The Peripheral Nervous System, Chapter 13, The Central Nervous System, Chapter 12, The Autonomic Nervous System and Homeostasis, Chapter 14

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D

1) Visceral reflex arcs do NOT control: A) blood pressure. B) heart rate. C) digestion. D) voluntary muscle functions.

A

1) What brain region is responsible for learning, memory, and personality? A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) diencephalon D) brainstem

D

10) A drug that inhibits the release of norepinephrine will have the greatest affect on: A) preganglionic neurons. B) somatic motor neurons. C) skeletal muscle cells. D) autonomic target cells

D

10) What is NOT part of the cerebrum? A) parietal lobe B) frontal lobe C) insula D) brainstem

B

11) As Lisa drove home, she was suddenly alerted to the sound of a blaring horn and realized she had drifted off to sleep. Which nervous system division dominated when she was startled awake? A) sensory nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) parasympathetic nervous system D) somatic nervous system

B

12) Which lobe is situated posteriorly in each cerebral hemisphere? A) temporal B) occipital C) parietal D) frontal

D

12) Which of the following innervates target cells or organs of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? A) preganglionic neuron B) autonomic ganglion C) somatic motor neuron D) postganglionic neuron

B

13) Which branch of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) includes the vagus nerves, which innervate the thoracic and abdominal viscera? A) sensory nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) sympathetic nervous system

C

14) After eating a large meal, Mr. Davis felt sleepy. Which nervous system dominates? A) systemic nervous system B) somatic nervous system C) parasympathetic nervous system D) sympathetic nervous system

D

14) Where are color, object movement, and depth processed? A) precentral gyrus B) premotor cortex C) auditory association cortex D) visual association areas

C

15) What information is received by the primary vestibular cortex? A) vision B) hearing C) equilibrium D) taste

C

15) Which nervous system division works antagonistically to the sympathetic nervous system? A) sensory nervous system B) central nervous system C) parasympathetic nervous system D) somatic nervous system

B

16) The primary motor cortex of the right cerebral hemisphere: A) integrates senses from multiple different sources. B) controls the motor activity on the left side of the body. C) receives and processes sensory input. D) controls the motor activity on the right side of the body.

B

16) What do the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems share in common? A) Both systems are called the "rest and digest" division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS). B) Both systems are divisions of the autonomic nervous system. C) Both systems have short preganglionic neurons and long postganglionic neurons. D) Both systems trigger the same motor response in target organs

B

17) What is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe? A) primary auditory cortex B) primary somatosensory cortex C) primary visual cortex D) auditory association area

D

17) Where within the spinal cord do the cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic neurons originate? A) anterior horns of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord B) lateral horns of the cervical and sacral spinal cord C) posterior horns of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord D) lateral horns of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord

B

18) Gene's parachute did not open when he jumped out of the airplane. He injured his back in the thoracic and lumbar regions, damaging the autonomic ganglia found close to his spinal cord. What neurons did he likely damage? A) parasympathetic preganglionic neurons B) sympathetic preganglionic neurons C) sympathetic postganglionic neurons D) somatic motor neurons

B

18) In 1848, Phineas Gage sustained a brain injury when an iron rod pierced through his left prefrontal cerebral cortex. What do you think was the result? A) Gage was unable to move the right side of his body. B) Gage's personality, behavior, and psychological state changed. C) Gage was unable to understand language. D) Gage was unable to produce language.

C

19) What do the white rami communicantes contain? A) preganglionic parasympathetic neurons B) sympathetic chain ganglia C) preganglionic sympathetic neurons D) postganglionic sympathetic neurons

B

19) What results when the corpus callosum is cut? A) communication between a cerebral cortex in one hemisphere with other areas of the same hemisphere would be impaired B) communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres would be impaired C) communication between the brain and spinal cord would be impaired D) communication within a single brain hemisphere would be impaired

C

2) Sally sustained damage to some autonomic ganglia. What part of the visceral reflex arc is interrupted? A) sensory reception B) initiation of a motor impulse in the central nervous system (CNS) C) motor response in a target cell D) integration

B

2) The brainstem connects the brain and the: A) cerebellum. B) spinal cord. C) eyes. D) ventricles.

D

20) What best describes the Broca's area? A) Broca's area is housed in the temporal and parietal lobes. B) Broca's area houses personality, decorum, and behavior. C) Broca's area is usually found in the right cerebral hemisphere. D) Broca's area is a premotor area for speech sounds.

