Super Combo 3d152
What are two examples of EP for a radar system?
Active decoys to draw missiles off-target. Varying pulse repetition frequency.
What task does the CIM normally perform in the TDC network?
Acts as the external router for secure / non-secure data network.
When the SPCDS annunciator is used in the IDS, what control unit should be used?
Advisor VIII
What are some of the Project 802 standards?
802.3 = Ethernet; 802.5 = Token Ring; 802.11 = Wireless; 802.13 = Cable TV
What tension should be maintained on the TWS's?
90 + or - 15 lbs.
What is the maximum recording and/or playback time allowed by the Betacam SP format?
90 minutes on a large cassette.
What are the main advantages of QPSK over BPSK?
Transmit 2x the amount of data
TCP operates at this later
Transport (4)
This layer includes multiplexing, virtual circuit management, error checking and recovery
Transport (4)
What device is used to make up for cable losses in the line?
Trunk amplifiers
What are some examples of an intrusion a firewall might miss but IDS might catch?
Tunneling or application-based attacks.
How many horizontal buses are provided on each ENET shelf and what is their designation?
Two H-buses per shelf designated odd and even
What is the difference in equipment between the Type 1 and the Type 2 RBM?
Type 1 RBM contains a crypto unit to decrypt military specific information carried in the data feed from the Type 2 RBM. Type 2 RBM contains an IRD to extract data content from the incoming video stream and to transmit that data to an Ethernet switch for distribution. The IRD also descrambles the video content before processing.
What is the difference in function of the Type 1 and Type 2 RBM?
Type 1: Military specific / classified data. Type 2: Handles commercial / unclassified data.
What does CWDM use to reduce cost?
Uncooled lasers
Define noise.
Unintelligible electrical disturbances; leads to masking/distortion.
What role does the BAM play in the deployed TDC network?
Voice and data access for 50 users in a single location
64. (423) What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected? a. Alternate current (AC). b. Direct current (DC). c. Digital. d. Analog.
d. Analog.
46. (218) Which one of the following is not an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) transition approach? a. Translation. b. Tunneling. c. Dual stack. d. Auto configuration.
d. Auto configuration.
13. (008) What form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations? a. Delta. b. Frequency shift keying (FSK). c. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM). d. Binary-phase shift keying or bi-phase shift keying (BPSK).
d. Binary-phase shift keying or bi-phase shift keying (BPSK).
What is the SLM used for?
Boot load CM and MS from disk/tape, load an office image into the inactive CPU, dump an image to disk, perform offline transfers from tape to disk.
Symmetric trunk operation means?
Both directions of trunk (transmit and receive) operate at the same bit rate and all calls that traverse the trunk are symmetric and full-duplex.
Before being applied to the head, the incoming signal in a reorder is converted to what type of waveform?
Current
Hybrid switches represent a combination of what switching devices?
Cut-through / Store & Forward
What are the 4 types of switching devices?
Cut-through / Store & Forward / Hybrid / Fragment-free
What can you use to fill an effects key when using the GVG-110?
Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
Name 3 disadvantages to laser light transmission?
Laser light is strictly a LOS transmission media. Great care is required to properly align the transmitting and receiving equipment. Laser light is susceptible to atmospheric interference, and cannot penetrate walls or very thin coverings such as curtains or paper.
What determines the amount of light-pulse power that is transmitted down the cable?
Light-pulse width
What is the main limiting factor in the configuration of the IGX switch?
Limited # of timeslots
What type of downstream keys can you use to layer over the picture coming out of the effects keyer?
Linear or luminance
What preliminary precaution should you take when using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading?
Make sure all power is off
What does the classic "Defense in Depth" approach to security require you to do?
Minimize exposure of your protective assets as much as possible
What type of cable discrepencies can be detected by a TDR?
Opens, shorts and pin holes in cable shielding, kinks and mismatched / corroded cable connectors.
With the exception of the layers on each end, what OSI model layers does each layer communicate with?
Peer layer in other network devies and the layers directly above and below
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
Present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
At this layer, common data compression and encryption schemes are used
Presentation (6)
This layer provides a variety of coding and conversion functions that are applied to application layer data
Presentation (6)
What is a code set?
Preset sequence of bits that is arranged and understood by the sender and receiver
What 2 modulation processes are required to transmit pulse-modulated signals?
Pulse Modulation AM / FM
What is the PAM process?
Pulse carrier is AM-modulated to convey information
How does PPM over disadvantage of distortion experienced in PAM and PDM?
Pulses are at constant widths and amplitudes
What is the principal advantage of converting analog signals to digital signals before transmission?
Quantizing Noise
What 2 questions must you ask yourself during the selection of a subnet mask?
Question 1: How many routed subnets are required? Question 2: What is the likely maximum # of hosts on any one of those subnets?
What were the bandwidths and limitations of the R-Y and B-Y signals, and what were the shifted signals?
R-Y is called the I signal for in-phase. Bandwidth: 1.5MHz B-Y is called the Q signal for quadrature. Bandwidth: .5MHz
The IETF tracks ideas or suggestions. What are these ideas and suggestions called?
Request for Comments (RFC)
What are some of the advantages of T1 multiplexing?
Simplicity
How does asynchronous synchronization affect transmission speed?
Slows down transmission speed
All BOP transmissions in a link follow the frame format. The frame consists of what fields?
Start flag field, station address field, control field, data information field, frame check sequence and close flag field
What are the Meridian mail user interface user options that VMUIF does not support?
TAG, timed delivery, added to an already existing recorded message and save copies of message.
What TCP / IP ports are used by SNMP?
TCP Ports 161 / 162
What method of multiplexing does the T1 use?
TDM
Name two methods of multiplexing.
TDM FDM
Describe the difference between the two methods of multiplexing.
TDM: Time slots FDM: Frequency
What's the difference between FTP and TFTP?
TFTP uses UDP which means it doesn't guarantee deliverability. FTP uses TCP.
Which NNM menu includes the SNMP MIB browser selection?
The Tools menu from any network map
What are 3 distinct specifications that the RS-232 standards meets?
(1) Type of Connector; (2) Purpose / definition of connector pins; (3) Electrical characteristics of those pins.
How many carrier phases does quadriphase modulation have?
4
What IOC card is required to interface a disk drive?
A 1X55 DDU Controller
How does ADPCM differ from PCM?
ADPCM = 4 bits; 32K PCM = 8 bits; 64K
Give 2 examples of broadband technology.
ADSL / Cable TV
Name 2 satellite communications systems.
AFSATCOM / DSCS
The USD card's port 0 can be used for what purpose?
Accept an external clock for network synchronization.
Measures network utilization of individual users.
Accounting Management
What type of IR technology does the Birdseye use?
Active
What is an isochronous signal?
All bits are equal duration
What is the predominant characteristic of SSBSC modulation?
All of the transmitter power can be used for transmission of info signal located in one sideband w/out carrier.
Which major area monitors and controls all system activity by executing stored computer programs?
Central control area
What type of routing protocols support VLSM?
Classless routing protocols
What is a station clock? What can a station clock minimize?
Clock that controls some/all of the equipment. (Requires local time control)
What are the different categories of cards found in the Promina Multiplexer?
Common equipment, voice/data/trunk and server cards.
What is the C-Bus used for?
Communication with other cards in Promina.
How is an IDS used in relation to a firewall?
Complements a firewall and provides additional protection, particularly against threats originating from outside the firewall.
What are the disadvantages of BPSK?
Complex, costly, phase ambiguity.
CV 8448D
Converting NRS signals to Balanced, Unbalanced or Optical CDI signals.
What do VPN concentrators create to extend a network?
Create tunnels using secure communications across a network such as the Internet
What is a brouter?
Cross / hybrid between a bridge and a router
How is carrier stability maintained in a PM signal?
Crystal-controlled oscillators
Which framing sequence is used for synchronization with incoming data?
D4
What signaling can the Avaya DS1 card be configured to support?
DTMF, Multi-frequency and Primary Rate Interface
What does the ETSI do?
Develops the telecommunications standards for Europe
Define the term diffraction?
Down bending of radio waves as they graze the surface of an obstruction.
When is the best time to take measurements of impulse noise?
During times of peak system activity
Which type of framing would be used for a T1 carrying video traffic?
ESF
What must be done to each managed device on the network so that it provides data to the NNM?
Each managed device on the network must be individually configured for SNMP.
How does the detection pattern change, if a sector is set up to cover an area of 175 feet instead of 125 feet?
Each transmitted beam is sent to two receivers.
Why is DPSK better than PSK?
Easier to implement / more robust
What is a disadvantage of PPM?
Eats up a lot of bandwidth
What GVG-110 system allows you to insert titles or other video scenes into a full-screen background scene?
Effects Keyer
54. (023) Varying the pulse repetition frequency on a radar set is an example of a. electronic combat. b. electronic attack. c. electronic protection. d. electronic warfare support.
Electronic protection (corrected by tgb)
What role does EIA serve?
Enables US electronics producers to be competitive by developing technical standards, hosting tradeshows, performing market analysis and facilitating relations with the government.
KIV 19A
Encrypting NRZs signals at data rates between 9.6 Kbps and 13 Mbps
Reports the occurrence of faults and corrects them automatically.
Fault Management
Which stage of the VDA has the provision for delay adjustment?
Fixed gain and level shift
This is an information unit whose source and destination are data link layer entities.
Frame
What 3 elements of the message block (frame) format can be contained in each BSC transmission?
Header, text and a trailer
Give one example of electronic attack
High-speed anti-radiation missiles
Which major area provides an interface between the maintenance subsystem software and the maintenance technician?
I/O or MAP
What does Biometrics refer to?
ID process that uses physical / behavioral characteristics unique to the user. (Fingerprints, key-stroke patterns, voice / iris / retina, facial characteristics)
What are the 4 most important TCP/IP protocols that function within the network layer?
IP, ARP, RARP, ICMP
How, if at all, can cutting of the E-Flex II cable be detected?
If the cable is cut, resistance drops and causes a supervision tamper alarm.
Why is PCM less susceptible to noise than PAM or PDM?
In PCM, noise must insert or obscure pulse not just change its height or duration.
How is a multimeter used as a voltmeter in a circuit/
In parallel
How is a multimeter connected in a circuit to measure microamperes?
In series
How does an IDS assist SF capabilities?
Increase detection capability by alerting security personnel to an approach, intrusion or attempted intrusion.
What index factor is the TD-9930 already programmed to accept?
Index of 1.47
A proportionate increase that results with the length of the line.
Inductance (L) of the line
What is used to protect and measure the security posture of information systems?
Information protection tools
Call waiting is what type of communication signal?
Information signaling
Explain the purpose of the impedence selector buttons.
Input / Output: 50 / 75 / 95 / 125 Ω
What are the advantages of bi-phase modulation?
Insensitivity to level variations; low frequencies/smaller bandwidth requirements.
How can the capacitance of a transmission line cable be varied?
Insulation, size of wire, spacing between wires.
PBX switches generally handle what kind of traffic?
Internal call traffic and connection to outside public switched telephone network.
What are some advantages of switches?
Internal processor, operating system, memory and ports that enable connections. Have multiple ports, make better use of limited bandwidth. More cost-efficient than bridges. Each device on switch receives its own dedicated channel. Limits potential for collisions.
What network is an informal collection of government, military, commercial and educational computer networks that all interconnected and transmit information?
Internet
Which of the synchronization terms is normally used with channel-packing systems to indicate the utilization of internal timing?
