Prevention/Treatment of Athletic Injuries Self-Test Questions
An athlete must be informed and able to vent any frustration during the rehabilitation process. T/F
True
Asthma is characterized by a spasm of the bronchial smooth muscles, edema, and inflammation of the mucous lining. T/F
True
Death is imminent if the core body temperature drops to between 77 degrees Fahrenheit and 85 degrees Fahrenheit. T/F
True
Injury may affect an athlete as much psychologically as it does physiologically. T/F
True
Myoglobin is found in the urine of individuals with acute exertional rhabdomyolysis. T/F
True
Overweight individuals have as much as 18 percent greater heat production than underweight individuals, because metabolic heat is produced proportionately to surface area. T/F
True
Part of an athlete's reaction to injury is a lost sense of belonging and a feeling of separation from teammates. T/F
True
Reproduction of viruses can take place only within a living cell. T/F
True
The condition of an ingrown toenail mostly affects the great toe. T/F
True
The longer the body temperature is elevated to 105 degrees Fahrenheit or higher, the higher the mortality rate. T/F
True
There are more than 100 different viruses that can cause a cold, and regardless of treatment most colds last for 5 to 10 days. T/F
True
Tinea cruris is commonly called "jock itch." T/F
True
True or False: A hyphema is a collection of blood within the anterior chamber of the eye.
True
True or False: Acute torticollis occurs when a small piece of synovial membrane is pinched between two cervical vertebrae.
True
True or False: As the spinal segments progress downward from the cervical region, they grow increasingly larger to accommodate the upright posture of the body and to contribute in weight bearing.
True
True or False: In second-impact syndrome, an athlete may receive a minor blow to the head, may look stunned, and then collapse in as little as 15 seconds.
True
True or False: In the context of a mandible fracture, the most frequently fractured area is near the jaw's frontal angle.
True
True or False: The cervical and lumbar regions of the spine allow for extension and flexion.
True
True or False: The epidermis provides a barrier against invading microorganisms, foreign particles from dirt and debris, chemicals, and ultraviolet rays.
True
Type I diabetes is commonly detected in individuals under 35 years of age. T/F
True
While a patient rehabilitates an injured body part, he or she should continue to condition unaffected body regions both aerobically and anaerobically. T/F
True
When a blow to the head produces an injury to the brain on the opposite side of the head, it is known as: a. A cerebral contusion b. A contrecoup injury c. An epidural hematoma d. A coup injury
a. A contrecoup injury
Hematuria in an athlete participating in contact or collision sports is a sign or symptom of: a. A kidney contusion b. A pneumothorax c. A ruptured spleen d. A contusion to the liver
a. A kidney contusion
The outer periphery of the intervertebral disk composed of strong, fibrous tissue is called the: a. Annulus fibrosus b. Nucleus pulposus c. Annulus pulposus d. Nucleus fibrosus
a. Annulus fibrosus
Which of the following describes the inability of an athlete to remember events that occurred after an injury? a. Anterograde amnesia b. Tinnitus c. Retrograde amnesia d. Unconsciousness
a. Anterograde amnesia
Hay fever may be relieved by: a. Antihistamines b. Breathing into a paper bag c. Aspirin d. Nasal vasodilators
a. Antihistamines
One of the most common mental and emotional stress producers is: a. Anxiety b. complacency c. staleness d. fear
a. Anxiety
A "hot spot" in the skin may be the beginning of a: a. Blister b. Muscle cramp c. Papilloma d. Corn
a. Blister
Which of the following portions of the spine have a convex curve anteriorly? a. Cervical and lumbar b. Cervical and thoracic c. Thoracic and sacrococcygeal d. Lumbar and sacrococcygeal
a. Cervical and lumbar
A direct blow to the anterolateral aspect of the thorax, or a sudden twist, or falling on the ball, can compress the rib cage and can result most often in a: a. Costochondral separation b. Solar plexus punch c. Rupture of the kidneys d. Hemothorax
a. Costochondral separation
Which of the following conditions is caused by peripheral vasodilation of the superficial vessels, hypotension, or a pooling of blood in the extremities, which results in dizziness and fainting? a. heat syncope b. Exertional heatstroke c. Exertional heat exhaustion d. heat cramps
a. Heat syncope
Which of the following is the first thing that an athletic trainer should do while giving emergency treatment to an athlete affected by heatstroke? a. Immersing the athlete in a cold-water bath after determining rectal temperature b. Providing the athlete with salt tablets to increase the sodium levels in the body c. Monitoring the heart rate and blood pressure of the athlete d. Rehydrating the athlete with water or a sports drink
a. Immersing the athlete in a cold-water bath after determining rectal temperature
Which of the following statements is true of a panic attack? a. It is an unexpected and unprovoked emotionally intense experience of terror. b. It is a mood disorder in which an individual experiences loss of energy and excessive guilt. c. It is a persistent and irrational fear of a specific situation that creates an intense desire to avoid the feared stimulus. d. It is characterized by mental depression related to a certain season of the year.