C

20) What neurotransmitter is released by the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron to communicate with the sympathetic postganglionic neuron? A) adrenalin B) norepinephrine C) acetylcholine D) epinephrine

C

21) Receptors that bind norepinephrine and epinephrine are known as: A) cholinergic. B) muscarinic. C) adrenergic. D) nicotinic

B

21) What functional brain system participates in memory, learning, emotion, and behavior? A) medial lemniscal system B) limbic system C) anterolateral system D) peripheral nervous system

A

22) If a drug is administered to block the heart's adrenergic receptors, how is heart rate affected during exercise? A) Heart rate will be unable to increase in response to exercise. B) Heart rate will increase in response to the drug. C) The heart will stop beating. D) The drug has no effect on heart rate during exercise

C

22) What is NOT part of the diencephalon? A) thalamus B) epithalamus C) medulla oblongata D) hypothalamus

B

23) The thalamus receives information from all of the following afferent fibers EXCEPT for the sense of: A) taste. B) smell. C) hearing. D) vision.

B

24) The hypothalamus functions in: A) coordinating movement. B) regulating the autonomic nervous system. C) secreting a hormone called melatonin. D) sending information to the cerebral cortex.

B

25) The white matter of the cerebellum is known as: A) cerebellar cortex. B) arbor vitae. C) vermis. D) folia.

B

26) Todd was startled when the door slammed shut. What part of the brainstem is responsible? A) pons B) midbrain C) thalamus D) medulla

A

27) Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful in treating: A) a fast heart rate. B) benign prostatic hyperplasia. C) asthma. D) opiate withdrawal

D

29) What type of fiber carries information from the frontal lobe of the right cerebral hemisphere to the occipital lobe of the same cerebral hemisphere? A) corpus callosum B) projection fibers C) commissural fibers D) association fibers

A

3) Autonomic motor neurons do NOT innervate: A) skeletal muscle cells. B) smooth muscle cells. C) glands. D) cardiac muscle cells

A

3) The cerebellum functions in: A) the planning and coordination of movement. B) learning, memory, and personality. C) biological rhythms. D) homeostatic functions such as breathing and heart rate.

C

31) Stimulation of α1 receptors by norepinephrine results in: A) sweating. B) vasodilation. C) vasoconstriction. D) bronchodilation

A

32) A drug known as a beta-blocker should primarily affect: A) heart rate. B) dilation of the pupils. C) sweating. D) bronchodilation

B

33) During sympathetic nervous system activity, what is NOT an effect of norepinephrine? A) the pancreas releases a hormone called glucagon B) blood glucose levels decrease C) lipids are broken down from adipocytes D) glucose is broken down from glycogen

B

34) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the third ventricle will drain into the: A) lateral ventricles. B) fourth ventricle. C) choroid plexus. D) dural sinus.

C

35) The adrenal medulla serve to supplement the: A) somatic nervous system. B) parasympathetic nervous system. C) sympathetic nervous system. D) both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

D

38) What would NOT lead to hydrocephalus? A) not enough CSF reabsorbed by the arachnoid granulations B) excessive CSF production C) blockage of CSF circulation D) deficient CSF production

C

38) Which neurotransmitter ensures skeletal muscles receive the supply of nutrients needed to make ATP by stimulating the release of more fatty acids and glucose into the blood stream? A) acetylcholine B) aldosterone C) norepinephrine D) epinephrine

D

39) Astrocytes and tight junctions create a barrier to viruses and bacteria known as: A) meninges. B) dural sinuses. C) choroid plexues. D) the blood-brain barrier.

A

39) What best characterizes the function of the parasympathetic nervous system? A) The parasympathetic nervous system maintains homeostasis when the body is at rest. B) The parasympathetic nervous system prepares the body for emergency situations. C) The parasympathetic nervous system is the "fight or flight" system. D) The parasympathetic nervous system prepares the body for physical activity

C

4) Bundles of white matter in the cerebrum are known as: A) ganglia. B) nerves. C) tracts. D) nuclei.

A

4) Somatic motor neurons innervate: A) skeletal muscle cells. B) cardiac muscle cells. C) glands. D) smooth muscle cells.