Isochronous
What is a major advantage of a hybrid switch?
Its minimal latency when error rates are low and it becomes a store & forward when error rates rise, allowing it to discard frames when error rates get high
What is the main advantage of DPSK?
Less complex receiver needed.
Define NRZ-L
Level / Mark-Space
What are the primary parts of the AN/GSS-39 system?
Main control panel, mixture of sensors, associated equipment.
A router operates at this layer
Network (3)
Routers operate at what layer of the OSI model?
Network (3)
This layer provides routing and related functions that enable multiple data links to be combined into an internetwork
Network (3)
How many sychronizing pulses are needed in sychronous operation?
None
What is the simplest analog pulse-modulation technique?
PAM
What are the 4 basic types of pulse modulation?
PAM / PDM / PPM / PCM
What are 5 pulse-modulation techniques that can be used to form composite TDM signals?
PAM / PDM / PPM / PCM / DM
What is quantizing noise?
PAM pulses 'rounded off' to nearest assigned value.
What component in a PM performs local processing functions?
PP
What are the 3 central hub classifications?
Passive, Active & Intelligent
Provides statistical data about the network.
Performance Management
At what layer of the OSI model do transceivers operate and how are they used?
Physical Layer (Used in ethernet networks to connect a device to fiber or copper)
Identify the 3 types of active tests that are conducted with a protocol analyzer.
Ping, trace route & traffic generator
What is the function of the RS-232-C data leads?
Pins that carry the data intelligence from DTE to DCE and vice versa. 2 categories: Primary / Secondary (Channels)
What are the disadvantages of client/server networks?
Planning, design and management are complicated. Requires dedicated staff, software/hardware are expensive.
A movement through a medium; transmission
Propagation
What is referred to as coherency?
Properties of a laser light that make a narrow beam and does not diverge or spread out like light from a flashlight.
What IPv4 protocol is needed to tunnel IPv6?
Protocol 41
What analog modulation technique is similar to QPSK?
QAM
What effect does a change in frequency have on a PM signal?
Rate of phase shift is controlled by frequency of modulating frequency.
Describe 2 operating modes used by the TD-9930
Real-time & Average
What is the function of the RBM?
Receives data streams sent by satellite through NGRT and relay that information to the subscribers connected to the terminal.
How does synchronous operation work?
Receiving device adjusts automatically to speed of transmitting; compares speed of incoming signal with time base.
What makes SSBSC more efficient?
Reduced bandwidth / greater power efficiency.
What is the normal data path for the Red Data Module to send traffic to a SIPRNet user on a TDC network?
SIPR traffic comes through Promina as encrypted. Pass through KIV-7 to be decrypted. Decrypted traffic is routed to TACLANE which then encrypts each IP frame before sending back through black network. Client RDM then decrypts the frames for reception by SIPR user.
What are the principles of asynchronous operation?
Start / stop bits
What is the purpose of the GVG-110 effects memory?
Store effects for recall later
What does the video converter in the RBM do?
Takes input signal and converts it to an NTSC standard video signal.
Information security-related access controls fall into what 2 categories?
Technical Controls: Passwords / encryption Administrative Controls: Segregation of duties / Security screening of users.
Which NNM submenu do you use to change alarm thresholds?
The NNM's Data Collection and Threshold submenu
Which NNM submenu do you use to start the data collection process?
The NNM's Data Collection and Threshold submenu
Which database facility preserves DMO on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the switch should fail?
The POF
What utility sends out ICMP requests in hopes to get an ICMP echo reply?
The ping utility
What is a bit?
The smallest unit of information (data) a computer can process; a "1" or a "0"
What function of the cable scanner shows the manner in which each wire is mated to the connectors at both ends of the cable?
The wire map
What are some disadvantages of switches?
They can become overwhelmed by continuous, heavy traffic.
What is the function of the RS-232-C clock leads?
They provide "clock" or "timing" for data transmission synchronization.
What do all devices on a network share when connected to a hub?
They share the same amount of bandwidth and the same collision domain
How does a circuit entering the ENET on an odd card slot gain access to the even H-bus?
Through a V-bus extension to its mate even card
What is the main benefit of having time counters on VTR's?
Timesave that enables the operator or editor to find a specific clip and/or segment at a later time.
What is the basic stance of the network security policy?
To allow authorized traffic and deny all else
What is the purpose of the TWS's?
To detect an intruder climbing over or through the barbed wire of a security fence.
What does 63, 511 and 2047 in a test pattern identify?
Total # of bits in a pattern
Normally how many MFS's are used to establish a microwave line-of-sight detection sector?
Two (one transmitter and one receiver)
What does "baud" mean?
Unit of modulation rate of the shortest unit interval.
In a typical Air Force installation, how much area can the E-Flex II cover?
Up to 1,000 feet (300 meters)
What are the safety rules you need to remember when using a ladder?
Use wood or reinforced fiberglass ladders and remove any finger rings.
What is a dial tone signal?
User that the telephone line is connected to the switch and is ready to transmit dialing digits.
How does CCS convey signaling information?
Uses a separate network channel to transfer supervisory information in an out-of-band fashion and multiplexed with the digitized voice signals.
How does WDM work?
Uses wavelengths of light or different colors in spectrum.
What network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
VPN
Within IP, what are the datagram fields?
Version, IHL, DiffServ Field, Total length, Identification, Flags, Fragment offset, TTL, Protocol, header checksum, Source IP address, Destination IP address, Options, Padding and Data
What are the 2 uses for BRI in the military?
Video teleconferencing & STE.
How does cable fault information appears on the TDR's CRT?
View CRT
How is voice transmitted and received by a telephone?
Voice of talker vibrates membrane that has magnet attached to it. Magnet causes changes in current in coil. Current changes are transmitted to speaker on other end causing another membrane with a magnet attached to vibrate and reproduce the sound.
What type of function is the playback process?
Voltage function
K experiences a significant decrease in value. What effect does this have on the radio horizon?
Wave is bent more and radio horizon decreases an is known as superstandard refraction.
What determines the size of the waveguide?
Wavelength of the energy to be transmitted.
When is the CV 2048-M/CV 8448-D used?
When CIM and P-Mu are not in the same location.
What determines the bandwidth of a pulse train?
Width of pulses.
List some X-series standards that you may encounter
X.20; X.20 bis; X.21; X.21 bis; X.25; X.400; X.500
44. (416) Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time? a. D1. b. D2. c. D3. d. D4.
a. D1.
87. (430) The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands? a. Ku, Ka. b. C, X. c. Ku, X. d. Ka, C.
a. Ku,Ka
27. (411) Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix? a. Vertical bus. b. Horizontal bus. c. Clock/message card. d. Enhanced network (ENET) processor.
a. Vertical bus.
56. (025) When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used? a. Voltage terminal. b. Common terminal. c. Voltage and current terminal. d. Common and current terminal.845B
a. Voltage terminal.
9. (405) Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit a. a relatively wide range of frequencies. b. only high frequency information. c. a relatively wide range of amplitudes. d. only high amplitude information.
a. a relatively wide range of frequencies.
35. (414) The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the a. encoder. b. decoder. c. multiplexer. d. demultiplexer.
a. encoder.
20. (009) The process of coding pulse code modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is a. encoding. b. companding. c. uniform quantizing. d. nonuniform quantizing.
a. encoding.
6. (004) The upper sideband in a single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation is eliminated by a. filtering. b. detection. c. compression. d. companding.3
a. filtering.
3. (401) The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is a. frequency. b. power output. c. bandwidth of the transmission medium. d. distance between equipment and transmitter.
a. frequency.
52. (221) A repeater with more than one output port is a a. hub. b. bridge. c. brouter. d. gateway.
a. hub.
57. (223) A router's strength is its a. intelligence. b. quality of service. c. different interface cards. d. different types of network connectors.
a. intelligence.
100. (436) What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)? a. provisioning and restoration. b. provisioning and recovery. c. procurement and restoration. d. procurement and recovery priority.
a. provisioning and restoration.
48. (417) The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow a. remote control of switcher transitions. b. remote programming of all switcher functions. c. parallel interface with the switcher effects memory. d. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.
a. remote control of switcher transitions.
26. (012) Individual pulses within a digital signal are a. bits. b. bytes. c. codes. d. blocks.
a. tits.
80. (426) What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can handle? a. 12. b. 16. c. 24. d. 32.
b. 16.
31. (212) Which Network layer protocol matches a known internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address? a. IP. b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). c. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP). d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
42. (017) What communications information signal uses a signal cycled on and off for 0.5 second and contains the generation of a 480- and 620-Hz frequency pair? a. Dial tone. b. Busy signal. c. Off-hook alert. d. Call waiting.
b. Busy signal.
9. (204) The "parent" organization, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, for all other telecommunications organizations is the a. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). b. International Telecommunication Union (ITU). c. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). d. International Telegraph and Telephone Consultative Committee (CCITT).
b. International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
60. (224) What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet, and vice versa? a. Voice/data. b. Internet. c. LAN. d. Firewall.
b. Internet.
25. (210) A group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area is a a. Metropolitan area network (MAN). b. Local area network (LAN). c. Wide area network (WAN). d. Virtual private network (VPN).
b. Local area network (LAN).
90. (236) What method is approved for changing passwords through the use of remote access? a. Password authentication protocol. b. Strongly encrypted virtual private network. c. Strongly encrypted virtual local area network. d. Challenge handshake authentication protocol.
b. Strongly encrypted virtual private network.
88. (235) Who has unrestricted access to system commands and data? a. Powerusers. b. Supersusers. c. Server operators. d. Backup operators.
b. Supersusers.
2. (201) How many possible symbols can 4 bits represent? a. 2. b. 4. c. 8. d. 16.
d. 16.
25. (410) Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a a. cable manhole. b. telecommunications cable closet. c. building cable raceway. d. cable vault.
d. cable vault.
10. (405) Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except? a. Telephone lines. b. Television cable lines. c. Satellite systems. d. laser light.
d. laser light.
What 2 possible security postures are used based on the information you want to protect, system usability, and the cost of required security measures?
"Default deny" posture and "Open" Posture
Name and describe the 4 types of reports that can be created using the report templates.
(1) Availability Report: % availability of network interfaces (2) Exception Report: Threshold events that have been exceeded. (3) Inventory Report: Lists all nodes in MIB. (4) Performance Report: Summary of statistical data for network interfaces.
The VDA is capable of how much gain?
+ or - 6dB
What is the maximum intrusion detection barrier length that an IPIDS system can provide?
80 meters
Why type of system should the installed IDS be?
A closed system, not allowing access from external source.
How does synchronization distinguish positions in the data bit stream?
1's and 0's are transmitted / patterns of frame bits (known as framing formats)
How many frequencies are there in a SD80DC microwave sensor and what is the minimum and maximum frequency range?
10 frequencies. 9.45 and 10.545 GHz
A code set of 10 bits has how many possible combinations?
1024 possible choices
What are the IIDS's primary AC power requirements?
115 or 220 VAC; through a step-down transformer to the 12 VDC power supply.
How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
128
What is the minimum and maximum range of control, in feet, for the PIRAMID sensor, model SDI-76?
15 - 75 feet
How many effects storage registers are there in the GVG-110 switcher?
16
How many sensors does a typical Birdseye sector transmit/receive pole contain?
18. Transmit pole: 6 transmitters / 3 receivers. Receive pole: 6 receivers / 3 transmitters.
In BPSK, what amount of degrees of phase shift of the carrier is used to represent binary 1's and 0's?
