Total CSCS
48. A sprinter runs with too little height of the swing leg knee. Which of the following recommendations is MOST appropriate? A. use a longer push-off with each stride B. emphasize development of stretch-shortening cycle C. increase stride length to allow for greater ROM
B 529-532 SSC - plyometric movement meant to increase power with elastic counter movement.
The degradation of one blood glucose molecule via the oxidative energy system produces approximately how many ATP? A. 35. B. 38. C. 41. D. 42.
B 53
32. Which of the following factors determine the primary energy system used during exercise? A. exercise intensity and exercise mode B. exercise intensity and exercise duration C. exercise duration and exercise mode
B 53-55
50. During a single exercise session, which of the following training variables should be decreased to produce a greater adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production capacity? A. duration B. intensity C. rest
B 53-55
42. During the acceleration phase of sprinting, which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate? A. athlete should be nearly upright by 30m B. recovery of swing leg is low to the ground during initial steps C. athlete steps laterally during initial drive phase
B 530-531 Upright by 20m
In order to achieve high stride frequency and optimal stride length an athlete should do all of the following EXCEPT? a) Maximize the backward velocity of the lower leg and foot at ground contact. b) Maximize the vertical impulse and horizontal braking forces. c) Emphasize brief ground support time. d) Develop eccentric knee flexion strength to improve leg recovery mechanics.
B 531
Select the aspect of training that requires additional emphasis when the aim is to improve change-of-direction ability. a. strength. b. eccentric strength. c. reactive strength. d. rate of force development.
B 535
44. Which of the following backpedaling techniques is the MOST appropriate? A. greater range of motion at the knee joint B. smaller range of motion at the hip joint C. initiate arm movement at the elbows
B 535,545
15. Which of the following increases serum testosterone MOST during resistance training? A. high intensity (10RM) B. short rest periods (30-60 seconds) C. moderate resistance (67%-85% of 1RM)
B 54 INCREASE WITH 1. Large muscle groups 2. Heavy resistance (85-95% 1RM) 3. Mod-High volume, multiple sets 4. Short rest intervals (30-60 sec) 5. Two+ years resistance training
5. Which of the following activities relies primarily on the phosphagen energy system? A. 400m Sprint B. 5RM Back Barbell Squat C. 400m Freestyle Swim D. 5K Race
B 54/57
You instruct a cross country runner to perform 4 training sessions per week; this represented what aerobic endurance training variable? a) Mode. b) Frequency. c) Duration . d) Intensity.
B 561
Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity? a. oxygen consumption. b. heart rate. c. ratings of perceived exertion. d. race pace.
B 563
21. A 30-year old male athlete has a resting heart rate of 60 bpm. He wants to work at 80% to 90% of his maximal heart rate. Using the percentage of maximal heart rate method, what is his target heart rate range? A. 104-117 bpm B. 152-171 bpm C. 164-177 bpm
B 564
26. A 40-year-old female athlete has a resting heart rate of 80 bpm. She wants to exercise at an intensity of 60%. What is her target heart rate using the Karvonen method? A. 108 beats per minute B. 140 beats per minute C. 188 beats per minute
B 564
31. Using the Karvonen method, which of the following is the 10 second target heart rate range for a 37 year old male aerobically exercising at an intensity of 65-75% of his functional capacity if his resting heart rate is 58 bpm? A. 20-23 B. 30-33 C. 119-137 D. 177-195
B 564 220-37 = 183 183-58 = 125 125 x .75 = 94 94 + 58 = 152 152/6 = 25...
A male athlete fatigues during the running of a marathon and must pull out of the race. Which is the most probable factor that limited his performance in the race? a. Depleted creatine phosphate. b. Depleted muscle glycogen. c. Depleted fat stores. d. Low pH.
B 57
Performance in which of the following events has been shown to be MOST enhanced by creatine supplementation? A. Marathon. B.100-m sprint. C. 5-km race. D.10-km race.
B 57
What represents a mode of training that can be used to maintain general conditioning in athletes during periods of reduced training due to injury or during recovery from a training cycle? a) Tapering. b) Cross Training. c) Detraining. d) ResistanceTraining.
B 571
During which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome does the body physiologically adapt to heavier training loads? a. alarm. b. resistance. c. exhaustion. d. restoration.
B 585
24. A professional basketball player is in the middle of postseason competition. A game has been rescheduled due to inclement weather. Adjustments to his strength training program will affect which of the following? A. macrocycle B. microcycle C. mesocycle
B 587
For a high school soccer player, which of the following best describes the relationship between resistance exercise intensity and volume at the end of the preparatory period? a) High intensity, High volume. b) High intensity, Low volume. c) Low intensity, High volume. d) Low intensity, Low volume.
B 590
11. Which of the following occurs in the sarcomeres of the gastrocnemius muscle during the upward movement phase of a standing calf (heel) raise? A. The H-Zone Lengthens B. The I-Band Shortens C. TheA-BandLengthens D. The Z-Line Shortens
B 6
Which of the following substance regulates muscle actions? a. potassium. b. calcium. c. troponin. d. tropomyosin.
B 6
Which of the following is NOT typically the result of overuse? a. stress fracture. b. grade III joint sprain. c. tendinitis. d. microtraumatic injury.
B 609
A soccer player sprained his left MCL 6 days ago, what stage of the tissue healing is he most likely in? a) Inflammation Phase. b) Repair Phase. c) Regeneration Phase. d) RemodelingPhase.
B 610
Collagen fiber production, decreased collagen fiber organization, and decreased number of inflammatory cells describe events that occur during what phase of tissue healing? a) Inflammation. b) Repair. c) Remodeling. d) Regenerating.
B 610
Which of the following is NOT one of the phases of healing following an injury? a. inflammatory response. b. reconditioning hypertrophy. c. maturation-remodeling. d. fibroblastic repair.
B 610
Which of the following would represent a recommended temperature range for the strength and conditioning facility? a) 64-68°. b) 72-78°. c) 78-82° . d) 78-84°.
B 627
Which of the following environmental conditions would be appropriate inside the strength and conditioning facility? I. Temperature: 74° F II. Humidity: 68% III. Air Exchange: 8-12 times per hour IV. Sound Level: 80 dB A. I and II only. B. I, III, IV only. C. I and III only. D. I, II, and IV only.
B 627 Humidity < 60%
Which of the following will provide free and unobstructed access to the strength and conditioning facility? A. Hallways with a width of 50 inches. B. Doorways with a width of 36 inches. C. Maintaining a 30 inch pathway inside the facility at all times. D. Spacing resistance training machines at least 20 inches apart.
B 629
1. A head collegiate strength and conditioning professional is scheduled to supervise the resistance training session of the men's rowing team. He is unexpectedly called away from the facility 10 minutes before the session is scheduled to begin. Which of the following should the assistant strength and conditioning professional do NEXT? A. cancel the training session B. supervise the training session C. ask the rowing coach to supervise the athletes
B 643-646
All of the following should be required of the Strength and Conditioning Director EXCEPT? a) CSCS designation. b) Personal workouts. c) Budget Preparation. d) Staff supervision.
B 644
5. While performing a squat under moderate loads, an athlete loses balance. The spotter is then injured when the weights slide off the end of the bar due to ill-fitting collars. The potential legal ramification of this incident is most likely which of the following? A. negligence on the part of the spotter B. negligence on the part of the strength and conditioning coach C. no one is at fault, it was an accident
B 647
7. Which of the following will MOST likely have the greatest impact on reducing the risk of litigation in a strength and conditioning facility? A. proper exercise technique instruction for athletes B. supervision of athletes by a qualified strength and conditioning professional C. a copy of strength and conditioning programs on file
B 652
3. While working out in the strength and conditioning facility, an athlete comes across a sharp edge on a piece of equipment and cuts her hand open. There is immediate pain and bleeding. What is the strength and conditioning professional's immediate priority? A. clean the wound B. apply compression C. apply ice
B 653
Which of the following represents a physiological action of epinephrine? A. Decreased Blood Sugar. B. Increases Cardiac Output. C. Stimulates Analgesia. D. Increases body fluids.
B 67
Which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural changes? a. growth hormone. b. testosterone. c. cortisol. d. IGF.
B 74
Growth hormone is secreted by which of the following? A. Testes. B. Anterior Pituitary. C. Liver. D. Posterior Pituitary.
B 78
Which of the following is NOT a function of growth hormone? a. increase collagen synthesis. b. decrease collagen synthesis. c. increase amino acid transport. d. decrease glucose utilization.
