practice ?s final exam

Based on the American Stroke Association, alteplase can be given within how many hours from the onset of the symptoms of stroke? 1.5 hours 4.5 hours 6 hours 12 hours

4.5 hours Rationale The most important factor in whether or not to give alteplase is the time between symptom onset and time seen in the stroke center. The American Stroke Association recommends that fibrinolytic therapy is started within 4.5 hours of symptom onset for most patients. Alteplase may be given if there has been more than 1.5 hours since the onset of the symptoms of stroke. Alteplase is not recommended for patients if it has been more than 4.5 hours since the onset of the symptoms of stroke. p. 906

The nurse assesses a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) for signs and symptoms consistent with this injury. What signs and symptoms does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Sensitivity to light and sound b. Reports "feeling foggy" c. Unconscious for an hour after injury d. Elevated temperature e. Widened pulse pressure

ANS: A, B A mild TBI would possibly lead to sensitivity to light and sound and a feeling of mental fogginess. The patient would have been unconscious for less than 30 minutes. An elevated temperature is not related. A widened pulse pressure is indicative of increased intracranial pressure, not a mild TBI.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open traditional anterior cervical fusion. Which assessment findings would alert the nursing to a complication from this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Difficulty swallowing b. Hoarse voice c. Constipation d. Bradycardia e. Hypertension

ANS: A, B Complications of the open traditional anterior cervical discectomy and fusion include dysphagia and hoarseness. Constipation, bradycardia, and hypertension are not complications of this procedure.

The nurse is preparing a client for discharge from the emergency department after experiencing a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Before discharge, which factor would the nurse identify as placing the client at high risk for a stroke? a. Age greater than or equal to 75 b. Blood pressure greater than or equal to 160/95 c. Unilateral weakness during a TIA d. TIA symptoms lasting less than a minute

ANS: C The client who has a TIA is at risk for a stroke is he or she has one-sided (unilateral) weakness during a TIA. Risk factors also include an age greater than or equal to 60, blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 (either or both systolic and diastolic), and/or a long duration of TIA symptoms. One minute is not a very long time for symptoms to occur.

Which precaution is most important for the nurse to teach a client who has cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy (CAN) from diabetes to prevent harm? "Check your hands and feet weekly for chronic excessive sweating." "Change positions slowly when moving from sitting to standing." "Avoid drinking caffeine or caffeinated beverages." "Be sure to take your blood pressure drug daily."

"Change positions slowly when moving from sitting to standing." Cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy (CAN) affects sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves of the heart and blood vessels. This problem contributes to left ventricular dysfunction, painless myocardial infarction, and exercise intolerance. Most often, CAN leads to orthostatic (postural) hypotension and syncope (brief loss of consciousness on standing). These problems are from failure of the heart and arteries to respond to position changes by increasing heart rate and vascular tone. As a result, blood flow to the brain is interrupted briefly. Orthostatic hypotension and syncope increase the risk for falls, especially among older adults.Although taking blood pressure medication daily is important, it does not prevent orthostatic hypotension and in fact, may make orthostatic hypotension worse. Sensation changes are associated with peripheral neuropathy, not cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy. Avoiding caffeine is no longer a recommended action.

For the patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and receiving discharge teachings about signs of hypoglycemia, which patient statement indicates understanding of the nurse's teachings? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. "I may experience weakness." "It can cause a fast heart rate." "Sometimes it causes vomiting." "I might feel anxious or nervous."

"I may experience weakness." "It can cause a fast heart rate." "I might feel anxious or nervous." Rationale Vomiting is a sign of hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Weakness, tachycardia, and feelings of anxiousness or nervousness are consistent with hypoglycemia. p. 1291

The client is a 69-year-old man who was brought to the emergency department by his wife because he seems confused and is not eating or drinking. He knows who she is but does not know what day it is or what else is going on in their home. When asked if he has any health problems, the wife says, no that although he has gained a lot of weight since his retirement 4 years ago from construction work, he has always been healthy. In fact, he has not seen a doctor since an at-work injury healed 28 years ago. He takes no medicine and his current hobbies include bowling and playing poker with his friends. When asked whether he smokes or drinks alcohol, the wife proudly states that he quit smoking 10 years ago but now he drinks 4 to 5 beers nightly, and sometimes more when he is with his friends. The wife reports that he has been hobbling around a little the past few days because of an infected big toe on his right foot. Yesterday he was nauseated and did not feel well enough to eat anything except a little chicken broth and only drank one cup of coffee as his liquids for the entire day. Their daughter, who lives about 3 hours away, suggested that they come to the hospital. On Assessment, the nurse finds the client responsive to his name and he keeps stating that he feels "awful." His pulse is difficult to palpate and is both irregular and very fast. Blood pressure is 90/50. Pulse oximetry is 96% with a respiratory rate of 24. Temperature is 102.2 F (39 C). His affected toe is edematous and red with a red streak extending about 3 inches up his foot. Other findings include dry skin with poor turgor (tenting of skin on the forehead is present 2 minutes after pinching it up), sunken appearance to the eyeballs, sticky coating over tongue and teeth. His wife says he is 5' 9" inches (1.75 meters) tall. His weight in the ED is 232 lb (105.2 kg), which his wife says is about 15 lb (6.8 kg) less than his weight at home earlier this week. When asked, the wife reports that he hasn't "peed" today. A stat blood glucose level is 720 mg/dL (40 mmol/L). When his laboratory work returns, the results are: Blood osmolarity = 322 mOsm/L (322 mOsm/kg) Electrolytes = low normal pH = 7.39 Ketone bodies = negative Total white blood cell count = 21,000/mm 3 (21 x 109/L) 1. What assessment information in this client situation is the most important and immediate concern for the nurse? (Hint: Identify the relevant information first to determine what is most important.) 2. What client conditions are consistent with the most relevant information? (Hint: Think about priority collaborative problems that support and contradict the information presented in this situation.) 3. Which possibilities or explanations are most likely to be present in this client situation? Which possibilities or explanations are the most serious? (Hint: Consider all possibilities and determine their urgency and risk for this client.) 4. What activities would most likely achieve the desired outcomes for this client? Which actions should be avoided or are potentially harmful? (Hint: Determine the desired outcomes first to decide which interventions are appropriate and those that should be avoided.) 5. Which actions are the most appropriate and how should they be implemented? In what priority order should they be implemented? (Hint: Consider health teaching, documentation, requested health care provider orders or prescriptions, nursing skills, collaboration with or referral to health team members, etc.) 6. What client assessment would indicate the nurse's actions were effective? (Hint: Think about signs that would indicate an improvement, decline, or unchanged patient condition.)

1. Of most immediate concern are the indicators of dehydration, diabetes, infection, and reduced cardiac function. His acute confusion is also concerning and that he has not seen a primary health care provider in nearly 30 years. 2. Dehydration is indicated by the greatly increased blood osmolarity, the manifestations of poor skin turgor, no urine output yet today, rapid pulse that is difficult to palpate, low blood pressure, increased respiratory rate, and reported weight loss in the past week. Diabetes mellitus, particularly type 2, is possible as indicated by the very high blood glucose level and negative blood ketones. Infection is indicated by the appearance of the toe, along with his reported pain, temperature elevation, and the elevated total white blood cell count. Reduced cardiac output is indicated by the low blood pressure, increased and difficult to palpate pulse, and elevated respiratory rate. 3. The most likely problem for this client is that he has long-standing type 2 diabetes mellitus that has never been diagnosed. His more sedentary life-style over the past 4 years and overall weight gain have probably made the hyperglycemia worse. Although the infection could have occurred in anyone, the fact that is severe is most likely related to the hyperglycemia and long-term diabetes. The very high blood glucose levels coupled with a reduced oral fluid intake have caused the severe dehydration with reduced cardiac output. The presence of the infection has made the hyperglycemia-induced dehydration worse and, if left untreated, could lead to sepsis. The most serious problem for the client that could cause death at this time is the dehydration-induced reduced cardiac output. 4. Desired outcomes for this client are: • Resolution of dehydration with rapid IV fluid replacement • Returning to a normal level of blood glucose with insulin therapy • Returning to his normal cognitive state with IV fluid replacement and oxygen therapy • Improving cardiac output rapid IV fluid replacement • Prevention of sepsis with appropriate antibiotic therapy Although the hyperglycemia is extreme, it is not the most pressing issue. Rather, the dehydration -induced reduced cardiac output has the highest priority. Delaying these actions to address actions for hyperglycemia and infection management could be very harmful. 5. The client needs to have rapid IV fluid replacement immediately based on assessment findings before other assessment measured or corrective actions are performed. Oxygen should be applied to improve gas exchange (in the brain and everywhere else). Once IV fluid replacement has started and cardiac output is increased, drugs to reduce hyperglycemia and manage the infection are started. Although this client and family obviously were unaware of the diabetes and likely no nothing about its management, health teaching is not a priority until these acute health problems have been resolved. 6. Short-term indicators of adequate action are expected in resolution of dehydration with improved cardiac output. The first indicators of effective treatment are an increased blood pressure and heart rate, maintenance of oxygen saturation, and decreasing blood osmolarity. These indications may take hours to achieve. Having a urinary output would also indicate effective actions. Further decline in cognition indicate actions are not effective and the rate of fluid replacement may need to be increased. Decreases in blood glucose level and white blood cell count may take many hours to achieve.

The nurse has just received report on a group of clients. Which client is the nurse's first priority? A 26 year old with type 1 diabetes whose insulin pump is beeping "occlusion." A 30 year old with type 1 diabetes who is reporting thirst. A 40 year old with type 2 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L). A 50 year old with type 2 diabetes with a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.

A 26 year old with type 1 diabetes whose insulin pump is beeping "occlusion." The client the nurse sees first is the client with type 1 diabetes whose insulin pump is beeping "occlusion." Because glucose levels will increase quickly in clients whose continuous insulin pumps malfunction, the nurse must assess this client and the insulin pump first to avoid hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Thirst is an expected symptom of hyperglycemia and, although important, is not a priority. The nurse could delegate fingerstick blood glucose to unlicensed assistive personnel while assessing the client whose insulin pump is beeping. Although a blood glucose reading of 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L) is mildly elevated, this does not require immediate action. Mild hypertension does not require immediate action. The nurse can later assess if this is within the client's usual range or represents a change before taking action.

The nurse is planning teaching for a client who is starting acarbose for diabetes mellitus type 2. Which statement will the nurse include in the teaching? a. "Be sure to take the drug with each meal." b. "Take the drug every evening before bedtime." c. "Take the drug on an empty stomach in the morning." d. "Decide on the best day of the week to take the drug."

ANS: A Acarbose is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that works in the intestinal tract to prevent enzymes from breaking down starches into glucose. However, it must be taken with food at each meal, usually 3 times a day, to allow the drug to work as intended.

A client who has multiple sclerosis reports increased severe muscle spasticity and tremors. What nursing action is most appropriate to manage this client's concern? a. Request a prescription for an antispasmodic drug such as baclofen. b. Prepare the client for deep brain stimulation surgery. c. Refer the client to a massage therapist to relax the muscles. d. Consult with the occupational therapist for self-care assistance.

ANS: A Clients who have multiple sclerosis often have muscle spasticity which may be reduced by drug therapy, such as baclofen. While massage and assistance with self-care may be helpful, these interventions are not the most effective and therefore not the most appropriate in managing muscle spasticity. If drug therapy and other interventions do not help reduce muscle spasms, some client are candidates for deep brain stimulation as a last resort.

A client who had therapeutic hypothermia after a traumatic brain injury is slowly rewarmed to a normal core temperature. For which assessment finding would the nurse monitor during the rewarming process? a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. Loss of consciousness c. Nausea and vomiting d. Fever

ANS: A Due to fluid and electrolyte changes that typically occur during the rewarming process, the nurse monitors for cardiac dysrhythmias. The other findings are not common during this process.

A nurse teaches a client who is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's plan of care to delay the onset of microvascular and macrovascular complications? a. "Maintain tight glycemic control and prevent hyperglycemia." b. "Restrict your fluid intake to no more than 2 L a day." c. "Prevent hypoglycemia by eating a bedtime snack." d. "Limit your intake of protein to prevent ketoacidosis."

ANS: A Hyperglycemia is a critical factor in the pathogenesis of long-term diabetic complications. Maintaining tight glycemic control will help delay the onset of complications. Restricting fluid intake is not part of the treatment plan for patients with diabetes. Preventing hypoglycemia and ketosis, although important, is not as important as maintaining daily glycemic contro

A client is in shock and the nurse prepares to administer insulin for a blood glucose reading of 208 mg/dL (11.6 mmol/L). The spouse asks why the client needs insulin as the client is not a diabetic. What response by the nurse is best? a. "High glucose is common in shock and needs to be treated." b. "Some of the medications we are giving are to raise blood sugar." c. "The IV solution has lots of glucose, which raises blood sugar." d. "The stress of this illness has made your spouse a diabetic."

ANS: A High glucose readings are common in shock, and best outcomes are the result of treating them and maintaining glucose readings in the range of 140 to 180 mg/dL (7.7 to 10 mmol/L. Medications and IV solutions may raise blood glucose levels, but this is not the most accurate answer. The stress of the illness has not "made" the client diabetic.

A client is receiving norepinephrine for shock. What assessment finding best indicates a therapeutic effect from this drug? a. Alert and oriented, answering questions b. Client denies chest pain or chest pressure c. IV site without redness or swelling d. Urine output of 30 mL/hr for 2 hours

ANS: A Normal cognitive function is a good indicator that the client is receiving the benefits of norepinephrine. The brain is very sensitive to changes in oxygenation and perfusion. Norepinephrine can cause chest pain as an adverse reaction, so the absence of chest pain is good but does not indicate therapeutic effect. The IV site is normal. The urine output is normal, but only minimally so.

The nurse caring frequently for older adults in the hospital is aware of risk factors that place them at a higher risk for shock. For what factors would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Altered mobility/immobility b. Decreased thirst response c. Diminished immune response d. Malnutrition e. Overhydration f. Use of diuretics

ANS: A, B, C, D, F Immobility, decreased thirst response, diminished immune response, malnutrition, and use of diuretics can place the older adult at higher risk of developing shock. Overhydration is not a common risk factor for shock

Based on the known risk factors for stroke, which health promotion practices would the nurse teach a client to promote heart health and prevent strokes? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure control b. Aspirin use c. Smoking cessation d. Low carbohydrate diet e. Cholesterol management f. Increased red wine consumption

ANS: A, B, C, E The evidence-based health promotion practices include blood pressure control, aspirin use, smoking cessation, and cholesterol management. There is no consensus on which diet is best to promote heart health and red wine does not protect the heart or prevent strokes.

