage communications process reside?

B is correct. The manage communications process is an executing process. A, C, and D are incorrect.

The manage quality process is in which process group?

B is correct. The manage quality process is an executing process. A, C, and D are incorrect.

In what project management process group does the manage stakeholder engagement process reside?

B is correct. The management stakeholder engagement process is an executing activity. A, C, and D are incorrect.

Along with expert judgment, what is the only other tool and technique used to create the WBS?

B is correct. The only other tool and technique to create the WBS is decomposition.

Of the following, which is/are an output of the develop project charter?

B is correct. The output of the develop project charter process is the project charter and the assumption log. A, C, and D are incorrect. Only the project charter and the assumption log are outputs of this process.

There are just four inputs to the plan risk responses process. Which one of the following is not an input to the plan risk responses process?

B is correct. The project budget is not an input to the plan risk responses process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets are all inputs to the plan risk responses process.

Which one of the following is an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?

B is correct. The project management plan is the only choice presented that is an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process. The other inputs needed for the perform quantitative risk analysis process are the project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. A, C, and D are incorrect.

The estimate activity durations process needs to know when project team members are available. Which calendar can the project manager use to determine when project team members and other resources are available for the project work?

B is correct. The resource calendar communicates when project resources are available for project work. A, C, and D are incorrect.

Which one of the following is an output of the identify risk process?

B is correct. The risk register is an output of the identify risk process. A, C, and D are incorrect.

The sequence activities process has four inputs. Which of the following is not an input to the sequence activities process?

B is correct. The scope statement is not an input to the sequence activities process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The sequence activities process needs input from the project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

The create WBS process has two outputs. Which of the following is an output of the create WBS process?

B is correct. The two outputs of the process of creating the WBS are the scope baseline and project document updates. A, C, and D are incorrect.

How many inputs are there for the manage stakeholder engagement process?

B is correct. There are four inputs to the manage stakeholder engagement process: the project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. A, C, and D are incorrect.

How many processes are in the project stakeholder management knowledge area?

B is correct. There are four processes in the project stakeholder management knowledge area: identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, and monitor stakeholder engagement. A, C, and D are incorrect.

How many outputs does the manage stakeholder engagement process create?

B is correct. There are three outputs of the manage stakeholder engagement process: change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates. A, C, and D are incorrect.

How many processes are there in the project communications management knowledge area?

B is correct. There are three processes in the project communications management knowledge area: plan communications management, manage communications, and control communications. A, C, and D are incorrect.

The scope validation process is similar to the control quality process in what way?

B is correct. Validate scope and control quality both use inspection as a tool and technique. The primary difference between validate scope and control quality, however, is that the validate scope process is completed with the project customers, while quality control is done before the customers inspect the work deliverables.

There are five inputs to the control communications process. Which one of the following is not an input to the control communications process?

B is correct. Variance analysis is not an input of the control communications process. Variance analysis is one of the tools and techniques used for the control scope process. A, C, and D are incorrect. The five inputs to the control communications process are the project management plan, project documents, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are four tools and techniques for the acquire resources process. Which one of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the acquire resources process?

B is correct. Virtual teams is the only tool and technique displayed for acquire resources. The four tools and techniques are decision-making, interpersonal and team skills, preassignment, and virtual teams. A, C, and D are incorrect.

There are seven tools and techniques for the perform qualitative risk analysis process. Which of the following is not a tool and technique for the perform qualitative risk analysis process?

C is correct. Checklist analysis is not a tool and technique for the perform qualitative risk analysis process. A, B, and D are incorrect. There are seven tools and techniques for the perform qualitative risk analysis process: expert judgment, data gathering, data analysis, interpersonal and team skills, risk categorization, communication, and meetings.

There are six inputs to the plan procurement management process. Which one of the following is not one of the inputs to the plan procurement management process?

C is correct. Contract types are not an input to the plan procurement management process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The inputs are the project charter, business documents, project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are eight tools and techniques used to collect requirements. Which of the following is not a tool and technique that the collect requirements process will use?

C is correct. Cross-training is not one of the eight tools and techniques for collecting requirements. A, B, and D are incorrect. The eight tools and techniques are expert judgment, data gathering, data analysis, decision-making, data representation, interpersonal and team skills, context diagrams, and prototypes.