B 78
All of the following are important signal mechanisms for IGF release EXCEPT? A. Growth Hormone. B. Testosterone. C. Nutritional Status. D. Insulin Levels.
B 80
Which of the following exercise combinations will lead to the greatest increases in serum testosterone concentrations in a 16 year old male baseball player? A. Back barbell squats with 50% of 1 RM for 3 sets. B. Back barbell squats with 90% of 1 RM for 3 sets. C. Lat pulldowns with 50% of 1 RM for 3 sets. D. Lat pulldowns 90% of 1 RM for 3 sets.
B 85
Which of the following exercises would promote the highest increase in serum testosterone concentrations? A. 1 set of deadlifts at 60% of one-repetition maximum. B. 3 sets of deadlifts at 90% of one-repetition maximum. C. 1 set of barbell curls at 60% of one-repetition maximum. D. 3 sets of barbell curls at 90% of one-repetition maximum.
B 85
49. Performing a Valsalva maneuver during a 1RM effort results in which of the following? A. improved dynamic balance B. increased core stability C. decreased blood pressure
B 85-86
38. Which of the following increases as an adaptation to chronic resistance training, but decreases as an adaptation to chronic aerobic training? A. mitochondrial density B. maximal power production C. creatine phosphate stores
B 90/121
With regards to muscular hypertrophy, which fiber type shows the greatest increases in size? a. Type I. b. Type II. c. Type III. d. Type IV.
B 95
12. Which of the following exercises increases axial bone mineral density MOST? A. seated leg press B. barbell shoulder press C. dumbbell chest press
B 97-99
43. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate to stimulate bone growth? A. deep water running B. hex bar deadlift C. race walking
B 98-99
All of the following are principles of training to increase bone strength EXCEPT? a. Magnitude of load. b. Type of load. c. Rate of load. d. Direction of load.
B 99
percentile rank
% or test taker scoring below that individual
Krebs Cycle
- 40 total; 36/38 2 ATP used in process - Energy in the form of ATP is harvested from the Electron Transport Chain (ETC) through a series of complex reactions and exchanging of electrons. - NADH and FADH2 exchange their hydrogen atoms and in the process allow a Phosphate ion to reattach to ATP
After a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions can provide what types of information to the body?
- Amount of physiological stress - Metabolic demands of exercise -Type of physiological stress
Immediate cardiovascular adjustments to altitude
- CO increases at rest and during submax exercise while SV remains the same - submax HR increases - maximal HR remains same or is lower - maximal CO remains same or lower
Psychological responses to aerobic overtraining
- Change in mood states - decrease in performance in psychomotor states
Where is the growth cartilage located in the bones of children?
- Epiphyseal plate - Joint surface - Apophyseal insertions of musculotendinous unit
Chronic metabolic adaptations to aerobic endurance training
- Glycogen sparing - Increased fat utilization - Increased lactate threshold, OLBA occurs later
What Aerobic Capacity performance improvements occur following anaerobic exercise?
- Heavy resistance training can improve VO2 max 5-8% in untrained individuals - no significant improvement in trained individuals - however, circuit training with high volumes and short rest (<30s) has been shown to improve VO2 max
Role of catecholamines in the body
- Increase force production - Increase enzyme activity -Increase muscle contraction rate - Increase BP - Increase energy availability - Increase in muscle blood flow - Augment secretion of other hormones
What are some of the functions of growth hormone?
- Increase lipolysis - increase amino acid transport - decrease glucose utlization
What are the paramaeters of AEROBIC exercises that will produce the greatest effect on EPOC?
- Intensity has greatest effect - Greatest EPOC values when intensity >50-60% VO2 max and duration >40min - brief intermittent bouts of supramaximal exercise may produce the greatest EPOC
What types of workouts increase serum testosterone concentrations?
- Large muscle group exercises (deadlift, power clean, squat) - Heavy resistance (85-95% 1RM) - Moderate to high volume of exercise - short rest intervals (30-60s)
Chronic cardiovascular adaptations to anaerobic training at rest
- RHR decrease 5-12% - BP decrease 2-4%
Typical program design errors that lead to overtraining
- Training volume increased significantly (<5%) - Training intensity increased significantly - Training monotony - High frequency or number of competitions
What are the symptoms markers that characterize OTS?
- Unexplained underperformance - Persistent fatigue - Increased sense of effort during training - Disordered sleep patterns - Loss of appetite - Emotional disurbances - sickness and infection - decreased force production - decreased glycolytic capacity
Chronic adaptations to the acute cardiovascular response to anaerobic exercise
- blunt acute increases in HR, BP
General adaptations to aerobic endurance training
- decreased body fat - increase VO2 max - increased running economy - increased respiratory capacity - lower blood lactate concentrations at submax exertion - increased mitochondrial and capillary densities - improved enzyme activity
What are the neural, skeletal muscle, metabolic, cardiovascular, immune, endocrine and psychological consequences due to NFOR?
- decreased motor coordination - altered excitation contraction coupling - decreased muscle glycogen - increased RHR and BP - altered immune function - altered hormonal concentration - mood disturbances
First s/s of NFOR
- decreased performance - increased fatigue - decreased vigor - hormonal disturbances
How should athletes use arousal control techniques? (blue box pg 166)
- employ arousal reduction when performing a new skill , complex skill or high pressure task - employ arousal enhancement when performing simple skill or low pressure task
How to optimize response of adrenal hormones
- high volume, large muscle groups - short rest periods to expose the body to adrenergic stress - provide days of complete rest - lower volume of workouts to improve recovery and avoid adrenergic exhaustion
What Local Muscular Endurance performance improvements occur following anaerobic exercise?
- improved oxidative capacity - improved buffering capacity - Fiber type transitions from type IIx to type IIb - increased in mitochondrial and capillary numbers (but decrease in density) - increased fatigue resistance - increased metabolic enzyme activity
Chronic Muscular adaptations to aerobic endurance training
- increase in # of Type I fibers - Hypertrophy of type I fibers - Type IIx -> Type IIa fibers - increase in size and # of mitochondria - increase in myoglobin content - increased capillarization - increased A-V O2 difference
Chronic cardiovascular adaptations to exercise
- increase in CO - Slower discharge rate of SA node - Increased parasympathetic tone - Increase in SV - Increase in left ventricle size and thickness - Increase in contractility (strength of contraction) - Increased circulation helps remove heat and metabolic byproducts - Increase in capillary density
Adaptations that tendon make to anaerobic training
- increase in collagen fibril diameter - increase in collagen fiber size - greater number of cross links
Long term local tissue adjustments to altitude hypoxia
- increased capillary denisty of skeletal muscle - increased number of mitochondria - increased use of free fatty acids, glycogen sparing
What % of 1RM does peak power occur at for: Jump squat Squat Power clean Bench press
- jump squat peak power maximized at 0% 1RM - squat peak power maximized at 56% 1RM - power clean peak power maximized at 80% of 1RM - ballistic bench press peak power maximized at 46-62% 1RM
Examples of where mechanical advantage changes during activity
- knee extension where joint is not a true hinge - training with free weightts
Name 3 mechanical stimuli/factors that yield muscle hypertrophy
- lifting of heavy loads - inclusion of eccentric muscle actions - low to moderate training volumes
General guidelines for goal setting (blue box pg 169)
- long and short term goals are interdependent - long term goals ascribe meaningfulness toward pursuing short term goals - short term goals build confidence - define process goals around elements under the athlete can control rather than outcome goals
Name 3 metabolic stimuli/factors that yield muscle hypertrophy
- low to moderate intensity - moderate to high intensity interval training - high volumes - short rest intervals
Chronic Cardiovascular adaptations to aerobic endurance training
- maintenance of higher maximal aerobic power, eg. 75% pace to 80% pace - decreased submaximal respiration rate - increased SV - increased CO
What types of exercise stimulate bone formation?
- multijoint structural exercises - direct axial force vectors through spine and hip - heavy load, ballistic, or high impact exercises - progressive overload
Cori Cycle
- not an energy generator - NET ATP = -4 purpose = produce glucose for high intensity exercise
How can atheletes stimulate connective tissue adaptations?
- progressive high intensity loading patterns - full ROM exercises
What Muscular Strength performance improvements occur following anaerobic exercise?
- shift in muscle fiber from type IIx to type IIa - recruitment of higher order motor units - greater fatigue resistance at similar absolute force output
What is free testosterone and how much does it make up of total testosterone?
- testosterone not bound to a binding protien - 0.5-2%
What types of workouts increase 22k Da Growth Hormone concentrations?