180 degrees
How many LCM's can occupy a single bay?
2
How many planes and shelves per plane are provisioned in a fully equipped ENET?
2 planes and 4 shelves per plane
For how long will a generated alarm signal remain active on the IPIDS?
2 seconds or as long as the beam is broken.
How many miles are satellites placed in orbit and why?
22,300 miles above Earth to maintain stability. At this distance the satellite does not fall back to Earth and does not drift off into space.
What is the frequency of the tamper alarm?
26.3 kHz
What is the frequency bandwidth of a high frequency signal?
3 - 30 MHz
How many analog circuits can be connected to a TM8?
30
There are 2 channel configurations for PRI, what are they?
30 bearer channels and 2 delta channels for E1. 23 bearer channels and 1 delta channel for T1.
How many line cards are controlled by one of the two processors in an LCM?
320
What is the normal length of a VTWS sensor sector?
328 feet (100 meters)
How much further is the radio horizon than the true horizon in a standard atmosphere?
33% further
How many feet of coverage does the DR-301, PIR sensor provide?
35
How many code bits are required to provide 16 quantized steps?
4
How many hours of battery power are needed to operate sensor, alarm, delay/denial and communication components in case of an AC power failure?
4
The high frequency speaker is adjusted to maintain flat response through what frequency?
5.5 MHz
What is the maximum allowable distance the barbed wire can be pulled before an alarm is generated?
6 inches
What advantage does SSBSC have over other forms of AM?
6 to 1 improvement.
What types of services can the Meridian Option 11C PBX support?
60 - 720 lines. VoIP, ISDN BRI, VM, Call center operations.
What is the usual circuit input impedence for a transmission line?
600 Ohms
What is the storage capacity of a single SPN?
75 or 150 hours
What is the maximum coverage, field of view, # of beams of a SDI-76 sensor equipped with the standard high-density lens?
75 x 75 feet; 100 degrees; 24 beams.
The VDA is designed for what type of video signal?
75Ω composite video signal
How many sets of 16 bit sections make up an IPv6 address?
8
The True Time Xli/Zypher GPS receiver can provide what range of clock rates?
8 KHz to 8192KHz
How many sections is each H-bus divided into?
8 Sections numbered 0-7
Normally, how long is a byte?
8 bits long
What is the sampling rate of a 4-kHz voice channel?
8 kHz
What type of modulation is used in ATSC?
8-vestigial sideband technique
What has been done to the FPS cables to help detect cuts or shorts?
A 1 megaohm resister is placed in the end of the line termination kit.
What IOC card is required to interface a tape drive?
A 1X68 MTD Controller
What does a clear zone consist of?
A 30 foot area inside and outside the site perimeter fence.
What format is used in D2 digital recording?
A 4 fsc sampling frequency with 8-bit quantizing.
What is the CEPT?
A European body for telecommunications policymaking and regulation
What is the most common form of a proxy for common services?
A Firewall
What is NIST's role?
A government organization providing servies and programs to help US industries commercialize new technologies and compete internationally.
What is the waveguide's cutoff frequency?
A limiting frequency below microwave range where it cannot transmit a signal.
What must a line of detection detect?
A person walking, running, rolling crawling or jumping through line of detection.
Nowadays, what protocol is likely employed for subnetting large networks?
A protocol supporting VLSM (Variable length subnet masking)
What is a byte?
A set of bits "1's" and "0's" of a specific length that represent a value in a computer coding scheme
Why would you replace a backbone router with a switch?
A switch provides at least 2 advantages: Better security & performance
What are the three basic types of analog modulation?
AM / FM / PM
Name 2 common signal codes that are used with BERT sets.
AMI / B8ZS
What is the ANSI's main focus?
ANSI focuses on standards usd by software and hardware vendors who make the products the software engineer uses
What are the three basic types of analog modulation used to convert digital signals?
ASK / FSK / PSK
What digital broadcasting system was adopted as a standard in the USA?
ATSC (Advanced Television Systems Committee)
List 3 conversion methods available when working with digital video.
Analog-to-digital (A/D); Digital-to-analog (D/A); Digital-to-digital (D/D).
What is the purpose of the 24 miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box?
Allow interface conductors (except frame ground pin 1); interrupted individually for isolated testing and observation.
What is the purpose of the GVG-110 GPI?
Allows remote control of information
What effect does a change in amplitude have on a PM signal?
Amount of phase signal is proportional to amplitude of modulating signal.
Describe the subcarrier frequency in a MFS.
Amplitude modualtion frequency that canc be set to 3, 5, 8, or 13 kHz.
What determines PDM pulse width?
Amplitude of modulating signal @ point of sampling
What determines the amplitude of a PAM pulse?
Amplitude of modulating signal @ point of sampling
What determines the time position of a PPM pulse?
Amplitude of modulating signal @ time of sampling
What determines amount of deviation of an FM carrier?
Amplitude of modulating signal.
A VTR head can be compared to what?
An electromagnet
What are the two basic types of modulation?
Analog & Digital
What is the PCM process?
Analog utililizing a band-limiting filter; binary code word; modulated using AM / FM / PSK.
What type of signal(s) is the T1 able to transmit?
Analog, digital, video
What 3 services/facilities does a PM interface?
Analog/digital trunk, subscriber lines and test/service trunks.
What constitutes an asynchronous signal?
Any signal with synchronizing bits
What are the 2 categories of the OSI model can be divided into?
Application & Data Transport (Layers)
Telnet, FTP, SMTP that exist in the TCP/IP suite operate at this layer
Application (7)
As the atmosphere becomes less dense, what happens to the speed of the propagated wave?
As K varies, the distance the wave travels to the radio horizon varies, causing fading at the receive antenna.
A LAN may serve how many users?
As few as 2-3 or as many as thousands of users
What are the 3 CCS signaling modes?
Associated Non-associated Quasi-associated
A variance with frequency
Attentuation distortion
A reduction in energy that is generally expressed in decibels.
Attenuation
What 3 factors can affect the line quality of a long distance transmission line?
Attenuation distortions, delays, noise
Ensuring redundancy in a voice network system so that system operations are maintained if there is a failure at any single point in the system relates to which cornerstone of voice network system security?
Availability
37. (015) The major difference between conditioned di-phase (CDI) and other schemes is the a. lack of mid-bit transitions. b. use of mid-bit transitions for timing. c. data being encoded in the mid-bit transitions. d. voltage levels used for signaling the mid-bit transitions.
B. the use of mid bit transitions for timing. (corrected by tgb)
What is the simplest form of PSK?
BPSK
What is the power that is reflected back towards the optical source?
Backscatter
How does the bandwidth required to transmit an AM signal compare to that for transmitting the modulating signal by itself?
Bandwidth required = 2x that of modulating signal itself.
What kind of information does the connection statistics menu provide?
Bandwidth utilization and # of connections related to specific nodes.
What is the name of the Air Force initiative that defines and drives network information security?
Barrier Reef
What's the difference between baud and bit.
Baud: Expression of time Bit: No 'time' reference
What is a head-end system?
Beginning of a cable system
Between what layers do the application layer protocols reside?
Between the Session and Application layer of the OSI model
What is a BPV?
Bi-polar variation; 2 consecutive marks occur with same polarity.
Define the term 'bit'.
Bit of information based on 2 symbols, states or conditions.
Name 2 factors that determine when a digital transition should occur.
Bit rate of signal / signals format
In HDLC, what is used so the receiving station can determine if the data is information or a flag indicating the end of a frame?
Bit stuffing
How does CAS signaling convey signaling information?
Bit-robbing
What unit of measurement is normally used in data systems to express signaling speed for equipment?
Bits / second
What circuit re-inserts reference blanking into the program output to prevent noisy sync in the GVG-110?
Blanking processor
The PLM's flash memory provides the data storage of what?
Boot code, system software and config database.
How can the MFS detect intruders?
By an intruder breaking the beam or by multipath return signal.
How does the B8ZS signal format correct ones density problems?
By intentionally inserting BPV's into signal to break up 0's.
IP addresses with a first octet from 192 - 223 are what of what IPv4 class?
C
How does stacking work with the Avaya Prologix Switch?
Can only be stacked in pairs, with the 2nd switch in the stack acting as a pair of expansion shelves with no processing capability.
What are the 2 digital signaling methods to transmit supervisory signaling?
CAS / CCS
What are the elements that make up the control components for the SuperNode central control area?
CM, SLM, MS
What is a simple form of ADM?
CVSD
What are the 4 tests and measurements performed by the OTDR?
Cable acceptance testing / cable installation / end-to-end tests / fault location
What function of the protocol analyzer excludes specific types of frames?
Capture filters
What frequencies are present at output of AM modulator?
Carrier Frequency, Carrier + MF, Carrier - MF MF = Modulating Frequency
In PM, how is the transmitted signal modulated?
Carrier's phase is caused to shift at rate of modulating signal.
In AM, what products are present in the resultant waveform?
Carrier, upper sideband, lower sideband.
What is the master station clock?
Cesium beam / GPS tied to primary communications equipment
What is the purpose of the D/A converter?
Change binary data stream back into the continuous electrical waveform that a binary data stream represents.
How does the NMS notify you of the occurrence of a trigger event or alarm?
Change in color of a device or link on the network map that is displayed on the NNM's monitor screen.
How is information represented in DPSK?
Changes in phase value form one sample to the next.
What is terminated on the vertical and horizontal sides of the MDF?
Circuits routed over base cable plant leading to subscriber's buildings are terminated on the vertical side. Equipment from peripheral area of telephone switch are terminated on the horizontal side.
What is an adverse event that threatens some element of computer security such as loss of data?
Computer security incident
Inadvertent disclosure of communications violates which cornerstone of voice network system security?
Confidentiality
What are the 3 cornerstones of voice network system security?
Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
It covers areas such as installation, device booting / startup, inventory management and recovery.
Configuration Management
Provides the capability to initialize and shut down managed devices.
Configuration Management
What tasks can all routers do?
Connect dissimilar networks; interpret Layer 3 addressing; determine best path for data; reroute traffic if primary path is down
What is the function of jumpers on the MDF?
Connect telephone numbers from the switching system to specific cable pairs that are routed to various telephone subscribers.
What are the Cisco switches in the BAM used for?
Connect workstations and other network devices
The Cisco 3460 and 3745 modular routers provide what for the ICAP data backbone?
Connectivity between classified or unclassified ICAP backbon
What are the 3 types of communcations signals that are the functions to control and process analog calls?
Control / Informational / Supervisory
What is the function of the RS-232-C control leads?
Control leads are used enable / disable data transmission and reception; they also indicate the operational status an condition of DTE / DCE
What transmission media can utilize broadband signaling?
Copper, fiber, or wireless
What user interfaces are available on the MSM that use Meridian Mail software?
Nortel's proprietary MMUI and VMUIF
What are the 2 methods of address signaling?
Pulse / Tone
Name 2 framing formats used with BERT sets.
D4 / ESF
What are the 2 models of the DMS-100?
DMS-100 & MSL-100
What is the maximum # of ports that a fully-expanded DMS-100 and MSL-100 can support?
DMS-100 = 100,000 ports MSL-100 = 30,000 ports
What is the physical difference between the DMS-100 and MSL-100?
DMS-100 = 6-foot equipment racks. MSL-100 = 6-foot modular cabinets.
What are the 2 major sections of a BERT set that create and receive the test pattern?