Which plan quality process tool and technique would be concerned with the cost of safety for a construction project?

C is correct. Data analysis considers the cost of quality, and safety is an example of the cost of quality. The cost of quality describes the monies the organization will need to spend to achieve the level of quality demanded by the stakeholders. If the project doesn't provide the correct safety tools and follow the correct safety procedures, someone could get injured or die. Then, in addition to the concerns of the injured worker, the project would have to stop, pass inspections, possibly deal with lawsuits, and more. A, B, and D are incorrect.

The manage quality process has three process inputs. Which of the following is not an input to the manage quality process?

C is correct. Enterprise environmental factors is not an input to the manage quality process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The three inputs to this process are project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets.

The control schedule process has a technique called schedule compression. Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

C is correct. Fast tracking allows entire phases of a project to overlap in an effort to reduce the overall duration of the project. A, B, and D are incorrect. "Must start on" and "must end on" requirements are actually constraints for the project schedule. Parkinson's Law states that work will expand to fill the amount of time allotted to it.

Organizational theory is one of the tools and techniques for the plan resource management process. Which organizational theory suggests that the absence of certain hygiene factors can demotivate employees?

C is correct. Hertzberg's Theory of Motivation identifies hygiene agents that do not motivate but whose absence can demotivate. Hertzberg also identifies agents that do motivate employees. A, B, and D are incorrect. McClelland's Theory of Needs suggests that people's needs develop over time and are based on their life experiences. The three needs in McClelland's theory are power, affiliation, and achievement. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs states that we have five needs: physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization. Ouchi's Theory Z, sometimes called the Japanese management style, identifies organizations as familial environments where employees should be involved in the decision-making.

The sequence activities process includes the application of leads and lags as a tool and technique. What is an example of lag time?

C is correct. Lag moves activities farther apart by delaying the start of the activity.

There are four tools and techniques for the plan resource management process. Which one of the following is a technique for the plan resource management process?

C is correct. Of all the choices presented, only organizational theory is one of the tools and techniques for the plan resource management process. The four tools and techniques you can use in this process are expert judgment, data representation, organizational theory, and meetings. A, B, and D are incorrect.

Which one of the following is a forecasting method?

C is correct. Of all the choices presented, the to-complete performance index is the best example of forecasting. The control cost process uses this as one of its tools and techniques. A, B, and D are incorrect.

There are six inputs to the monitor and control project work process, including project documents. Which one of the following project documents is part of an input to this process?

C is correct. Of the choices presented, only the cost forecasts answer is correct. The six inputs to monitor and control project work process are the project management plan, project documents (which includes the cost forecasts), work performance information, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. A, B, and D are incorrect.

There are three outputs of the perform integrated change control process. Which of the following is not an output of this process?

C is correct. Organizational process assets updates are not one of the outputs of the perform integrated change control process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The three outputs of the perform integrated change control process are approved change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

The plan quality management process creates four outputs. Which of the following is not an output of the plan quality management process?

C is correct. Plan quality management does not create a process improvement plan. A, B, and D are incorrect. The plan quality management process creates four outputs: quality management plan, quality metrics, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

There are ten outputs of the plan procurement management process. Which of the following is not an output of the plan procurement management process?

C is correct. Procurement documents are not one of the ten outputs of plan procurement management process. The ten outputs are the procurement management plan, procurement strategy, bid documents, procurement statement of work, source selection criteria, make-or-buy decisions, independent cost estimates, change requests, project documents updates, organizational process assets updates., make-or-buy decisions, change requests, and project documents updates. A, B, and D are incorrect.

There are three outputs of the plan risk responses process. Which one of the following is an output of the plan risk responses process?

C is correct. Project management plan updates are an output of plan risk responses. The other outputs of the process are change requests and project documents updates. A, B, and D are incorrect.

There are three tools and techniques for the monitor risks process. Which one of the following is not a tool and technique for the control risks process?

C is correct. Risk register updates is not a tool and technique for control risks. A, B, and D are incorrect. The three tools and techniques of the monitor risks process are data analysis, audits, and meetings.

Which tool and technique in the define activities process uses iterations of planning to plan for the imminent activities at a detailed level and the future activities at a high level of detail?