- workouts with high lactate concentrations - high intensity (10RM or heavy resistance) - high total work (3 sets of each exercise) - short rest (1 minute) - diet consisting of carbohydrate before and after workouts
Designing an aerobic endurance program
-exercise mode -training frequency -training intensity (HR, RPE, METs, power measure) -exercise duration -exercise progression
Three Goals of sports psychology
-measuring psychological phenomena -investigating the relationships between psychological variabels and performance -applying theoretical knowledge to improve athletic performance
Test administration
-medically cleared athletes -be aware of testing procedures that may affect safety, like max effort -allow full recovery between tests and trials
Optimal restoration of glycogen
.7-3.0 g CHO/kg body weight every 2 hours post ex
What is resting tidal volume and how much does it increase to during exercise?
0.4-1L, up to 3L per breath
What food/fluid solution should be consumed >1 hour before competition
0.5g carb per kg bw
Recommended daily allowance of protein per day for general fitness
0.8-1.0 g per kg bw/day
Energy Yield of Glycolysis
1 molecule of blood glucose yields 2 ATP molecules 1 molecule of glycogen yields 3 ATP molecules
fluid replacement before activity
1 pint of fluid 2 hours before activity
each pound lost during practice is
1 pint of fluid loss
Safe weight loss
1% BW per week; rapid wt loss results in lean tissue loss as opposed to fat
What is the recommended set and rep range for youth training?
1-3 sets of 6-15 reps
plyo frequency
1-3x per week, use recovery to determine frequency; typically 48-72h between sessions
Second transition period (active rest)
1-4 weeks, unstructured recreational activities, low volume, low intensity; rehab injuries; mental and physical rest
What food/fluid should be consumed 4 hours before competition
1-4g carb per kg bw 5-7 mL water per kg bw 0.15-0.25g protein per kg bw
When should athletes decrease dietary fat?
1. Need to increase carbs to support training type 2. Need to reduce total caloric intake to lose weight. Because fat is dense in calories and highly palatable. 3. Need to decrease elevated blood cholesterol.
Name the 4 overlapping quadrants of attention styles
1. broad external 2. broad internal 3. narrow external 4. narrow internal
Recommended daily allowance of protein per day for aerobic endurance athletes
1.0-1.7 g per kg bw/day
Recommended protein intake for strength and power sports
1.4-1.7g per kg bw/day
aerobic capacity testing
1.5 mile run, 12 min run
If dehydration is significant or an athlete has less than 12 hours until the next exercise bout, how much fluid should be consumed to replenish?
1.5L of fluid for each kg of bw lost
Recommended daily allowance of protein per day for athletes on a reduced calorie diet
1.8-2.7 g per kg bw/day
What is the general rule for the minimal essential strain force required to influence the remodeling of bone
1/10th of the force required to fracture bone
Oxford system
10 reps at 100% 10RM 10 reps at 75% 10RM 10 reps at 50% 10RM
De Lorme system
10 reps at 50% 10RM 10 reps at 75% 10RM 10 repos at 100% 10RM
DAPRE
10 reps at 50% 1RM 6reps at 75% of 1RM max reps at 100% of 1RM 4th set determined by reps performed in 3rd set
Facility design: Design phase
10% of time, ~3 mos includes design and planning committee finalizing, finalizing blueprints, equipment specifications included in design, facility spacing, easy access design
How much carbohydrate should a runner ingest 36-48 hours before marathon
10-12g per kg bw/day
Sedentary maximal SV Trained maximal SV
100-120mL of blood per beat 150-160mL of blood per beat
Ceiling Height Recommendations
12-14 feet
ceiling height for facility
12-14 feet
What is resting minute ventilation and how much does it increase to during exercise?
12-15 breaths /min, up to 35-45 breaths/min
To maintain hydration during competition lasting less than 1 hour, it is recommended that athletes consume 3-8 ounces of water or sports drink about every
15 minutes
Facility design: Preoperation phase
15% of time, ~3-4 mos focuses on staffing, includes process for selecting staff, hiring, plan for continued staff development
Static Stretch
15-30 seconds, slow and constant
When does peak muscle mass occur for females and males?
16-20 in females 18-25 in males
Aerobic work: rest
1:1-1:3
Phosphagen work:rest
1:12-1:20
Anaerobic and Aerobic work: rest
1:3-1:4
Anaerobic glycolysis work:rest
1:3-1:5
max mm power (high speed strength) testing
1RM for clean, snatch, push jerk, vertical jump, standing long jump
What food/fluid should be consumed 2 hours before competition
1g carb per kg of bw Sip on 3-5mL of fluid per kg bw
What is the recommended number of training sessions per week for youth training?
2-3 non consecutive sessions
strength and power rest time
2-5 min
Fat recommendation
20-35% of calories with less that 10% from sat fat
How much fluid per changeover is recommended for tennis?
200-400mL
Skeletal System Composition
206 Bones in adult body provides leverage, support, and protection Pulled on by muscles to allow the body to push or pull against external objects
How many amino acids are there?
21
Aerobic area
24 sq feet for bikes and stair machines 6 sq feed for skiing machines 40 sq ft for urg 45 sq ft for treadmills *all include space between machines
Circuit Training Placement
24-36 inches apart from each other Walkways 4-7 feet wide to provide enough area to move freely
Facility design: Predesign phase
25% of total time, ~6 mos includes need analysis, feasibility study, master plan, architect selection
Overweight BMI
25-29.9
What BMI indicates overweight and which indicates obesity?
25-29= overweight >30= obesity
kcal for wt gain in athletes
2500 extra kcal per pound increase in lean tissue
An athlete is performing a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercise, Which of the following types of levers occur at the elbow during this exercise?
2nd class only
stretching for how long can increase flexibility?
2x week for 5 weeks
Carb loading
3 days of high CHO diet with tapering the week before and complete rest day before event; can increase muscle glycogen store 20-40%
Weightlifting Area
3-4 feet of walk space between them
ATP complete resynthesis in
3-5 min
1 MET
3.5 ml kg -1 min -1 of oxygen consumption, considered the amount of oxygen required be the body at rest, jogging 5 METS
rest time for hypertrophy
30-90 sec
anaerobic capacity testing
300 yd shuttle
Free Weights Placement
36 inches between racked bars
Accessibility for facility
36" doors, 60" halls, clearly visible and well lit, unobstructed emergency exits
At what altitude do acute physiological adjustments begin to occur at?
3900 feet
Total energy yield from the oxidation of one glucose molecule
40 (net 38) ATP
How much space needed per athlete?
40-50 sq feet
Speed testing
40yd dash
Total energy yield from the oxidation of one triglyceride molocule
463 ATP
How much recovery time should be allowed between training sessions for older adults?
48-72 hours
Stretching and w/u area per athlete
49 square feet
general w/u
5-10 min of slow activity
Recommended daily carbohydrate intake for strength/sprint athletes
5-6g per kg bw/day
Facility design: Construction phase
50% of time, ~12 dos includes construction, consultation of master plan, deadlines set and met, committee present on job site
Carb recommendation
50-100g/day to prevent ketosis 8-10g/kg for endurance athletes 5-6g/kg for strength, sprint and skill athletes
What temperature should fluids consumed during training be?
50-59 degrees
what is the % of VO2 max when blood lactate begins to increase abruptly?
50-60% VO2 max in untrained individuals 70-80% in trained
plyo program length
6-10 weeks
How many months of aerobic endurance training does it take to produce the majority of VO2 max adaptations?
6-12 months
reps x set for hypertrophy
6-12rep 3-6 set
Resting metabolic rate
60-75% daily energy expenditure
Max backward running speed is _____% of forward running
60-80%
How much does basal metabolic rate contribute to daily energy expenditure?
65-70%
long slow distance training
70% of VO2max, race distance or longer, 1-2x per week enhanced CV function, mitochondrial energy production, oxidative capacity of skeletal muscle, utilization of fat as fuel
PCr complete resynthesis in
8 min
Recommended carbohydrate intake for aerobic athletes training
8-10 g per kg bw/day
specific w/u
8-12 min of movements similar to those in sport and increasing in intensity
____% of all court cases concerning athletic injuries deal with some aspect of supervision
80%
How much work is required to lift a 100 kg barbell 2 m for 5 repetitions?