a. It is an unexpected and unprovoked emotionally intense experience of terror
A psychological skills training technique used to quell an active mind is: a. Meditation b. Psychoanalysis c. Progressive muscle relaxation
a. Meditation
Which of the following disorders includes symptoms of high fever, stiff neck, intense headache, and sensitivity to light and sound? a. Meningitis b. Migraine headaches c. Thrombophlebitis d. Lymphangitis
a. Meningitis
In the context of the treatment of avulsions, the avulsed tissue should be: a. Placed in a watertight bag immersed in ice water b. Wrapped in dry gauze c. Soaked in cold antiseptic solution for 24 hours d. Treated with a hot solution of boric acid
a. Placed in a watertight bag immersed in ice water
A condition in which the A condition in which pleural cavity becomes filled with air that has entered through an opening in the chest is called: a. Pneumothorax b. Hemothorax c. Thoracodorsalitis d. Traumatic asphyxia
a. Pneumothorax
When assessing static balance, if an athlete begins to sway, cannot keep the eyes closed, or obviously loses balance, it indicates a: a. Positive Romberg sign b. Negative Romberg sign c. Negative Stroop sign d. Positive Stroop sign
a. Positive Romberg sign
Which of the following is not included in the management of a seizure? a. Restrain the athlete so he/she does not hurt himself/herself b. Be emotionally composed c. Allow the athlete to awaken normally d. Loosen restrictive clothing
a. Restrain the athlete so he/she does not hurt himself/herself
All of the following are symptoms of frost nip EXCEPT: a. Skin tissue may become gangrenous b. Skin appears very firm with cold painless areas c. Skin may peel or blister in 24-72 hours d. Affects the ears, nose, cheeks, fingers, and toes
a. Skin tissue may become gangrenous
The organ that serves as a reservoir of red blood cells, a destroyer of ineffective red cells, and to produce lymphocytes is the: a. Spleen b. Liver c. Kidney d. Pancreas
a. Spleen
As an athletic trainer, what is the first step that should be taken after seeing lightning or hearing thunder? a. Stop activity at once and seek shelter b. Once you see the bolt, listen for the thunder to see how far the storm is c. Wait to see another bolt before leaving the field d. Crouch on the field
a. Stop activity at once and seek shelter
Which of the following is NOT a way to manage an avulsed tooth? a. The avulsed tooth can be scraped or scrubbed to get dirt off. b. The patient should be referred to a dentist immediately, especially if the tooth could not be moved back to its normal position. c. The avulsed tooth should be stored in a "Save a Tooth" kit if it cannot be reimplanted. d. An athletic trainer should try to reimplant the avulsed tooth.
a. The avulsed tooth can be scraped or scrubbed to get dirt off
Which of the following should an athletic trainer consider while introducing a preseason conditioning program to acclimatize athletes? a. The first two to three weeks of preseason present the greatest risk of exertion-related illnesses. b. Each practice period should be broken down into two hours of work alternated with 20 minutes of rest in the shade. c. In order to achieve maximum acclimatization, it is best to avoid scheduling practice sessions in the afternoon. d. An 80 percent acclimatization can be achieved in the first five days on the basis of an uninterrupted 8-hour practice period in the morning.
a. The first two to three weeks of preseason present the greatest risk of exertion-related illnesses.