C is correct. Rolling wave planning creates plans for the most imminent activities in detail, while activities that are distant in the project schedule are planned only at a high level. A, B, and D are incorrect. Decomposition is the process of subdividing the project scope into smaller deliverables. Progressive elaboration is the process of identifying more specifics about the project work through a series of research and detail. Expert judgment is relying on someone else with more knowledge about the project work to help with project decisions.

There are five tools and techniques for the perform quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following is not one of the tools and techniques used by the perform quantitative risk analysis process?

C is correct. Root-cause analysis is not one of the tools and techniques for the perform quantitative risk analysis process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The tools and techniques for the perform quantitative risk analysis process are expert judgment, data gathering, interpersonal and team skills, representations of uncertainty, and data analysis.

The control schedule process has four inputs. Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the control schedule process?

C is correct. Schedule compression is the only tool and technique listed for the control schedule process.

Which one of the following is not an input to the close project or phase process?

C is correct. Scope validation is not an input to the close project or phase process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The eight inputs for the close project or phase process are the project charter, project management plan, project documents, accepted deliverables, business documents, agreements, procurement documentation, and organizational process assets.

Which plan quality process input would rely on the organization's internal quality policy and procedures?

C is correct. The OPAs include policies and procedures that the project must abide by. The OPAs also include any quality policies for the project. A, B, and D are incorrect.

Which one of the control quality process tools and techniques with data representation is a histogram that shows categories of failure?

C is correct. The Pareto chart is a histogram that shows categories of failures, or defects, within a project. A, B, and D are incorrect. A control chart shows trends over time against a mean and control limits. The Ishikawa diagram shows root-cause analysis. The scatter diagram shows the possible relationship between two or more variables in a project.

The define scope process requires five inputs. Which of the following is not an input to the define scope process?

C is correct. The business case is not one of the five inputs to the define scope process. A, B, and D are incorrect.

There are eight tools and techniques for the plan communications management process. Which one of the following is not one of the tools and techniques for the plan communications management process?

C is correct. The communication channels formula is not one of the tools and techniques for the plan communications management process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The eight tools and techniques are expert judgment, communications requirements analysis, communications technology, communication models, communications methods, interpersonal and team skills, data representation, and meetings.

Which tool and technique for the plan risk responses process examines the financial impact of the risk event and makes a determination of how to offset the risk exposure if certain conditions with the risk event come true?

C is correct. The contingent response strategies are invoked only when certain conditions come true. This response can include financial responses to the risk event. A, B, and D are incorrect.

There are eight inputs to the control procurements process. Which of the following is not one of the eight inputs to the control procurements process?

C is correct. The contract change control system is not an input for the control procurements process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The eight inputs of the control procurements process are project management plan, project documents, agreements, procurement documentation, approved change requests, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

A project has a budget of $578,000 and is 60 percent complete, but the project manager has spent $425,000 to date. What is this project's cost performance index?

C is correct. The cost performance index can be determined by dividing the earned value by the actual costs. In this instance, it's $346,800 divided by $425,000 for a value of 0.82. Earned value management is a tool and technique used with the control cost process.

Which of the following project documents is a define activities process output?

C is correct. The define activities process creates five outputs: activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, change requests, and project management plan updates. A, B, and D are incorrect.

In what project management knowledge area can you find the define activities process?

C is correct. The define activities process is situated in the project schedule management knowledge area. The process includes sequencing activities, estimating resources, estimating activity duration, and developing the project schedule. A, B, and D are incorrect.

In what project management knowledge area does the estimate activity durations process reside?

C is correct. The estimate activity durations process resides in the project schedule management knowledge area. A, B, and D are incorrect.

One of the seven tools and techniques of the manage communications process is project reporting. Which of the following is an example of project reporting to predict future performance of a project?

C is correct. The estimate at completion is a forecasting method used as part of earned value management. A, B, and D are incorrect. Earned value shows the current worth of the project based on the percentage of the project that is complete. The cost performance index and the schedule performance index both show the health of the project, not how the project is likely to end with costs and schedule.

The identify stakeholders process is part of which project management knowledge area?

C is correct. The identify stakeholders process is part of the project stakeholder management knowledge area. A, B, and D are incorrect.

The identify stakeholders process uses which one of the following as an input?

C is correct. The identify stakeholders process uses agreements, the project charter, business documents, project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets as its seven inputs. A, B, and D are incorrect.