9,800 J
rest time for mm endurance
< 30 sec
Optimal pretraining USG reading
<1.020
Optimal and high levels of LDL cholesterol
<100 = optimal >190 = high
Normal, borderline high, high and very high levels of triglycerides
<150= normal 150-199 = borderline high 200-499 = high >500 = very high
Optimal and high levels of total cholesterol
<200 = optimal >240 = high
Optimal and high levels of HDL cholesterol
<40 = low >60 = high
reps x set for strength
<6 reps, 2-6 sets
reps x set for mm endurance
>12 reps, 2-3 sets
"Pre-Test" 1. Which of the following human muscle fiber types possesses the highest myoglobin content? A. I. B. IIa. C. IIx. D. IIax.
A
10. The triceps brachii performs which of the following muscle actions during the downward movement phase of a standing should press? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isometric D. Isokinetic
A
10. Which of the following methods of assessment measures max strength? A. 1RM back squat B. 1RM clean C. YMCA Bench Press
A
12. A baseball pitcher has an elbow flexion to elbow extension strength ratio of 1:3. Which of the following exercises should be added to his program? A. biceps curl B. bench press C. triceps pushdown
A
12. All of the following are warning signs/symptoms of Bulimia Nervosa EXCEPT? A. Refusing to eat foods high in saturated fat. B. Disappearance of large amounts of food. C. Worn tooth enamel. D. Acid reflux disease.
A
13. A strength and conditioning professional plans on administering a 12-min run in the heat. Which of the following is the MOST important to consider before testing? A. measuring the relative humidity B. allowing athletes to acclimatize for 1 hr C. ensuring athletes are well hydrated 48 hrs before the test
A
15. An athlete should begin the pro-agility test by sprinting A. 5 yd (4.6 m) to the left. B. 10 yd (9.1 m) forward. C. 5 yd (4.6 m) backward.
A
18. With regards to muscle fibers, a resistance training program leads to which of the following adaptations? A. Increased Myosin Heavy Chain Protein. B. Increased Capillary Density. C. Decreased Myofibillar Volume. D. Increased Mytochondrial density.
A
26. You suspect a 15 year old female gymnast has an eating disorder, when trying to help, all of the following should be avoided EXCEPT? A. Refer her to the team physician. B. Tell her that she looks fine. C. Give her nutritional information. D. Monitor her food intake.
A
3. Which of the following activities places the MOST metabolic demand on the aerobic energy system? A. Lacrosse. B. Powerlifting. C. Diving. D. Gymnastics.
A
30. A nutritionist is testing a 19 year old male soccer player using the Jackson Pollock 7 site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? A. Chest, Abdomen, Triceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Thigh B. Chest, Abdomen, Triceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Calf C. Chest, Abdomen, Biceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Thigh D. Chest, Abdomen, Biceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Calf
A
30. Which of the following is a characteristic of a seated vertical shoulder press machine versus a seated barbell shoulder press? A. Less skill is required to perform the machine exercise. B. The machine produces greater simulation of real world activities. C. The machine allows more variation in exercise range of motion. D. The machine allows more muscle groups to be trained simultaneously.
A
31. Comparing children based on physique maturity or sexual maturation uses which of the following ages? A. Biological Age. B. Chronological Age. C. Training Age. D. Developmental Age.
A
39. A strength and conditioning professional observes an athlete everting his foot during the downward movement of a bodyweight squat. Which of the following BEST describes the corresponding effect on the knee alignment? A. valgus B. varus C. no change
A
41. You will be administering the 300 yard shuttle to the women's soccer team and need to setup the testing area by placing cones for the athletes to run between. How far should these cones be spaced apart? A. 25 yards. B. 50 yards. C. 75 yards. D. 100 yards.
A
43. An Olympic lifting platform can accommodate 3-4 people. When performing power exercises, how many athletes should be on the platform? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
A
43. In order to provide excellent footing, what is the best type of flooring for Olympic platforms? A. Wood. B. Carpet. C. Rubber. D. Concrete.
A
45. When administering tests to athletes in high temperature and humidity, which of the following measures of performance would be MOST impaired? A. Aerobic Endurance. B. Maximum Strength. C. Maximum Power. D. Agility.
A
45. Which of the following is the primary movement during the catch phase of the power clean? A. Hip Flexion B. Knee Extension C. Ankle Plantar flexion D. Shoulder Extension
A
47. Which of the following occurs during the acceleration phase of sprinting? A. The thigh of the swing leg is perpendicular to the trunk. B. Forward body lean progressively increases. C. Stride length decreases. D. Stride frequency decreases.
A
47. Which of the following sequences of exercises is most appropriate for a female college basketball player entering the preseason? A. Hang Clean, Front Squat, Incline Bench Press, Triceps Pushdown B. Incline Bench Press, Triceps Pushdown, Front Squat, Hang Clean C. Front Squat, Seated Row, Incline Bench Press, Push Jerk D. Incline Bench Press, Seated Row, Push Jerk, Hang Clean
A
5. The largest increase in axial skeleton bone mineral density will occur via the performance of which of the following exercises? A. Back Barbell Squat. B. Standing Calf Raise. C. Lat Pulldown. D. Dumbbell Lateral Raise.
A
5. Which of the following cardiovascular adaptations to chronic aerobic exercise contributes the MOST to improved aerobic endurance performance? A. increased maximal cardiac output B. decreased resting blood pressure C. lowered resting heart rate
A
52. When performing contract-relax PNF stretching of the pectoralis major with a partner, which of the following describes the contraction against resistance and how long it should be maintained? Contraction Anatomical Movement Duration A. Concentric Shoulder Horizontal Adduction 6 seconds B. Eccentric Shoulder Horizontal Adduction 6 seconds C. Concentric Shoulder Horizontal Abduction 30 seconds D. Concentric Shoulder Horizontal Adduction 30 seconds
A
52. Which of the following will be improved the MOST by increasing the strength of the hip flexor muscles? A. maximum speed B. start speed C. deceleration speed
A
54. Which of the following represents the correct starting position of the bar during the performance of the deadlift? A. Over the balls of the feet. B. Over the toes of the feet. C. 3 inches in front of the shins. D. 1 inch in front of the toes of the feet.
A
54. Which of the following structural exercises would be performed very quickly and explosively? A. Hang Clean. B. Back Barbell Squat. C. Deadlift. D. Bench Press.
A
6. A countermovement prior to jumping as far as possible consists of what type of muscle action? A. Eccentric B. Isometric C. Concentric D. Isokinetic
A
69. During the upward motion of Incline DB Chest Press, which of the following identifies the PRIMARY motion occurring at the shoulder joint? A. Adduction in the transverse plane. B. Abduction in the sagittal plane. C. Flexion in the transverse plan. D. Flexion in the frontal plane.
A
7. Which of the following sequences is the MOST appropriate? A. power clean, bench press, back squat, pull-up B. push press, shoulder press, power clean, deadlift C. leg press, front squat, power snatch, push press
A
72. When performing Incline DB chest Press, the strength and conditioning professional would like to de-emphasize the perctoralis major and have the deltoids perform more of the work, which of the following modifications would BEST achieve that? A. Grasp the dumbbells with a neutral grip, place the elbows parallel to the torso, and have the athlete flex the shoulders in the sagittal plane B. Grasp the dumbbells with a supinated grip, place the elbows perpendicular to the torso, and have the athlete adduct the shoulders in the sagittal plane C. Grasp the dumbbells with a neutral grip, place the elbows perpendicular to the torso and have the athlete adduct the shoulders in the transverse plane. D. Grasp the dumbbells with a supinated grip, place the elbows parallel to the torso, and have the athlete flex the shoulder in the transverse plane.
A
73. How would you describe the hand grip during the performance of Hammer Curl? A. Closed Neutral Grip. B. Open Neutral Grip. C. Closed Alternating Grip. D. Open Alternating Grip.
A
73. What type of lever occurs at the elbow joint during the performance of lying triceps extension? A. First Class. B. Second Class. C. Thirds Class. D. Fourth Class.
A
74. During the downward movement phase of lying triceps extension, which of the following substitution patterns may be present when the triceps brachii fatigues? A. Shoulder Flexion. B. Wrist extension. C. Shoulder Extension. D. Shoulder Abduction.
A
75. Which of the following identifies the movement of the elbow joint during the upward phase of lying triceps extension? A. Extension in the sagittal plane. B. Extension in the frontal plane. C. Flexion in the sagittal plane. D. Flexion in the frontal plane.
A
75. Which of the following reasons BEST explains why Hammer Curl should not be utilized for 1 RM testing? A. Valid and reliable results cannot be obtained. B. Only one muscle group is involved. C. The exercise is a single-joint exercise. D. The elbow flexors are a small muscle group.