The nurse is caring for a client with increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) following a stroke. Which evidence-based nursing actions are indicated for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyperoxygenate the client before and after suctioning. b. Avoid sudden or extreme hip or neck flexion. c. Provide oxygen to maintain an SaO2 of 95% or greater. d. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times. e. Avoid clustering care nursing activities and procedures. f. Provide environmental stimulation to improve cognition.

ANS: A, B, C, E These precautions help prevent further increases in ICP. Clustering nursing activities and procedures and providing stimulation can increase ICP and should be avoided.

The nurse is preparing for discharge of a client who had a carotid artery angioplasty with stenting to prevent a stroke. For which signs and symptoms with the nurse teach the family to report to the primary health care provider immediately? (Select all that apply.) a. Muscle weakness b. Hoarseness c. Acute confusion d. Mild neck discomfort e. Severe headache f. Dysphagia

ANS: A, B, C, E, F Muscle weakness, acute confusion, severe headache, and dysphagia are all signs and symptoms that could indicate that a stroke occurred. Hoarseness and severe neck pain and swelling may occur as a result of the interventional radiologic procedure.

A nurse is caring for an older adult receiving multiple packed red blood cell transfusions. Which assessment finding(s) indicate(s) possible transfusion circulatory overload? (Select all that apply.) a. Acute confusion b. Dyspnea c. Depression d. Hypertension e. Bradycardia f. Bounding pulse

ANS: A, B, D, F Circulatory overload is the result of excessive body fluid which can cause signs and symptoms of heart failure including dyspnea, increased blood pressure, tachycardia (not bradycardia), and a bounding pulse. Dyspnea is caused by hypoxia which in older adults can cause acute confusion. Depression is not a common finding resulting from fluid overload.

The nurse studying shock understands that the common signs and symptoms of this condition are directly related to which problems? (Select all that apply.) a. Anaerobic metabolism b. Hyperglycemia c. Hypotension d. Impaired renal perfusion e. Increased systemic perfusion

ANS: A, C The common signs and symptoms of shock, no matter the cause, are directly related to the effects of anaerobic metabolism and hypotension. Hyperglycemia, impaired renal function, and increased perfusion are not the cause of common signs and symptoms of shock.

A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which assessment findings would the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation

ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension

A nurse cares for older clients who have traumatic brain injury. What does the nurse understand about this population? (Select all that apply.) a. Admission can overwhelm the coping mechanisms for older clients. b. Alcohol is typically involved in most traumatic brain injuries for this age-group. c. These clients are more susceptible to systemic and wound infections. d. Other medical conditions can complicate treatment for these clients. e. Very few traumatic brain injuries occur in this age-group.

ANS: A, C, D Older adults often tolerate stress poorly, which includes being admitted to a hospital that is unfamiliar and noisy. Because of decreased protective mechanisms, they are more susceptible to both local and systemic infections. Other medical conditions can complicate their treatment and recovery. Alcohol is typically not related to traumatic brain injury in this population; such injury is most often from falls and motor vehicle crashes

The nurse caring for hospitalized clients includes which actions on their care plans to reduce the possibility of the clients developing shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing and identifying clients at risk b. Monitoring the daily white blood cell count c. Performing proper hand hygiene d. Removing invasive lines as soon as possible e. Using aseptic technique during procedures f. Limiting the client's visitors until more stable

ANS: A, C, D, E Assessing and identifying clients at risk for shock is probably the most critical action the nurse can take to prevent shock from occurring. Proper hand hygiene, using aseptic technique, and removing IV lines and catheters are also important actions to prevent shock. Monitoring laboratory values does not prevent shock but can indicate a change. Limiting the client's visitors is not a caring action. The nurse would ensure they perform proper hand hygiene on entering and leaving the room and that visitors are not ill themselves

A nurse assesses a patient who is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). For which assessment findings would the nurse monitor the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Deep and fast respirations b. Decreased urine output c. Tachycardia d. Dependent pulmonary crackles e. Orthostatic hypotension

ANS: A, C, E DKA leads to dehydration, which is manifested by tachycardia and orthostatic hypotension. Usually, patients have Kussmaul respirations, which are fast and deep. Increased urinary output (polyuria) is severe. Because of osmotic diuresis and dehydration, peripheral edema and crackles do not occur.

A nurse promotes the prevention of lower back pain by teaching clients at a community center. Which statement(s) would the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.) a. "Participate in an exercise program to strengthen back muscles." b. "Purchase a mattress that allows you to adjust the firmness." c. "Wear flat instead of high-heeled shoes to work each day." d. "Keep your weight within 20% of your ideal body weight." e. "Avoid prolonged standing or sitting, including driving."

ANS: A, C, E Exercise can strengthen back muscles, reducing the incidence of low back pain. Women should avoid wearing high-heeled shoes because they cause misalignment of the back. Prolonged standing and sitting should also be avoided. The other options will not prevent low back pain.

A nurse assesses adults at a health fair. Which adults would the nurse counsel to be tested for diabetes? (Select all that apply.) a. A 56-year-old African-American male b. A 22-year-old female with a 30-lb (13.6 kg) weight gain during pregnancy c. A 60-year-old male with a history of liver trauma d. A 48-year-old female with a sedentary lifestyle e. A 50-year-old male with a body mass index greater than 25 kg/m2 f. A 28-year-old female who gave birth to a baby weighing 9.2 lb (4.2 kg)

ANS: A, D, E, F Risk factors for type 2 diabetes include certain ethnic/racial groups (African Americans, American Indians, and Hispanics), obesity and physical inactivity, and giving birth to large babies. Liver trauma and a 30-lb (13.6 kg) gestational weight gain are not risk factors.

A nurse assesses cerebrospinal fluid leaking onto a client's surgical dressing. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Place the client in a flat position. b. Monitor vital signs for hypotension. c. Utilize a bedside commode. d. Assess for abdominal distension. e. Report the leak to the surgeon.

ANS: A, E If cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is leaking from a surgical wound, the nurse would place the client in a flat position and contact the surgeon for repair of the leak. Hypotension and abdominal distension are not complications of CSF leakage.

A client who had a complete spinal cord injury at level L5-S1 is admitted with a sacral pressure injury. What other assessment finding will the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Quadriplegia b. Flaccid bowel c. Spastic bladder d. Tetraparesis

ANS: B A low-level complete spinal cord injury (SCI) is a lower motor neuron injury because the reflect arc is damaged. Therefore, the client would be expected to have paraplegia and a flaccid bowel and bladder. Quadriplegia and tetraparesis are seen in clients with cervical or high thoracic SCIs.

A nurse reviews the chart and new prescriptions for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis: V/S: Blood pressure: 90/62 mm Hg Pulse: 120 beats/min Respiratory rate: 28 breaths/min Urine output: 20 mL/hr via catheter LABS: Serum potassium: 2.6 mEq/L (2.6 mmol/L) MEDS: Potassium chloride 40 mEq/L (40 mmol/L) IV bolus STAT Increase IV fluid to 100 mL/hr What action would the nurse take? a. Administer the potassium and then consult with the primary health care provider about the fluid prescription. b. Increase the intravenous rate and then consult with the primary health care provider about the potassium prescription. c. Administer the potassium first before increasing the infusion flow rate for the client. d. Increase the intravenous flow rate before administering the potassium to the client.

ANS: B The client is acutely ill and is severely dehydrated and hypokalemic, requiring more IV fluids and potassium. However, potassium would not be infused unless the urine output is at least 30 mL/hr. The nurse would first increase the IV rate and then consult with the primary health care provider about the potassium.

The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about care for a male client diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke and left-sided weakness. Which statement by the AP indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching? a. "I will use "yes" and "no" questions when communicating with the client." b. "I will remind the client frequently to not get out of bed without help." c. "I will offer a urinal every hour to the client due to incontinence." d. "I will feed the client slowly using soft or pureed foods."

ANS: B The client who has left-sided weakness has likely had a right-sided stroke in the brain. Clients who have strokes on the right side of the brain tend to be very impulsive and exhibit poor judgment. Therefore, to keep the client safe, the staff will need to remind the client to stay in bed unless he has assistance to prevent falling. There is no evidence in the clinical situation that the client has aphasia (which is less common in those with right-sided strokes), difficulty swallowing, or urinary incontinence.

A client receiving a blood transfusion develops anxiety and low back pain. After stopping the transfusion, what action by the nurse is most important? a. Document the events in the client's medical record. b. Double-check the client and blood product identification. c. Place the client on strict bedrest until the pain subsides. d. Review the client's medical record for known allergies.

ANS: B This client most likely had a hemolytic transfusion reaction, most commonly caused by blood type or Rh incompatibility. The nurse should double-check all identifying information for both the client and blood type. Documentation occurs after the client is stable. Bedrest may or may not be needed. Allergies to medications or environmental items are not related.

A nurse is caring for a client after surgery who is restless and apprehensive. The assistive personnel (AP) reports the vital signs and the nurse sees that they are only slightly different from previous readings. What action does the nurse delegate next to the AP? a. Assess the client for pain or discomfort. b. Measure urine output from the catheter. c. Reposition the client to the side. d. Stay with the client and reassure him or her.

ANS: B Urine output changes are a sensitive early indicator of shock. The nurse would delegate emptying the urinary catheter and measuring output to the AP as a baseline for hourly urine output measurements. The AP cannot assess for pain. Repositioning may or may not be effective for decreasing restlessness, but does not take priority over physical assessments. Reassurance is a therapeutic nursing action, but the nurse needs to do more in this situation.

A nurse cares for a client who possibly has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The client's serum sodium level is 114 mEq/L (114 mmol/L). What nursing action would be appropriate? a. Consult with the dietitian about increased dietary sodium. b. Restrict the client's fluid intake to 600 mL/day. c. Handle the client gently by using turn sheets for repositioning. d. Instruct assistive personnel to measure intake and output.

ANS: B With SIADH, clients often have dilutional hyponatremia. The client needs a fluid restriction, sometimes to as little as 500 to 600 mL/24 hr. Adding sodium to the client's diet will not help if he or she is retaining fluid and diluting the sodium. The client is not at increased risk for fracture, so gentle handling is not an issue. The client would be on intake and output; however, this will monitor only the client's intake, so it is not the best answer. Reducing fluid intake will help increase the client's sodium.

A client is admitted with a confirmed left middle cerebral artery occlusion. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Ataxia b. Dysphagia c. Aphasia d. Apraxia e. Hemiparesis/hemiplegia f. Ptosis

ANS: B, C, D, E, F All of these assessment findings are common in clients who have a stroke caused by an occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery with the exception of ataxia (most often present in clients who have cerebellar strokes). This artery supplies the majority of the left side of the brain where motor, sensory, speech, and language centers are located.

A nurse is discharging a client from the emergency department who has a mild traumatic brain injury. What information obtained from the client represents a possible barrier to self-management? (Select all that apply.) a. Does not want to purchase a thermometer. b. Is allergic to acetaminophen. c. Laughing, says "Strenuous? What's that?" d. Lives alone and is new in town with no friends. e. Plans to have a beer and go to bed once home.

ANS: B, D, E Clients who have mild traumatic brain injuries should take acetaminophen for headache. An allergy to this drug may mean that the patient takes aspirin or ibuprofen, which should be avoided. The patient needs neurologic checks every 1 to 2 hours, and this client does not seem to have anyone available who can do that. Alcohol needs to be avoided for at least 24 hours. A thermometer is not needed. The patient laughing at strenuous activity probably does not engage in any kind of strenuous activity, but the nurse should confirm this

The nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who is diagnosed with hyperglycemic-hyperosmolar state (HHS). What is the nurse's priority action at this time? a. Assess the client's blood glucose level. b. Monitor the client's urinary output every hour. c. Establish intravenous access to provide fluids. d. Give regular insulin per agency policy.

ANS: C The first priority in caring for a client with HHS is to increase blood volume to prevent shock or severe hypotension from dehydration. The nurse would monitor vital signs, urinary output, and blood glucose to determine if interventions were effective. Regular insulin is also indicated but not as the first priority action.

A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Remove the vest for client bathing. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the patient's oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown.

ANS: B, E The nurse would assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins. The nurse would also assess the client's chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest. The vest is not removed for bathing and the pins are not intentionally loosened

The nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus type 1 and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Warm, dry skin b. Nervousness c. Rapid deep respirations d. Dehydration e. Ketoacidosis f. Blurred vision

ANS: B, F The client who has hypoglycemia is often anxious, nervous, and possibly confused. Due to lack of glucose, vision may be blurred or the client may report diplopia (double vision). Clients who have hyperglycemia from diabetes mellitus type 1 have warm skin, Kussmaul respirations that are rapid and deep, dehydration due to elevated blood glucose, and ketoacidosis.

The nurse is planning teaching for a client who is starting exenatide extended release (ER) for diabetes mellitus type 2. Which statement will the nurse include in the teaching? a. "Be sure to take the drug once a day before breakfast." b. "Take the drug every evening before bedtime." c. "Give your drug injection the same day every week." d. "Take the drug with dinner at the same time each day."

ANS: C Exenatide ER is an incretin mimetic (GLP-1 agonist) that works with insulin to lower blood glucose levels by reducing pancreatic glucagon secretion, reducing liver glucose production, and delaying gastric emptying. As an extended-release drug, it is given only once a week by injection.

A client who is experiencing a traumatic brain injury has increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). What drug will the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for this client? a. Phenytoin b. Lorazepam c. Mannitol d. Morphine

ANS: C Increased intracranial pressure is often the result of cerebral edema as a result of traumatic brain injury. Therefore, as osmotic diuretic such as mannitol or a loop diuretic like furosemide is administered. The other drugs are not appropriate to manage increasing ICP.

The nurse is assessing a client for risk of developing metabolic syndrome. Which risk factor is associated with this health condition? a. Hypotension b. Hyperthyroidism c. Abdominal obesity d. Hypoglycemia

ANS: C The client at risk for metabolic syndrome typically has hypertension, abdominal obesity, hyperlipidemia, and hyperglycemia.

A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The client's blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. After raising the head of the bed, what action would the nurse take next? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Recheck the client's blood pressure. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker.

ANS: C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury such as s stroke. The other actions are not appropriate for this complication.

The nurse is preparing to teach a client recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis about taking glatiramer acetate. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will rotate injection sites to prevent skin irritation." b. "I need to avoid large crowds and people with infection." c. "I should report any flulike symptoms to my primary health care provider." d. "I will report any signs of infection to my primary health care provider."

ANS: C Glatiramer is given by subcutaneous injection. The first dose is administered under medical supervision, but the nurse teaches the client how to self-administer the medication after the initial dose, reminding the client about the need to rotate injection sites. Like other immunomodulators, this drug can make the client susceptible to infection. However, flulike symptoms occur more commonly with interferons rather than glatiramer.