Four tools and techniques are used in the sequence activities process. Which of the following is not a tool and technique used to sequence activities?

C is correct. The milestone list is not a tool and technique used by the sequence activities process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The sequence activities process uses four tools and techniques: the precedence diagramming method, dependency determination, leads and lags, and the project management information system.

In what knowledge area will you find the monitor and control project work process?

C is correct. The monitor and control project work process is part of the project integration management knowledge area. A, B, and D are incorrect.

The plan stakeholder management process creates just one output. What is the only output of the plan stakeholder management process?

C is correct. The output of the plan stakeholder management process is the stakeholder engagement plan. A, B, and D are incorrect. The stakeholder register is an output of the identify stakeholders process.

What estimate costs process tool and technique would estimate costs based on $125 per fixture installation?

C is correct. The parametric estimate uses a parameter, such as $125 per fixture, and multiplies that value times the number of fixtures to be installed. A, B, and D are incorrect. Analogous estimating relies on historical information to predict current costs; it creates an analogy between the two projects. Bottom-up estimating accounts for each deliverable in the WBS and assigns a price to it. The rough order of magnitude estimate is a high-level, unreliable, initial cost estimate for a project.

How many outputs does the plan resource management process create?

C is correct. The plan resource management process creates three outputs: resource management plan, team charter, and project document updates.

The plan communications management process has five inputs. Which one of the following is not an input to the plan communications management process?

C is correct. The procurement documents are not an input to the plan communications management process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The five inputs to the plan communications management process are the project charter, project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are four inputs to the perform qualitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is not an input to the perform qualitative risk analysis process?

C is correct. The project scope management plan is not an input to the perform qualitative risk analysis process. A, B, and D are incorrect. The inputs for this process are the project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets updates.

One of the tools and techniques for the develop project team process is recognition and rewards. What is an example of a zero-sum award?

C is correct. The project team member of the month is considered a zero-sum award because only one person can win the award each month. A, B, and D are incorrect.

The estimate costs process has three outputs. Which of the following is not a valid output of the estimate costs process?

C is correct. The request for quote document is a procurement document, not a cost estimating output. A, B, and D are incorrect. The estimate costs process has three outputs: cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.

What tool and technique for the estimate activity durations process uses an average of the activity duration to predict how long an activity will take to complete?

C is correct. The three-point estimate uses an average of the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates to determine how long an activity will take to complete. A, B, and D are incorrect. PERT is a similar estimating technique that uses six factors instead of just three. Parametric estimating uses a parameter, such as four hours per fixture installation, to predict duration. Analogous estimating relies on historical information of similar projects to determine how long the current project work should take.

What tools and techniques can be used with the perform integrated change control process?

C is correct. The tool and techniques for the perform integrated change control process are expert judgment, change control tools, data analysis, decision-making, and meetings. A, B, and D are incorrect.

What input to the control scope process relies on earned value management?

C is correct. The work performance data can use earned value management as part of its input to the control scope process. A, B, and D are incorrect.

Which term best describes the control quality process?

Control quality is an inspection-driven process. Inspection is one of the four control quality process tools and techniques.

The conduct procurements process creates six outputs. Which one of the following is not one of the six outputs created by the conduct procurements process?

D is correct. Advertisements are not an output of the conduct procurements process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The six outputs of the conduct procurements process are selected sellers, agreements, change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates.

There are six inputs to the conduct procurements process. Which of the following is not an input to the conduct procurements process?

D is correct. Advertisements are not one of the six inputs to the conduct procurements process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The six inputs are the project management plan, project documents, procurement documentation, seller proposals, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

What estimating technique relies on historical information to predict the current project's duration as part of the estimate activity durations process?

D is correct. Analogous estimating relies on historical information of similar projects to determine how long the current project work should take. A, B, and C are incorrect. PERT is an estimating technique that uses six factors to estimate how long the current project work should take. Parametric estimating uses a parameter, such as four hours per fixture installation, to predict duration. The three-point estimate uses an average of the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates to determine how long an activity will take to complete.

There are five tools and techniques for the conduct procurements process. Which of the following is not one of the tools and techniques for the conduct procurements process?

D is correct. Change requests are an output of the conduct procurements process, not a tool and technique. A, B, and C are incorrect. The five tools and techniques for the conduct procurements process are expert judgment, advertising, bidder conferences, data analysis, and interpersonal and team skills.