A
8. A 37 year old male marathon runner has been competing competitively for 10 years. What would be the most significant change to this individual's cardiovascular function with this type of training? A. Increased maximal cardiac output from increased stroke volume. B. Increased maximal cardiac output from increased heart rate. C. Increased systolic blood pressure from increased heart rate. D. Increased diastolic blood pressure from increased stroke volume.
A
8. Which of the following mineral deficiencies is relatively common in women and adolescents? A. Iron B. Copper C. Zinc D. Magnesium
A
A college long jumper utilizes low-intensity bounding prior to his event. This type of warm-up would be considered? a) Specific. b) General. c) PNF. d) Static.
A
A test that reflects low-speed muscular strength and utilizes relatively low movement speeds would be which of the following? a) Maximum Muscular Strength. b) Local Muscular Endurance. c) Aerobic Capacity. d) Maximum Muscular Power.
A
During freestyle swimming, which of the following muscles acts as a synergist to the deltoid with regards to upper arm movement? a. Infraspinatus. b. Brachioradialis. c. Gracilis. d. Sartorius.
A
Flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit-and-reach test? I. hamstrings. II. erector spinae. III. lumbar spine. IV. hip flexors. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.
A
In order to increase absolute leg strength, which of the following training methods should a professional football defensive back with a 1 RM of 450 lbs. in the back squat utilize? I. Back Squat. II. Lunges. III. Single-Leg Squat. IV. Step-Ups. A. I only. B. I,III only. C. II, III, IV only. D. III only.
A
To maintain hydration during competition lasting less than 1 hour, it is recommended that athletes consume 3 to 8 ounces of water or a sports drink about every. a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. 60 minutes. d. 2 hour.
A
When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time (<200 ms), which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment? a. I. b. IIa. c. IIx. d. IIc.
A
When the intensity of exercise increases there is a gradual shift from which of the following as the preferred source of fuel? A. Fat to Carbohydrate. B. Carbohydrate to Fat. C. Protein to Carbohydrate. D. Protein to Fat.
A
Which muscle is recruited to achieve hip extension during the snatch? a) Gluteus maximus. b) Soleus. c) Vastus Lateralis. d) Rectus Femoris.
A
Which of the following are the principle methods in which anabolic steroids increase strength and lean body mass? I. Increased Protein Synthesis. II. Decreased Protein Synthesis. III. Inhibition of the Catabolic Effects of High Intensity Training. IV. Acceleration of the Catabolic Effects of High Intensity Training. A. I, III only B. II,IIIonly C. I, IV only D. II, IV only"
A
Which of the following tests assess muscular power in a male tennis player? A. Standing long jump. B. 1 RM Squat. C. 1 RM Bench Press. D. 40 yard sprint.
A
Which of the following types of activity is inappropriate during the inflammatory response phase of a medial collateral ligament sprain? a. lower extremity plyometrics. b. submaximal isometric quadriceps strengthening. c. hip joint stretching. d. upper extremity ergometry.
A
4. A 200 lb. baseball player has an average daily intake of 500g of carbohydrate, 140g of fat, and 110g of protein. What percent of his total kilocalorie intake is protein? A. 12%. B. 15%. C. 34%. D. 54%.
A FAT = 9cal/g CARBS & PROTEIN = 4cal/g
57. What should be determined FIRST when designing a training program for a male golfer? A. A movement analysis of golf. B. Evaluate training status of the athlete. C. Test athlete's strength, flexibility, power. D. The athlete's training goal.
A 1. Evaluation of sport 2. Training Status 3. Tests 4. Primary goal
49. Training for sport and movement specific strength is given HIGHEST priority during which of the following sport seasons? A. Pre-season B. In-Season C. Post-Season D. Off-Season
A PRESEASON - increase intensity of sport-specific training IN-SEASON - Maintain and possibly improve. Resistance 1-3x/week for 30 min POST-SEASON - Recreational activities. OFF-SEASON - base level of conditioning
47. Which of the following program design variables leads to the HIGHEST serum growth hormone concentrations after an anaerobic training session? A. Performing an exercise at a 10RM intensity with a 1 minute rest between sets. B. Performing an exercise at a 10RM intensity with a 3 minute rest between sets. C. Performing an exercise at a 5RM intensity with a 1 minute rest between sets. D. Performing an exercise at a 5RM intensity with a 3 minute rest between sets.
A (10RM and less rest = higher GH - 3x10 with 1 min rest)
17. A 134 lb. female volleyball player has a daily intake of 2,800 kilocalories. 21% of her diet comes from fat. Approximately how many grams of fat is she consuming per day? A. 65 B. 84 C. 147 D. 588
A (9 kcal/1g fat)
37. During the competitive season the men's soccer team has limited training time, which of the following arrangement of exercises minimizes the length of rest periods and decreases overall training time? A. Deadlift, Dumbbell Shoulder Press, Leg Curl, Bench Press. B. Bench Press, Deadlift, Leg Curl, Dumbbell Shoulder Press. C. Bench Press, Dumbbell Shoulder Press, Leg Curl, Deadlift. D. Deadlift, Bench Press, Dumbbell Shoulder Press, Leg Curl.
A (power first and then move to assistance?)
3. The highest composition of Type I muscle fibers would typically be found in which of the following muscles? A. Erector Spinae. B. Rectus Femoris. C. Gastrocnemius. D. Pectoralis Major.
A (stabilizers NOT power generators)
A high myoglobin content is a characteristic of which muscle fiber type? A. Type I. B. Type IIa. C. Type IIx. D. Type III.
A 10
44. In comparison to an elite Olympic weightlifter, an elite long-distance cyclist will have a greater percentage of which of the following? A. Type I muscle fibers B. Type IIa muscle fibers C. Type IIx muscle fibers
A 11
16. Which of the following refers to the amount of blood passing through the aortic valve during each heart beat? A. Stroke Volume B. Cardiac Output C. Systolic Blood Pressure D. End Diastolic Volume
A 116
During aerobic exercise, blood flow to the active muscles is? a. Increased by dilation of arterioles. b. Increased by dilation of venules. c. Decreased by constriction of arterioles. d. Decreased by constriction of venules.
A 118
The mean arterial pressure is defined as the: a. average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle. b. average of the systolic and diastolic pressures. c. average systolic blood pressure during exercise. d. average of blood pressure and heart rate.
A 118
When performing a biceps curl, tension in the biceps brachii muscle increases. Which of the following structures detects and responds to the tension by reflexively reducing muscle activation? a. Golgi tendon organ. b. Muscle spindle. c. Pacinian corpuscle. d. Lamellar corpuscle.
A 12
45. A 17-year-old high school tennis player follows an aerobic training program 3 days per week at 70% HRmax for 4 weeks. Which of the following is the MOST likely to increase? A. stored creatine phosphate B. body fat percentage C. maximal rate of force production
A 121
Through which valve does blood flow after contraction of the left ventricle? A. Aortic. B. Pulmonary. C. Mitral. D. Tricuspid.
A 13
Where are normal rhythmic electrical impulses initiated in the heart? a. Sinoatrial (SA) node. b. Atrioventricular (AV) bundle. c. Purkinje fibers. d. Atrioventricular (AV) node.
A 13
Which component of the electrical conduction system of the heart has the greatest discharge rate? A. SA Node. B. AV Node. C. AV Bundle. D. Purkinje Fibers.
A 13
A male cross country runner is suspected of suffering from overtraining, all of the following are markers of Aerobic overtraining EXCEPT? a. Increased percentage of body fat. b. Increased submaximal exercise heart rate. c. Increased creatine kinase. d. Increased muscle soreness.
A 131
48. Which of the following is a marker of aerobic overtraining? A. decreased total testosterone concentration B. increased muscle glycogen stores C. increased resting catecholamine level
A 131 catecholamines: epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine
An Olympic middle distance runner has been training in Colorado Springs for the last 6 months. Which of the following represents a long term adjustment to high altitude? A. Decreased plasma volume. B. Decreased blood viscosity. C. Decreased use of free fatty acids in favor of muscle glycogen. D. Decreased red blood cell production.
A 134 -Elevation in submaximal HR -Decreased stroke volume at rest -Lowered max HR -Increased RBCs, viscosity, hematocrit -Decreased plasma volume -Increased mitochondria, capillary density -Reduction in alkaline reserve
24. A female marathoner trains at sea-level. She travels to a race venue held at an altitude of 5280 ft (1625 m). Which of the following BEST describes the immediate physiological effect? A. increased cardiac output B. decreased ventilation rate C. decreased tidal volume
A 134 IMMEDIATE -increased CO -Submax HR increases -Stroke volume the same or lower -Max HR same or slightly lower -Hyperventilation -Body fluids more alkaline
Which of the following ages would be used when comparing children based on sexual maturation? A. Biological Age. B. Training Age. C. Chronological Age. D. Psychological Age.