A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the client's hips and sacrum. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Reposition the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair several times a day. e. Apply a pressure-reducing mattress.

ANS: C, D, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on the reddened areas include frequent repositioning, using a pressure-reducing mattress, and having the client sit in a chair to remove pressure from the hips and sacrum. Correct sitting position would allow the pressure to be on both ischial tuberosities. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open traditional lumbar laminectomy with fusion. Which complications would the nurse report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgical discomfort b. Redness and itching at the incision site c. Incisional bulging d. Clear drainage on the dressing e. Sudden and severe headaches

ANS: C, D, E Bulging at the incision site or clear fluid on the dressing after open back surgery strongly suggests a cerebrospinal fluid leak, which constitutes an emergency. Loss of cerebrospinal fluid may cause a sudden and severe headache. Pain, redness, and itching at the site are normal

After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses his understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of his injury? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner." b. "I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury." c. "Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before." d. "I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection." e. "I should be able to have an erection with stimulation."

ANS: C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the client's partner will not get an infection.

A nurse is field-triaging clients after an industrial accident. Which client condition would the nurse triage with a red tag? a. Dislocated right hip and an open fracture of the right lower leg b. Large contusion to the forehead and a bloody nose c. Closed fracture of the right clavicle and arm numbness d. Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath

ANS: D Clients who have an immediate threat to life are given the highest priority, are placed in the emergent or class I category, and are given a red triage tag. The client with multiple rib fractures and shortness of breath has a threat to oxygenation and is the most critical. The client with the hip and leg problem and the client with the clavicle fracture would be classified as class II (urgent, yellow tag); these major but stable injuries can wait for 30 minutes to 2 hours for definitive care. The client with facial wounds would be considered the "walking wounded" and classified as nonurgent (class III, green tag).

A new nurse asks for an explanation of "refractory hypoxemia." What answer by the staff development nurse is best? a. "It is chronic hypoxemia that accompanies restrictive airway disease." b. "It is hypoxemia from lung damage due to mechanical ventilation." c. "It is hypoxemia that continues even after the client is weaned from oxygen." d. "It is hypoxemia that persists even with 100% oxygen administration."

ANS: D Refractory hypoxemia is hypoxemia that persists even with the administration of 100% oxygen. It is a cardinal sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome. It does not accompany restrictive airway disease and is not caused by the use of mechanical ventilation or by being weaned from oxygen.

A nurse on the general medical-surgical unit is caring for a client in shock and assesses the following: Respiratory rate: 10 breaths/min Pulse: 136 beats/min Blood pressure: 92/78 mm Hg Level of consciousness: responds to voice Temperature: 101.5° F (38.5° C) Urine output for the last 2 hours: 40 mL/hr. What action by the nurse is best? a. Transfer the client to the Intensive Care Unit. b. Continue monitoring every 30 minutes. c. Notify the unit charge nurse immediately. d. Call the Rapid Response Team.

ANS: D This client has a MEWS score of 7 (RR: 0, P: 3, SBP: 1, LOC: 1, Temperature: 1, UO: 1). Scores above 5 are associated with a high risk of death and ICU admission. The most important action for the nurse is to notify the Rapid Response Team so that timely interventions can be initiated. The client most likely will be transferred to the ICU, but an order is required. Monitoring the client every 30 minutes is appropriate, but the nurse needs to obtain care for the client. The charge nurse is a valuable resource, but the best action is to notify the Rapid Response Team.

Which precaution is a priority for the nurse to teach a client prescribed semaglutide to prevent harm? Only take this drug once weekly. Report any vision changes immediately. Do not mix in the same syringe with insulin. This drug can only be given by a health care professional.

Answer: A Rationale: Semaglutide is a long-acting GLP-1 agonist given only once weekly and comes only as a self-injection pen. It does not have to be administered by a health care professional. It is not associated with any vision changes.

Which precaution is a priority for the nurse to teach a client prescribed pramlintide to prevent harm? Only take this drug once weekly. Do not drink alcohol when taking this drug. Do not mix in the same syringe with insulin. Report any genital itching to your primary health care provider.

Answer: C Rationale: Pramlintide is an amylin analog injected subcutaneously several times daily with or right before any meal. It has a pH that is different from and incompatible with insulin and is not to be mixed in the same syringe. It does not increase the risk for genital yeast infections. It does not increase the risk for lactic acidosis when alcohol is comsumed.

A patient in the ICU on mechanical ventilation appears increasingly restless and picks at the bedcovers. Which action would the nurse take? Increase the sedation. Assess for adequate oxygenation. Request that the family members leave. Explain the breathing tube to the patient

Assess for adequate oxygenation. Rationale Restlessness, agitation, anxiety, and tachycardia are early symptoms of hypoxemia. Increasing sedation may mask symptoms like hypoxemia or worsening respiratory failure. Although the nurse may explain that the patient is intubated, it does not take priority over assessing for hypoxemia. The presence of family members may comfort the patient. p. 594

Which health promotion activity(ies) will the nurse recommend to prevent harm in a client with type 2 diabetes? Select all that apply. "Avoid all dietary carbohydrate and fat." "Have your eyes and vision assessed by an ophthalmologist every year." "Reduce your intake of animal fat and increase your intake of plant sterols." "Be sure to take your antidiabetes drug right before you engage in any type of exercise." "Keep your feet warm in cold weather by using either a hot water bottle or a heating pad." "Avoid foot damage from shoe-rubbing by going barefoot or wearing "flip-flops" when you are at home."

Answers: B, C Rationale: Regardless of whether diabetes is type 1 or type 2, the long-term complications are the same as are most prevention activities. The microvascular complications of diabetes increase the risk for eye and vision problems for all who have the disorder. Annual examinations by an ophthalmologist are critical to preventing or delaying reduced vision. Hypercholesterolemia is common in diabetes and contributes to hypertension, as well as microvascular and macrovascular complications, especially cardiovascular problems. Reducing animal-sourced fats and using plant-based sterols is recommended for everyone. Controlling carbohydrate and fat intake is important but they cannot be avoided or eliminated from the diet. Exercising increases the risk for hypoglycemia. Taking antidiabetes drugs immediately before exercising increases this risk and should not be done. Most patients with diabetes, even type 2 diabetes, have some degree of peripheral neuropathy and an increased risk for development of foot ulcers and the need for amputation. Using hot water bottles and heating pads on the feet should never be done because the reduced sensory perception does not allow the client to know when feet are being damaged by the heat. Adults with diabetes should never walk bare-foot or just use "flip-flops" even in the home. They need to wear properly fitting shoes with sturdy soles to prevent any foot injury.

Which nursing intervention helps prevent increased intracranial pressure (ICP) after a stroke? Careful monitoring of body temperature Providing oxygen therapy for oxygen saturation less than 90% Hyperoxygenating the patient before and after suctioning Clustering nursing procedures

Careful monitoring of body temperature Rationale Patients who have had a stroke are at increased risk for increased ICP for 24 to 48 hours after the stroke. The nurse should carefully monitor temperature because a temperature elevation can increase this risk. The nurse should provide oxygen therapy to prevent hypoxia for patients with oxygen saturation less than 95% or per agency or primary health care provider protocol or prescription. The nurse should hyperoxygenate the patient before and after suctioning to avoid transient hypoxemia and resultant ICP elevation from dilation of cerebral arteries. The nurse should avoid the clustering of nursing procedures (e.g., giving a bath followed immediately by changing the bed linen). When multiple activities are clustered in a narrow time period, the effect on ICP can be dramatic elevation. pp. 907-908

The nurse questions which collaborative intervention that is listed on a treatment plan for a patient who sustained a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? Prescriptions for aspirin and clopidogrel Inpatient hospitalization when the patient's diagnostic studies reveal carotid artery stenosis of 80% Medication to reduce high blood pressure Controlling diabetes (that is present) and keeping glucose levels within a target range of 120 to 200

Controlling diabetes (that is present) and keeping glucose levels within a target range of 120 to 200 Rationale Collaborative interventions for TIA include controlling diabetes (if present) and keeping glucose levels within a target range, typically 100 to 180 mg/dL. They also include prescribing antiplatelet drugs, typically aspirin or clopidogrel, to prevent thrombotic or embolic strokes (may be placed on a combination of both drugs). A patient who has a new onset of atrial fibrillation with the TIA or a TIA and carotid artery stenosis of greater than 70% will most likely be admitted, depending on agency protocol. Interventions also include reducing high blood pressure (the most common risk factor for stroke) by adding or adjusting drugs to lower blood pressure. p. 899

Which method must a patient with diabetes implement regarding insulin safety? Shake insulin well before administration. Discard any unused insulin after 28 days. Refrigerate unused insulin at 32°F (0°C). Store prefilled syringes in a horizontal position.

Discard any unused insulin after 28 days. Rationale The patient must discard any unused insulin after 28 days because a slight loss in potency may occur after the bottle has been in use for more than 30 days, even when the expiration date has not passed. Gently roll the bottle or the prefilled syringe between the hands, but do not shake vigorously before administration to prevent loss of potency. Prefilled syringes must be stored upright, with the needle pointing upward, to prevent clogging of the needle. To prevent loss of drug potency, do not expose unused insulin to temperatures below 36°F (2.2°C). p. 1280

A patient requiring mechanical ventilation for treatment of pneumonia becomes agitated, restless, and shows symptoms of respiratory distress. The mechanical ventilator highpressure alarm has been activated. Which action would the nurse take? Medicate the patient with a sedating agent. Increase oxygen delivery to 100% through the ventilator. Check the mechanical ventilator data for possible causes of the alarm. Disconnect the ventilator, and provide ventilation with a self-inflating bag.

Disconnect the ventilator, and provide ventilation with a self-inflating bag Rationale When a patient shows signs of respiratory distress while being mechanically ventilated, the nurse should focus on the patient, not the mechanical ventilator. The first best action is to disconnect the ventilator and use a self-inflating bag to ventilate the patient while problem solving the cause of the alarm. Although it may be necessary to administer sedation to the patient, the nurse must attempt to stabilize the patient first. The nurse should not increase oxygen through the ventilator until the cause of the alarm is determined

When teaching a community group about diabetes care, the nurse would teach which information regarding alcohol use and diabetes mellitus? Avoid alcohol use. Drink alcohol with meals. Check blood glucose after each drink. Prepare to administer larger doses than normal.

Drink alcohol with meals. Rationale To avoid alcohol-induced hypoglycemia, the nurse should recommend that patients drink alcohol with meals or just after eating. It is not necessary to avoid alcohol. Patients do not need to check a blood glucose level after each drink. There is not an indication to administer larger doses of insulin. pp. 1283, 1291

Which organ is the usual source of emboli in an embolic stroke? Lung Liver Heart Spleen

Heart Rationale Embolic strokes are caused by a thrombus or group of thrombi that break off from one area of the body and travel to the cerebral arteries via the carotid artery or vertebrobasilar system. The usual source of an emboli is the heart. Emboli that occur in the lungs can cause a pulmonary embolism. The liver and spleen are not typical sources of emboli. p. 900

Which type of stroke shows interrupted vessel integrity and bleeding that occurs into the brain tissue or into the subarachnoid space? Embolic stroke Ischemic stroke Thrombotic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke

Hemorrhagic stroke Rationale In a hemorrhagic stroke, vessel integrity is interrupted, and bleeding occurs into the brain tissue or into the subarachnoid space. A stroke caused by an embolus (dislodged clot) is referred to as an embolic stroke. An acute ischemic stroke is caused by the occlusion (blockage) of a cerebral artery by either a thrombus or an embolus. A stroke that is caused by a thrombus (clot) is referred to as a thrombotic stroke. pp. 900-901

A catastrophic disaster has occurred 5 miles from the hospital you are working in. The hospital's disaster plan is activated and the wounded are brought to the hospital. You're helping triage the survivors. One of the wounded is able to walk around and has minor lacerations on the arms, hands, chest, and legs. You would place what color tag on this survivor? A. Red B. Yellow C. Green D. Black

The answer is C: Green tags are for patients who have MINOR injuries. If the patient can walk around they are tagged as green. Sometimes they are referred to as the "walking wounded".

Which insulin selection indicates patient understanding of teachings received from the nurse about the use of basal insulin for glucose stabilization? Insulin lispro Insulin aspart Insulin glargine Insulin glulisine

Insulin glargine Rationale Patients use insulin glargine for basal regulation because the medication lasts for 24 hours and controls the blood glucose levels. Use of insulin lispro, insulin aspart, and insulin glulisine are for supplemental or prandial glucose correction because they are short-acting insulins. p. 1276

Which client assessment finding indicates to the nurse the possible presence of diabetic autonomic neuropathy? Loss of sensation in both feet Hyperglycemia Intermittent constipation Increased thirst

Intermittent constipation Autonomic neuropathy can affect the entire GI system. The most common GI problem from diabetic automonic neuropathy is sluggish intestinal movement and chronic intermittent constipation.Loss of sensation in the feet is peripheral neuropathy, not autonomic neuropathy. Hyperglycemia is not related to any type of neuropathy. Increased thirst is related to hyperglycemia and increased blood osmolarity, not neuropathy

The nurse suspects a stroke in which area of the brain when a patient presents to the emergency department with aphasia and right-sided hemiplegia? Brainstem Cerebellum Left cerebral hemisphere Right cerebral hemisphere

Left cerebral hemisphere Rationale The left cerebral hemisphere is the center for language and analytical thinking and also controls motor nerves on the right side of the body. A patient with deficits in these areas most likely has left cerebral involvement. Patients with brainstem or cerebellum involvement will have ataxia and may experience hemiparesis or quadriparesis. The right cerebral hemisphere is involved with visual and spatial awareness. p. 903

The nurse expects that which intervention will be listed on the plan of care for a patient who is admitted to the emergency department for a stroke? Monitor vital signs every 4 hours. Maintain the head of the patient in a midline, neutral position. Keep the head of the bed elevated at a 20-degree angle. Administer oxygen therapy for oxygen saturation levels less than 86%.