Which of the following is a sign of insulin shock? a. Tingling in mouth or hands b. Flushed skin c. Nausea and vomiting d. Thirst
a. Tingling in mouth or hands
Sports during which of the following seasons may require that athletes have influenza vaccines? a. Winter b. Summer c. Spring d. Fall
a. Winter
Any athlete who receives a severe blow to the abdomen or back region should be instructed to check for: a. Blood in the urine b. Elevated blood pressure for several days afterward c. Elevated temperature for signs of internal infection d. Visual acuity and headaches
a. blood in urine
During ________ stress, the threat is immediate and the body's response is instantaneous. a. anxiety b. acute c. exhaustive d. chronic
b. Acute
Which of the following symptoms is not characteristic of an asthma attack? a. Dizziness b. Blurred vision c. Chest tightness d. Coughing
b. Blurred vision
A syndrome characterized by a narrowing of the spinal canal that can impinge the spinal cord resulting in burning and tingling bilaterally is known as: a. Spodylolisthesis b. Cervical spine stenosis c. Disk herniation d. Brachial plexus neuropraxia
b. Cervical spine stenosis
Chafing of the skin is due to: a. A parasitic mite b. Friction from excessive rubbing of the skin c. A verruca plantaris organism d. An infection of a blackhead
b. Friction from excessive rubbing of the skin
The condition in which an athlete takes a violent blow or compression to the chest, without any accompanying rib fracture and presents with severe pain during breathing, coughing up of blood, and shock is known as: a. Stress fracture of the ribs b. Hemothorax c. Sudden death syndrome d. Pneumothorax
b. Hemothorax
In which of the phases of rehabilitation does the patient feel fearful and may be in denial? a. Post rehabilitation b. Immediate postinjury c. Early postoperative d. Advanced rehabilitation
b. Immediate postinjury
Pain that radiates to the left shoulder and one-third of the way down the left arm is displaying: a. McBurney's sign for kidney infection b. Kehr's sign for a ruptured spleen c. Rovsig's sign for appendicitis d. Leseague's sign for an irritated sciatic nerve
b. Kehr's sign for a ruptured spleen
The lumbar vertebra that is most likely to slip as a result of spondylolisthesis is: a. L2 b. L5 c. L4 d. L3
b. L5
Which of the following is not a symptom of a diabetic coma? a. Mental confusion b. Moist, cool, and pale skin c. Fruity smelling breath d. Labored breathing
b. Moist, cool and pale skin
Which of the following conditions predisposes an athlete to injuries of the spleen? a. Cirrhosis b. Mononucleosis c. Hematuria d. Eating right before a competition
b. Mononucleosis
An acute seasonal allergic condition that results from airborne pollens is: a. Bronchitis b. Rhinitis c. Coryza d. Pharyngitis
b. Rhinitis
Athlete's foot is the common name for: a. Tinea unguium b. Tinea pedis c. Tinea cruris d. Tinea corpris
b. Tinea pedis
Which of the following is not a bacterial organism? a. Streptococcus b. Verruca plantaris c. Staphylococcus d. Bacillus
b. Verruca plantaris
Impetigo contagiosa is most associated with which sport? a. Distance running b. Wrestling c. Swimming d. Football
b. Wrestling
Flu generally has an incubation period of: a. 72 hours b. 4 days c. 48 hours d. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
In performing progressive muscle relaxation, the athlete must first tense the muscles for ________ seconds, and then relax them for ________ seconds. a. 10-15; 20-30 b. 10-15; 10-15 c. 5-7;20-30 d. 5-7; 10-15
c. 5-7; 20-30
Which of the following statements is true about managing epistaxis? a. An athletic trainer should refer a patient to a physician for X-ray examination and reduction of the fracture. b. A trained person should immediately drain the hematoma via a surgical incision through the nasal septal mucosa. c. A patient should sit upright with his or her head held forward and tilted slightly up. d. A patient's nose should be firmly packed to prevent the formation of an abscess.
c. A patient should sit upright with his or her head held forward and tilted slightly up.
________ is a syndrome characterized by sudden catabolic destruction and degeneration of skeletal muscle accompanied by leakage of myoglobin and muscle enzymes into the vascular system. a. Malignant hyperthermia b. heat cramps c. Acute exertional rhabdomyolysis d. chilblains
c. Acute exertional rhabdomyolysis
Abdominal rigidity and pain at McBurney's point may indicate: a. Abdominal bruise b. An inguinal hernia c. Appendicitis d. An abdominal strain
c. Appendicitis
Most serious cervical injuries in football result from purposeful: a. Grabbing and twisting of face mask by an opponent b. Hyperextension resulting from pushing face mask up c. Axial loading as a result of spearing d. Hyperflexion as a result of tackling the legs of an opponent
c. Axial loading as a result of spearing
Getting the "wind knocked out" of you is characteristic of a: a. Stitch in the side b. Pneumothorax c. Blow to the solar plexus d. Heart contusion
c. Blow to the solar plexus
Which of the following measures will help an athlete to prevent heat illness? a. Hydrate only after exercise routine b. Engage in practice regimes immediately after consumption of food c. Eat a well-balanced diet and allow two to three hours for food to be digested d. Sleep for a maximum of six hours per night in a hot environment
c. Eat a well-balanced diet and allow two to three hours for food to be digested
Which of the following is the most effective means that the body has to dissipate heat when the temperature and radiant heat of the environment are higher than the body temperature? a. Radiation b. Conduction c. Evaporation d. Convection
c. Evaporation