A 136
A youth female athlete has been placed in Stage 4 of Tanner's Classification. What does this classification assess? A. Biological Age. B. Training Age. C. Chronological Age. D. Psychological Age.
A 137
Growth cartliage in children is located at all of the following EXCEPT the. a. diaphysis. b. epiphyseal plate. c. joint surface. d. apophyseal insertion.
A 138
During a typical electrocardiogram, atrial depolarization is represented by? a. P-wave. b. QRS complex. c. T-wave. d. U-wave.
A 14
Children improve their performance in skills that require agility, strength, and power when which of the following body systems develops? A. Nervous System. B. Cardiovascular System. C. Lymphatic System. D. Integumentary System.
A 141
As a strength and conditioning professional you should be aware that female basketball players are six times more likely than males to injure what body part? a) ACL. b) Rotator cuff. c) Achilles tendon. d) PCL.
A 147
In order to help prevent injuries in female athletes it is important to stress which of the following? a) Optimize dietary intake. b) Decrease body fat. c) Provide a longer off-season to increase recovery. d) Increase resistance of exercises often.
A 147
Compared to young adults, older adults display which of the following? A. Less muscle mass and a higher proportion of Type I muscle fibers. B. More muscle mass and a higher proportion of Type I muscle fibers. C. More muscle mass and a higher proportion of Type II muscle fibers. D. Less muscle mass and a higher proportion of Type II muscle fibers.
A 149
Identify the correct path in which inhaled air is distributed to the lungs. a. Trachea, Bronchi, Bronchioles, Alveoli. b. Trachea, Alveoli, Bronchi, Bronchioles. c. Trachea, Bronchioles, Bronchi, Alveoli. d. Trachea, Alveoli, Bronchioles, Bronchi.
A 15
All of the following factors affect optimal arousal and subsequent performance EXCEPT? a) Sex. b) Skill level. c) Task complexity. d) Trait Anxiety.
A 158-159
How does a novice basketball player's optimal level of arousal differ from that of a professional? A. It is less. B. It is more. C. It is the same. D. It is not related to skill level.
A 159
An Olympic weightlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise? a. selective attention. b. somatic anxiety. c. guided discovery. d. self-efficacy.
A 163
Which of the following is a macronutrient? a) Protein. b) Vitamin A. c) Water. d) Potassium.
A 181
3. Which of the following is an incomplete protein? A. beans B. eggs C. milk
A 182
Which mode of exercise requires the greatest amount of protein intake? a) Heavy resistance training. b) Intense running intervals. c) Cycling long slow distance. d) Basketball practice.
A 183
Maintaining adequate glycogen stores. a. spares the use of protein for enrgey. b. improves maximum power. c. decreases endurance performance. d. helps athletes gain weight.
A 186
Which of the following will a female soccer player utilize the MOST during a game? a) Carbohydrate. b) Fat. c) Protein. d) Lipid.
A 188
What is the recommended HDL level in order to protect against heart disease? a) Greater than or equal to 60. b) Greater than 300. c) Equal to 200. d) Less than 30.
A 189 LDLs <100 = optimal HDLs >60 optimal Total cholesterol <200
A female gymnast has decided to become a strict vegan, as a result of this diet she is at risk for not meeting the requirements for which of the following? A. B12. B. Magnesium. C. Vitamin E. D. Vitamin A.
A 192
The BEST way to assess the amount of fluid an athlete lost during a single workout is the a) Change in the athlete's weight observed on a balance scale. b) Amount of urine produced during the rehydration period measured in ounces. c) Urine color compared to a standard color chart. d) Frequency of urination during a 24 hour period.
A 197
Which of the following are the major electrolytes lost in sweat? A. Sodium, Chloride and Potassium. B. Sodium, Nitrate and Magnesium. C. Potassium and Magnesium. D. Sodium, Nitrate and Calcium.
A 197 HIGH - sodium, chloride and potassium LOW - magnesium and calcium.
14. An athlete is participating in an aerobic endurance event that lasts approximately one hour. Which of the following beverages is MOST appropriate? Temperature Carbohydrate concentration A. 55°F (13°C) 6% B. 65°F (18°C) 10% C. 75°F (25°C) 14%
A 198
8. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate recommendation for fluid intake before a collegiate soccer match? Volume (L) Hours before a match A. 0.5 2 B. 1.0 0.5 C. 1.5 1
A 198-199 1 oz = 30 ml .5 L 1-2 hours before game
The skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum are referred to as the? a. Axial Skeleton. b. Appendicular Skeleton. c. Central Skeleton. d. Peripheral Skeleton.
A 2
A junior hockey player is performing a standing dumbbell curl exercise. Which of the following muscles acts as an antagonist to the biceps brachii? A. Triceps Brachii. B. Brachialis. C. Coracobrachialis. D. Flexor Carpi Radialis.
A 20
13. Which of the following exercises is an example of a first-class lever? A. triceps pushdown B. lateral raise C. biceps curl
A 20-21
42. Which of the following BEST describes the effect on mechanical advantage as a resistance moment arm shortens? A. increases B. decreases C. no change
A 20-21
2. A 120-lb (55-kg) marathon runner begins to taper one week before her race. Three days prior to the race she begins to carbohydrate load. Approximately how many grams of carbohydrates per day is MOST appropriate? A. 550 B. 1100 C. 2200
A 206
A lever in which the muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum is referred to as? a. First class. b. Second class. c. Third class. d. Fourth class.
A 21
As the moment arm of the applied force lengthens, which of the following describes the resultant effect on mechanical advantage? A. It increases. B. It decreases. C. There is no change. D. There is not enough information.
A 21
36. Which of the following exercises involves a second-class lever? A. standing calf (heel) raise B. dumbbell biceps curl C. lying triceps extension
A 21-22
10. A collegiate rubgy player wants to enhance recovery. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for her to consume promptly after completing a strenuous resistance training workout? A. carbohydrates, electrolytes, protein B. protein, omega-3 fatty acids, electrolytes C. electrolytes, carbohydrates, omega-3 fatty acids
A 211/215
Which of the following makes the GREATEST contribution to total energy expenditure? a. resting metabolic rate. b. physical activity energy expenditure. c. thermic effect of food. d. resting blood sugar levels.
A 216
15. A female collegiate basketball forward is in-season. She is content with her weight but would like to know if her diet is appropriate for her needs. Her daily caloric intake consists of the following: Carbohydrate 1500 kcal Protien 500 kcal Fat 350 kcal Which of the following is MOST appropriate to recommend? Carbohydrate Protein Fat A. maintain decrease increase B. increase increase maintain C. decrease maintain decrease
A 217
27. A 6'4‖ 340 lb. professional football player desires to lose weight to improve his quickness and agility. His current 7800 kcal/day diet consists of 26% fat, 20% protein, and 54% carbohydrate. Which of the following should be his first nutritional priority? A. Decrease kcals. B. Decrease fat. C. Increase Protein. D. Increase Carbohydrates.
A 217
A 6'4" male has an average daily intake of 2,900 kilocalories. This has allowed him to maintain a weight of 77 kg. He would like to gain an additional 7 kg of muscle. A general guideline would be for him to consume which of the following each day? A. 500 additional kilocalories and 131 g of protein B. 500 additional kilocalories and 92 g of protein C. 300 additional kilocalories and 124 g of protein D. 300 additional kilocalories and 170 g of protein
A 217 1.5 to 2.0 g per/kilo for weight gain LIMITS TO WEIGHT GAIN/LOSS .5-1kg/week = 500-1000 calories/day PROTEIN 10-15% or .8g/kg but for aerobic athletes can go to 1.4g/kg Heavy resistance can go to 1.8g/kg-2.7g/kg
Which of the following represents the most important goal for achieving weight loss? A. Achieving a negative caloric balance. B. Engaging in intense aerobic activity. C. Decreasing fat consumption, while increasing protein consumption. D. Spreading meals throughout the day.
A 218
13. Which of the following is a warning sign for Bulimia Nervosa? A. Disappearance of large amounts of food. B. Dramatic weight loss for no medical reason. C. Preoccupation with calories. D. Cutting food into small pieces.
A 222
21. Which of the following describes binge eating that is associated with bulimia nervosa? Recurrent binge episodes/week Length of time A. 1 3 months B. 2 3 months C. 3 3 months
A 222
Those with pica should be tested for which of the following? A. Anemia. B. Hypokalemia. C. Hyponatremia. D. Hyperlipidemia.