There are five tools and techniques for the conduct procurements process. Which one of the following is not a tool and technique used during the conduct procurements process?

D is correct. Change requests are an output of the conduct procurements process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The five tools and techniques for the conduct procurements process are expert judgment, advertising, bidder conferences, data analysis, and interpersonal and team skills.

The determine budget process creates three outputs. Which of the following is not an output of the determine budget process?

D is correct. Change requests are not an output of the determine budget process. A, B, and C are incorrect.

There are three outputs of the manage project knowledge process. Which one is not an output of this process?

D is correct. Change requests are not an output of this process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The three outputs of the manage project knowledge process are the lessons learned register, project management plan updates, and organizational process assets updates.

Which of the following is not an output of the control scope process?

D is correct. Cost estimate updates are not an output of the control scope process. A, B, and C are incorrect. There are four outputs of the control scope process: work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

The develop project management plan process has four inputs. Which one of the following is not an input to this process?

D is correct. Cost estimates are not an input for the develop project management plan process. Cost estimates are created later in the planning process group. A, B, and C are incorrect. To develop the project management plan, you'll need four inputs: the project charter, outputs from other processes, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are five outputs of the monitor risks process. Which of the following is not an output of the monitor risks process?

D is correct. Cost management plan updates is not a valid choice as an output of the monitor risks process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The five outputs are work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates.

There are five tools and techniques for the identify stakeholders process. Which one of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the identify stakeholders process?

D is correct. Data analysis, along with expert judgment, data gathering, data representation, and meetings, is a tool and technique for stakeholder identification

The estimate costs process uses all of the following except for which one as part of its inputs?

D is correct. Expert judgment is not an input to the estimate costs process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The estimate costs process uses four inputs: project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are nine tools and techniques for the plan risk responses process. Which one of the following is a tool and technique used by the plan risk responses process?

D is correct. Expert judgment is the only tool and technique for the plan risk responses process listed. The other tools and techniques for the plan risk responses process are data gathering, interpersonal and team skills, strategies for threats, strategies for opportunities, contingent response strategies, strategies for overall project risks, data analysis, and decision-making.

There are six inputs to the plan procurement management process. Which one of the following is not one of the six inputs to the plan procurement management process?

D is correct. Independent cost estimates are not an input to the plan procurement management process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The inputs are the project charter, business documents, project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

The tools and techniques for the manage project knowledge process include interpersonal and team skills. This tool and technique can use five tools. Which one of the following is not part of the tools and techniques for the interpersonal and team skills of the manage project knowledge process?

D is correct. Interpersonal and team skills for the manage project knowledge process do not include meeting management. A, B, and C are incorrect. The five tools and techniques that make up interpersonal and team skills are active listening, facilitation, leadership, networking, and political awareness.

The acquire resources process has four process inputs. Which one of the following is not an input to the acquire resources process?

D is correct. Of all the choices presented, the only one that is not an input to the acquire resources process is the cost management plan. A, B, and C are incorrect.

Which of the following is the best example of a quality metric?

D is correct. Of all the choices presented, the option of having fewer than ten defects per 1000 units is the best description of a quality metric. A, B, and C are incorrect. October 2 represents a project deadline, which is a constraint. The demand for certified electricians is also a constraint. The project's requirements to cost less than $560,000 could be a quality metric if a range of variance were attached to the statement, such as the project's budget is $560,000, plus or minus 10 percent.

There are four outputs of the monitor and control project work process. Which one of the following is not one of the four outputs?

D is correct. Organizational process assets updates are not an output of the monitor and control project work. A, B, and C are incorrect. The four outputs of the monitor and control project work process are change requests, work performance reports, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

The control cost process creates five outputs. Which one of the following is not an output of the control cost process?

D is correct. Performance review is one of the control costs process tools and techniques. A, B, and C are incorrect. These answers are three of the five outputs of the control costs process: work performance information, cost forecasts, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

Which of the following is not an output of the validate scope process?

D is correct. Project management plan updates are not an output of the validate scope process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The validate scope process has four outputs: accepted deliverables, change requests, work performance information, and project document updates.

There are seven tools and techniques for the manage communications process. Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the manage communications process?

