Project Management Chapter 6-10

47. A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost. A. budgetary estimate B. definitive estimate C. rough order of magnitude estimate D. final estimate

C. rough order of magnitude estimate

48. A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started. A. budgetary estimate B. definitive estimate C. rough order of magnitude estimate D. final estimate

C. rough order of magnitude estimate

70. Using simplified percentage complete amounts for a one-year project with weekly reporting and an average task or work packet size of one week, you can expect about a(n) ____ percent error rate. A. 1 B. 5 C. 11 D. 15

A. 1

63. The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period. A. AC B. EV C. RP D. PV

A. AC (actual cost)

45. ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for. A. Contingency reserves B. Management reserves C. Unknown unknowns D. Direct reserves

A. Contingency reserves

35. ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance. A. Determining the budget B. Consolidation of costs C. Controlling costs D. Estimating costs

A. Determining the budget

64. Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____. A. EV B. AC C. PV D. RP

A. EV (earned value)

66. ____ is the earned value minus the planned value. A. SV B. CV C. CPI D. SPI

A. SV (scheduled variance)

44. ____ should be forgotten. A. Sunk costs B. Indirect costs C. Direct costs D. Intangible costs

A. Sunk costs

49. A ____ is used to allocate money into an organization's budget. A. budgetary estimate B. definitive estimate C. rough order of magnitude estimate D. final estimate

A. budgetary estimate

58. The project management plan, project funding requirements, work performance data, and organizational process assets are inputs for the process of ____. A. controlling costs B. budgeting costs C. consolidating costs D. estimating costs

A. controlling costs

56. The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements. A. cost budgeting B. cost consolidation C. cost control D. cost estimating

A. cost budgeting

55. If the cost estimate will be the basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a ____ and as accurate as possible. A. budgetary estimate B. definitive estimate C. rough order of magnitude estimate D. final estimate

B. definitive estimate

65. ____ is the earned value minus the actual cost. A. SV B. CV C. CPI D. SPI

B. CV (cost variance)

62. The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed. A. AC B. EV C. RP D. PV

B. EV (earned value)

59. ____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data. A. Cost baseline B. Earned value management C. Constructive cost modeling D. Parametric modeling

B. Earned value management

46. ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable. A. Contingency reserves B. Management reserves C. Known unknowns D. Indirect reserves

B. Management reserves

36. ____ is the ratio of revenues to profits. A. Profit B. Profit margin C. Cost structure D. Cost margin

B. Profit margin

38. ____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle. A. Financial managers B. Project managers C. Budget managers D. System managers

B. Project managers

50. A ____ is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs. A. budgetary estimate B. definitive estimate C. rough order of magnitude estimate D. final estimate

B. definitive estimate

42. Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them. A. sunk costs B. indirect costs C. direct costs D. intangible costs

C. direct costs

54. Tom DeMarco, a well-known author on software development, suggests ____ reasons for the inaccuracies of many information technology project cost estimates and some ways to overcome them. A. three B. four C. five D. six

B. four

53. A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on. A. analogous cost estimate B. parametric model C. bottom-up estimate D. reserve analysis

B. parametric model

32. Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent. A. 13-14 B. 23-24 C. 33-34 D. 43-44

C. 33-34

31. The Standish Group's CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004. A. 28 B. 43 C. 56 D. 73

C. 56

52. ____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. A. Actual estimates B. Parametric estimates C. Bottom-up estimates D. Analogous estimates

C. Bottom-up estimates

67. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project. A. SV B. CV C. CPI D. SPI

C. CPI (cost performance index)

69. The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date. A. CPI B. SV C. EAC D. SPI

C. EAC (estimate at completion)

37. ____ helps you develop an accurate projection of a project's financial costs and benefits. A. Profit cycle costing B. Financial costing C. Life cycle costing D. Profit margin costing

C. Life cycle costing

61. The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity. A. AC B. EV C. RP D. PV

C. RP (rate of performance)

41. ____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars. A. Intangible costs B. Direct costs C. Tangible costs D. Indirect costs

C. Tangible costs

57. A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. A. budget baseline B. ledger C. cost baseline D. cost line

C. cost baseline

51. ____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. A. Actual estimates B. Parametric estimates C. Bottom-up estimates D. Analogous estimates

D. Analogous estimates

40. ____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project and the resulting annual cash flow. A. Life cycle costing B. Profit margin analysis C. Cost estimating D. Cash flow analysis

D. Cash flow analysis

34. ____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project. A. Determining the budget B. Consolidation of costs C. Controlling costs D. Estimating costs

D. Estimating costs

43. ____ are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project. A. Intangible costs B. Tangible costs C. Direct costs D. Indirect costs

D. Indirect costs

60. The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period. A. AC B. EV C. RP D. PV

D. PV (present value)

33. ____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget. A. Cost budgeting B. Cost estimating C. Cost control D. Project cost management

D. Project cost management

68. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project. A. SV B. CV C. CPI D. SPI