A 223 Can be low in iron and zinc too. Hypokalemia - low potassium Hyponatremia - low sodium
Which of the following factors appear to be responsible for the strength benefits from anabolic steroids? a) Increased protein synthesis. b) Decreased cortisol levels. c) Decreased catabolic hormones. d) Decreased water retention.
A 230
Which of the following performance -enhancing substances is most likely to increase lean body mass? a. anabolic steroids. b. arginine. c. ephedrine. d. β-alanine.
A 235
Which of the following have affects such as lipolysis and thermogenesis and have been found to increase lean mass and decrease stored fat? a) Beta-Adrenergic Agonists. b) Erythropoietin. c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin. d) Growth Hormone.
A 236 Beta-Adrenergic Agonists - related to epinephrine. Regulates lipolysis and thermogenesis. -Increase lean mas and decreased stored fat.
Caffeine improves athletic performance by all of the following EXCEPT? a) Decreased urine output. b) Delayed fatigue. c) Increased alertness. d) Glycogen sparing.
A 244
55. Which of the following will DECREASE the power output of an athlete performing the snatch exercise? A. increasing the load from 90 to 95% of the athlete's 1RM B. increasing the speed at which the athlete performs the exercise C. lengthening the rest period between sets of the exercise
A 25-30
A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power? a. vertical jump. b. 1RM bench press. c. 5RM squat. d. 100 m (109 yard) spring.
A 253
Which of the following tests is MOST appropriate for assessing a professional football offensive lineman? A. 1 RM Bench Press. B. 40 yard sprint. C. Sit and Reach. D. 1.5 mile run.
A 253
Anthropometry is the science of measurement applied to the human body, and measurements generally include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Flexibility. b) Height. c) Weight. d) Limb Girths.
A 262
How is the athlete instructed to grasp the barbell when performing the 1RM Bench Pull? A. Closed Pronated Grip. B. Closed Supinated Grip. C. Open Supinated Grip. D. Open Neutral Grip.
A 265
A vertical jump involves knee, hip, and shoulder movement primarily in which of of the following anatomical planes? a. sagital. b. perpendicular. c. frontal. d. transverse.
A 27
Flexion and extension of the knee occurs primarily in what anatomical plane? A. Sagittal B. Frontal C. Transverse D. Coronal"
A 27
Punting a football requires flexion of the hip that occurs in which plane of action? a. Sagittal. b. Frontal. c. Biaxial. d. Transverse.
A 27
When administering the 300 yard shuttle, how far are the parallel lines placed apart? A. 25 yards B. 50 yards C. 75 yards D. 100 yards
A 273
When setting up the course for the Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test, how far is the cone placed behind the start line in order for the athletes to jog for recovery? A. 5 m. B. 10 m. C. 15 m . D. 20 m.
A 278 There is a active recovery period (5 and 10 seconds respectively for the endurance and recovery versions of the test) interjected between every 20 meter (out and back) shuttle, during which the subject must walk or jog around the other cone and return to the starting point.
How much work is required to lift a 100 kg barbell 2 m for 5 repetitions? a. 9,800 J. b. 1,000 J. c. 1,000 W. d. 9,800 W.
A 28
Which of the following represents the equation for work? A. Force X Distance. B. Force / Time. C. Force X Time. D. Distance / Time.
A 28
All of the following are reasons for disqualification of a T-Test EXCEPT? A. During the initial movement, the athlete sprints forward only 10 yards. B. The athlete crosses one foot in front of the other. C. The athlete fails to touch a cone. D. The athlete turns to the right.
A 280
Which of the following identifies the correct way to stand during the Balance Error Scoring System? A. Eyes closed, hands on hips. B. Eyes closed, arms folded across chest. C. Eyes open, hands on hips. D. Eyes open, arms folded across chest.
A 284
55. An 18 year old college soccer player achieved the following test results during the first week of summer conditioning: 1 RM Back Squat: 130 lbs. 1 RM Bench Press: 120 lbs. 1 Mile Run: 6:08 (min:sec). Sit and Reach: 22.5 inches. When designing her training program the focus should be on improving which of the following? A. Lower body strength. B. Upper Body Strength. C. Aerobic endurance. D. Flexibility.
A 295
9. A 145-lb (59-kg), 6 ft., 3 in. female college volleyball player has the following test profile: 1RM bench press: 110 lb (50 kg) 1RM back squat: 130 lb (59 kg) VO2 max: 49 ml/kg/min Body fat percentage: 18% Vertical jump: 21 in. (53 cm) Which of the following needs improvement? A. lower body strength B. lower body power C. upper body strength
A 295 50% = 143 LBS
22. A Division I collegiate defensive tackle (American football) had the following testing results two months before the competitive season: Bodyweight: 319 lb (145 kg) Height: 6 ft, 3 in. (191 cm) Standing long jump: 7 ft, 10 in. (2.4 m) 1RM bench press: 400 lb (181 kg) 40-yard (37-m) sprint: 4.84 sec Which of the following should this athlete focus on during training? A. lower body power b. upper body strength C. sprint speed
A 300 50% = 110" (279 cm)
A 24 year old professional male tennis player was administered a battery of tests and had the following results. 1RM Bench Press:220 lbs. 1RM Squat: 265 lbs. T-Test: 9.2 seconds. 1.5 Mile Run: 15.53. Sit and Reach: 20.5 inches. His strength and conditioning program should focus on improving which of the following? A. Aerobic Endurance. B. Flexibility. C. Agility. D. Muscular Strength.
A 305
How would the muscle fiber arrangements of the rectus abdominal muscle be classified? A. Longitudinal. B. Fusiform. C. Bipennate. D. Unipennate.
A 31
12. A 315-lb (143-kg) male collegiate American football offensive lineman has the following test results: 40-yd (37-m) sprint: 5.9 sec Body fat percentage: 20% 1RM bench press: 405 lb (184 kg) 1RM back squat: 530 lb (241 kg) Which of the following areas should his training program emphasize? A. sprint speed B. body composition C. upper body strength
A 312-313
17. An athlete is performing a seated dumbbell shoulder press. During the concentric muscle action which of the following structures of a deltoid sarcomere will shorten? A. H-Zone. B. M-Line. C. Z-Line. D. A-Band.
A 32
11. Which of the following muscle actions produces the greatest amount of muscle force? A. eccentric B. isometric C. concentric
A 32-33
Which of the following is the least likely to invoke the stretch reflex by avoiding stimulation of the muscle spindles? a) Static Stretch. b) Ballistic Stretch. c) Dynamic Stretch. d) Rapid Stretch.
A 323
41. Which of the following is a benefit of static stretching? A. increased joint ROM B. decreased risk of injury C. improved muscular recovery
A 324
After promoting the hold-relax with agonist contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility? I. autogenic inhibition. II. stretch inhibition. III. reciprocal inhibition. IV. crossed-extensor inhibition. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.
A 327
17. Which of the following substrates DO NOT require oxygen in order to be metabolized for energy? I. Creatine Phosphate. II. Triglycerides. III. Protein. IV. Blood Glucose. A. I and IV. B. I and II. C. II and III. D. II and IV.
A 33 Creatine phosphate decreases rapidly (50-70%) during first stage of high-intensity exercise (5-30 sec). Complete resynthesis in about 8 min.
During a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following? I. perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint. II. joint angle. III. movement acceleration. IV. movement velocity squared. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.
A 34
Instruction for breathing during the dumbbell bench press should include? a) exhale through the sticking point. b) inhale through the sticking point. c) exhale as weight is lowered. d) exhale at the top of the movement.
A 353
A spotter is required for? a) Flat barbell bench. b) Power Clean. c) Good Morning. d) Flat Bench Press (Smith Machine).
A 354
An athlete is utilizing a cycle ergometer and in order to increase the intensity she turns the knob which controls the brake pad, this type of resistance is referred to as? a. Friction b. Fluid Resistance c. Elasticity d. Inertia
A 36
67. Which of the following is a correct technique recommendation to give to the athlete performing Bench Press? A. Keep a grip on the bar until it is racked. B. Raise the chest to meet the bar. C. Lower the bar to touch the chest at the clavicle. D. Keep the wrists loose.
A 371
45. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for performing the wrist extension exercise? A. grasping the bar with a pronated grip B. allowing the wrists to extend toward the floor C. extending the wrists to the neutral position
A 377
Proper spotting of the forward lunge has the spotter? a) Stepping forward with the same leg as the lifter's lead leg. b) Stepping forward with the opposite leg as the lifter's lead leg. c) Stepping forward with both legs. d) Not stepping forward with the lifter.