D is correct. Project reporting is one of the tools and techniques for the manage communications process. The tools and techniques are communication technology, communication methods, communication skills, project management information system, project reporting, interpersonal and team skills, and meetings.

One of the tools and techniques for the plan risk responses process is the strategies for positive risks or opportunities. Which one of the following is the best example of a positive risk response?

D is correct. Sharing is a positive risk response that happens when an organization shares a positive risk with another entity. A, B, and C are incorrect. Accepting is tempting, because it can be used for both positive and negative risks, but sharing is the best example of a positive risk response. Transference is for negative risks because it mitigates a risk. Mitigating is a negative risk response.

Which of the following is not an input to the develop schedule process?

D is correct. The WBS is not an input to the develop schedule process. A, B, and C are incorrect. There are five inputs to the develop schedule process: project management plan, project documents, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

Which of the following is not one of the four inputs for the manage stakeholder engagement process?

D is correct. The communication management plan is not one of the inputs for the manage stakeholder engagement process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The inputs are the project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

The control cost process has five process inputs. Which one of the following is an input to the control cost process?

D is correct. The control cost process uses work performance data, the project management plan, project documents, project funding requirements, and organizational process assets as inputs. A, B, and C are incorrect.

The control quality process has seven process inputs. Which one of the following is not an input to the control quality process?

D is correct. The control quality process has seven inputs, but the scope baseline is not one of them. A, B, and C are incorrect. The seven inputs to control quality are project management plan, project documents, approved change requests, deliverables, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

The determine budget process has six process inputs. Which one of the following is not an input to the determine budget process?

D is correct. The determine budget process does not use the reserve analysis as an input. A, B, and C are incorrect. The six inputs are project management plan, project documents, business documents, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

What does the develop project management plan process create?

D is correct. The develop project management plan creates only one output: the project management plan. A, B, and C are incorrect. The develop project management plan includes the scope management plan, the requirements management plan, the schedule management plan, the cost management plan, the quality management plan, the resource management plan, the stakeholder management plan, the communication management plan, the risk management plan, and the procurement management plan.

There are five inputs to the direct and manage project work process. Four of them are organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, project documents, and the project management plan. What is the fifth input for this process?

D is correct. The fifth input to the direct and manage project work is any approved change request. A, B, and C are incorrect.

There are four outputs of the close project or phase process. Which one of the following is an output of this process?

D is correct. The four outputs of the close project or phase process are project documents updates; the final product, service, or result transition; the final report; and the organizational process assets updates. A, B, and C are incorrect.

There are four outputs of the manage project team process. Which one of the following is not an output of the manage project team process?

D is correct. The issue matrix is not an output of the manage project team process; there is no document called the issue matrix. A, B, and C are incorrect. The four outputs of the manage project team process are enterprise environmental factors updates, project document updates, change requests, and project management plan updates.

The manage project knowledge process has five inputs. Which one of the following is not an input to the manage project knowledge process?

D is correct. The manage project knowledge process doesn't include networking as input; networking is a tool and technique of this process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The five inputs are project management plan, project documents (lessons learned register, project team assignments, resource breakdown structure, source selection criteria, stakeholder register), deliverables, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are four inputs to the monitor risks process. Which one of the following is not an input to the monitor risks process?

D is correct. The organizational process assets are not an input to the control risks process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The four inputs to the control risks process are the project management plan, project documents, work performance data, and work performance reports.

The define activities process has three inputs. Which of the following is not an input to the define activities process?

D is correct. The project charter is not an input to defining activities. A, B, and C are incorrect. The three inputs for the define activities process are the project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are five tools and techniques for the control procurements process. Which of the following is not one of the tools and techniques used by the close procurements process?

D is correct. The project management information system is not one of the tools and techniques used by the close procurements process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The five tools and techniques used by the close procurements process are expert judgment, claims administration, data analysis, inspections, and audits.

There are two tools and techniques for the manage project team process. Which one of the following is a tool and technique for the manage project team process?

D is correct. The project management information system is one of the two tools and techniques for the manage team process. The other is interpersonal and team skills. A, B, and C are incorrect.

Which of the following is not an input to the validate scope process?

D is correct. The project scope statement is not an input to the validate scope process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The four inputs to validate scope are the project management plan, project documents, verified deliverables, and work performance data.

There are four inputs to the perform quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is not one of the inputs to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?