D

40) The axons of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are: A) situated within terminal ganglia. B) long. C) found close to the spinal cord. D) short

C

40) Which of the following should NOT cross the blood-brain barrier with ease? A) carbon dioxide B) glucose C) large, polar molecules D) lipid-based molecules

C

41) Which cranial nerve is NOT involved in the parasympathetic nervous system? A) vagus nerve (CN X) B) oculomotor nerve (CN III) C) hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) D) facial nerve (CN VII)

B

42) An injury to the spinal cord is not possible below the: A) second thoracic vertebra. B) second lumbar vertebra. C) fourth cervical vertebra. D) ninth thoracic vertebra.

C

44) In the spinal cord, nerve tracts or funiculi make up the: A) central canal. B) gray commissure. C) white columns. D) gray horns.

B

44) Where are the ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous system located? A) close to the brain B) near the cells or organ being innervated by parasympathetic postganglionic neurons C) close to the spinal cord D) near the parasympathetic preganglionic neuron

C

45) The hole in the spinal cord through which CSF flows is the: A) vertebral foramen. B) intervertebral foramen. C) central canal. D) anterior median fissure.

A

45) What organ is served by the parasympathetic sacral nerves? A) last portion of the large intestine B) esophagus C) heart D) lungs

B

46) Due to an accident, Lori's sacral nerves are severed. What do you expect to be affected by this injury? A) production of saliva B) urinary bladder and the last portion of the large intestine C) heart and lungs D) blood pressure and heart rate

B

47) What does the vagus nerve (CN X) innervate? A) blood vessels B) cardiac muscle cells C) adipocytes D) sweat glands

D

49) What neurotransmitter is released by both preganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons at their synapses? A) both epinephrine and norepinephrine B) epinephrine C) norepinephrine D) acetylcholine

A

5) Control of skeletal muscle is the responsibility of: A) a somatic motor neuron. B) a preganglionic neuron. C) an autonomic ganglion. D) a postganglionic neuron

D

5) Which description best matches the location of white matter? A) In both the brain and spinal cord, white matter is superficial. B) In the spinal cord, white matter is deep while cerebral white matter is superficial. C) In both the brain and spinal cord, white matter is deep. D) In the spinal cord, white matter is superficial while cerebral white matter is deep.

D

50) Maddie planned to go for a swim after dinner. But, after a large meal, she decided to rest rather than swim. What neurotransmitter promotes rest by binding muscarinic receptors after her meal? A) epinephrine B) adrenalin C) norepinephrine D) acetylcholine

C

51) Detection of stimuli is a responsibility of the ________ while perception of the stimuli is a responsibility of the ________. A) CNS; PNS B) second-order neuron; first-order neuron C) PNS; CNS D) upper motor neuron; lower motor neuron

C

51) What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on heart rate and blood pressure? A) no effect on heart rate and blood pressure B) increases heart rate and blood pressure C) decreases heart rate and blood pressure D) at first decreases, then increases heart rate and blood pressure

B

52) The parasympathetic nervous system prepares the eye for: A) age-related deterioration. B) near vision. C) changing light levels. D) distance vision

B

53) Where is the sensation of touch processed? A) prefrontal cortex B) primary somatosensory cortex, or S1 C) somatosensory association cortex, or S2 D) primary motor cortex

C

53) Which of the following is NOT an effect of the parasympathetic nervous system? A) constriction of the pupil B) decreased heart rate C) increased sweat secretion D) bronchoconstriction

C

54) Decreased parasympathetic stimulation could cause: A) a slow heart rate. B) bronchodilation. C) a dry mouth. D) frequent urination

A

55) Which special sense does NOT travel through the thalamus at any point in its transmission? A) olfaction B) vision C) gustation D) hearing

C

56) Which system works opposite to the sympathetic nervous system? A) sensory nervous system B) somatic nervous system C) parasympathetic nervous system D) central nervous system

B

58) Which nervous system usually maintains a heart rate of 72 beats per minute? A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) central nervous system

B

6) What are the three primary brain vesicles that form from the neural tube? A) mesencephalon, telencephalon, diencephalon B) forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain C) brainstem, diencephalon, cerebellum D) midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

C

6) Where are autonomic ganglia located? A) brain B) central nervous system (CNS) C) peripheral nervous system (PNS) D) spinal cord

False

61) The somatic motor division consists of somatic motor neurons that innervate cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscle cells

B

63) What part of the brain is the "boss" of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) pons D) basal nuclei

A

69) Cognition is best described as: A) recognizing, processing, planning, and responding to stimuli. B) encoding and storing learned information in our neural circuitry. C) a reversible and normal suspension of consciousness. D) the ability to comprehend and produce words.