Data Code Generator (Transmitter) & Code Detector (Receiver)
Switches and bridges operate at this layer
Data Link (2)
This layer's specifications include physical addressing, sequencing of frames and flow control
Data Link (2)
The easiest way to break down the many protocols of the TCP/IP suite is according to where they operate within the OSI model. Each protocol in this stack operates at one of what 4 layers?
Data Link, Network, Transport or Application
What are the benefits of XDCAM recording in MPEG HD format?
Data can quickly be transferred over computer networks and easily edited in the field with a laptop computer and made readily available to a wide variety of applications.
When configuring a report, what data intervals can you select?
Data collection intervals are selected in 5, 10 or 15 minute intervals.
What is the CV8448 necessary?
Data interfaces like EIA-530 are designed for short interoffice connections and the 25 wire cables used for this standard are too bulky for long distance tactical use.
What is known as encapsulation as it relates to the OSI model?
Data portion of an information unit at a given OSI layer can potentially contain headers, trailers and data from all the higher layers.
Nearly all NIC's contain what device that transmits and receives data signals?
Data transceiver
This a generic term that refers to a variety of information units.
Data unit
The RS-232-C pins can be understood by knowing how they are grouped. What are the different categories?
Data, clock, control, common, ground
This is an information unit whose source and destination are network-layer entities that use connectionless network service.
Datagram
What is internal control?
Defines the various mechanisms employed to provide internal system security. They may include but are not limited to: access control methods, system ID and authentication programs and system configuration.
What are the 4 lower layers of the OSI model responsible for?
Defining how data is sent across the physical media, through internetwork devices, to destination computer and to the application of the destination machine
List the functions of the encoder
Derive the luminance (brightness) signal, derive the I and Q signals, use I and Q to modulate suppressed subcarrier balanced modulator to represent hue and saturation, combine luminance and chrominance signals, add sync and burst to combined luminance and chrominance signal.
Give 2 reasons for converting analog signals to digital signals before transmission.
Digital media can be regenerated and easily encrypted.
What are the primary capabilities provided by a protocol analyzer?
Digital network diagnostics & software development
What is the E-carrier?
Digital telecommunications services backbone system of Europe
How does the rate of deviation compare with the frequency of modulating signal?
Directly proportional.
True Time Xli/Zypher GPS Receiver
Disciplined precision timing reference
What causes impulse noise?
Disturbances that have abrupt amplitudes of short duration
Describe how you would connect a cable under test to the TDR.
Do not connect live cables
Name the format used by ATSC to provide 5.1 channel surround sound?
Dolby Digital AC-3
What protocol is responsible for matching a host name to an IP address?
Domain Name System (DNS)
What are the advantages of using a peer-to-peer network?
Easy to configure, don't require additional hardware/software, users can manage their own resources, they don't require a network administrator and they reduce costs.
WDM is considered a method of improving what?
Efficiency through fiber through condensing transmitted channels.
What was the impact of conversion from manual switchboards to electro-mechanical switches?
Electro-mechanical switches = Speed and reliability and allowed telephone companies to cut personnel costs.
Which organizations' specifications are supported by ANSI?
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) & Telecommunications Industry Assocation (TIA)
Protecting people, facilities and equipment from electronic attack is known as...
Electronic Protection (EP)
What is ES?
Electronic Warfare Support: Putting a picture together for battle commanders; accurate picture of spectrum w/in AOR (area of responsibility).
Define electronic attack
Electronic Warfare utilizing the electromagnetic and directed energy and anti-radiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities and equipment.
What are some popular types of gateways?
Email gateway, IBM host, Internet, LAN, Voice / Data, Firewall
What is the purpose of the CM?
Encryption and decryption; convert traffic to/from NRS/CDI, reachback and internal ICAP equipment; receive GPS timing for external timing interface of P-Mux.
What is the point from which control of personnel and vehicle entry is conducted?
Entry control facility
What factors should you take into consideration when planning the installation of an IDS?
Equipment capabilities and limitations, mission criticality and threat to resources that are to be protected.
What functions does a VPN concentrator perform?
Establish tunnels, negotiates tunnel parameters, authenticates users, assigns user addresses, encrypts and decrypts data, manages security keys, manages data transfer across the tunnel, manages data transfer inbound and outbound as a tunnel endpoint or router - invokes various standard protocols to accomplish these functions.
What is the function of the RS-232-C Common (Signal) Ground - Pin 7?
Establishes a common reference for all interchange circuits except Pin 1
What type of encryption does the TACLANE utilize?
Ethernet frame encryption
What sensors provide an early detection and near real-time assessment to any attempt to penetrate the perimeter security system?
Exterior sensors
What agency is responsible for determining maximum amount of deviation?
FCC
What is the difference between the FPS-2 and FPS-2-2R?
FPS-2 is single-channel and can cover up to 100 meters. FPS-2-2R has 2, 100 meter zones.
How is remote administration access activated in the administration and maintenance interface?
From the main system administration terminal
Transceivers are capable of operating in what modes?
Full-duplex, half-duplex, simplex mode(s)
In the output driver of the DA, what assures a linear operating characteristic?
Generous amount of feedback
The telephone exchange system was developed to address what problem?
Get rid of point-to-point setup
What is the function of the RS-232-C Protective Ground - Pin 1?
Ground connection keeps you from getting shocked when you touch the equipment
What are the 2 paths that an HF signal can travel?
Ground wave & sky wave transmission.
Name 3 major propagation paths and identify the radio system(s) used with each.
Ground waves, space waves and sky waves; HF and microwave frequencies.
How many PM's are connected to the ENET?
Hardwired to a designated port
What are the 2 forms of control information typically used to exchange communications between peer OSI layers?
Headers & Trailers
What is the primary application for PRI connections?
Higher xfer speeds and call setup times.
What organization assumed responsibility for the IP address space allocation?
ICANN
How can we increase the capability for regenerating quantized pulses?
Keeping pulses at a constant duration and amplitude`
Which IP address is a 32-bit number, usually represented as a four-part decimal number, with each of the four parts separated by a period or decimal point?
IPv4
What organization was known as the International Telegraph and Telephone Consultative?
ITU Telecommunications Standardization Sector or ITU-T
What services does the FCC-100 provide?
It can serve as a long local telephone channel for TRI-TAC devices or common two-wire desk telephones or fax machines, and for NRZ or CDI data channels.
How does the OTDR use "backscattered" light to make measurements?
It correlates the returned light pulses with a location in the fiber.
What is ADPCM different from PCM?
It generates a 4-bit word PAM rather than an 8-bit word.
What is the purpose of the multipath/amplifier detector?
It looks for increases in the fluctuation level of this signal caused by an intruder disturbance of the multipath field and generates an alarm when fluctuations are large enough.
What is the purpose of the POF system?
It provides facilities for storing DMO's and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution
What is the purpose of the TDR?
It uses pulses to locate and test for sheath faults, damaged conductors, loose connectors, splices, bridge taps, split pairs and other problems.
What devices are compatible with the KIV-7HS/HSB?
KIV-7HS/HSB; KIV-7 or KG84
What are the differences between the KIV 19 and the KIV 19A?
KIV19A provides enhanced features that enable configuration of local strap settings using the control panel.
The crypto module is typically found where in the TDC network?
Located between P-Mux and ground satellite terminal.
How does a slave clock get its timing?
Locks onto incoming data stream from a stable source
Which sideband of AM modulated signal is a mirror-image of the modulating signal?
Lower Sideband
What are the 5 components of the NTSC color video signal?
Luminance, chroma, blanking, sync, colorburst
A means to compensate for attenuation distortions caused by transmission lines
Lumped Inductances
What unique part of a network device is used when acquiring an IPv6 address by way of autoconfiguration?
MAC Address
What menu is best used to report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad FCS, short frames and jabbers?
MAC node statistics
What type of network is also used as a means to interconnect several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines?
MAN or campus network
To what central control component(s) does the IOC interface?
MC in the SuperNode
What are the two IPv6 tunneling classes?
Manual & Automatic
What are 2 types of station clocks?
Master / Slave
State the purpose of a head-end system.
Master facility that receives TV signals for processing and distribution over a cable TV infrastructure.
Explain video tape recording
Means of storing information in a memory device wherein the memory is provided by a series of magnetic patterns on tape.
What precaution should you take before removing / replacing faulty terminal or distribution frame protectors?
Measure voltage across the protector prior to removing it to ensure dangerous voltages are not still present on the line.
What is the purpose of a multimeter?
Measure voltage, current and resistance.
This is an information unit whose source and destination entities exist in the application layers.
Message
How does the system notify a VMUIF mailbox user they have received a message?
Message waiting indicator (either a light on the phone or an interrupted dial tone)
What 2 switch functions does the ENET provide access to?
Messaging and a speech / signaling path
Which quantizing method produces less quantizing noise?
Nonuniform quantizing
What is white noise?
Mixture of all frequencies / if loud enough can mask.
What cards are required for operation of the REDCOM IGX-C Circuit switch?
Modular Switching unit (MSU), Expanded Timeslot Interchange Board (ETSI), Ringing Generator Card.
What device is used to combine the different channel inputs received into one output for distribution?
Modulator (multiplexer)
Explain the purpose of a breakout box
Monitor / access all 25 conductors of RS-232 and ITU V.24 interfaces between modems and terminals.
What is the purpose of supervisory signaling?
Monitor status of line to determine state
Why is the model TROS 8/4 multiplexer used with the STAS and SMAS instead of Advisor VIII?
Multiplexers are standard equipment with these annunciators and directly interface with them
The P-MUX provides what functions?
Multiplexing / demultiplexing of aggregate signals.
Which IPv6 transition approach doesn't require a dual stack router?
NAT-PT (Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation)
What device can be viewed as the actual interface between workstations, servers, clients and the shared media of the network?
NIC
Explain the difference between a protocol analyzer NIC and other NIC's.
NIC in protocol analyzer: Configured to process all frames. Other NIC's: Only process broadcast frames and frames with its MAC address.
What agency approves high-robustness encryption?
NSA
At what layers of the OSI model do LAN protocols operate?
Network & Data Link
What must be employed to preclude unauthorized use of legitimate identification and authentication data?
Network anti-spoofing capability
What service is essential to network security and must not be susceptible to spoofing?
Network time sourcing
At what layers do WAN protocols operate?
Network, Data Link & Physical
What is one of laser light transmissions greatest advantages?
No FCC license is required. Equipment is moderate in cost and undetected eavesdropping is difficult.
What susceptibility does PAM share with AM?
Noise
Why is PDM less affected by noise than PAM?
Noise less likely to be correct (amplitude/time)
What characteristics of a pulse train does frequency influence?
Number/spacing of harmonics
What are some examples of classless routing protocols?
OSPF, RIP version 2, Cisco's EIGRP / BGP / IS - IS
MIB's contain a set of managed objects - how are they identified?
Object identifiers
What 2 things may an MIB be indentified by?
Object name or object descriptor
What term is used in networking when referring to 8 bits of information?
Octet
Where can a gateway reside?
On servers, microcomputers or on connectivity devices such as routers or mainframes
What is a typical adminstration configuration for the MSM administration and maintenance interface?
One main system administration terminal and up to 3 MAT's
What is a dual-phenomenology sensor?
One that uses a combination of microwave and passive infrared sensors in the same physical circuit and housing
List the 4 signals recorded on tape.
One video track, two audio tracks and a control track.
What is the difference between overflow and underflow?
Overflow: More bits than expected Underflow: Fewer bits received than expected.