D is correct. The qualitative risk analysis results are not a direct input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The four inputs for the perform quantitative risk analysis process are the project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are five inputs to the plan resource management process. Which of the following is not an input to the plan resource management process?

D is correct. The resource calendars are not an input to the plan resource management process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The five inputs to the plan resource management process are the project charter, project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

There are six inputs for the identify risk process. Which one of the following is not an input for the identify risk process?

D is correct. The risk register is not an input to the identify risk process. It is actually an output of this process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The six inputs to the identify risk process are the project management plan, project documents, agreements, procurement documentation, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process updates.

Which control quality process tool and technique within data representation shows the possible relationship between two or more variables?

D is correct. The scatter diagram shows the possible relationship between two variables in a project. A, B, and C are incorrect. A control chart shows trends over time against a mean and control limits. The Ishikawa diagram shows root-cause analysis. The Pareto chart is a histogram that shows categories of failures, or defects, within a project.

There are five inputs to the plan risk management process. Which of the following is not an input to the plan risk management process?

D is correct. The schedule management plan is not an input to the plan risk management process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The five inputs needed are the project management plan, the project charter, the project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

The scope baseline is created as part of the create WBS process. What is the scope baseline?

D is correct. The scope baseline is one of two outputs of the create WBS process. It consists of the WBS, WBS dictionary, and the project scope statement. A, B, and C are incorrect.

How many outputs does the control schedule process create?

D is correct. There are five outputs of the control schedule process: work performance information, schedule forecasts, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates. A, B, and C are incorrect.

How many tools and techniques does the perform qualitative risk analysis process have?

D is correct. There are seven tools and techniques for the perform qualitative risk analysis process: expert judgment, data gathering, data analysis, interpersonal and team skills, risk categorization, communication, and meetings. A, B, and C are incorrect.

How many inputs are there for the perform integrated change control process?

D is correct. There are six inputs to the perform integrated change control process: the project management plan, project documents, work performance reports, change requests, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. A, B, and C are incorrect.

How many project schedule management processes are there?

D is correct. There are six project schedule management processes: plan schedule management, define activities, sequence activities, estimate activity durations, develop schedule, and control schedule. A, B, and C are incorrect.

There are seven outputs of the develop schedule process. Which of the following is not a valid output of the develop schedule process?

D is correct. Work assignments are not an output of the develop schedule process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The seven outputs are schedule baseline, project schedule, schedule data, project calendars, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

In what process group does the manage project team process reside?

Executing

There are three tools and techniques for the direct and manage project work process. One tool and technique will be meetings. What are the other two tools and techniques for directing and managing the project work?

Expert judment and the project management information system The two other tools and techniques for the direct and manage project work process are expert judgment and the project management information system.

Which tool and technique of the determine budget process considers the cost of borrowing money to pay for the project?

Financing Financing is a tool and technique of the determine budget process that considers the cost of borrowing funds to pay for the project.

What tool and technique is used in the validate scope process?

Inspection Inspection and decision-making techniques are the two tools and techniques used to validate scope

One of the inputs for the plan risk management process is the project charter. Why is this input needed for the plan risk management process?

It helps the project manager recognize the high-leve risks already identified

One of the inputs to the identify risk process is agreements. What is an agreement?

It is the contractual relationship between the organization and vendor An agreement describes the contractual relationship between the organization and vendors. Agreements can also describe terms between departments or units within the organization, such as a project agreement between the Accounting and IT departments.

There are three tools and techniques for the plan risk management process. Which one of the following is a tool and technique used for the plan risk management process?

Meeting One of the tools and techniques used for the plan risk management process are meetings—the risk planning meetings and risk analysis meetings. The other two tools and techniques are data analysis and expert judgment.

In what project management process group does the perform quantitative risk analysis process reside?

Planning

There are eight tools and techniques for the develop project team process. Which one of the following is not a develop project team process tool and technique?

Team performance assessments Of all the choices presented, team performance assessments are not a tool and technique in the develop project team process. A, B, and C are incorrect. The eight tools and techniques for the develop project team process are colocation, virtual teams, communication technology, interpersonal and team skills, recognition and rewards, training, individual and team assessments, and meetings.

In what process group does the acquire resources process exist?

The acquire resources process is an executing process.

In what process group does the develop project team process reside?

The develop project team process is an executing process