Maintain the head of the patient in a midline, neutral position. Rationale The head of the patient with the onset of stroke should be maintained in a midline, neutral position to promote venous drainage from the brain. The patient's vital signs should be monitored at least every 1 to 2 hours. The head of the bed should be elevated between 25 and 30 degrees to prevent a decreased blood flow to the brain. Oxygen therapy is provided for patients with oxygen saturation less than 92% to prevent hypoxia. p. 907

When admitting a patient with a new diagnosis of chronic renal insufficiency secondary to type 2 diabetes, the nurse would hold which medication and contact the health care provider about it? Acarbose Glipizide Metformin Pioglitazone

Metformin Rationale Metformin is contraindicated in patients with renal disease. The nurse should hold the medication and contact the health care provider. Acarbose, glipizide, and pioglitazone are not contraindicated in this patient. pp. 1275, 1286, 1290

Which new-onset symptoms will the nurse instruct a client with diabetes who is prescribed to take the sodium-glucose cotransport inhibitor, empagliflozin, to report to the diabetes health care provider to prevent harm? (Select all that apply.) Muscle weakness and dizziness on standing Redness and tenderness at the injection site Rapid weight gain and shortness of breath Redness and tenderness of the perineum Sensations of hunger, tremors, sweating, and confusion Pain and burning on urination

Muscle weakness and dizziness on standing Redness and tenderness of the perineum Sensations of hunger, tremors, sweating, and confusion Pain and burning on urination Drugs from the lower blood glucose levels by preventing kidney reabsorption of glucose and sodium that was filtered from the blood into the urine. This filtered glucose is excreted in the urine rather than moved back into the blood. Hypoglycemia (symptoms of hunger, tremors, sweating, confusion) is possible as is dehydration with excessive sodium loss (muscle weakness and orthostatic hypotension with dizziness on standing). The excess glucose in the urine increases the risk for urinary tract infections with pain and burning on urination. These drugs increase the risk for Fournier gangrene with perineal fasciitis, which has early symptoms of redness and tenderness of the perineal skin.The drug is taken orally and not by injection. It is not associated with heart failure that may manifest with symptoms of rapid weight gain and shortness of breath.

The nurse reviews the medical record of a patient who is diagnosed with an acute ischemic stroke and identifies that which assessment finding is a contraindication for fibrinolytic therapy according to the American Stroke Association guidelines? patient age - 70 years NHISS score - 26 symptom onset - 3.5 hours before evaluation iNR - 1.1

NHISS Rationale The American Stroke Association guidelines for treatment with fibrinolytic therapy include administering the treatment within 4.5 hours of symptom onset, unless the patient is over 80 years old or has an NIHSS score greater than 25. The patient's INR is normal. p. 906

Which assessment is a priority for the nurse to make when a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) who is being monitored while receiving an insulin infusion begins to show an irregular heart beat with inverted T-waves? Rate of IV infusion Urine output Potassium level Breath sounds

Potassium level After DKA therapy starts, serum potassium levels drop quickly. An ECG showing an irregular pattern and inverted T-waves is most likely related to low potassium levels (hyperkalemia). Hypokalemia is a common cause of death in the treatment of DKA. Detecting and treating the underlying cause of the cardiac irregularities is essential.The cardiac issues are not associated with changes in urine output even though hyperglycemia will cause osmotic diuresis. The client with DKA is not at risk for hypoventilation or poor gas exchange. Increased fluids treat the symptoms of dehydration secondary to DKA, but do not treat the hypokalemia.

Which assessment finding in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates to the nurse that the disease is damaging the kidneys? White blood cells (WBCs) in the urine during a random urinalysis Ketone bodies in the urine during acidosis Glucose in the urine during hyperglycemia Protein in the urine during a random urinalysis

Protein in the urine during a random urinalysis Urine should not contain protein and the presence of proteinuria in a client with marks the beginning of renal problems known as diabetic nephropathy, that progresses eventually to end-stage renal disease. Chronically elevated blood glucose levels cause renal hypertension and excess kidney perfusion with leakage from the renal vasculature. The excess leakiness allows larger substances, such as proteins, to be filtered into the urine.

Which action would the caregiver of a patient with diabetes implement for treatment of moderate hypoglycemia? Provide half a cup of fruit juice. Offer 4 cubes, or teaspoons, of sugar. Subcutaneously inject 1 mg of glucagon. Provide 15 g of carbohydrate and cheese.

Provide 15 g of carbohydrate and cheese. Rationale When treating moderate hypoglycemia, the caregiver must administer 15 to 30 g of a rapidly absorbed carbohydrate, followed by low-fat milk or cheese after 10 to 15 minutes. The patient with mild hypoglycemia usually has a blood glucose level of less than 70 mg/dL, and this is treated by offering the patient half a cup of fruit juice, or 4 cubes or teaspoons of sugar. In severe hypoglycemia, blood glucose is usually less than 20 mg/dL. The patient may be unconscious or unable to swallow; the caregiver should administer 1 mg of glucagon as a subcutaneous or IM injection. p. 1291

A patient who had knee surgery 2 days ago now has extreme shortness of breath, agitation, and apprehension. A heart rate of 119 beats/min and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min with an oxygen saturation of 84% are also noted. Which condition would the nurse suspect? Anaphylactic reaction Bronchospasm Pneumothorax Pulmonary embolism

Pulmonary embolism Rationale Venous thromboemboli are a potential complication after orthopedic surgery. Shortness of breath, agitation, apprehension, tachycardia, and a decreased oxygen saturation are findings consistent with a pulmonary embolism. Anaphylaxis and bronchospasm are characterized by wheezing. Pneumothorax is characterized by absent breath sounds on the affected side

Which action will the nurse recommend to a client with type 1 diabetes on insulin therapy who has been having a morning fasting blood glucose (FBG) level of 160 mg/dL (8.9 mmol/L) and is diagnosed with "dawn phenomenon" to achieve better control? Eat a bedtime snack containing equal amounts of protein and carbohydrates." Avoid eating any carbohydrate with your evening meal." Take your evening insulin dose right before going to bed instead of at supper time." Inject the insulin into your arm rather than into the abdomen around the navel."

Take your evening insulin dose right before going to bed instead of at supper time." A client with "dawn phenomenon," diagnosed by checking blood glucose levels during the night, has morning hyperglycemia that results from a nighttime release of adrenal hormones causing blood glucose elevations at about 5 to 6 a.m. It is managed by providing more insulin for the overnight period (e.g., giving the evening dose of intermediate-acting insulin at 10 p.m. instead of with the evening meal).Bedtime snacks are needed for "Somogyi phenomenon" that is morning hyperglycemia caused by the counterregulatory response to nighttime hypoglycemia. Changing the injection site would not prevent morning hyperglycemia. Not eating any carbohydrate with a meal is more likely to cause severe hypoglycemia during the night and is dangerous.

A 58 year old female patient has superficial partial-thickness burns to the anterior head and neck, front and back of the left arm, front of the right arm, posterior trunk, front and back of the right leg, and back of the left leg. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned? A. 63% B. 81% C. 72% D. 54%

The answer is A. Anterior head and neck (4.5%), front and back of the left arm (9%), front of the right arm (4.5%), posterior trunk (18%), front and back of the right leg (18%), back of the left leg (9%) which equals 63%.

A patient has a burn on the back of the torso that is extremely red and painful but no blisters are present. When you pressed on the skin it blanches. You document this as a: A. 1st degree (superficial) burn B. 2nd degree (partial-thickness) burn C. 3rd degree (full-thickness) burn D. 4th degree (deep full-thickness) burn

The answer is A. These are the classic characteristics of a 1st degree, superficial burn.

The wounded victim is able to walk and obey commands. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color? A. Green B. Red C. Yellow D. Black

The answer is A: Green.

While collecting a medical history on a patient who experienced a severe burn, which statement by the patient's family member requires nursing intervention? A. "He takes medication for glaucoma". B. "I think it has been 10 years or more since he had a tetanus shot." C. "He was told he had COPD last year." D. "He smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day."

The answer is B. Patients who have had burns need a tetanus shot if they have not had a vaccine within the past 5 to 10 years.

You receive a patient who has experienced a burn on the right leg. You note the burn contains small blisters and is extremely pinkish red and shiny/moist. The patient reports severe pain. You document this burn as: A. 1st Degree (superficial) B. 2nd Degree (partial-thickness) C. 3rd Degree (full-thickness) D. 4th Degree (deep full-thickness)

The answer is B. These are the classic characteristics of a 2nd degree (partial-thickness) burn.

Select the patient below who is at MOST risk for complications following a burn: A. A 42 year old male with partial-thickness burns on the front of the right and left arms and legs. B. A 25 year old female with partial-thickness burns on the front of the head and neck and front and back of the torso. C. A 36 year old male with full-thickness burns on the front of the left arm. D. A 10 year old with superficial burns on the right leg.

The answer is B. When thinking about which patient will have the MOST complications following a burn think about: percentage of the total body surface area that is burned (use the rule of nine to calculate), depth of the burn, age, location of the burn, and patient's medical history. The patient in option B has 40.5% TSBA burned (option A 27%, C: 4.5%, D: 9%). Remember that the higher the total of the body surface area that is burned the higher the risk of complications due to an increase in capillary permeability (swelling, hypovolemic shock etc.). In addition, the location of the burn is a major issue with the patient in option B. The burns are on the head and neck and front and back of the torso. Therefore, with head and neck burns always think about respiratory issues because the airway can become compromised due to swelling or an inhalation injury. And with torso burns that are on the front and back, the patient is at risk for circumferential burns that can lead to further respiratory compromise. The other options have burns that are isolated.

The wounded victim is unable to walk, has respiratory rate of 12, capillary refill is 8 seconds, and is unresponsive. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color? A. Green B. Red C. Yellow D. Black

The answer is B: Red.

The wounded victim is unable to walk, has respiratory rate of 40, capillary refill is 6 seconds, and can't follow simple commands. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color? A. Green B. Red C. Yellow D. Black

The answer is B: Red.

The wounded victim is unable to walk, respiratory rate is absent but when airway is repositioned breathing is noted. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color? A. Green B. Red C. Yellow D. Black

The answer is B: Red.

While triaging the wounded from a disaster, you note that one of the wounded is not breathing, radial pulse is absent, capillary refill >2 seconds, and does not respond to your commands. What color tag is assigned? A. Green B. Red C. Yellow D. Black

The answer is D: Black. The black tag is placed on the wounded that are dying or have expired. The injuries are so severe that death is imminent. There is severe alteration or absence of breathing, circulation, and neuro status.

Which statement would the nurse associate with repaglinide? Patients may take repaglinide without regard to food. Repaglinide is effective in people with type 1 and type 2 diabetes. The medication increases the secretion of insulin from the pancreas. This drug works best when taken before the first meal of the day.

The medication increases the secretion of insulin from the pancreas. Rationale Repaglinide is a short-acting oral hypoglycemic agent that works by increasing insulin secretion from the pancreas. The patient should not take this medication if he or she skips a meal. Only patients with type 2 diabetes take this medication. Patients should take repaglinide three times daily, 1 to 30 minutes before each meal. p. 1277

The nurse is caring for a patient 1 day after the patient experienced a stroke. The patient is fully alert and has weakness of the right side of the body. Which assessment finding indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? The patient is no longer oriented to place. The patient reports numbness of the right leg. The patient has developed urinary incontinence. The patient has a blood pressure (BP) of 90/62 mm Hg.

The patient is no longer oriented to place. Rationale The patient with a recent stroke is at risk for increased ICP because of cerebral edema or ongoing intracranial hemorrhage. The first indication of increasing ICP is a change in the level of consciousness. If the patient is confused and disoriented to place, it indicates an increased ICP, and the primary health care provider should be notified immediately. Urinary incontinence in the patient may indicate focal deficit. Numbness in the right leg may be due to weakness and may be an effect of the stroke, but it does not indicate an increased ICP. A BP of 90/62 mm Hg indicates hypotension. Hypertension is a key feature of increased ICP. p. 907

Which statement describes the symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? They typically resolve within 30 to 60 minutes. They are limited to the speech area. They manifest in the upper extremities. They last longer than 24 hours but less than a week.

They typically resolve within 30 to 60 minutes. Rationale By definition, the symptoms of a TIA resolve typically within 30 to 60 minutes. TIA symptoms can manifest as weakness in the arms, hands, or legs, and gait disturbance is typical. Speech deficits (aphasia, dysarthria) can result from TIA, but symptoms are not limited to this area. Typically, symptoms of a TIA resolve within 30 to 60 minutes but may last as long as 24 hours; they do not usually last for more than 24 hours. p. 898

When (at which time) will the nurse plan to monitor for hypoglycemia in a client with type 1 diabetes received regular insulin at 7:00 a.m.? 7:30 a.m. 7:30 p.m. 11:00 a.m. 2:00 p.m.

11:00 a.m .Regular insulin is a short-acting type of insulin. Onset of action to regular insulin is ½ to 1 hour. The peak effect time is when hypoglycemia may start to occur. Peak time for regular insulin is 2 to 4 hours. Therefore, 11:00 a.m. is the anticipated peak time for regular insulin received at 7:00 a.m. The other options for peak times for regular insulin are incorrect.

An emergency department nurse assesses a client admitted after a lightning strike. The client is awake but somewhat confused. Which assessment would the nurse complete first? a. Electrocardiogram (ECG) b. Wound inspection c. Creatinine kinase d. Computed tomography of head

ANS: A Clients who survive a lightning strike can have serious myocardial injury, which can be manifested by ECG and myocardial perfusion abnormalities. The nurse would prioritize the ECG over the other assessments which would be completed later.

While on a camping trip, a nurse cares for an adult client who had a drowning incident in a lake and is experiencing agonal breathing with a palpable pulse. What action would the nurse take first? a. Deliver rescue breaths. b. Wrap the client in dry blankets. c. Assess for signs of bleeding. d. Check for a carotid pulse.

ANS: A In this emergency situation, the nurse immediately initiates airway clearance and ventilator support measures, including delivering rescue breaths.

A client admitted to the emergency department following a lightning strike. What is the priority assessment the nurse focuses on? a. Cardiopulmonary b. Integumentary c. Peripheral vascular d. Renal

ANS: A Lightning strikes can profoundly affect the cardiopulmonary and the central nervous system as a serious cardiac and/or respiratory arrest. The nurse would be alert for reports of chest pain and would watch for dysrhythmias on the cardiac monitor. As impairment of the respiratory center can also be affected, the nurse would assess the respiratory system second

A nurse teaches a community health class about water safety. Which statement by a participant indicates that additional teaching is needed? a. "I can go swimming all by myself because I am a certified lifeguard." b. "I cannot leave my toddler alone in the bathtub for even a minute." c. "I will appoint one adult to supervise the pool at all times during a party." d. "I will make sure that there is a phone near my pool in case of an emergency."

ANS: A People would never swim alone, regardless of lifeguard status. The other statements indicate good understanding of the teaching.

What is the primary goal of a triage system used by the nurse with clients presenting to the emergency department? a. Determine the acuity of the client's condition to determine priority of care. b. Assess the status of the airway, breathing, circulation, or presence of deficits. c. Determine whether the client is responsive enough to provide needed information. d. Evaluate the emergency department's resources to adequately treat the patient.

ANS: A ED triage is an organized system for sorting and classifying clients into priority levels depending on illness or injury severity. The primary goal of the triage system is to facilitate the ED nurse's ability to prioritize care according to the acuity of the patient, having the clients with the more severe illness or injury seen first. Airway, breathing, and circulation are part of the primary survey. Determining responsiveness is done during the disability phase of the primary survey and is not the primary goal. Evaluating the ED's resources is also not a goal of triage.