Of PAM, PDM, PPM, PCM - which is least affected by noise?
PCM
Analog-to-Digital Technique? Digital-to-Analog Technique?
PCM CVSD
What are the 2 main interfaces used in ISDN?
PRI and BRI
What are 2 other names for PDM?
PWM PLM
This is an information unit whose source and destination are network-layer entities.
Packet
List 4 types of specific occurrences that can be displayed by counters.
Packets transmitted, CRC errors, undersize packets, oversize packets, ARP requests, collisions and bit errors.
What are one-time passwords?
Passwords used only once and change for each user access session.
What are the 3 characteristics of a pulse train that can be varied by an information signal to produce a modulated rectangular pulse train?
Peak voltage, period, pulse width/duration.
Using the NNM, what are the steps involved in printing performance graphs?
Performance graphs can be printed by selecting File & Print from the Graph window.
A hub operates at this layer
Physical (1)
Electrical, mechanical, procedural and functional specifications for network communications
Physical (1)
What is modulation?
Process of modifying any characteristic of a signal so that it varies in-step with value of another signal.
What does a typical router contain?
Processor, memory, input / output, management console interface
What disadvantage is shared by both PAM and PDM?
Proportionately affected by distortion in pulse width/amplitude.
What is the function of protectors installed on the MDF?
Protect switching system from damage due to high voltages that could enter the central office via the base cable plant.
The purpose of the PRC (Primary Rate Card) is to?
Provide and manage incoming/outgoing calls to network.
What purpose does the tactical interface gateway serve?
Provides backwards compatibility with TRI-TAC devices such as tactical radios, DNVT and DSVT's
What type of test pattern does the data code generator produce?
Pseudo-random
What are the primary components of the BAM v3?
REDCOM IGX-C and 2 Cisco switches
Identify and define the 4 common routing protocols
RIP: Slower, less secure. Internal protocol. Does not work well in large environments. OSPF: Used commonly on LANs with rely on a mix of routers from different manufacturers. EIGRP: Cisco proprietary. Supports large / heterogeneous networks. BGP: Used on border / exterior routers.
A space wave and a reflected wave arrive at the receive antenna 180° out-of-phase. What effect will this have on the received receiver signal level (RSL)?
RSL will decrease due to partial or total cancellation.
What happens to the RSL when reflected waves and space waves pass in and out-of-phase at the receive antenna?
RSL will vary due to the aiding and opposing of the 2 signals.
Name some control leads
RTS - Pin 4; CTS - Pin 5; DSR - Pin 6; DTR - Pin 20 and Received Line Signal Detector (Carrier Detect-CD) - Pin 8.
What are two items used to provide ES capability?
Radar warning receivers / intelligence platforms.
Define the term clocking.
Rate of running / keeps approximately standard time.
What are the 4 basic SNMP commands?
Read, write, trap and traversal operations
List the advantage of OFDM
Reduces the amount of interference caused by multipath
Companding does what?
Reduces the range of voice signals; compresses high-amplitude portions.
Name the 3 factors that affect microwave propagation.
Reflection, refraction and diffraction.
What components make up the NGRT?
Reflector dish, tracking receiver and pedestal motor assembly with tripod.
How do one-way repeaters overcome attenuation?
Repeaters remove the unwanted noise in an incoming signal
What does it mean to have a dual-stack router?
Router has both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols running on it
What is the difference between routing and routed protocols?
Routing: Path determination / traffic switching Routed: Preparing data to be placed onto network media. In essence, routing protocols route routed protocols.
What purpose does the STRC have in the AF IP Receive Suite?
STRC contains all the computer elements required for operating the NGRT, including initial heading settings for satellite acquisition and test circuitry for troubleshooting.
Broadband is a term that refers to what type of signaling method?
Signaling method that can handle a relatively large range (band) of frequencies.
Describe a TDR's operating principle.
Similar to radar where a pulse is applied; impedence changes and reflections occur.
The MRV console server provides what service?
Secure remote configuration and management of TDC modules.
Ensures a transferred message has been sent and received by the parties claiming to have sent and received the message.
Security Management
Includes authentication, access control, data confidentiality, data integrity and nonrepudiation.
Security Management
This is an information unit whose source and destination are transport-layer entities.
Segment
What allows a personal computer or digital picture manipulator to remote control all of the switcher's functions?
Serial interface
This layer establishes, manages, and terminates communication sessions between presentation layer entities
Session (5)
How does ADM differ from DM?
Signal's step size may vary from sample to sample
What are the fields belonging to a TCP segment?
Source port, Destination port, Sequence number, ACK, TCP header length, Reserved, Flags, Sliding-window size (window), Checksum, Urgent pointer, Options, Padding and Data
What term is used for additional sidebands that cause unwanted bandwidth and distortion transmitted in AM signal?
Splatter
What kind of cable faults can the TDR locate?
Splices, water in cable, split pairs, discontinuities / faults.
What three characteristics must the DWDM optical demultiplexer have?
Stable, flat passband, must reject adjacent optical channels.
The protocols at the Data Link layer define the access method for the media, the architecture, and interface with the Physical layer of the network based on what protocol standards?
Standards adopted by IEEE; Project 802 standards
The asynchronous data communications protocol data frames use what for synchronization?
Start & stop bits
List some of the advantages of digital video recording.
Superior image quality and ability to dupe down unlimited generations (cloning), edit layer upon layer of effects without quality loss, record in one TV standard and accurately reproduce in a different standard.
What problem is associated with all forms of AM?
Susceptibility to interference.
What are the 3 terms we use to describe synchronization methods used in digital signaling?
Synchronous, asynchronous, isochronous
Problems that affect the QoS and functionality customers require are related to what cornerstone of voice network system security?
System Integrity
What results from a denial of service security incident?
System is disabled or a worm has saturated network bandwidth
What is one of the primary functions of the NCC and what are the purposes of that function?
System monitoring: Verifies system is operational and makes sure that the system is being operated within parameters established by network security policy and the DAA.
When changing the DMS database, you are required to name particular entries. Which major database facility stores these entries?
The data dictionary
What major DMS database facility provides facilities for mapping data from its external character string format to its logical binary format?
The formatter
Why does the area lighting need to illuminate the interior of the restricted area?
To help personnel detect and track intruders.
Why did the NTSC decide to shift the R-Y and B-Y signals 33° counterclockwise?
To place the R-Y signal on the axis of maximum visual acuity and the B-Y signal on the axis of minimum visual acuity.
What application does the FCC-100 Tactical Module have in the TDC network?
To provide low rate communiations channels to smaller sites.
What are some reasons for implementing DHCP?
To reduce the time and planning spent on IP address management, to reduce the potential for errors in assigning IP addresses, to enable users to move their workstations and printers without having to change their TCP/IP configuration, and to make IP addressing transparent for mobile users
Why is modulation used?
To transmit audiofrequencies over appreciable distances and to send more than 1 message at a time over same medium.
In what way is satellite communications a deficiency?
Tranmitting on uplink is secure; transmission on downlink is in broadcast mode which makes it unsecure.
What is the maximum # of submailboxes that can be partitioned from a VMUIF main mailbox?
Up to 8 submailboxes
How many DC's can be connected to 1, IOC?
Up to 9 DC Cards
What are the 2 bands of frequencies located below and above the carrier in AM modulated signals called?
Upper/Lower Sidebands
What components of AM modulated sine wave carries information signals?
Upper/Lower Sidebands
What do deflections (pips) indicate to the TDR user?
Upward deflections = Opens Downward deflections = Shorts
How is phase ambiguity overcome when PM techniques area used?
Use of a pilot tone
List the V-series standards that you may encounter
V.35; V.90; V.92
What are WDM technologies?
WDM CWDM DWDM
What information can be obtained from the ZIPS?
What sensors have gone into alarm since it was last reset
68. (029) On a breakout box, how many RS-232 key interface signals can be monitored and accessed individually? a. 12. b. 20. c. 24. d. 25.
a. 12.
81. (426) How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration? a. 16, 8. b. 12, 10. c. 13, 8. d. 13, 10.
a. 16, 8.
5. (203) What Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)/Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA) standard is used for commercially building telecommunications cabling? a. 568A. b. 569A. c. 570A. d. 606A
a. 568A.
92. (433) Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report? a. 72. b. 48. c. 24. d. 12.
a. 72.
1. (201) What happens when more bits are added to a digital signal arranged in a sequence understood by the sender and receiver? a. A code set is established. b. A word is created. c. An octet is formed. d. Nothing.
a. A code set is established.
52. (022) The definition of electronic attack can be found in which publication? a. Air Force Doctrine Document 2-5.1. b. Air Force Instruction 10-101. c. Air Force Policy Memorandum 2-1. d. Air Force Manual 2-5.1.
a. Air Force Doctrine Document 2-5.1.
18. (206) What Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer is closest to the end user? a. Application. b. Session. c. Presentation. d. Transport.
a. Application.
46. (018) In what common channel signaling (CCS) mode are the messages relating to signaling between two points conveyed directly interconnecting these signaling points? a. Associated mode. b. Nonassociated mode. c. Quasi-associated mode. d. Multi-associated mode.
a. Associated mode.
81. (232) What process provides the overall process to secure and protect our information networks? a. Barrier Reef. b. Defense in Depth. c. Combat Information Transport System/Base Information Protection (CITS/BIP). d. Joint Vision 2010.
a. Barrier Reef.
74. (423) What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor? a. Beam break. b. Signal fade margin. c. Multipath deflection. d. Dual-phenomena reflection.
a. Beam break.
45. (018) In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used to convey signaling information known as? a. Bit robbing. b. Bit stuffing. c. Frame correction. d. Frame enhancement.
a. Bit robbing.
59. (223) Which routing protocol does internet backbones use? a. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP). b. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF). c. Routing Information Protocol (RIP). d. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).
a. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
21. (208) What data communication protocol is used to govern the flow and format of information between systems? a. Character-oriented. b. Bit-oriented. c. Routing. d. Network.
a. Character-oriented.
89. (236) What must be employed to ensure data integrity? a. Check sums. b. Access lists. c. Encryption. d. Authentication.
a. Check sums.
66. (226) When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action is suggested by most manufacturers to prevent false readings? a. Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested. b. Connect an injector at the end of the cable being tested. c. Set the range for maximum reading. d. Use the Frequency mode.
a. Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.
19. (410) Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services? a. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100. b. DMS-100/200 and MSL-100. c. DMS-100/200 and DMS-200. d. DMS-200 and MSL-100.
a. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.
86. (234) What security posture prevents everything that is not specifically authorized? a. Default deny. b. Default allow. c. Close. d. Open.
a. Default deny.
74. (228) A Management Information Base (MIB) can be identified by either its object name or its object what? a. Descriptor. b. Character. c. Number. d. Trait.
a. Descriptor.
41. (017) What communications information signal uses a continuous 350- and 440-Hz frequency pair? a. Dial tone. b. Ringback signal. c. Off-hook alert. d. Call waiting.¬
a. Dial tone.
37. (213) Which Application layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique internet protocol (IP) address to every device on a network? a. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP). b. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP). c. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). d. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
a. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
6. (204) Which of the following is an International Telecommunication Union (ITU) standardized format used for digital telecommunications services backbone system? a. E-carrier. b. Structured query language. c. International Organization for Standardization. d. American Standard Code for Information Interchange.
a. E-carrier.