D. SPI (scheduled performance index)

39. Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____. A. work time B. technical planning C. uptime D. downtime

D. downtime

1. _____ means the project's processes and products meet written specifications. a. Conformance to requirements b. Fitness for use c. Project feasibility d. Benchmarking

a. Conformance to requirements

2. Which of the following processes in project time management involves identifying the specific tasks that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables? a. Defining activities b. Sequencing activities c. Developing the schedule d. Estimating activity durations

a. Defining activities

8. _____ is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process. a. Design of experiments b. Backward pass c. Activity-on-arrow d. Crashing

a. Design of experiments

10. _____ are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users. a. Features b. Outputs c. Yields d. Metrics

a. Features

26. _____ provide(s) a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format. a. Gantt charts b. Critical path analysis c. Arrow diagramming method d. PERT analysis

a. Gantt charts

39. Which of the following is an output of schedule control? a. Lessons-learned reports b. Activity attributes c. Resource requirements d. Milestones list

a. Lessons-learned reports

14. Which of the following types of dependencies are inherent in the nature of work being performed on a project? a. Mandatory b. Discretionary c. External d. Random

a. Mandatory

18. A network diagramming technique in which boxes represent activities is known as a(n) _____. a. PDM b. CPM c. ADM d. PERT

a. PDM

16. _____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. a. Process adjustments b. Rework c. Acceptance decisions d. Decomposition

a. Process adjustments

23. Which of the following is one of the main outputs of estimating activity resources process? a. Project documents update b. Milestone list c. Work breakdown structure d. Activity duration estimate

a. Project documents update

12. _____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. a. Reliability b. Performance c. Maintainability d. Functionality

a. Reliability

20. Which of the following is a relationship in which the "from" activity cannot start until the "to" activity is started? a. Start-to-start b. Finish-to-finish c. Finish-to-start d. Start-to-finish

a. Start-to-start

19. _____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a. Statistical sampling b. Conformance c. System testing d. Fitness for use

a. Statistical sampling

30. _____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date. a. Total slack b. Free float c. Backward pass d. Forward pass

a. Total slack

6. Performing quality assurance is a subprocess of the _____ process of project quality management. a. initiating b. closing c. monitoring and controlling d. executing

d. executing

12. In project time management, the main goal of _____ is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work. a. defining activities b. estimating activity durations c. estimating activity resources d. controlling the schedule

a. defining activities

11. A(n) _____ on a project is a significant event that normally has no duration. a. milestone b. activity attribute c. activity sequence d. schedule baseline

a. milestone

20. Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than _____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. a. 1.34 b. 3.4 c. 34 d. 13.4

b. 3.4

27. Which of the following is a network diagramming technique used primarily to predict total project duration? a. Gantt chart b. Critical path analysis c. Resource breakdown structure d. Arrow diagramming method

b. Critical path analysis

3. In project time management, which of the following processes generate the main outputs of an activity list, activity attributes, and a milestone list? a. Sequencing activities b. Defining activities c. Resource estimating activities d. Estimating activity durations

b. Defining activities

6. In project time management, which of the following processes involve analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to create the project schedule? a. Planning schedule management b. Developing the schedule c. Controlling the schedule d. Defining activities

b. Developing the schedule

15. _____ dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care because they may limit later scheduling options. a. Mandatory b. Discretionary c. External d. Inherent

b. Discretionary

2. _____ means that a product can be used as it was intended. a. Conformance to requirements b. Fitness for use c. Critical chain schedulingd. Free slack

b. Fitness for use

18. _____ help users to identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system. a. Gantt charts b. Pareto charts c. Control charts d. Tracking Gantt charts

b. Pareto charts

11. _____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use. a. Reliability b. Performance c. Maintainability d. Functionality

b. Performance

15. _____ refers to action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. a. A process adjustment b. Rework c. An acceptance decision d. Validation

b. Rework

4. In project time management, which of the following processes primarily involve identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities? a. Defining activities b. Sequencing activities c. Planning schedule management d. Estimating activity durations

b. Sequencing activities

22. Which of the following is true of dummy activities? a. They have long durations. b. They show logical relationships between activities. c. They have a large range of resources. d. They have limited time periods

b. They show logical relationships between activities.

32. The technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost is known as _____. a. dependency b. crashing c. critical chain scheduling d. feeding buffers

b. crashing

13. In project time management, the next step after defining project activities is: a. planning schedule management. b. determining their dependencies. c. controlling the schedule. d. estimating activity duration

b. determining their dependencies.