D

7) What is the correct pathway of development of the cerebellum? A) neural tube, midbrain, mesencephalon, cerebellum B) neural tube, forebrain, telencephalon, cerebellum C) neural tube, diencephalon, cerebellum D) neural tube, hindbrain, metencephalon, cerebellum

C

7) Where does the cell body of the preganglionic neuron originate? A) peripheral nervous system (PNS) B) postganglionic neuron C) central nervous system (CNS) D) target cell

A

70) What part of the brain is responsible for cognition? A) cerebral cortex B) reticular formation C) hypothalamus D) thalamus

D

71) What part of the cerebral cortex is responsible for personality, the creation of an awareness of self, and the ability to recognize appropriate behavior? A) parietal association cortex B) temporal association cortex C) Wernicke's area D) prefrontal cortex

A

72) What function is NOT lateralized in one of the cerebral hemispheres? A) creativity B) facial recognition C) language-related recognition D) emotion

D

8) What is found between the preganglionic neuron and postganglionic neuron of a visceral reflex arc? A) target cell B) central nervous system (CNS) C) spinal cord D) autonomic ganglion

D

8) What secondary brain vesicles form from the forebrain? A) metencephalon and mesencephalon B) telencephalon and metencephalon C) metencephalon and myelencephalon D) diencephalon and telencephalon

A

9) An elevated ridge on the surface of the cerebrum is known as a: A) gyrus. B) fissure. C) sulcus. D) furrow.

A

9) Where are the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system located? A) thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord B) cervical region and sacral region of the spinal cord C) cranial nerves and the sacral region of the spinal cord D) cranial nerves and the lumbar region of the spinal cord

15) The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all of the following EXCEPT: A) trochlear nerve (IV). B) trigeminal nerve (V). C) facial nerve (VII). D) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX).

A

2) You feel a mosquito land on your arm. This stimulus is carried to the central nervous system (CNS) by the: A) somatic sensory division. B) visceral sensory division. C) visceral motor division (autonomic nervous system). D) somatic motor division.

A

23) Which of the following carries sensory information only? A) posterior (dorsal) root B) anterior root C) posterior ramus D) anterior ramus

A

26) During a boxing match, Sammy was hit on the side of the neck. He stopped breathing temporarily due to damage to the: A) cervical plexus. B) sacral plexus. C) brachial plexus. D) lumbar plexus.

A

27) Which plexus provides motor and sensory innervation to the upper limb? A) brachial plexus B) cranial plexus C) sacral plexus D) lumbar plexus

A

28) The phrenic nerve is a member of the: A) cervical plexus. B) brachial plexus. C) sacral plexus. D) lumbar plexus.

A

33) Olfactory receptors depolarize in response to an odorant, turning a stimulus into an electrical signal. This conversion is known as: A) sensory transduction. B) repolarization. C) propagation. D) adaptation.

A

37) Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by: A) nociceptors. B) photoreceptors. C) chemoreceptors. D) proprioceptors.

A

4) Which division of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) detects stimuli and carries them to the central nervous system (CNS)? A) sensory B) motor C) autonomic D) sympathetic

A

43) A region of skin has a great number of sensory neurons, and each neuron has a relatively small receptive field. The two-point discrimination threshold for this skin region might be: A) 5 mm. B) 15 mm. C) 25 mm. D) 40 mm.

A

63) In the crossed-extension reflex, if the right leg flexes, then the left leg: A) extends. B) abducts. C) flexes. D) adducts.

A

64) What cranial nerves are involved in the sensory and the motor roles for the corneal blink reflex? A) trigeminal nerve (V) as sensory; facial nerve (VII) as motor B) optic nerve (II) as sensory, oculomotor nerve (III) as motor C) trochlear nerve (IV) as sensory, abducens nerve (VI) as motor D) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) as sensory, oculomotor nerve (III) as motor

A

8) What connective tissue sheath wraps the axon of a neuron? A) endoneurium B) fascicle C) epineurium D) perineurium

A

1) Which division detects stimuli of the general senses and special senses? A) visceral motor division (autonomic nervous system) B) somatic sensory division C) visceral sensory division D) somatic motor division

B

12) The vagus nerve is represented by Roman numeral: A) I. B) X. C) V. D) XII.