46. (417) What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background? a. Effects keyer. b. Effects preview multiplier. c. Effects program multiplier. d. Transition pattern generator.
a. Effects keyer.
4. (203) What organization sets important computer networking wiring standards for residential and commercial network cabling? a. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA). b. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). c. The American National Standards Institute (ANSI). d. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST).
a. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
65. (028) What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding? a. Extended superframe. b. Alternate mark inversion. c. Return-to-zero. d. Superframe.
a. Extended superframe.
34. (213) Which Application layer protocol is used to send and receive files by way of transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)? a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP). b. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP). c. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). d. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
51. (419) What is the beginning of a cable system called? a. Head-end. b. Trunk line. c. Receiver. d. Decoder.
a. Head-end.
30. (212) What Network layer protocol provides information about how and where data should be delivered, including the data's source and destination addresses? a. Internet protocol (IP). b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). c. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP). d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
a. Internet protocol (IP).
31. (412) Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail? a. Journal file. b. Table control. c. Dump/restore. d. Pending order file.
a. Journal file.
49. (021) What term is associated with the delay or lag introduced in the application of voltage from one section to the next? a. Latency. b. Phase delay. c. Propagation constant. d. Phase delay distortion.PSK).
a. Latency.
75. (423) When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter? a. Lowest possible. b. Highest possible. c. Equal to the phase lock loop (PLL). d. Midpoint.
a. Lowest possible.
43. (416) What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording? a. Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality. b. Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain. c. The material recorded can be cloned with noticeable loss of quality. d. The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain.
a. Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
58. (025) When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading fluctuates and a more accurate reading is desired? a. Minimum/maximum (MIN/MAX). b. Display hold. c. Frequency. d. Range.
a. Minimum/maximum (MIN/MAX).
75. (229) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) has three components: a managed device, an agent and a a. Network Management System (NMS). b. Management Information Base (MIB). c. monitor screen. d. threshold.
a. Network Management System (NMS).
40. (214) What are the two parts to an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address? a. Network and host. b. Network and class. c. Class and host. d. Network and octet.
a. Network and host.
8. (404) Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission? a. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver. b. Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper. c. Sensitive to atmospheric interference. d. Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission.
a. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.
13. (407) What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system? a. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues. b. The invention of the multi-line telephone. c. Military communication requirements. d. Radio communication requirements.
a. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
96. (434) If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed? a. Quality control (QC). b. Test and acceptance (T&A). c. Operations and maintenance (O&M). d. Operational acceptance.
a. Quality control (QC).
39. (416) How is information recorded or stored on the videotape? a. Series of magnetic patterns. b. Series of edited electrical patterns. c. Transferred current indents. d. Transferred voltage indents.
a. Series of magnetic patterns.
16. (408) What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity? a. Subversion. b. Unauthorized monitoring. c. Inexperienced switch technicians. d. Inadequate maintenance practices.
a. Subversion
54. (222) What device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments? a. Switch. b. Brouter. c. Gateway. d. Repeater.
a. Switch.
36. (213) Which Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation used to log on to remote hosts? a. Teletype Network. b. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP). c. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). d. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
a. Teletype Network.
73. (227) What protocol analyzer utility is used to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip? a. Trace Route. b. Ping. c. Who is. d. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
a. Trace Route.
54. (420) What must a line of detection detect? a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection. b. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the line of detection. c. Potential for intruder to bypass the system. d. Possibility of equipment failures.
a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
4. (003) The information-carrying components that occur on either side of a carrier are called a. sidebands. b. sine waves. c. frequency translators. d. modulating frequencies
a. sidebands.
79. (231) The community name that is used with the network management systems (NMS) authenticates a. simple network management protocol (SNMP) requests. b. transmission control protocol (TCP) requests. c. simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) requests. d. file transfer protocol (FTP) requests.
a. simple network management protocol (SNMP) requests.
29. (013) Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are a. synchronous, asynchronous, and isochronous. b. isochronous, asynchronous, and bisynchronous. c. nonsynchronous, bisynchronous, and synchronous. d. asynchronous, bisynchronous, and nonsynchronous.ïýïýïý
a. synchronous, asynchronous, and isochronous.
49. (219) The combination transmitter/receiver device, in a single package, is called a a. transceiver. b. repeater. c. router. d. hub.
a. transceiver.
5. (003) Amplitude modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is a. twice that of the modulating signal. b. half that of the modulating signal. c. twice that of the carrier signal. d. half that of the carrier signal.HTTP/
a. twice that of the modulating signal.
24. (011) Wave-division multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmission by using different a. wavelengths or lambdas. b. wavelengths or gammas. c. frequencies or lambdas. d. frequencies or gammas.
a. wavelengths or lambdas.
97. (435) The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the a. responsible operations and maintenance (O&M) agency. b. "from" (sending) station. c. "to" (receiving) station. d. type of trunk.
b. "from" (sending) station.
62. (422) What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported? a. 1.5 to 10 seconds. b. 1.5 to 15 seconds. c. 3 to 10 seconds. d. 5 to 15 seconds.
b. 1.5 to 15 seconds.
38. (016) How many bits are in the D4 framing sequence? a. 8. b. 12. c. 24. d. 48.
b. 12.
63. (422) Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor? a. 15-50 feet. b. 15-75 feet. c. 25-75 feet. d. 30-90 feet.
b. 15-75 feet.
15. (205) What transmission rates does Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-530 accommodate? a. 20 kilobits per second (Kbps) to 200 Kbps. b. 20 Kbps to 2 megabits per second (Mbps). c. 20 Kbps to 20 Mbps. d. 20 Kbps to 22 Mbps.
b. 20 Kbps to 2 megabits per second (Mbps).
68. (423) What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)? a. 150 feet. b. 200 feet. c. 328 feet. d. 425 feet.
b. 200 feet.
19. (009) How many bits per character of a 16-step pulse-code modulation (PCM) system are used to describe the quantized analog sample? a. 3. b. 4. c. 5. d. 8.
b. 4.
70. (423) In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) remain operational? a. 2. b. 4. c. 8. d. 10.
b. 4.
13. (205) Within how many feet of the data communications equipment (DCE) connection does the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-232-C standard prescribes bipolar-voltage serial data transmission? a. 25. b. 50. c. 100. d. 200.
b. 50.
50. (418) What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier? a. 60 Hz and 15,750 Hz. b. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz. c. 15,750 Hz and 4.5 MHz. d. 15,750 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
b. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
36. (415) What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system? a. 4-quardraplex sideband (4-QSB). b. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB). c. 4-vestigial modulation (4-VM). d. 8-quadrature modulation (8-QM).
b. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
34. (015) Which statement best describes an alternate mark inversion (AMI) signal? a. The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels. b. A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative. c. The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition. d. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.
b. A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.
24. (410) What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)? a. Printers, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives. b. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers. c. A maintenance and administration position (MAP). d. The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboard.
b. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.
82. (232) What defines traffic flow and is a basic protection mechanism on routers? a. Telnet. b. Access lists. c. Hypertext Transfer Protocol session. d. Virtual Local Area Networks.
b. Access lists.
62. (027) What is the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer (TDR)? a. Reflection. b. Backscatter. c. Scatter coefficient. d. Reflection coefficient.5B
b. Backscatter.
67. (028) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity in violation of alternate mark inversion coding rules? a. Cyclic redundancy check. b. Bipolar violation. c. Bit slip. d. Frame.
b. Bipolar violation.
23. (209) What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits? a. Character-oriented. b. Bit-oriented. c. Routing. d. Network.
b. Bit-oriented.
21. (410) Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control? a. Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS). b. CM and system load module (SLM). c. Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU). d. CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM).
b. CM and system load module (SLM).
90. (432) A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from a. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). b. Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO). c. the systems control facility (SCF). d. the end user.
b. Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
5. (402) Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations? a. Milstar Communication System. b. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS). c. Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM). d. Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC).
b. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
59. (025) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take? a. Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack. b. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested. c. Place the meter in the frequency mode. d. Set the range for maximum reading.=135
b. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
93. (433) What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service? a. In-effect. b. Exception. c. Acceptance. d. Delayed service.
b. Exception.
7. (204) There is a worldwide nonprofit association of technical professionals that promotes the development of standards called the a. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). b. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). c. European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI). d. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).
b. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
8. (204) A collection of standards for local area network (LAN) architectures, protocols, and technologies called Project 802 were developed by the a. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). b. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). c. European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI). d. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).
b. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
15. (008) What is the main advantage of differential phase shift keying (DPSK)? a. Carrier presence is required to detect changes. b. It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal. c. It requires a more complex receiver than a basic PSK signal. d. The demodulator needs to detect changes in absolute phase values.
b. It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal.
16. (206) What two sublayers did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divide the Open System Interconnect (OSI) data link layers into? a. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC). b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). c. Data communications equipment (DCE) and data terminal equipment (DTE). d. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-232 and RS-530.
b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
37. (415) What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission? a. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)-1. b. MPEG-2. c. MPEG-3. d. MPEG-4.
b. MPEG-2.
99. (436) Which office or system confirms a restoration priority? a. Circuit control office (CCO). b. National Communications System (NCS). c. Systems control facility (SCF). d. Defense Communications System (DCS).
b. National Communications System (NCS).
32. (014) In what type of signal is the information contained in the transition, and there is a transition from one state to the other only when a mark bit is sent? a. Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level. b. Non-return-to-zero mark. c. Non-return-to-zero space. d. Return-to-zero level.ïý
b. Non-return-to-zero mark.
72. (227) What protocol analyzer utility is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding? a. Trace Route. b. Ping. c. Who is. d. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
b. Ping.
41. (416) What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded? a. Fast Forward. b. Playback. c. Erasure. d. Rewind.
b. Playback.
2. (401) What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air? a. Atmospheric pressure. b. Propagation medium. c. Temperature. d. Moisture.
b. Propagation medium.
68. (227) What test equipment has the capability of diagnosing digital network and developing communications software? a. Digital distortion analyzer. b. Protocol analyzer. c. Communications test set. d. Data analysis center.
b. Protocol analyzer.
44. (216) What is not a recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)? a. Start with the shortest mask. b. Re-address the entire network. c. Aim to use contiguous subnets where possible. d. Choose one or more available subnets and subnet further.
b. Re-address the entire network.
80. (231) What defines the format and type of data in a network management system (NMS) report? a. Grapher template. b. Report template. c. Grapher tool. d. Report tool.
b. Report template.
56. (223) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network? a. Switch. b. Router. c. Gateway. d. Repeater.
b. Router.
22. (208) In binary-synchronous protocol, what character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission? a. SEQ. b. SYN. c. STX. d. EST.
b. SYN.
29. (412) Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner? a. Journal file. b. Table control. c. Dump/restore. d. Pending order file.
b. Table control.
69. (423) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed? a. None. b. Tamper. c. Intruder. d. Equipment fault.
b. Tamper.
47. (218) Which Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) tunneling approach attempts to solve the issue of IPv6 to IP version 4 (IPv4), IP protocol 41 issue? a. 6to4. b. Teredo. c. Tunnel Broker. d. Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP).
b. Teredo.
40. (017) What communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination? a. Pulse dialing. b. Tone dialing. c. Digit dialing. d. Address dialing.
b. Tone dialing.
35. (213) Which protocol is simpler than File Transfer Protocol (FTP) when transferring files between computers? a. FTP. b. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP). c. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). d. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
b. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).
53. (419) What component carries the signal to individual subscribers? a. Head-end. b. Trunk line. c. Receiver. d. Coax RJ-6.
b. Trunk line.