A nurse wants to become involved in community disaster preparedness and is interested in helping setup and staff first-aid stations or community acute care centers in the event of a disaster. Which organization is the best fit for this nurse's interests? a. The Medical Reserve Corps b. The National Guard c. The health department d. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team

ANS: A The Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) consists of volunteer medical and public health care professionals who support the community during times of need. They may help staff hospitals, establish first-aid stations or special needs shelters, or set up acute care centers in the community. The National Guard often performs search-and-rescue operations and law enforcement. The health department focuses on communicable disease tracking, treatment, and prevention. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team is deployed to a disaster area for up to 72 hours, providing many types of relief services.

The nurse gets the hand-off report on four clients. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client with a blood pressure change of 128/74 to 110/88 mm Hg b. Client with oxygen saturation unchanged at 94% c. Client with a pulse change of 100 to 88 beats/min d. Client with urine output of 40 mL/hr for the last 2 hours

ANS: A This client has a falling systolic blood pressure, rising diastolic blood pressure, and narrowing pulse pressure, all of which may be indications of worsening perfusion status and possible shock. The nurse would assess this client first. The client with the unchanged oxygen saturation is stable at this point. Although the client with a change in pulse has a slower rate, it is not an indicator of shock since the pulse is still within the normal range; it may indicate that the client's pain or anxiety has been relieved, or he or she is sleeping or relaxing. A urine output of 40 mL/hr is above the normal range, which is 30 mL/hr.

A client is admitted with a possible diagnosis of diabetes insipidus (DI). What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypotension b. Increased urinary output c. Concentrated urine d. Decreased thirst e. Poor skin turgor f. Bradycardia

ANS: A, B, E The client who has DI has excessive urination and dehydration. Clients who are dehydrated have decreased blood pressure, increased pulse (tachycardia), and poor skin turgor. The urine is dilute with a low specific gravity.

An emergency department nurse moves to a new city where heat-related illnesses are common. Which clients does the nurse anticipate being at highest risk for heat-related illnesses? (Select all that apply.) a. Homeless individuals b. People with substance abuse disorders c. Caucasians d. Hockey players e. Older adults f. Obese individuals

ANS: A, B, E, F Some of the most vulnerable, at-risk populations for heat-related illness include older adults; people who work outside, such as construction and agricultural workers; homeless people; people who abuse substances; outdoor athletes (recreational and professional); and members of the military who are stationed in countries with hot climates (e.g., Iraq, Afghanistan). Hockey is generally a cold-air game whether played indoors or outdoors and wouldn't have as much risk for heat-related illness as other sports.

Emergency medical services (EMS) brings a large number of clients to the emergency department following a mass casualty incident. The nurse identifies the clients with which injuries with yellow tags? (Select all that apply.) a. Partial-thickness burns covering both legs b. Open fractures of both legs with absent pedal pulses c. Neck injury and numbness of both legs d. Small pieces of shrapnel embedded in both eyes e. Head injury and difficult to arouse f. Bruising and pain in the right lower abdomen

ANS: A, C, D, F Clients with burns, spine injuries, eye injuries, and stable abdominal injuries would be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours, and therefore would be identified with yellow tags. The client with the open fractures and the client with the head injury would be classified as urgent with red tags.

A nurse is in charge of a first-aid tent at an all-day outdoor sports event on a hot and humid day. A participant comes to the tent reporting a headache, weakness, and nausea. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Have the client lie down in a cool place. b. Force fluids with large quantities of plain water. c. Administer acetaminophen and send home. d. Apply cold packs to neck, arm pits, and groin. e. Encourage drinking a sports drink. f. Remove all clothing and cover with a towel.

ANS: A, D, E Heat exhaustion manifests as flulike symptoms with headache, weakness, nausea, and/or vomiting. Treatment includes stopping the activity, moving to a cool place, and using cooling measures such as cold packs, cool water soaks, or fanning while spraying cool water on skin. Sodium deficits may occur from drinking plain water, so sports drinks or an oral rehydration therapy solution would be provided. The nurse would remove constrictive clothing only

An emergency department nurse plans care for a client who is admitted with heat stroke. Which interventions does the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer oxygen via mask or nasal cannula. b. Administer ibuprofen, an antipyretic medication. c. Apply cooling techniques until core body temperature is less than 101° F (38.3° C). d. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride via a large-bore intravenous cannula. e. Obtain baseline serum electrolytes and cardiac enzymes. f. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for urine output measurements.

ANS: A, D, E, F Heat stroke is a medical emergency. Oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids would be provided, and baseline laboratory tests would be performed as quickly as possible. Urinary output is measured via an indwelling urinary catheter. The client would be cooled until core body temperature is reduced to 102° F (38.9° C). Antipyretics would not be administered.

A nurse is evaluating levels and functions of trauma centers. Which function is appropriately paired with the level of the trauma center? a. Level I—located within remote areas and provides advanced life support within resource capabilities b. Level II—located within community hospitals and provides care to most injured clients c. Level III—located in rural communities and provides only basic care to clients d. Level IV—located in large teaching hospitals and provides a full continuum of trauma care for all clients

ANS: B Level I trauma centers are usually located in large teaching hospital systems and provide a full continuum of trauma care for all clients. Both Level II and Level III facilities are usually located in community hospitals. These trauma centers provide care for most clients and transport to Level I centers when client needs exceed resource capabilities. Level IV trauma centers are usually located in rural and remote areas. These centers provide basic care, stabilization, and advanced life support while transfer arrangements to higher level trauma centers are made.

A nurse is caring for a client who suffered massive blood loss after trauma. How does the nurse correlate the blood loss with the client's mean arterial pressure (MAP)? a. It causes vasoconstriction and increased MAP. b. Lower blood volume lowers MAP. c. There is no direct correlation to MAP. d. It raises cardiac output and MAP.

ANS: B Lower blood volume will decrease MAP. The other answers are not accurate.

A nurse answers a call light and finds a client anxious, short of breath, reporting chest pain, and has a blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the client's lung sounds. b. Notify the Rapid Response Team. c. Provide reassurance to the client. d. Take a full set of vital signs.

ANS: B This client has signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism, and the most critical action is to notify the Rapid Response Team for speedy diagnosis and treatment. The other actions are appropriate also but are not the priority.

The charge nurse is orienting a new nurse about care for an assigned client with an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis in her left arm. Which action by the float nurse would be considered unsafe? a. Palpating the access site for a bruit or thrill b. Using the right arm for a blood pressure reading c. Administering intravenous fluids through the AV fistula d. Checking distal pulses in the left arm

ANS: C The nurse would not use the arm with the AV fistula for intravenous infusion, blood pressure readings, or venipuncture. Compression and infection can result in the loss of the AV fistula. The AV fistula would be monitored by auscultating or palpating the access site. Checking the distal pulse would be an appropriate assessment.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client would be considered "urgent"? a. A 20-year-old female with a chest stab wound and tachycardia b. A 45-year-old homeless man with a skin rash and sore throat c. A 75-year-old female with a cough and a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C) d. A 50-year-old male with new-onset confusion and slurred speech

ANS: C A client with a cough and a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C) is urgent. This client is at risk for deterioration and needs to be seen quickly, but is not in an immediately life-threatening situation. The client with a chest stab wound and tachycardia and the client with new-onset confusion and slurred speech would be triaged as emergent. The client with a skin rash and a sore throat is not at risk for deterioration and would be triaged as nonurgent.

A client with MODS has been started on dobutamine. What assessment finding requires the nurse to communicate with the primary health care provider immediately? a. Blood pressure of 98/68 mm Hg b. Pedal pulses 1+/4+ bilaterally c. Report of chest heaviness d. Urine output of 32 mL/hr

ANS: C Chest heaviness or pain indicates myocardial ischemia, a possible adverse effect of dobutamine. While taking dobutamine, the oxygen requirements of the heart are increased due to increased myocardial workload, and may cause ischemia. Without knowing the client's previous blood pressure or pedal pulses, there is not enough information to determine if these are an improvement or not. A urine output of 32 mL/hr is acceptable.

A nurse is assisting the primary health care provider (PHCP) who is intubating a client. The PHCP has been attempting to intubate for 40 seconds. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ensure that the client has adequate sedation. b. Find another qualified provider to intubate. c. Interrupt the procedure to give oxygen. d. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation.

ANS: C Each intubation attempt should not exceed 30 seconds (15 is preferable) as it causes hypoxia. The nurse would interrupt the intubation attempt and give the client oxygen. The nurse would also have adequate sedation during the procedure and monitor the client's oxygen saturation, but these do not take priority. Finding another qualified provider to intubate the client is not appropriate at this time.

A client is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding would require immediate action by the nurse? a. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L) b. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L) c. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg d. Pulse rate of 88 beats/min

ANS: C Hypotension can be a problem with CVVH if replacement fluid does not provide enough volume to maintain blood pressure. The nurse needs to monitor for ongoing fluid and electrolyte replacement. The sodium level is normal and the potassium level is slightly elevated, which could be normal findings for someone with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 88 beats/min is within usual limits

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) who will be receiving sodium nitroprusside via IV infusion. What action by the nurse causes the charge nurse to intervene? a. Assessing the IV site before giving the drug b. Obtaining a programmable ("smart") IV pump c. Removing the IV bag from the brown plastic cover d. Taking and recording a baseline set of vital signs

ANS: C Nitroprusside degrades in the presence of light, so it must be protected by leaving it in the original brown plastic bag when infusing. The other actions are correct

An emergency department (ED) charge nurse prepares to receive clients from a mass casualty within the community. What is the role of this nurse during the event? a. Ask nursing staff to discharge clients from the medical-surgical units in order to make room for critically injured victims. b. Call additional medical-surgical and critical care nursing staff to come to the hospital to assist when victims are brought in. c. Inform the incident commander at the mass casualty scene about how many victims may be handled by the ED. d. Direct medical-surgical and critical care nurses to assist with clients currently in the ED while emergency staff prepare to receive the mass casualty victims.

ANS: D The ED charge nurse would direct additional nursing staff to help care for current ED clients while the ED staff prepares to receive mass casualty victims; however, they would not be assigned to the most critically ill or injured clients. The hospital incident commander's role is to take a global view of the entire situation and facilitate patient movement through the system, while bringing in personnel and supply resources to meet patient needs. The medical command physician would kept the incident commander informed about victims and capacity of the ED.

A client is being treated for diabetes insipidus (DI) with synthetic vasopressin (desmopressin). What is the priority health teaching that the nurse provides regarding drug therapy? a. The need to check the client's urinary specific gravity. b. The need to take blood pressure at least twice a day. c. The need to monitor blood glucose every day. d. The need to weigh every day and report weight gain.

ANS: D The client with DI who takes lifelong hormone replacement will need to report significant weight gain to monitor for water toxicity. Water toxicity causes headache, vomiting, and acute confusion.

The wounded victim is unable to walk, has respiratory rate of 19, capillary refill of one second, and is able to obey your commands. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color? A. Green B. Red C. Yellow D. Black

The answer is C: Yellow.

A 154-lb (70-kg) patient receiving manual ventilation is becoming agitated and restless. The nurse determines that the endotracheal tube is in place and notes an oxygen saturation of 97%. Ventilator settings include a pressure of 12 cm H O, a tidal volume of 600 mL, and a flow rate of 30 L/min. Which action would the nurse take? Reassure the patient that this is typical of "ICU psychosis." Contact the health care provider to discuss increasing the tidal volume. Increase the oxygen flow rate, and reassess the patient. Notify the health care provider that this patient is ready to be weaned from the ventilator.

increase the flow rate and then reassess the patient. Rationale The first step when a patient becomes agitated or restless, after checking the ventilator settings, is to increase the flow rate and then reassess the patient. This patient's tidal volume is appropriate. Patients who are ready to be weaned from the ventilator make respiratory efforts against the ventilator. These are not necessarily signsof delirium typical of ICU psychosis, and the nurse should first attempt to evaluate the cause of the agitation.

Which patient statement indicates understanding of the nurse's teachings related to a newly prescribed medication, insulin glargine? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. "I will administer it subcutaneously." "I cannot mix this with other insulins." "The insulin will start working in 2 to 4 hours." "I will take this before meals and at bedtime." "If I am hospitalized, I can receive this medication IV."

"I will administer it subcutaneously." "I cannot mix this with other insulins." "The insulin will start working in 2 to 4 hours." Rationale Patients administer insulin glargine subcutaneously. The medication cannot mix with other insulins. The insulin begins working in 2 to 4 hours. Administration of insulin glargine occurs once daily and lasts for 24 hours. This medication is not administered IV. pp. 1278-1279

How will the nurse reply when a client with type 2 diabetes tells the nurse that he would like to have a 12-ounce glass of beer with supper but believes that is now impossible? "You can have a beer with a meal if you test yourself for hypoglycemia an hour later." "You can have a beer with a meal if you test yourself for hyperglycemia an hour later." "There are nonalcoholic beers available that you can substitute for a regular beer." "If you gave up dessert, you can still have one beer."

"You can have a beer with a meal if you test yourself for hypoglycemia an hour later." Alcohol consumption contributes to hypoglycemia. This risk is reduced if the alcohol is consumed with or shortly after a meal. The client is instructed to check blood glucose levels about an hour after alcohol is consumed to determine if either more food is needed or if insulin dosage needs to be adjusted.

When a patient with diabetes mellitus received insulin aspart at 8:00 a.m., at which time would the nurse anticipate a potential hypoglycemic event to occur? 8:30 a.m. 4:00 p.m. 8:30 p.m. 11:00 a.m.

11:00 a.m. Rationale Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes, a peak in 1 to 3 hours, and a duration of action of 3 to 5 hours. Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely during the peak action of the medication. In this case, the time would be at 11:00 a.m.

After a patient receives discharge instructions about managing hypoglycemia at home, which patient food selection to treat mild hypoglycemia demonstrates effective teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 2 hard candies 6 saltine crackers 1 cup of fruit juice 3 graham crackers 4 teaspoons of sugar

6 saltine crackers 3 graham crackers 4 teaspoons of sugar Rationale A blood glucose level of less than 70 mg/dL is hypoglycemia. Food selections for treatment of mild hypoglycemia (blood sugar between 70 and 40 mg/dL) include 6 saltine crackers, 3 graham crackers, or 4 teaspoons of sugar. Two hard candies are not enough. One cup of fruit juice is too much. p. 1291

The nurse has just received report on a group of clients. Which client is the nurse's first priority? A 50 year old taking repaglinide who has nausea and back pain. A 55 year old taking pioglitazone who has bilateral ankle swelling. A 45 year old taking metformin who has abdominal cramps. A 40 year old taking glyburide who is dizzy and sweaty.