B

16) Which cranial nerve detects smell? A) optic nerve (II) B) olfactory nerve (I) C) oculomotor nerve (III) D) trochlear nerve (IV)

B

20) Where does the motor portion of the facial nerve (VIII) originate? A) midbrain B) nuclei in the pons and medulla C) tongue D) cerebral cortex

B

25) A network of nerves is known as a: A) ramus. B) plexus. C) root. D) horn.

B

34) Sensory transduction occurs in: A) upper motor neurons. B) PNS sensory neurons. C) CNS interneurons. D) lower motor neurons.

B

35) Sensory receptors that adapt to stimuli after a certain period of time are: A) thermoreceptors. B) rapidly adapting receptors. C) nociceptors. D) slowly adapting receptors.

B

40) Which mechanoreceptor detects deep pressure? A) Merkel cell fiber B) lamellated corpuscle C) Ruffini ending D) tactile corpuscle

B

41) Mechanoreceptors might detect which of the following sensations? A) smell B) pressure C) temperature D) light

B

42) The speed of nerve impulse transmission through the axon of a sensory neuron will be quickest in: A) axons that adapt to stimuli. B) a large-diameter, myelinated axon. C) axons with a greater receptive field. D) a small-diameter, unmyelinated axon.

B

51) What type of motor neuron stimulates skeletal muscle fibers to contract by the excitation-contraction mechanism? A) upper motor neuron B) α-motor neuron C) interneuron D) γ-motor neuron

B

54) Which of the following does NOT characterize a reflex? A) A reflex is an automatic response to a stimulus. B) Neural integration of a reflex usually occurs in the PNS. C) Reflexes require a stimulus to initiate a motor response. D) The motor response to a stimulus is rapid.

B

55) Which of the following must occur first in a reflex arc? A) delivery of motor response to effector B) detection by receptor and delivery of stimulus C) integration in the central nervous system (CNS) D) transmission from the primary motor cortex

B

61) The inability to produce a gag reflex could indicate a problem with the: A) facial nerve (VII) or trigeminal nerve (V). B) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) or vagus nerve (X). C) abducens nerve (VI) or trochlear nerve (IV). D) hypoglossal nerve (XII) or vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII).

B

9) Bundles of axons within a nerve are known as: A) dendrites. B) fascicles. C) the endoneurium. D) the perineurium.

B

True

Both preganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine at their synapses.

14) Which cranial nerve is NOT involved in eye movement? A) oculomotor nerve (III) B) abducens nerve (VI) C) vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) D) trochlear nerve (IV)

C

18) Ms. Parker has damage to the sensory root of the facial nerve (VII). Which of the following symptoms matches this information? A) inability to elevate the mandible B) inability to swallow C) inability to taste D) inability to smell

C

19) Loss of balance and equilibrium can indicate damage to the: A) hypoglossal nerve (XII). B) accessory nerve (XI). C) vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII). D) trochlear nerve (IV).

C

22) Which of the following is INCORRECT about the numbers of spinal nerves? A) 5 pairs of sacral spinal nerves B) 5 pairs of lumbar spinal nerves C) 7 pairs of cervical spinal nerves D) 12 pairs of thoracic spinal nerves

C

24) The anterior root and posterior root fuse to form a(n): A) anterior horn. B) posterior (dorsal) root ganglion. C) spinal nerve. D) posterior horn.

C

29) Which of the following does NOT belong to the brachial plexus? A) musculocutaneous nerve B) median nerve C) phrenic nerve D) ulnar nerve

C

30) Striking the "funny" bone is actually stimulation (or injury) to the: A) axillary nerve. B) radial nerve. C) ulnar nerve. D) median nerve.

C

31) What do most of the anterior rami of the thoracic spinal nerves serve? A) median nerves B) brachial nerves C) intercostal nerves D) phrenic nerves

C

36) The stretch of a full urinary bladder is detected by a(n): A) exteroceptor. B) photoreceptor. C) interoceptor. D) thermoreceptor.

C

38) Photoreceptors are found only in the: A) nose. B) ear. C) eye. D) mouth.

C

39) Your wrap your hands around a warm cup of hot chocolate. This sensation is detected by a: A) hair follicle receptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) thermoreceptor. D) photoreceptor.