25. (011) The most common wave-division multiplexing (WDM) system uses how many wavelengths? a. One wavelength. b. Two wavelengths. c. Three wavelengths. d. Four wavelengths.
b. Two wavelengths.
33. (212) Which Transport layer protocol does not guarantee that packets will be received at all? a. Internet protocol (IP). b. User Datagram Protocol (UDP). c. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
b. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
11. (204) Which series of standards are recommended for data transmission using the telephone network? a. T. b. V. c. X. d. Z.
b. V.
33. (413) What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes? a. Administration and maintenance interface. b. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum. c. Meridian mail user interface. d. Message service interface.
b. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
27. (210) What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances? a. Local area network (LAN). b. Wide area network (WAN). c. Virtual private network (VPN). d. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
b. Wide area network (WAN).
11. (006) The amount of deviation in a frequency modulation (FM) signal is directly proportional to the modulating signal's a. phase. b. amplitude. c. frequency. d. amplitude and frequency.
b. amplitude.
31. (013) A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes a. synchronous operation. b. asynchronous operation. c. synchronous and/or isochronous operation. d. asynchronous and/or synchronous operation.
b. asynchronous operation.
42. (416) An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for a. minimizing video loss. b. carrying a video waveform. c. minimized signal dropout. d. transmitting an analog waveform.
b. carrying a video wavefoooorm
53. (023) Any actions we take to protect our forces, facilities, and equipment for electronic action that can destroy or degrade our capabilities is considered a. electronic combat. b. electronic protection. c. electronic attack. d. electronic warfare support.ode.o.
b. electronic protection.
57. (421) The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a a. gatehouse, vehicle parking area, and personnel entry gate. b. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area. c. personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator, and gatehouse. d. location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.
b. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
47. (417) The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with a. linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer. b. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal. c. key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal. d. luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer.
b. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
11. (406) The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the a. basic rate interface (BRI). b. primary rate interface (PRI). c. trunk rate interface (TRI). d. switch rate interface (SRI).
b. primary rate interface (PRI).
67. (226) A cable scanner wire-map display identifies crossover and straight-through cables by a. displaying opens, shorts, and split pairs. b. providing wiring maps at both ends of the cable. c. monitoring and providing access to conductors. d. measuring current, frequency, and resistance.
b. providing wiring maps at both ends of the cable.
8. (005) The only basic waveform in nature is a a. carrier wave. b. pure sine wave. c. resultant wave. d. composite wave.c=1
b. pure sine wave.
28. (012) Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by a. impedance mismatch. b. system timing faults. c. improper equipment settings. d. changes in atmospheric conditions.
b. system timing faults.
91. (237) An intrusion detection system (IDS) may miss attacks that bypass the firewall like application-based attacks and a. snooping. b. tunneling. c. capturing. d. rejecting.
b. tunneling.
88. (431) What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information? a. Military. b. Type one. c. Managed. d. Classified.
b. type one
1. (401) One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to a. line noise. b. weather effects. c. frequency distortion. d. electromagnetic interference.
b. weather effects.
43. (017) What communications supervisory signal uses a continuous application of direct current voltage for signaling? a. Record warning. b. Fast busy signal. c. Loop-start. d. E and M.
c. Loop-start.
20. (410) What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports? a. 10,000. b. 30,000. c. 100,000. d. 300,000.
c. 100,000.
71. (423) How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor? a. 0.5. b. 1. c. 2. d. 4.
c. 2.
4. (402) How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit? a. 2,230. b. 2,320. c. 22,300. d. 23,200.
c. 22,300.
39. (016) How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence? a. 8. b. 12. c. 24. d. 48.
c. 24.
18. (409) How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have? a. 32. b. 12. c. 3. d. 1.
c. 3.
98. (435) Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)? a. 310-55-1 only. b. 300-175-9 only. c. 310-70-1 and 310-55-1. d. 310-70-1 and 300-175-9.
c. 310-70-1 and 310-55-1.
67. (423) What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)? a. 150 feet. b. 200 feet. c. 328 feet. d. 425 feet.
c. 328 feet.
2. (002) What converts analog signal information into an analog carrier signal? a. Delta modulation (DM). b. Digital modulation. c. Analog modulation. d. Adaptive modulation.
c. Analog modulation.
45. (217) What mechanism allows for easier Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address allocations? a. Auto-sense. b. Auto negotiation. c. Auto configuration. d. Auto summarization.
c. Auto configuration.
22. (010) The two major types of frame structures are a. low speed and high speed. b. high speed and EBCDIC. c. CCITT and low speed. d. EBCDIC and CCITT.
c. CCITT and low speed.
47. (019) What are the two principle weighting characteristics in use with telecommunication circuit noise? a. Institute of Electronic and Electrical Engineers and CCITT psophometric. b. Noise analysis and CCITT psophometric. c. CCITT psophometric and C-message. d. C-message and noise analysis.
c. CCITT psophometric and C-message.
83. (427) For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary? a. KIV 19. b. KIV-7HS/B. c. CV-2048/8448-D. d. Cisco 3745 router.
c. CV-2048/8448-D.
70. (227) What component of a protocol analyzer processes the frames based on the selected test and the user configuration inputs? a. Counter. b. Buffer. c. Central processing unit (CPU). d. Filter
c. Central processing unit (CPU).
45. (416) What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)? a. Tape meter. b. Tracker. c. Counter. d. Display clock.
c. Counter.
3. (002) What converts analog signal information into a digital carrier signal? a. Delta modulation (DM). b. Analog modulation. c. Digital modulation. d. Adaptive modulation.
c. Digital modulation.
57. (025) When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations? a. Range. b. Frequency. c. Display hold. d. Minimum/maximum (MIN/MAX).
c. Display hold.
60. (422) What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel? a. End-of-line (EOL) resistor. b. Line termination unit. c. EOL module. d. Tamper interface unit.
c. EOL module.
65. (226) What type of cable property changes does a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect to identify problems? a. Conductance. b. Inductance. c. Impedance. d. Capacitance.
c. Impedance.
12. (204) The definition of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) reference model was a major contribution to networking made by the a. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). b. International Telecommunication Union (ITU). c. International Organization for Standardization (ISO). d. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
c. International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
61. (224) What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a local area network (LAN)? a. Voice/data. b. Internet. c. LAN. d. Firewall.
c. LAN.
87. (235) What is the first line of defense when gaining access to a laptop computer's operating system? a. Physical security. b. Information condition. c. Logon identification and password combination. d. File share level of effective permissions.
c. Logon identification and password combination.
19. (207) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers? a. Layer above. b. Layer below. c. Lowest layer. d. Peer layer.
c. Lowest layer.
32. (413) What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature? a. Administration and maintenance interface. b. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum. c. Meridian mail user interface. d. Message service interface.
c. Meridian mail user interface.
52. (419) What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line? a. Multiplexer. b. Demodulator. c. Modulator. d. Decoder.
c. Modulator.
95. (434) Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Annual.
c. Monthly.
44. (017) When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling? a. When dial tone is present. b. On-hook condition. c. Off-hook condition. d. During the ringback signal..¬
c. Off-hook condition.
61. (422) Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders? a. Ultrasonic. b. Microwave. c. Passive infrared. d. Dual-phenomenology.
c. Passive infrared.
29. (211) Which type network enables users to share resources, files, and printers in a decentralized way? a. Intranet. b. Extranet. c. Peer-to-peer. d. Client-server.
c. Peer-to-peer.
78. (230) Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network devices and provides statistical data about the network? a. Fault. b. Accounting. c. Performance. d. Configuration.
c. Performance.
51. (220) What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong? a. Data Link and Network layers. b. Physical and Network layers. c. Physical and Data Link layers. d. Physical, Data Link, and Network layers.
c. Physical and Data Link layers.
17. (206) At what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used? a. Application. b. Session. c. Presentation. d. Transport.
c. Presentation.
92. (238) What type of firewall can filter messages according to a set of rules for a specific application? a. Bastion host. b. Circuit level. c. Proxy server. d. Packet filtering.
c. Proxy server.
32. (212) Which Network layer protocol provides the internet protocol (IP) address for a device that knows its own Media Access Control (MAC) address? a. IP. b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). c. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP). d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
c. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
58. (223) What is the oldest routing protocol? a. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP). b. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF). c. Routing Information Protocol (RIP). d. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).
c. Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
42. (215) How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network? a. Three. b. Five. c. Seven. d. Nine.
c. Seven.
59. (422) What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit? a. Small annunciator system (SMAS). b. Standard annunciator system (STAS). c. Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS). d. Security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART).
c. Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).
41. (214) What is used on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network to determine which network a computer is on? a. Subnet host. b. Subnet network. c. Subnet mask. d. Host mask.
c. Subnet mask.
84. (233) What is one of the primary functions of the Network Control Center (NCC), usually done in real time, and ensures the system is being operated within the parameters established by network security policy? a. Packet filtering. b. System auditing. c. System monitoring. d. Information protection.
c. System monitoring.
66. (028) When performing a bit error rate test (BERT), what determines the size of a test pattern segment? a. The total number of bits in the test pattern. b. The total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern. c. The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. d. The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern.
c. The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
89. (431) Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television settop converter box? a. Managed Ethernet switch (MES). b. Display and keyboard. c. Video converter. d. RBM server.
c. Video converter.
28. (210) What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet? a. Local area network (LAN). b. Wide area network (WAN). c. Virtual private network (VPN). d. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
c. Virtual private network (VPN).
53. (221) What can be used to extend the size of a network? a. Brouter. b. Gateway. c. Active hubs. d. Passive hubs.
c. active hubs
69. (029) The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to a. measure the individual interface signals. b. change the voltage of individual interface signals. c. allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors. d. allow the cross-patching of the individual interface conductors.
c. allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors.
15. (408) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability, a. circumvention, and confidentiality. b. circumvention, and disclosure. c. confidentiality, and integrity. d. disclosure, and integrity
c. confidentiality, and integrity.
40. (416) You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an a. magnet. b. conductor. c. electromagnet. d. charged capacitor.
c. electromagnet.
51. (022) Jamming a portion of the frequency spectrum is an example of a. electronic combat. b. electronic protection. c. electronic attack. d. electronic warfare support.
c. electronic attack.
26. (410) The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to a. verify the circuit is not in use. b. prevent interruptions to critical circuits. c. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line. d. avoid activating alarm circuits.
c. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
82. (427) For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module's router normally acts as the a. management console. b. internal firewall. c. external router. d. internal router.
c. external router.
56. (420) The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to a. provide security forces personnel a safe working environment during night time hours. b. identify wildlife inside the perimeter detection zone. c. facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders. d. present a means of deterring unauthorized entry.
c. facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
14. (008) In quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) the radio frequency (RF) bandwidth for a quadriphase signal is what of that required by a bi-phase signal, given the same data rate. a. four times. b. double. c. half. d. the same.46473
c. half.
14. (407) When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call a. is broadcast over multiple paths between switches. b. is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts. c. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch. d. requires a dedicated switch to make the connection.
c. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
55. (222) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called a. lag. b. hop. c. latency. d. time zone.
c. latency.
6. (403) To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be a. phase shifted. b. transmitted. c. modulated. d. encoded.
c. modulated.