A 40 year old taking glyburide who is dizzy and sweaty. The nurse needs to first assess the client taking glyburide who is dizzy and sweaty and has symptoms consistent with hypoglycemia. Because hypoglycemia is the most serious adverse effect of antidiabetic medications, this client must be assessed as soon as possible.Nausea is a documented side effect of repaglinide. Checking the client's back pain requires assessment, which can be performed after the nurse assesses the client displaying signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Metformin may cause abdominal cramping and diarrhea, but the client taking it does not require immediate assessment. Ankle swelling is an expected side effect of pioglitazone.

The nurse assesses a client with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which assessment finding would the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Increased rate and depth of respiration b. Extremity tremors followed by seizure activity c. Oral temperature of 102° F (38.9° C) d. Severe orthostatic hypotension

ANS: A Ketoacidosis decreases the pH of the blood, stimulating the respiratory control areas of the brain to buffer the effects of increasing acidosis. The rate and depth of respiration are increased (Kussmaul respirations) in an attempt to excrete more acids by exhalation. Tremors, elevated temperature, and orthostatic hypotension are not associated with ketoacidosis

A client is admitted with a sudden decline in level of consciousness. What is the nursing action at this time? a. Assess the client for hypoglycemia and hypoxia. b. Place the client on his or her side. c. Prepare for administration of a fibrinolytic agent. d. Start a continuous IV heparin sodium infusion.

ANS: A The cause of a sudden decline in level of consciousness may or may not be related to a neurologic health problem. Therefore, the client must be evaluated for other common causes, especially hypoglycemia and hypoxia. Placing the client on his or her side may be helpful to prevent aspiration in case the client experiences vomiting, but the clinical situation does not indicate that the client has nausea or vomiting. Administering either an anticoagulant like heparin or a fibrinolytic agent assumes that the client has an acute ischemic stroke, which has not been confirmed through imaging tests.

A nurse assesses a client who has diabetes mellitus and notes that the client is awake and alert, but shaky, diaphoretic, and weak. Five minutes after administering a half-cup (120 mL) of orange juice, the client's signs and symptoms have not changed. What action would the nurse take next? a. Administer another half-cup (120 mL) of orange juice. b. Administer a half-ampule of dextrose 50% intravenously. c. Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously. d. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly.

ANS: A This patient is experiencing mild hypoglycemia. For mild hypoglycemic manifestations, the nurse would administer oral glucose in the form of orange juice. If the symptoms do not resolve immediately, the treatment would be repeated. The patient does not need intravenous dextrose, insulin, or glucagon.

A 70-kg adult client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is on a 40-g protein diet. The patient has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would be of most concern to the nurse? a. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL (3.63 mcmol/L) b. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL (1.62 mmol/L) c. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) d. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L)

ANS: A Protein restriction is necessary with CKD due to the buildup of waste products from protein breakdown. The nurse would be concerned with the low albumin level since this indicates that the protein in the diet is not enough for the client's metabolic needs. The electrolyte values are not related to the protein-restricted diet

A client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL (1944 mcmol/L) and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 24 mL/dL (8.57 mmol/L). What question would the nurse ask first when taking this client's history? a. "Have you been taking any aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen recently?" b. "Do you have anyone in your family with renal failure?" c. "Have you had a diet that is low in protein recently?" d. "Has a relative had a kidney transplant lately?"

ANS: A There are some medications that are nephrotoxic, such as the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ibuprofen, aspirin, and naproxen. This would be a good question to initially ask the patient since both the serum creatinine and BUN are elevated, indicating some renal problems. A diet high in protein could be a factor in an increased BUN

A client has been diagnosed with a very large pulmonary embolism (PE) and has a dropping blood pressure. What medication would the nurse being most beneficial? a. Alteplase b. Enoxaparin c. Unfractionated heparin d. Warfarin sodium

ANS: A Alteplase is a "clot-busting" agent indicated in large PEs in the setting of hemodynamic instability. The nurse knows that this drug is the priority, although heparin may be started initially. Enoxaparin and warfarin are not indicated in this setting.

A nurse is constructing a personal preparedness plan in case of a disaster. What does the nurse consider in making this plan? a. Store basic supplies to last for at least 3 days. b. Have short-term arrangements for child care. c. Store enough frozen foods in freezer for 5 days. d. Keep cooking utensils needed in a separate bag.

ANS: A Concerns for their home and family can impact the willingness to report in an emergency and can be diminished by being prepared with a personal preparedness plan with enough supplies for 3 days. Any food needs to be nonperishable with no cooking required.Arrangements for children, pets, or older adults would be made for extended period of time.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an elevated serum phosphorus level. What drug would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for this client? a. Calcium acetate b. Doxycyline c. Magnesium sulfate d. Lisinopril

ANS: A The client with CKD often has a high phosphorus level which tends to lower the calcium level in an inverse relationship, and causes osteodystrophy. To prevent this bone disease, the client needs to take a drug that can bind with phosphorus for elimination via the GI tract. When phosphorus is lowered to within normal limits, normal calcium levels may be restored.

The nurse would recognize which signs and symptoms as consistent with brainstem tumors? (Select all that apply.) a. Hearing loss b. Facial pain c. Nystagmus d. Vomiting e. Hemiparesis

ANS: A, B, C Hearing loss (CN VIII), facial pain (CN V), and nystagmus (CN III, IV, and VI) all are indicative of a brainstem tumor because these cranial nerves originate in the brainstem. Vomiting and hemiparesis are more indicative of cerebral tumors

The nurse is caring for five clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which clients would the nurse consider to be at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury (AKI)? (Select all that apply.) a. Client with prostate cancer b. Client with blood clots in the urinary tract c. Client with ureterolithiasis d. Client with severe burns e. Client with lupus

ANS: A, B, C Urine flow obstruction, such as prostate cancer, blood clots in the urinary tract, and kidney stones (ureterolithiasis), causes postrenal AKI. Severe burns would be a prerenal cause. Lupus would be an intrarenal cause for AKI.

A client resuscitated after drowning is admitted to the emergency department. What assessment findings does the nurse recognize as symptoms of a drowning? (Select all that apply.) a. Bilateral crackles b. Bradycardia c. Cyanosis of the lips d. Hypotension e. Flushed, diaphoretic skin

ANS: A, B, C, D Drowning victims will exhibit signs of pulmonary edema which includes crackles in one or both lungs, persistent dry cough, and cyanosis of the lips and/or nail beds. The diving reflex as a response to asphyxia produces bradycardia, signs of decreased cardiac output with hypotension, and vasoconstriction of vessels in the intestine, skeletal muscles, and kidneys.

The nurse caring for mechanically ventilated clients uses best practices to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. What actions are included in this practice? (Select all that apply.) a. Adherence to proper hand hygiene b. Administering antiulcer medication c. Elevating the head of the bed d. Providing oral care per protocol e. Suctioning the client on a regular schedule f. Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours

ANS: A, B, C, D, F The "ventilator bundle" is a group of care measures to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. Actions in the bundle include using proper hand hygiene, giving antiulcer medications, elevating the head of the bed, providing frequent oral care per policy, preventing aspiration, turning and positioning, and providing pulmonary hygiene measures. Suctioning is done as needed.

A new graduate nurse has started working on a medical-surgical unit. What actions would the nurse take to be prepared for a disaster? (Select all that apply.) a. Know the institution's Emergency Response Plan. b. Participate in the institution's disaster drill. c. Develop a personal preparedness plan. d. Understand that nurses play a role in every phase of a disaster. e. Be prepared to report immediately to the emergency department. f. Be willing to be flexible working during a crisis situation.

ANS: A, B, C, D, F Nurses play a major role in disaster and need to be prepared for any type of disaster. Knowing the institution's emergency management plan and participating in disaster drills will help the nurse be prepared for a disaster. Concerns for their home and family can impact the willingness to report in an emergency and can be diminished by being prepared with a personal preparedness plan. Nurses play key roles before, during, and after a disaster in the development of emergency management plan in defining specific nursing roles. During a crisis, nurses may be assigned to different areas of the facility or to different job functions and must remain flexible while working to their best ability.

The nurse learns that which age-related changes increase the potential for complications of burns? (Select all that apply.) a. Thinner skin b. Slower healing time c. Decreased mobility d. Hyperresponsive immune response e. Increased risk of unnoticed sepsis f. Pre-existing conditions

ANS: A, B, C, E, F Age-related differences that can increase the risk of burns and complications of burns include thinner skin, slower healing, decreased mobility, increased risk of infection that goes unnoticed, and pre-existing conditions that can complicate recovery. The older adult has decreased inflammatory and immune responses

The nurse is caring for a client with suspected septic shock. What does the nurse prepare to do within 1 hour of the client being identified as possibly having sepsis? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer antibiotics. b. Draw serum lactate levels. c. Infuse vasopressors. d. Measure central venous pressure. e. Obtain blood cultures. f. Administer rapid bolus of IV crystalloids.

ANS: A, B, C, E, F Within the first hour of suspecting severe sepsis, the nurse would draw (or facilitate) serum lactate levels, obtain blood cultures (or other cultures), administer antibiotics (after the cultures have been obtained), begin rapid administration of 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate ≥4 mmol/L. and administer vasopressors if hypotensive during or after fluid resuscitation to maintain a mean arterial pressure ≥ 65 mm Hg. Initiating hemodynamic monitoring would be done after these "bundle" measures have been accomplished.

A client is receiving IV alteplase and reports a sudden severe headache. What is the nurse's first action? a. Perform a comprehensive pain assessment. b. Discontinue the infusion of the drug. c. Conduct a neurologic assessment. d. Administer an antihypertensive drug.

ANS: B A severe headache may indicate that the client's blood pressure has markedly increased and, therefore, the drug should be stopped immediately as the first action. The nurse would then perform the appropriate assessments and possibly administer an antihypertensive medication.

The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action(s) by the nurse is (are) most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Hang the blood product using normal saline and a filtered tubing set. b. Take a full set of vital signs prior to starting the blood transfusion. c. Tell the client that someone will remain at the bedside for the first 5 minutes. d. Use gloves to start the client's IV if needed and to handle the blood product. e. Verify the client's identity, and checking blood compatibility and expiration time.

ANS: A, B, D Correct actions prior to beginning a blood transfusion include hanging the product with saline and the correct filtered blood tubing, taking a full set of vital signs prior to starting, and using gloves. Someone stays with the client for the first 15 to 20 minutes of the transfusion. Two registered nurses must verify the client's identity and blood compatibility.

A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client's blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions would the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.) a. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow. b. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. c. Stop the hemodialysis treatment. d. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline. e. Contact the primary health care provider.

ANS: A, B, D Hypotension occurs often during hemodialysis treatments as a result of vasodilation from the warmed dialysate. Modest decreases in blood pressure, as is the case with this client, can be maintained with rate adjustment, Trendelenburg positioning, and a fluid bolus. If the blood pressure drops considerably after two boluses and cooling dialysate, the hemodialysis can be stopped and the primary health care provider contacted.

A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are correct regarding PD? (Select all that apply.) a. "You will not need vascular access to perform PD." b. "There is less restriction of protein and fluids." c. "You will have no risk for infection with PD." d. "You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges." e. "It takes less time than hemodialysis treatments.

ANS: A, B, D PD is based on exchanges of waste, fluid, and electrolytes in the peritoneal cavity. There is no need for vascular access. Protein is lost in the exchange, which allows for more protein and fluid in the diet. There is flexibility in the time for exchanges, but the treatment takes a longer period of time compared to hemodialysis. There still is risk for infection with PD, especially peritonitis.

The nurse in the emergency department would arrange to transfer which burned clients to a burn center? (Select all that apply.) a. 15% partial-thickness burn b. Lightening injury c. 7% partial-thickness burn d. History of pulmonary edema e. Healthy 67 year old f. 4% partial-thickness burn to perineum

ANS: A, B, D, E, F Clients with major burns are transferred to a burn center for specialized care. These include any partial-thickness burn over 10% TBSA; any lightening injury; a burn injury in a client with a history of pre-existing conditions that could complicate care or prolong recovery; adults over the age of 60; and burns to the face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, or major joints. The client with a 7% partial-thickness burn could be cared for in a hospital or a burn center.

The nurse is caring for a client receiving a unit of whole blood. Which nursing action(s) is (are) appropriate regarding infusion administration. (Select all that apply.) a. Use a dedicated filtered blood administration set. b. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 20 minutes of the infusion. c. Infuse the blood over a 30-minute period of time. d. Monitor and document vital signs per agency policy. e. Use a 21-gauge or smaller catheter to administer the blood. f. Infuse the transfusion with intravenous normal saline.

ANS: A, B, D, F Blood administration requires a dedicated and filtered intravenous set and a larger catheter or needle due to the viscosity of the infusion. Normal saline is the only IV fluid that is compatible with blood. Vital signs are frequently monitored and documented while the client is carefully assesses for signs and symptoms of a blood transfusion reaction, usually within the first 15 to 20 minutes. One unit of blood is administered in no less than 60 minutes.

A nurse is providing health education at a community center. Which instructions does the nurse include in teaching about prevention of lightning injuries during a storm? (Select all that apply.) a. Seek shelter inside a building or vehicle. b. Hide under a tall tree. c. Do not take a bath or shower. d. Turn off the television. e. Remove all body piercings. f. Put down golf clubs or gardening tools.

ANS: A, C, D, F When thunder is heard, individuals should seek shelter in a safe area such as a building or an enclosed vehicle. Electrical equipment such as TVs and stereos should be turned off. Stay away from plumbing, water, and metal objects such as golf clubs or gardening tools. Do not stand under an isolated tall tree or a structure such as a flagpole. Body piercings will not increase a person's chances of being struck by lightning.

Which assessment findings would indicate to the nurse that a client has suffered from a heat stroke? (Select all that apply.) a. Confusion and bizarre behavior b. Headache and fatigue c. Hypotension d. Presence of perspiration e. Tachycardia and tachypnea f. Body temperature more than 104° F (40° C)

ANS: A, C, E, F Signs and symptoms of heat stroke include as elevated body temperature (above 104° F [40° C]), mental status changes such as confusion and decreasing level of consciousness, hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea. Perspiration is an inconsistent finding.