C

45) Regions of skin supplied by a spinal nerve for somatic sensation are known as: A) lines of cleavage. B) the rule of nines. C) dermatomes. D) the ABCDE rule.

C

46) Ms. Carroll went to her doctor's office with pain in her right shoulder blade and learned she was having a gallbladder attack. You're not surprised to hear about the unusual location of her pain since it is known as: A) the receptive field. B) phantom limb pain. C) referred pain. D) chronic pain.

C

47) Visceral pain may be perceived as cutaneous pain, a phenomenon known as: A) phantom limb pain. B) slowly adapting reception. C) referred pain. D) the receptive field.

C

48) What part of the nervous system integrates and interprets information from PNS sensory neurons? A) sensory (afferent) division B) visceral motor division, or autonomic nervous system (ANS) C) central nervous system (CNS) D) somatic nervous system (SNS)

C

49) What connects the upper motor neurons to lower motor neurons? A) primary afferent neuron B) sensory neurons C) interneurons D) muscle fibers

C

53) Place the following steps in order for motor control. 1. Upper motor neurons stimulate lower motor neurons. 2. Sensory information is relayed back to the cerebellum so movement can be modified if needed. 3. Upper motor neurons in the premotor cortex select a motor program. 4. Lower motor neurons stimulate a skeletal muscle to contract. 5. The basal nuclei enable the thalamus to stimulate upper motor neurons of the primary cortex. A) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4 B) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 D) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2

C

56) What type of sensory receptors are muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs? A) nociceptor B) thermoreceptor C) mechanoreceptor D) chemoreceptors

C

62) Which of the following complements the flexion (withdrawal) reflex? A) Golgi tendon reflex B) gag reflex C) crossed-extension reflex D) stretch reflex

C

10) Where is the motor response initiated? A) cranial nerves B) spinal nerves C) lower motor neurons of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) D) motor areas of the brain

D

11) What is cranial nerve VIII? A) trigeminal nerve B) facial nerve C) glossopharyngeal nerve D) vestibulocochlear nerve

D

13) Which cranial nerve is generally thought of as a mixed nerve? A) hypoglossal nerve (XII) B) vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) C) accessory nerve (XI) D) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

D

17) An inability to swallow indicates a problem with the: A) accessory nerve (XI) or hypoglossal nerve (XII). B) olfactory nerve (I). C) trochlear nerve (IV) or abducens nerve (VI). D) trigeminal nerve (V) or glossopharyngeal nerve (IX).

D

21) What controls the movement of rectus abdominis, a skeletal muscle on the anterior surface of the body? A) posterior ramus B) posterior (dorsal) root ganglion C) posterior root D) anterior ramus

D

3) The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of the: A) somatic sensory division. B) somatic motor division. C) visceral sensory division. D) visceral motor division (autonomic nervous system).

D

32) The longest and largest nerve in the body belongs to the sacral plexus and is known as the: A) femoral nerve. B) common fibular nerve. C) axillary nerve. D) sciatic nerve.

D

44) A test known as two-point discrimination threshold measures: A) the type of mechanoreceptor being stimulated. B) the amount of pressure we can sustain before feeling pain. C) the type of sensory neuron serving a region of skin. D) the relative size of receptive fields.

D

5) What is the outermost connective tissue covering of a nerve? A) endoneurium B) perineurium C) epimysium D) epineurium

D

50) What type of neuron contacts a muscle fiber and initiates a muscle contraction? A) sensory neuron B) upper motor neuron C) interneuron D) lower motor neuron

D

52) Motor neurons pools consist of: A) upper motor neurons. B) primary afferent neurons. C) secondary afferent neurons. D) lower motor neurons.

D

6) Mixed nerves house: A) sensory neurons only. B) motor neurons only. C) somatic neurons only. D) both sensory and motor neurons.

D

7) Which of the following houses motor neurons? A) central canal of the spinal cord B) posterior root of spinal nerve C) posterior root ganglion D) anterior root of spinal nerve

D

B

Digestion A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system

False

Ejaculation is accomplished by the parasympathetic nervous system.

A

Enhances mental alertness A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system

A

Increased heart rate A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system

B

Relaxation of the urinary sphincter A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system

B

Secretion of saliva A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system

True

The parasympathetic nervous system is often known as the "rest and digest" division of the ANS.

A

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system


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