77. (424) Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by a. using two trunk cards in one Promina. b. configuring a bundle consisting of 24 DS0s. c. not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call. d. consuming bandwidth equally in both directions while preserving one-way communication.
c. not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
3. (202) In networking, a byte is identified as a/an a. bit. b. word. c. octet. d. letter.
c. octit
23. (410) Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers? a. Central control. b. input/output (I/O). c. peripheral module (PM). d. peripheral subsystem (PS).
c. peripheral module (PM).
83. (232) The World Wide Web (WWW) proxy provides three benefits: it conceals internal network configuration, provides a means to monitor and eliminate traffic to unofficial WWW sites, and a. allows for limited WWW access because it is so restrictive. b. allows web pages to download in a considerably less time. c. provides much faster access to the internet. d. you see the same sites over again since it caches pages.
c. provides much faster access to the internet.
17. (009) The form of pulse modulation in which the pulse is varied within a set range of positions is known as a. pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM). b. pulse-duration modulation (PDM). c. pulse-position modulation (PPM). d. pulse-code modulation (PCM).
c. pulse-position modulation (PPM).
55. (024) Electronic warfare support includes devices such as a. anti-radiation missiles and directed energy weapons. b. intelligence platforms and noise jamming systems. c. radar warning receivers and intelligence systems. d. directed energy weapons and radar warning receivers.el.ïý
c. radar warning receivers and intelligence systems.
48. (020) While timing makes sure the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals, synchronization makes sure that the a. receive equipment timing is set properly. b. transmit equipment timing is set properly. c. receive equipment can find its place in the bit stream. d. transmit equipment can find its place in the bit stream..
c. receive equipment can find its place in the bit stream.
21. (010) In Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), the transmitting multiplexer will put a bit or a byte from each of the incoming lines into a specifically allocated what? a. channel. b. trunk. c. time slot. d. port.
c. time slot.
79. (425) If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to a. synchronization. b. buffer overflow. c. timing slips. d. data speeds.
c. timing slips.
73. (423) What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)? a. 100 hertz (Hz). b. 800 Hz. c. 1000 Hz. d. 1200 Hz.
d. 1200 Hz.
72. (423) At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change? a. 100 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver. b. 150 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver. c. 100 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers. d. 150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
d. 150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
84. (428) The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of. a. 4. b. 6. c. 8. d. 2.
d. 2.
12. (406) How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use? a. 2, 1. b. 30, 2. c. 1, 24. d. 23, 1.
d. 23, 1.
65. (423) A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters? a. 100. b. 150. c. 200. d. 300.
d. 300.
61. (026) Which push-buttons would you select to get 125-ohm (Ù) impedance on the time domain reflectometer? a. 50Ù, 75Ù, and 125Ù. b. 75Ù and 125Ù . c. 50Ù and 125Ù . d. 50Ù and 75Ù.
d. 50Ù and 75Ù.
7. (004) We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as a. 2 decibels (dB) of improvement. b. 4 dB of improvement. c. 6 dB of improvement. d. 8 dB of improvement.
d. 8 dB of improvement.
38. (415) How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display? a. 2. b. 4. c. 6. d. 8.
d. 8=>
17. (409) What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry? a. A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city. b. A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system. c. A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area. d. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
d. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
58. (422) What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building? a. AN/GSS-42. b. AN/GSS-41. c. AN/GSS-29. d. AN/GSS-39.
d. AN/GSS-39.
30. (013) Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation? a. Timing pulses are transmitted within the signal stream. b. Start and stop pulses control data transmission. c. System timing is not of critical importance. d. All data bits are the same length in time.
d. All data bits are the same length in time.
36. (015) Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal? a. The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels. b. A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative. c. The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition. d. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.
d. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.
27. (012) What unit is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed? a. Baud. b. Baudot. c. Sense interface. d. Bits per second.
d. Bits per second.
77. (230) Which network management function provides the capability to initialize, operate and shut down managed devices? a. Fault. b. Accounting. c. Performance. d. Configuration.
d. Configuration.
78. (425) Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network? a. Crypto Interface. b. Basic Access. c. Red Data. d. Crypto.
d. Crypto.
22. (410) What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus? a. DS-1. b. DS-30. c. DS-30A. d. DS-512.
d. DS-512.
20. (207) Which information unit, whose source and destination are network-layer entities, uses connectionless network service? a. Frame. b. Packet. c. Segment. d. Datagram.
d. Datagram.
63. (225) Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs? a. Manages data transfer across the tunnel. b. Encrypts and decrypts data. c. Establishes tunnels. d. Encapsulates data.
d. Encapsulates data.
69. (227) Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition? a. Counter. b. Buffer. c. Central processing unit (CPU). d. Filter.
d. Filter.
86. (429) What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in? a. Stand alone. b. Client only. c. Gateway only. d. Gateway/client.
d. Gateway/client.
76. (229) Which of the following is not a basic Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) command? a. Write. b. Read. c. Trap. d. Get.
d. Get.
7. (403) What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end? a. Lightwave. b. Microwave. c. Soundwave. d. Groundwave.
d. Groundwave.
24. (209) What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage? a. Asynchronous protocol. b. Binary synchronous protocol. c. Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC). d. High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).
d. High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).
10. (204) What organization is responsible for the X-series and V-series standards? a. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). b. International Telecommunication Union (ITU). c. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). d. International Telecommunication Union Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-T).
d. International Telecommunication Union Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-T).
85. (428) The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment? a. Transmission Control. b. User Datagram. c. File Transfer. d. Internet.
d. Internet.
64. (226) What cable discrepancies can a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect? a. Opens, shorts, and bad grounds. b. Pinholes, shorts, and bad grounds. c. Shorts, kinks, and low cable pressure. d. Kinks, opens, and corroded connectors.
d. Kinks, opens, and corroded connectors.
39. (214) The physical address of any device on the network is a/an a. Internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address. b. Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address. c. Static internet protocol (IP) address. d. Media Access Control (MAC) address.
d. Media Access Control (MAC) address.
26. (210) The interconnection of several networks in a city into a single larger network is a a. Local area network (LAN). b. Wide area network (WAN). c. Virtual private network (VPN). d. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
d. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
50. (220) What device provides the physical, electrical, and electronic connections to the network media? a. Bridge. b. Router. c. Gateway. d. Network interface card (NIC).
d. Network interface card (NIC).
43. (215) How many bits are available for host bits on a Class B network using seven bits? a. Three. b. Five. c. Seven. d. Nine.
d. Nine.
71. (227) What protocol analyzer feature automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated? a. Media Access Control (MAC) node statistics. b. Connection statistics. c. Protocol statistics. d. Node discovery.
d. Node discovery.
85. (234) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically blocked? a. Default deny. b. Default allow. c. Close. d. Open.
d. Open.
93. (238) What are the two vulnerability scanner examination techniques? a. Internal and external. b. Physical and logical. c. Static and dynamic. d. Passive and active.
d. Passive and active.
30. (412) Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution? a. Journal file. b. Table control. c. Dump/restore. d. Pending order file.
d. Pending order file.
38. (213) Which Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) is installed and communicating with the network? a. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP). b. Network Time Protocol (NTP). c. File Transfer Protocol (FTP). d. Ping.
d. Ping.
1. (001) What is an example of analog-to-digital and digital-to-analog techniques? a. Amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM). b. Pulse code modulation (PCM) and frequency shift keying (FSK). c. Phase modulation (PM) and quadrature phase shift keying (QPSK). d. Pulse code modulation (PCM) and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation.
d. Pulse code modulation (PCM) and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation.
34. (414) Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise? a. To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective primary colors. b. To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective complementary colors. c. R-Y was shifted to minimum and B-Y was shifted to maximum color acuity, respectively for human vision. d. R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.
d. R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.
14. (205) Which Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) interface standard has the ability to work in either balanced or unbalanced electrical circuits? a. RS-232-C. b. RS-423. c. RS-485. d. RS-530.
d. RS-530.
60. (026) What principle of operation does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables? a. Amplitude. b. Frequency. c. Audio. d. Radar.
d. Radar.
64. (028) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern? a. Transmitter. b. Emitter. c. Detector. d. Receiver.
d. Receiver.
33. (014) In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time? a. Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level. b. Non-return-to-zero mark. c. Non-return-to-zero space. d. Return-to-zero.
d. Return-to-zero.
66. (423) Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system? a. Alarm duration. b. Number of cuts. c. Cable sensitivity. d. Sector reporting priority.
d. Sector reporting priority.
10. (005) If 100 percent modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal, additional sidebands are generated. We identify these sidebands as what? a. Transmitted intelligence. b. Intensity of speech. c. Composite waves. d. Splatter.
d. Splatter.
48. (218) Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them? a. Teredo host-specific relay. b. Teredo client. c. Teredo server. d. Teredo agent.
d. Teredo agent.
76. (424) How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina? a. The processor communicates with the other cards in the module via the T-Bus. b. The T-Bus connects the Promina to other modules in the TDC suite. c. The front card communicates with the rear card through the T-Bus. d. The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.
d. The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.
55. (420) What is the main purpose of a boundary fence? a. Provide security forces (SF) personnel a safe place to work. b. Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone. c. Facilitate the detection of intruders. d. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
d. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
63. (028) What are the two major sections of a bit error rate test (BERT) set? a. Emitter and detector. b. Emitter and receiver. c. Transmitter and detector generator. d. Transmitter and receiver.
d. Transmitter and receiver.
12. (007) The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the a. modulation index. b. rate of phase shift. c. frequency of the modulating signal. d. amplitude of the modulating signal.
d. amplitude of the modulating signal.
9. (005) A modulated waveform that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of a. a phase modulation (PM). b. a pulse modulation. c. a frequency modulation (FM). d. an amplitude modulation (AM).
d. an amplitude modulation (AM).
18. (009) Quantized analog modulation is actually a. pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM). b. pulse-duration modulation (PDM). c. less tolerant of noise than frequency modulation (FM). d. analog-to-digital conversion.
d. analog-to-digital conversion.
50. (021) Attenuation distortion is caused by a. a line loss for the various frequency components comprising a voice transmission. b. the line loss, the distance of transmission lines, and faults in the transmission cables. c. faults in the transmission cables and the number of splices in the line varying with the frequency. d. differing attenuation rates for the various frequency components comprising a voice frequency transmission.
d. differing attenuation rates for the various frequency components comprising a voice frequency transmission.
35. (015) Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to a. provide error-free signaling. b. operate at higher data rates. c. eliminate bipolar violations. d. maintain ones density standards.
d. maintain ones density standards.
28. (411) Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available a. computing mode channel. b. peripheral channel. c. H-bus channel. d. output channel.
d. output channel.
94. (434) Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except a. outage times. b. reason for outage. c. number of outages. d. preempted outages.
d. preempted outages.
62. (225) Virtual private networks (VPN) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an a. Department of Defense network. b. Air Force network. c. wide area network. d. public network.
d. public network.
16. (009) Which of the following is not considered an analog modulation techniques? a. pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM). b. pulse-duration modulation (PDM). c. pulse-position modulation (PPM). d. pulse-code modulation (PCM).
d. pulse-code modulation (PCM).
49. (417) The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows a. remote control of switcher transitions. b. remote programming of all switcher functions. c. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory. d. remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.
d. remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.
91. (433) Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval of a. the user b. Circuit control office (CCO). c. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). d. the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
d. the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
23. (010) The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is a. frequency division. b. binary division. c. pulse division. d. time division.
d. time division.
How is signal loss represented in an OTDR display?
dB drop in backscatter between 2 reflections is signal loss within fiber.