Which of the following heat disorders is characterized by profuse sweating, diarrhea, persistent muscle cramps, and dizziness with loss of coordination? a. Exertional heatstroke b. heat cramps c. Exertional heat exhaustion d. Hypothermia
c. Exertional heat exhaustion
Which of the following heat disorders is clinically characterized by sudden collapse with CNS dysfunction, such as altered consciousness, seizures, confusion, emotional instability, irrational behavior, or decreased mental acuity? a. Exertional heat exhaustion b. Hypothermia c. Exertional heatstroke d. Heat cramps
c. Exertional heatstroke
A protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a portion of the abdominal wall is called a(n): a. Abdominal hydrocele b. Evisceration c. Hernia d. Ganglion
c. Hernia
Which of the following eye injuries is painless but shows early signs including specks floating before the affected eye, flashes of light, or blurred vision? a. Hyphema b. Corneal abrasion c. Retinal detachment d. Acute conjunctivitis
c. Retinal detachment
Which of the following fractures' mechanism of injury is a direct blow to the cheek bone resulting in trismus or numbness of the face? a. Maxillary fracture b. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction c. Zygomatic complex fracture d. ulnar luxation
c. Zygomatic complex fracture
Shivering ceases below a body temperature of: a. 80 degrees Fahrenheit to 85 degrees Fahrenheit b. 75 degrees Fahrenheit to 80 degrees Fahrenheit c. 90 degrees Fahrenheit to 95 degrees Fahrenheit d. 85 degrees Fahrenheit to 90 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 85 degrees Fahrenheit to 90 degrees Fahrenheit
Which of the following is the final stage of Kubler-Ross's classic model of reactions to death and dying? a. Anger b. Depression c. Bargaining d. Acceptance
d. Acceptance
Which of the following is a mechanism by which MRSA can be transmitted? a. Potential improper use of disinfectants b. Sharing of equipment c. Skin-to-skin contact d. All of these
d. All of these
Which of the following is a progressive degenerative disease of brain tissue that also involves an accumulation of tau protein within the tissue? a. Mild traumatic brain injury b. Second impact syndrome c. Postconcussion syndrome d. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy
d. Chronic traumatic encophalopathy
Which of the following results in cardiac arrest due to a blunt traumatic impact to the chest? a. Traumatic asphyxia b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy c. Traumatic carditis d. Commotio cordis
d. Commotio cordis
The solid organs, which are contained in the abdominal viscera, consist of the: a. Lungs, heart, and small intestines b. Large intestines, small intestines, and appendix c. Appendix, kidney, heart, and stomach d. Kidneys, spleen, liver, adrenal glands, and pancreas
d. Kidneys, spleen, liver, adrenal glands, and pancreas
Which of the following postures is characterized by an increased curve in the lumbar spine? a. Flatback b. Kyphosis c. Swayback d. Lordosis
d. Lordosis
Problems such as persistent headache, impaired memory, lack of concentration, anxiety and irritability, giddiness, fatigue, depression, and visual disturbances are associated with: a. Contrecoup syndrome b. ria traumatica c. Subdural hematoma d. Postconcussion syndrome
d. Postconcussion syndrome
Which of the following can be used as a treatment for a stitch in the side? a. Raising both arms overhead b. Rotate the trunk toward the affected side c. Extending the trunk d. Stretch arm on the affected side overhead
d. Stretch arm on the affected side overhead
Which of the following is a sign of cervical neck fracture? a. Cervical muscle spasm b. Cervical pain c. Neck point tenderness d. All of these
d. all of these
Seventy-five percent of back flexion occurs at the: A.) T12-L1 B.) L5-S1 C.) S1-S2 D.) L4-L5
B.) L5-S1
Which of the following muscles is associated with back extension? A.) The trapezius B.) The erector spinae C.) The quadratus lumborum D.) The latissimus dorsi
B.) The erector spinae
Sports movements that characteristically hyperextend the spine are likely to cause: A.) Myofascial pain B.) Sciatica C.) Spondylolysis D.) Intervertebral disc syndrome
C.) Spondylolysis
A mild dehydration of up to two percent of body weight can promote cardiovascular and thermoregulatory response and can increase the capacity for exercise and have a positive effect on performance. T/F
False
It is advisable to disperse fluid from an intact blister by cutting it with scissors. T/F
False
Men are apparently more physiologically efficient at body temperature regulation than are women. T/F
False
Solutions such as sports drinks are not any better for the athlete in replacing fluid loss than water. T/F
False
The rate and degree of injury acceptance is the same for all athletes. T/F
False
True or False: After a cerebral injury, an athlete may return to competition even if he or she has a slight headache as long as other neurological and vasomotor functions are normal.
False
True or False: All individuals infected with the herpes simplex virus tend to develop skin lesions.
False
True or False: Constant uncontrolled movement of the breast over a period of time can stretch Poupart's ligament, which supports the breast at the chest wall.
False
True or False: In a typical vertical alignment, a plumb line hanging from the ear should pass just in front of the knee joint and patella.
False
True or False: Sciatica is a scientific term that describes all lower back pain without reference to exact causes.
False
True or False: The external intercostal muscles draw ribs together and aid in expiration.
False
True or False: Unequal pupil size following a head injury is always a sign of significant brain damage from the injury.
False