35. Critical chain scheduling protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using _____, which consist of additional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks. a. critical paths b. feeding buffers c. dummy activities d. fast tracking

b. feeding buffers

19. AOA network diagrams use only _____ dependencies. a. start-to-start b. finish-to-start c. finish-to-finish d. start-to-finish

b. finish-to-start

28. The critical path is the _____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the _____ amount of slack or float. a. longest; longest b. longest; shortest c. shortest; longest d. shortest; shortest

b. longest; shortest

4. A _____ is a standard of measurement in quality management. a. milestone b. metric c. merge d. matrix

b. metric

3. Process improvement plan, quality metrics, and quality checklists are the outputs of the _____ process of project quality management. a. controlling quality b. planning quality management c. quality certification d. performing quality assurance

b. planning quality management

40. A draft schedule for a project is most likely to be found in a _____. a. project buffer b. project charter c. resource breakdown structure d. project's dummy activities list

b. project charter

8. In project time management, a(n) _____ is an output of controlling the schedule a. activity duration estimate b. project management plan update c. activity attribute d. milestones list

b. project management plan update

38. Which of the following is a silimarity between scope control and schedule control? a. Both are initial processes of project time management. b. Both of their primary goals is to define project goals and miestones. c. Both are portions of the integrated change control process under project integration management. d. Both of these processes should occur before estimating activity durations

c. Both are portions of the integrated change control process under project integration management.

16. Which of the following dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities? a. Mandatory b. Discretionary c. External d. Inherent

c. External

33. Which of the following techniques involve doing activities in parallel that one would normally do in sequence? a. Critical chain scheduling b. Crashing c. Fast tracking d. PERT analysis

c. Fast tracking

21. Which of the following is true of a finsih-to-finish dependency? a. It is a dependency in which the "from" activity cannot start until the "to" activity or successor is started. b. It is a dependency in which in which the "from" activity must finish before the "to" activity or successor can start. c. It is a dependency in which the "from" activity must be finished before the "to" activity can be finished. d. It is a dependency in which the "from" activity must start before the "to" activity can be finished

c. It is a dependency in which the "from" activity must be finished before the "to" activity can be finished.

13. _____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product. a. Reliability b. Performance c. Maintainability d. Functionality

c. Maintainability

36. _____ states that work expands to fill the time allowed. a. Murphy's Law b. Miller's Law c. Parkinson's Law d. Einstein's Law

c. Parkinson's Law

34. A similarity between the crashing technique and the fast tracking technique is that: a. both spread out tasks over a long period of time to ensure the quality of work is maintained. b. both invariably result in increases in total project costs. c. both can shorten the time needed to finish a project. d. both are network diagramming techniques used primarily to predict total project duration.

c. both can shorten the time needed to finish a project.

7. In project time management, the process of_____ primarily involves checking and managing changes to the project schedule. a. estimating activity durations b. developing the schedule c. controlling the schedule d. estimating activity resources

c. controlling the schedule

25. In project time management, the ultimate goal of _____ is to provide a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project. a. defining activities b. sequencing activities c. developing a schedule d. estimating activity resources

c. developing a schedule

31. The _____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date. a. early finish date b. late finish date c. late start date d. early start date

c. late start date

7. Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the _____ subprocess of project quality management. a. initiating b. closing c. monitoring and controlling d. executing

c. monitoring and controlling

1. The first process involved in project time management is _____ . a. defining activities b. estimating activity durations c. planning schedule management d. sequencing activities

c. planning schedule management

10. Which of the following is a difference between an activity list and an activity attribute? a. As opposed to an activity attribute, an activity list provides resource requirements and constraints related to activities. b. An activity list provides a more concrete list of milestones for a project than an activity attribute. c. An activity attribute is a tabulation of activities to be included on a project schedule whereas an activity list is not. d. An activity attribute provides more schedule-related information about each activity than an activity list.

d. An activity attribute provides more schedule-related information about each activity than an activity list.

14. _____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a. Prototyping b. Systems thinking c. Mind mapping d. Benchmarking

d. Benchmarking

5. In project time management, which of the following processes involve calculating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities? a. Defining activities b. Sequencing activities c. Planning schedule management d. Estimating activity durations

d. Estimating activity durations

9. _____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. a. Reliability b. Validity c. Maintainability d. Functionality

d. Functionality

37. A difference between the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM) is that: a. CPM addresses the risk associated with duration estimates whereas PERT does not. b. unlike CPM, PERT estimates only when there is no risk of uncertainty. c. CPM involves more work than PERT because it requires several duration estimates. d. PERT uses different duration estimates whereas CPM uses one specific duration estimate.

d. PERT uses different duration estimates whereas CPM uses one specific duration estimate.

9. Which of the following documents is most likely to include planned project start and end dates which serve as the starting points for a detailed schedule? a. Resource breakdown structure b. Milestones list c. Organizational process assets update d. Project charter

d. Project charter

17. In an AOA network diagram, _____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node. a. combinations b. buffers c. mergers d. bursts

d. bursts

17. A _____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. a. statistical sampling chart b. Pareto chart c. Six Sigma chart d. control chart

d. control chart

24. After working with key stakeholders to define activities and calculate their resources, the next process in project time management is to: a. develop the schedule. b. control the schedule. c. determine their dependencies. d. estimate the duration

d. estimate the duration

29. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities is known as a _____. a. forward pass b. backward pass c. fast tracking d. free slack

d. free slack

5. The _____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a. quality planning b. quality certification c. quality assurance d. quality control

d. quality control