A nurse triages clients arriving at the hospital after a mass casualty. Which clients are correctly classified? (Select all that apply.) a. A 35-year-old female with severe chest pain: red tag b. A 42-year-old male with full-thickness body burns: green tag c. A 55-year-old female with a scalp laceration: black tag d. A 60-year-old male with an open fracture with distal pulses: yellow tag e. An 88-year-old male with shortness of breath and chest bruises: green tag f. A 33-year-old male unconscious with bilateral leg amputations: yellow tag

ANS: A, D Red-tagged clients need immediate care due to life-threatening injuries. A client with severe chest pain would receive a red tag. Yellow-tagged clients have major injuries that need to be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours. A client with an open fracture with distal pulses would receive a yellow tag. The client with full-thickness body burns would receive a black tag. The client with a scalp laceration would receive a green tag, and the client with shortness of breath would receive a red tag. The client with the amputated legs will probably be black tagged if the unconsciousness is from massive blood loss

A nurse assesses the health history of a client who is prescribed ziconotide for chronic low back pain. Which assessment question would the nurse ask? a. "Are you taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug?" b. "Have you been diagnosed with a mental health problem?" c. "Are you able to swallow oral medications?" d. "Do you smoke cigarettes or any illegal drugs?"

ANS: B Clients who have a severe mental health or behavioral health problem would not take ziconotide because the drug can cause psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations. The other questions do not identify a contraindication for this medication.

A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from an open traditional cervical spinal fusion. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's postoperative instructions? a. "Only lift items that are 10 lb (4.5 kg) or less." b. "Wear your neck brace whenever you are out of bed." c. "You must remain in bed for 3 weeks after surgery." d. "You will be prescribed medications to prevent graft rejection."

ANS: B Clients who undergo spinal fusion are fitted with a neck brace that they must wear throughout the healing process whenever they are out of bed. The client should not lift anything more than 10 lb (4.5 kg). The client does not need to remain in bed. Medications for rejection prevention are not necessary for this procedure.

A nurse assesses a client with multiple sclerosis after administering prescribed fingolimod. For which common side effect would the nurse monitor? a. Peripheral edema b. Facial flushing c. Tachycardia d. Fever

ANS: B Fingolimod is an oral immunomodulator that has two common side effects—facial flushing and GI disturbance, such as diarrhea. Peripheral edema, tachycardia, and fever are not common side effects of this drug.

A nurse teaches a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol). Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Change positions slowly when you get out of bed." b. "Avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)." c. "If you miss a dose of this drug, you can double the next dose." d. "Discontinue the medication if you develop a urinary infection."

ANS: B NSAIDs potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of sulfonylurea agents. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea. The other statements are not applicable to glipizide.

The nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus. The nurse administers 6 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin at 7:00 a.m. (0700). At which time would the nurse assess the client for potential hypoglycemia related to the NPH insulin? a. 8:00 a.m. (0800) b. 4:00 p.m. (1600) c. 8:00 p.m. (2000) d. 11:00 p.m. (2300)

ANS: B Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) is an intermediate-acting insulin with an onset of 1.5 hours, peak of 4 to 12 hours, and duration of action of 22 hours. Checking the client at 0800 would be too soon. Checking the patient at 2000 and 2300 would be too late. The nurse would check the patient at 1600 (4:00 p.m.).

A client is scheduled for a percutaneous endoscopic lumbar discectomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should have a lot less pain after surgery." b. "I'll be in the hospital for 2 to 3 days." c. "I should not have any major surgical complications." d. "I could possibly get an infection after surgery."

ANS: B Percutaneous endoscopic discectomy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that requires a shorter hospital stay (23 hours or less) when compared to open traditional surgery. The risk for surgical complications is very low and clients experience less far pain from this procedure. However, due to interrupting skin integrity, infection may occur at the surgical site.

After a craniotomy, the nurse assesses the client and finds dry, sticky mucous membranes, acute confusion, and restlessness. The client has IV fluids running at 75 mL/hr. What action by the nurse would the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's urinary output. b. Assess the client's serum sodium level. c. Increase the rate of the IV infusion. d. Provide oral care every hour.

ANS: B This client has signs and symptoms of hypernatremia, which is a possible complication after craniotomy. The nurse would assess the client's serum sodium level first and then possibly increase the rate of the IV infusion. Providing oral care is also a good option but does not take priority over assessing laboratory results.

A client is in the emergency department reporting a brief episode during which he was dizzy, unable to speak, and felt numbness in his left leg. Currently the client's neurologic examination is normal. About what drug would the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. Alteplase b. Clopidogrel c. Heparin sodium d. Mannitol

ANS: B This client's signs and symptoms are consistent with a transient ischemic attack, and the client would likely be prescribed aspirin or clopidogrel to prevent platelet aggregation on discharge. Alteplase is used for ischemic stroke. Heparin and mannitol are not used for this condition.

A nurse assesses a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which arterial blood gas values would the nurse identify as potential ketoacidosis in this client? a. pH 7.38, HCO3− 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L), PCO2 38 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg b. pH 7.28, HCO3− 18 mEq/L (18 mmol/L), PCO2 28 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg c. pH 7.48, HCO3− 28 mEq/L (28 mmol/L), PCO2 38 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg d. pH 7.32, HCO3− 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L), PCO2 58 mm Hg, PO2 88 mm Hg

ANS: B When the lungs can no longer offset acidosis, the pH decreases to below normal. A client who has diabetic ketoacidosis would present with arterial blood gas values that show primary metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels and a compensatory respiratory alkalosis with decreased carbon dioxide levels.

The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition would the nurse expect to find in the patient's recent history? a. Pyelonephritis b. Dehydration c. Bladder cancer d. Kidney stones

ANS: B Prerenal causes of AKI are related to a decrease in perfusion, such as in clients who have prolonged dehydration. Pyelonephritis is an intrinsic or intrarenal cause of AKI related to kidney damage. Bladder cancer and kidney stones are postrenal causes of AKI related to urine flow obstruction.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department (ED). Which client would the nurse prioritize to receive care first? a. A 22 year old with a painful and swollen right wrist b. A 45 year old reporting chest pain and diaphoresis c. A 60 year old reporting difficulty swallowing and nausea d. An 81 year old, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min and temperature of 101° F (38.8° C)

ANS: B A client experiencing chest pain and diaphoresis would be classified as emergent and would be triaged immediately to a treatment room in the ED. The other clients are more stable.

A nurse is caring for several clients at risk for shock. Which laboratory value requires the nurse to communicate with the primary health care provider? a. Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL (68.6 mcmol/L) b. Lactate: 5.4 mg/dL (6 mmol/L) c. Sodium: 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) d. White blood cell count: 11,000/mm3 (11 × 109/L)

ANS: B A lactate level of 5.4 mg/dL (6 mmol/L) is high and is indicative of possible shock. A creatinine level of 0.9 mg/dL (68.6 mcmol/L) is normal. A sodium level of 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) is slightly high but does not need to be communicated. A white blood cell count of 11,000/mm3 (11 × 109/L) is slightly high but is not as critical as the lactate level.

A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What order would the nurse anticipate? a. Decrease the heparin rate. b. Increase the heparin rate. c. No change to the heparin rate. d. Stop heparin; start warfarin.

ANS: B For clients on heparin, a PTT of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value is needed to demonstrate that the heparin is working. A normal PTT is 25 to 35 seconds, so this client's PTT value is too low. The heparin rate needs to be increased. Warfarin is not indicated in this situation

A nurse is preparing to admit a client on mechanical ventilation for acute respiratory failure from the emergency department. What action does the nurse take first? a. Assessing that the ventilator settings are correct b. Ensuring that there is a bag-valve-mask in the room c. Obtaining personal protective equipment d. Planning to suction the client upon arrival to the room

ANS: B Having a bag-valve-mask device is critical in case the client needs manual breathing. The respiratory therapist is usually primarily responsible for setting up the ventilator, although the nurse would know and check the settings. Personal protective equipment is important, but ensuring client safety is the most important action. The client may or may not need suctioning on arrival.

A client with ARDS is receiving minimal amounts of IV fluids. The new nurse notes the client is scheduled to receive a diuretic at this time. The nurse consults the Staff Development Nurse to determine the best course of action. What will the new nurse do? a. Contact the primary health care provider. b. Give the ordered diuretic as scheduled. c. Request an increase in the IV rate. d. Calculate the client's 24-hour fluid balance.

ANS: B Research has shown that clients with ARDS may benefit from conservative fluid therapy along with diuretics to maintain fluid balance. The nurse will give the ordered diuretic as scheduled. There is no reason to contact the provider or request an increased IV rate. The nurse can calculate the 24-hour fluid balance, but this will not influence the administration of the medication.

On a hot humid day, an emergency department nurse is caring for a client who is confused and has these vital signs: temperature 104.1° F (40.1° C), pulse 132 beats/min, respirations 26 breaths/min, and blood pressure 106/66 mm Hg. What action would the nurse take? a. Encourage the client to drink cool water or sports drinks. b. Start an intravenous line and infuse 0.9% saline solution. c. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally. d. Encourage rest and reassess in 15 minutes

ANS: B The client demonstrates signs of heat stroke. This is a medical emergency and priority care includes oxygen therapy, IV infusion with 0.9% saline solution, insertion of a urinary catheter, and aggressive interventions to cool the patient, including external cooling and internal cooling methods. Oral hydration would not be appropriate for a client who has symptoms of heat stroke because oral fluids would not provide necessary rapid rehydration, and the confused client would be at risk for aspiration. Acetaminophen would not decrease this patient's temperature or improve the patient's symptoms. The client needs immediate medical treatment; therefore, rest and reassessing in 15 minutes are inappropriate.

A nurse is caring for a client on the medical stepdown unit. The following data are related to this client: Subjective Information: Shortness of breath for 20 minutes Reports feeling frightened "Can't catch my breath" Laboratory Analysis: pH: 7.32 PaCO2: 28 mm Hg PaO2: 78 mm Hg SaO2: 88% Physical Assessment: Pulse: 120 beats/min Respiratory rate: 34 breaths/min Blood pressure 158/92 mm Hg Lungs have crackles What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Call respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment. b. Facilitate a STAT pulmonary angiography. c. Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation. d. Prepare to administer intravenous anticoagulants.

ANS: B This client has signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism (PE); however, many conditions can cause the client's presentation. The gold standard for diagnosing a PE is pulmonary angiography. The nurse would facilitate this test as soon as possible. The client does not have wheezing, so a respiratory treatment is not needed. The client is not unstable enough to need intubation and mechanical ventilation. IV anticoagulants are not given without a diagnosis of PE.

A nurse is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which laboratory value possibly indicates that a serious side effect has occurred? a. Hemoglobin: 14.2 g/dL (142 g/L) b. Platelet count: 82,000/L (82 × 109/L) c. Red blood cell count: 4.8/mm3 (4.8 × 1012/L) d. White blood cell count: 8700/mm3 (8.7 × 109/L)

ANS: B This platelet count is low and could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. The other values are normal for either gender.

A client is having a peritoneal dialysis treatment. The nurse notes an opaque color to the effluent. What is the priority action by the nurse? a. Warm the dialysate solution in a microwave before instillation. b. Obtain a sample of the effluent and send to the laboratory. c. Flush the tubing with normal saline to maintain patency of the catheter. d. Check the peritoneal catheter for kinking and curling

ANS: B An opaque or cloudy effluent is the first sign of peritonitis. A sample of the effluent would need to be sent to the laboratory for culture and sensitivity in order to administer the correct antibiotic. Warming the dialysate in a microwave and flushing the tubing are not safe actions by the nurse. Checking the catheter for obstruction is a viable option but will not treat the peritonitis.

The nurse is teaching participants in a family-oriented community center ways to prevent their older relatives and friends from getting heat-related illnesses. What information does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Use sunscreen with an SPF of at least 15 when outdoors. b. Take cool baths or showers after outdoor activities. c. Check on the older adult daily in hot weather. d. Drink plenty of liquids throughout the day. e. Wear light-colored, snugly-fitting clothing to wick sweat away.

ANS: B, C, D To best prevent heat-related illnesses, the nurse would teach individuals to use sunscreen with at least an SPF of 30 for both UVA and UVB rays, to shower or bathe in cool water after being outdoors to reduce body heat, to remain hydrated, and to wear light-colored, loose-fitting clothes. Families and friends should check older adults at least twice a day during a heat wave; however, this may not prevent heat-related illness but could catch it quickly and limit its severity.

An emergency department nurse is caring for a trauma patient. Which interventions does the nurse perform during the primary survey? (Select all that apply.) a. Foley catheterization b. Needle decompression c. Initiating IV fluids d. Splinting open fractures e. Endotracheal intubation f. Removing wet clothing g. Laceration repair

ANS: B, C, E, F The primary survey for a trauma client organizes the approach to the client so that life-threatening injuries are rapidly identified and managed. The primary survey is based on the standard mnemonic ABC, with an added D and E: Airway and cervical spinal motion restriction; Breathing; Circulation; Disability; and Exposure. After the completion of primary diagnostic and laboratory studies, and the insertion of gastric and urinary tubes, the secondary survey (a complete head-to-toe assessment) can be carried out.

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I can continue to take antacids to relieve heartburn." b. "I need to ask for an antibiotic when scheduling a dental appointment." c. "I'll need to check my blood sugar often to prevent hypoglycemia." d. "The dose of my pain medication may have to be adjusted." e. "I should watch for bleeding when taking my anticoagulants."

ANS: B, C, D, E In discharge teaching, the nurse must emphasize that the client needs to have an antibiotic prophylactically before dental procedures to prevent infection. There may be a need for dose reduction in medications if the kidney is not excreting them properly (antacids with magnesium, antibiotics, antidiabetic drugs, insulin, opioids, and anticoagulants).

The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which priority complications would the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) a. Dehydration b. Anemia c. Hypertension d. Dysrhythmias e. Heart failure

ANS: B, C, D, E The client who has CKD has fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances, especially hyperkalemia, that can cause hypertension, heart failure, and dysrhythmias. Anemia results because erythropoietin production by the kidneys is decreased.

A nurse is caring for five clients. For which clients would the nurse assess a high risk for developing a pulmonary embolism (PE)? (Select all that apply.) a. Client who had a reaction to contrast dye yesterday b. Client with a new spinal cord injury on a rotating bed c. Middle-age client with an exacerbation of asthma d. Older client who is 1 day post-hip replacement surgery e. Young obese client with a fractured femur f. Middle-age adult with a history of deep vein thrombosis

ANS: B, D, E, F Conditions that place clients at higher risk of developing PE include prolonged immobility, central venous catheters, surgery, obesity, advancing age, conditions that increase blood clotting, history of thromboembolism, smoking, pregnancy, estrogen therapy, heart failure, stroke, cancer (particularly lung or prostate), and trauma. A contrast dye reaction and asthma pose no risk for PE.

A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client would the nurse classify as "nonurgent?" a. A 44 year old with chest pain and diaphoresis b. A 50 year old with chest trauma and absent breath sounds c. A 62 year old with a simple fracture of the left arm d. A 79 year old with a temperature of 104° F (40.0° C)

ANS: C A client in a nonurgent category can tolerate waiting several hours for health care services without a significant risk of clinical deterioration. The client with a simple arm fracture and palpable radial pulses is currently stable, is not at significant risk of clinical deterioration, and would be considered nonurgent. The client with chest pain and diaphoresis and the client with chest trauma are emergent owing to the potential for clinical deterioration and would be seen immediately. The client with a high fever may be stable now but also has a risk of deterioration.

A nurse cares for victims during a community-wide disaster drill. One of the victims asks, "Why are the individuals with black tags not receiving any care?" How does the nurse respond? a. "To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people, it is necessary to sacrifice some." b. "Not everyone will survive a disaster, so it is best to identify those people early and move on." c. "In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many others." d. "With black tags, volunteers can identify those who are dying and can give them comfort care."

ANS: C In a disaster, military-style triage is used; this approach identifies the dead or expectant dead with black tags. This practice helps to maintain the goal of triage, which is doing the most good for the most people. Precious resources are not used for those with overwhelming critical injury or illness, so that they can be allocated to others who have a reasonable expectation of survival. Victims are not "sacrificed." Telling victims that is important to move on after identifying the expectant dead does not provide an adequate explanation and is callous. Victims are not black-tagged to allow volunteers to give comfort care.

An elderly client who has fallen from a roof is transported to the emergency department by ambulance. The client was unconscious at the scene but is conscious on arrival and is triaged as urgent. What is the priority assessment the nurse includes during the primary survey of the patient? a. A full set of vital signs b. Cardiac rhythm c. Neurologic status d. Client history

ANS: C The primary survey for a trauma client organizes the approach to the client so that life-threatening injuries are rapidly identified and managed. Injuries from this type of fall have a high risk for cervical spine injuries. In addition, with the loss of consciousness at the scene the client would be at risk for head trauma. A full set of vital signs is obtained as part of the secondary survey. The cardiac rhythm is important but not specifically related to this client's presentation. Client history would be obtained as able.

A nurse is assessing a client who is suspected of having ARDS. The nurse is confused that although the client appears dyspneic and the oxygen saturation is 88% on 6 L/min of oxygen, the client's lungs are clear. What explanation does the more senior nurse provide? a. "The client is too dehydrated for moist-sounding lungs." b. "The client hasn't started having any bronchospasm yet." c. "Lung edema is in the interstitial tissues, not the airways." d. "Clients with ARDS usually have clear lung sounds."

ANS: C The clear lung sounds are due to the fact that the edema is found in the lung interstitial tissues, where it can't be auscultated, instead of in the airways. It is not related to the client being dehydrated or having bronchospasm. The statement about all clients with ARDS having clear lung sounds does not provide any information.

An emergency department nurse is triaging victims of a multi-casualty event. Which client would receive care first? a. A 30-year-old distraught mother holding her crying child b. A 65-year-old conscious male with a head laceration c. A 26-year-old male who has pale, cool, clammy skin d. A 48 year old with a simple fracture of the lower leg

ANS: C The client with pale, cool, clammy skin may be in shock and needs immediate medical attention. The mother does not have injuries and so would be the lowest priority. The other two people need medical attention soon, but not at the expense of a person in shock.

The nurse is preparing to give tolvaptan for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). For which potentially life-threatening adverse effect would the nurse monitor? a. Increased intracranial pressure b. Myocardial infarction c. Rapid-onset hypernatremia d. Bowel perforation

ANS: C Tolvaptan has a black box warning that rapid increases in serum sodium levels have been associated with central nervous system demyelination that can lead to serious complications and death.

An intubated client's oxygen saturation has dropped to 88%. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Determine if the tube is kinked. b. Ensure that all connections are patent. c. Listen to the client's lung sounds. d. Suction the endotracheal tube.

ANS: C When an intubated client shows signs of hypoxia, check for DOPE: displaced tube (most common cause), obstruction (often by secretions), pneumothorax, and equipment problems. The nurse listens for equal, bilateral breath sounds first to determine if the endotracheal tube is still correctly placed. If this assessment is normal, the nurse would follow the mnemonic and perform suction if needed, assess for pneumothorax, and finally check the equipment.

The nurse is teaching a client how to increase the flow of dialysate into the peritoneal cavity during dialysis. Which statement by the client demonstrates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should leave the drainage bag above the level of my abdomen." b. "I could flush the tubing with normal saline if the flow stops." c. "I should take a stool softener every morning to avoid constipation." d. "My diet should have low fiber in it to prevent any irritation."

ANS: C Inflow and outflow problems of the dialysate are best controlled by preventing constipation. A daily stool softener is the best option for the client. The drainage bag should be below the level of the abdomen. Flushing the tubing will not help with the flow. A diet high in fiber will also help with a constipation problem

The nurse is preparing to administer IV alteplase for a client diagnosed with an acute ischemic stroke. Which statement is correct about the administration of this drug? a. The recommended time for drug administration is within 90 minutes after admission to the emergency department. b. The drug is given in a bolus over the first 3 minutes followed by a continuous infusion. c. The maximum dosage of the drug, including the bolus, is 120 mg intravenously. d. The drug is not given to clients who are already on anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy.

ANS: D Alteplase is a thrombolytic which dissolves clots and can cause bleeding as an adverse effect. Clients who are already taking an anticoagulant or antiplatelet agent are at risk for bleeding and therefore they are not candidates for alteplase therapy.

The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about fluid restriction for a client who has acute kidney injury (AKI). The client's 24-hour urinary output is 120 mL. How much fluid would the client be allowed to have over the next 24 hours? a. 380 mL b. 500 mL c. 620 mL d. 750 mL

ANS: C The general principle for fluid restriction for clients is that they may have a daily fluid intake of 500 mL plus the amount of their urinary output. In this case, 120 mL urinary output plus 500 mL equals 620 mL fluid allowance.

The nurse is caring for four clients with traumatic brain injuries. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client with amnesia for the incident b. Client who has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 c. Client with a PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg and on a ventilator d. Client who has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C)

ANS: D A fever is a poor prognostic indicator in patients with brain injuries. The nurse should see this client first. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12, a PaCO2 of 36, and amnesia for the incident are all either expected or positive findings.

After teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed nateglinide, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the prescribed therapy? a. "I'll take this medicine during each of my meals." b. "I must take this medicine in the morning when I wake." c. "I will take this medicine before I go to bed." d. "I will take this medicine immediately before I eat."

ANS: D Nateglinide is an insulin secretagogue that is designed to increase meal-related insulin secretion. It should be taken immediately before each meal. The medication should not be taken without eating as it will decrease the client's blood glucose levels causing hypoglycemia. The medication should be taken before meals instead of during meals.

The nurse is caring for a newly admitted older adult who has a blood glucose of 300 mg/dL (16.7 mmol/L), a urine output of 185 mL in the past 8 hours, and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 44 mg/dL (15.7 mmol/L). What diabetic complication does the nurse suspect? a. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) b. Severe hypoglycemia c. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) d. Hyperglycemic-hyperosmolar state (HHS)

ANS: D The client most likely has diabetes mellitus type 2 and has a high blood glucose causing increased blood osmolarity and dehydration, as evidenced by an insufficient urinary output and increased BUN. Older adults are at the greatest risk for dehydration due to age-related physiologic changes.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a hemorrhagic stroke. Which assessment finding is the earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) for this client? a. Projectile vomiting b. Dilated and nonreactive pupils c. Severe hypertension d. Decreased level of consciousness

ANS: D The earliest sign of increasing ICP is decreased level of consciousness. The other signs occur later.

The nurse is taking a history from a daughter about her father's onset of stroke signs and symptoms. Which statement by the daughter indicates that the client likely had an embolic stroke? a. Client's symptoms occurred slowly over several hours. b. Client because increasingly lethargic and drowsy. c. Client reported severe headache before other symptoms. d. Client has a long history of atrial fibrillation.

ANS: D The major cause of embolic strokes is a history of heart disease, especially atrial fibrillation. Most clients who have an embolic stroke have acute sudden neurologic symptoms but stay alert rather than lethargic. Decreasing level of consciousness and severe headache are more common in clients who have hemorrhagic strokes.

A nurse cares for a client experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis who presents with Kussmaul respirations. What action would the nurse take? a. Administration of oxygen via facemask b. Intravenous administration of 10% glucose c. Implementation of seizure precautions d. Administration of intravenous insulin

ANS: D The rapid, deep respiratory efforts of Kussmaul respirations are the body's attempt to reduce the acids produced by using fat rather than glucose for fuel. Only the administration of insulin will reduce this type of respiration by assisting glucose to move into cells and to be used for fuel instead of fat. The patient who is in ketoacidosis may not experience any respiratory impairment and therefore does not need additional oxygen. Giving the patient glucose would be contraindicated. The patient does not require seizure precautions.

A client continues to have persistent low back pain even after using a number of nonpharmacologic pain management strategies. Which prescribed drug would the nurse anticipate that the client might need to manage the pain? a. Oxycontin b. Gabapentin c. Lorazepam d. Tramadol

ANS: D When nonpharmacologic strategies, including physical therapy, are not effective in managing pain, current standards recommend a mild opioid such as tramadol or serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Strong opioids such as oxycontin and benzodiazepines such as lorazepam are not considered best practice.

An emergency nurse is performing disaster triage following the crash of a 737 jetliner. Which patient does the nurse assign a black tag?​ ​ 26-year-old with confusion, yet ambulatory ​ 40-year-old with an open femur fracture ​ 54-year-old with facial lacerations​ 42-year-old with full-thickness burns to torso and extremities​ ​

ANS: D​ ​ Emergent (class I) patients are identified with a red tag; patients who can wait a short time for care (class II) are marked with a yellow tag; nonurgent or "walking wounded" (class III) patients are given a green tag; and patients who are expected to die or are dead are issued a black tag (class IV). Typical examples of black-tagged patients are those with massive head trauma, extensive full-thickness body burns, and high cervical spinal cord injury requiring mechanical ventilation. The rationale for this seemingly heartless decision is that limited resources must be dedicated to saving the most lives rather than expending valuable resources to save one life at the possible expense of many others.​

The nurse expects that which medication will be prescribed for a patient with an acute ischemic stroke whose onset of symptoms was 2 hours before hospitalization? Dopamine to maintain blood pressure Epinephrine to promote vasoconstriction Alteplase to prevent cerebral infarction Verapamil to prevent ventricular dysrhythmias

Alteplase to prevent cerebral infarction Rationale IV (systemic) fibrinolytic therapy (also called thrombolytic therapy) for an acute ischemic stroke dissolves the cranial artery occlusion to re-establish blood flow and prevent cerebral infarction. IV alteplase is the only drug approved at this time for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke. Dopamine would be contraindicated; a rise in blood pressure would increase the risk for complications. Epinephrine would not be indicated because vasoconstriction would lead to more symptoms. There is no evidence that the patient is experiencing a dysrhythmia. p. 906

While making rounds the nurse finds a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus pale, sweaty, slightly confused, and can still swallow. The client's blood glucose level check is 48 mg/dL (2.7 mmol/L). What is the nurse's best first action to prevent harm? Call the pharmacy and order a STAT does of glucagon Immediately give the client 30 grams of glucose orally Start an IV and administer 50 mL of a 50% dextrose solution Recheck the blood glucose level and call the rapid response team

Answer: B Rationale: The client's blood glucose level is seriously low and will get even lower quickly. Because the client can still swallow, giving 30 grams of glucose (following the 15-15 rule) is the best course of action. Obtaining a dose of glucagon from the pharmacy or starting an IV are too slow to prevent severe hypoglycemia. Just rechecking the blood glucose level without giving glucose is very dangerous when the client already has symptoms of hypoglycemia.

A client with diabetes who now has chronic albuminuria asks the nurse how this change will affect his health. How will the nurse answer this question? "You will need to limit your intake of dietary albumin and other proteins to reduce the albuminuria." "This change indicates beginning kidney problems and requires good blood glucose control to prevent more damage." "Your risk for developing urinary tract infections is greatly increased, requiring the need to take daily antibiotics for prevention." "From now on you will need to keep your fluid intake to just 1 L daily and completely avoid caffeine to protect your kidneys."

Answer: B Rationale: The microvascular complications of diabetes reduce kidney perfusion and damage the glomeruli, leading to chronic kidney disease. The first indication of this problem is chronic albuminuria from increased filtration of proteins through damage glomeruli. Although this problem cannot be reversed, the rate of progression can be slowed with tight glycemic control. With albuminuria, proteins are lost from the body and do need to be replaced, not restricted, at this stage. The risk for urinary tract infections is increased with glucose in the urine, not albumin or other protein. Reducing fluid intake has the potential to damage the kidneys further and is not helpful.

When preparing to administer a prescribed subcutaneous dose of NPH insulin from an open vial taken from a medication drawer to a client with diabetes, the nurse notes the solution is cloudy. What action will the nurse perform to ensure client safety? Warm the vial in a bowl of warm water until it reaches normal body temperature. Return the vial to the pharmacy and open a fresh vial of NPH insulin. Roll the vial between the hands until the insulin is clear. Check the expiration date and draw up the insulin dose.

Answer: D Rationale: The character of NPH insulin is uniformly cloudy. If the expiration date has not passed it can be safely used. Insulin should never be warmed by placing the vial in water.

The nurse reviewing the preadmission testing laboratory values for a 62-year-old client scheduled for a total knee replacement finds an A1C value of 6.2%. How will the nurse interpret this finding? The client's A1C is completely normal The client has type 1 diabetes mellitus The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus The client has prediabetes mellitus

Answer: D Rationale: The normal range for A1C (glycosylated hemoglobin A1c) is between 4% and 6%, with diabetes defined as a consistent level above 6.5%. However, clients whose AIC range between 5.7% and 6.4% are considered to have prediabetes with a greatly increased risk for development of actual diabetes mellitus within the next 5 years. Thus this value is not completely normal and is of concern. A1C levels do not distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes.

The nurse recognizes which condition when a patient experiences difficulty understanding spoken and written words and uses language that is meaningless? Mixed aphasia Global aphasia Receptive aphasia Expressive aphasia

Receptive aphasia Rationale Receptive aphasia occurs because of injury in the Wernicke area in the temporoparietal area. This leads to the patient having difficulty understanding spoken and written words, creating made-up words, and using meaningless speech. Mixed aphasia is difficulty in expression and reception, which includes difficulty speaking and writing. Global aphasia occurs because of severe damage in the receptive and expressive skills. Expressive aphasia occurs due to difficulty speaking and writing. p. 909

The nurse recognizes that which patient assessment finding is consistent with a stroke in the right hemisphere? Slowness Unawareness of any deficit Anger and frustration Deficit in the right visual field

Unawareness of any deficit Rationale As a result of right-hemisphere lesions, the patient may be impulsive and seemingly unaware of any deficit. Deficit in the right visual field, slowness, and anger and frustration are the symptoms of a left-hemisphere stroke. p. 911