A 385
You are instructing a female soccer player on the deadlift. Correct technique for lifting a bar off of the floor would include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Lift the bar up to your chest before standing. b) Keep the bar close to the body. c) Keep the back flat. d) Weight evenly dispersed between the feet.
A 389
You are observing an athlete performing power cleans and notice an error during the Catch phase. Which of the following would need correction? a) A flexed torso. b) A tight torso. c) Flat feet. d) Neutral head position.
A 405
Which of the following is an exercise used to isolate the core? A. Side Plank. B. Squat. C. Push Press. D. Snatch.
A 411
Performing a dumbbell bench press on a physio ball leads to which of the following? A. Increased core muscle activation, reduced force generation by the pectoralis major. B. Increased core muscle activation, increased force generation by the pectoralis major. C. Reduced core muscle activation, reduced force generation by the pectoralis major. D. Reduced core muscle activation, increased force generation by the pectoralis major.
A 412
Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods? a. to accommodate the changing mechanical advantage associated with constant-loaded exercises. b. to minimize force application throughout the full range of motion. c. to increase the time spent decelerating during a lifting motion. d. to keep the applied resistance constant during changes in joint angle.
A 413
Which of the following is the equation for the tension generated by a resistance band? A. Stiffness (k) X Deformation (d) B. Stiffness (k) / Deformation (d) C. Deformation (d) / Stiffness (k) D. Force (N) X Time (s)
A 416
You have decided to include tire flips as part of the offseason conditioning program for the offensive lineman on the college football team. All of the following are true with regards to tire selection and exercise setup EXCEPT? a) The tire should not be shorter than the athlete. b) The exercise surface should be hard. c) Tires with good tread are easier to grip. d) The exercise surface should allow good traction of the athlete's shoes.
A 417
Bilateral facilitation during the performance of a front barbell squat leads to which of the following? A. Increased voluntary activation of the agonist muscle group. B. Decreased voluntary activation of the agonist muscle group. C. Asymmetries in force production between the quadriceps muscle group. D. Increased voluntary activation of the antagonist muscle group.
A 421
If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen? a. A bilateral facilitation will occur. b. A bilateral deficit will be developed. c. A reduction in bilateral asymmetries will occur. d. Only unilateral strength will increase.
A 421
What is the initial motion during the backward movement phase of the two arm kettlebell swing? A. Hip Flexion. B. Knee extension. C. Shoulder Flexion. D. Ankle plantar flexion.
A 433
The barbell biceps curl would be classified as what type of exercise? a) Assistance exercise. b) Core exercise. c) Sport Specific exercise. d) Multi-joint exercise.
A 444
the basketball coach says his starting center needs to jump higher. In addition to beginning a plyometric program, which of the following resistance training exercise are MOST specific to this goal? I. power clean. II. leg (knee) curl. III. front squat. IV. seated calf (heel) raise. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.
A 445
A collegiate softball player trains her back and biceps one day and her chest and triceps the next day. What type of training program is she utilizing? a) Split routine. b) Power routine. c) Circuit training. d) Cross training.
A 447
An athlete performs 10 repetitions of a standing barbell curl, then immediately switches to dumbbells and performs 10 repetitions of hammer curl exercises. This represents what type of set? a) Compound. b) Super . c) Drop. d) Circuit.
A 451
20. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate to include in the strength/power phase for a collegiate soccer goalie? A. push press with 85% of 1RM for 3 sets of 3 repetitions B. deadlift with 95% of the 1RM for 5 sets of 2 repetitions C. back squat with 65% of the 1RM for 4 sets of 12 repetitions
A 458
You observe an athlete performing 10 repetitions of an exercise, based on the number of repetitions performed this athlete is most likely trying to increase? a) Muscle hypertrophy. b) Muscle strength. c) Muscle endurance. d) Muscle power.
A 458
22. A volleyball player needs to increase his multiple-effort event power. Which of the following protocols is MOST appropriate for him to use while performing the power clean exercise? Load (% 1RM) Goal repetitions A. 85 4 B. 90 3 C. 95 2
A 458 80-90% 1-2 reps 75-85% 3-5 reps
The Creatine Kinase reaction provides energy by catalyzing the synthesis of ATP from which of the following? A. Adenosine Diphosphate and Creatine Phosphate. B. Adenosine Diphosphate and Glucose. C. Creatine Phosphate and Glucose. D. Adenosine Monophosphate and Creatine Phosphate.
A 46
Which of the following energy systems produces ATP at the quickest rate? a. phosphagen. b. aerobic glycolysis. c. fat oxidation. d. fast glycolysis.
A 46
Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the MOST? a. 5 sets of 5 reps. b. 1 set of 5 reps. c. 5 sets of 15 reps. d. 1 set of 15 reps.
A 463
50. A cross country runner is lifting 65% of her 1 RM for 15 repetitions at various stations in the strength and conditioning facility. Approximately how much time should she rest between stations in order to get the maximum benefit from this type of training A. 30 seconds. B. 1 minutes. C. 3 minutes. D. 5 minutes.
A 463/465
Which of the following nutrients can be metabolized without the presence of oxygen? A. Carbohydrates. B. Proteins. C. Fats. D. Lipids.
A 47
Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the MOST appropriate to assign to a plyometric training work? a. 1:5. b. 1:4. c. 1:3. d. 1:2.
A 477 1:5 to 1:10
Which of the following reactions is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis (i.e., the decrease in intramuscular pH during high-intensity, fatiguing exercise)? a. ATP -> ADP + Pi + H+. b. pyruvate + NADH -> lactate + NAD+. c. ADP + creatine phoshate -> ATP + creatine. d. fructose-6-phosphate -> fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
A 48
The minimum landing surface dimensions for a plyometric box is a) 18 x 24 inches. b) 16 x 18 inches . c) 24 x 32 inches. d) 10 x 12 inches.
A 482
Lactate will NOT be produced if which of the following is present in sufficient quantities? A. Oxygen. B. Glucose. C. Glycogen. D. Sodium.
A 49
53. Which of the following accumulates in the working muscle as an athlete exercises at near-maximum intensity? A. hydrogen ions B. creatine phosphate C. lactic acid
A 49/57 Hydrogen ions released in muscle during formation of lactic acid.
Which of the following phases is (are) commonly used to vary workouts during the preparatory period? I. hypertrophy. II. cardiovascular. III. basic strength. IV. supercompensation. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.
A 511 Phases of preparatory period: 1. Hypertrophy/endurance 2. Basic strength 3. Strength/power phase
Which of the following upper body plyometric drills is generally considered the most intense? a) Power Drop. b) Depth Push-Up. c) Two Hand Side to Side Throw. d) Single Arm Throw.
A 517
Which of the following defines momentum? A. The relationship between the mass of an object and the velocity of movement. B. The relationship between force and time. C. How fast an object is moving and what direction. D. Push or a pull exerted on one object by another.
A 524 B = Impulse C = Velocity D = Force
In upright sprinting, an athlete's stride length is largely dependent on ____ a. the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase. b. the athlete's flexibility. c. the athlete's stride rate. d. the amount of horizontal force produced during the toe-off of the stance phase.
A 527
46. Which of the following techniques should be emphasized when starting a sprint from the blocks? A. swing the arms through a large range of motion B. attain an upright position by approximately 10 m C. maximize stride by pushing off with the front leg only
A 527-533 upright by 20m
34. You are watching a video of a sprinter at maximum velocity, during the early support phase you notice excessive forward rotation of the tibia over the ankle. This represents a deficiency in which of the following? A. Eccentric Plantar flexion B. Concentric Plantar flexion C. Eccentric Knee Flexion D. Concentric Knee Flexion
A 531
59. Which of the following contributes MOST to shock absorption while running? A. eccentric plantar flexion B. concentric hip extension C. eccentric knee flexion
A 531
During the early support phase of the sprint cycle which movement helps absorb shock and control forward rotation of the tibia over the ankle? a) Eccentric plantar flexion. b) Concentric plantar flexion. c) Eccentric dorsiflexion. d) Concentric dorsiflexion.
A 531
40. An athlete is transitioning from a backpedal into a forward sprint. Which of the following body parts initiates the movement? A. head B. hips C. feet
A 533-536
A high school running back approaches you and asks how he can improve his maximum velocity sprinting. Which of the following has the greatest impact on maximum velocity sprinting? a) Maximum Velocity Sprinting. b) Assisted sprinting. c) Resisted sprinting. d) Speed-endurance training.
A 536
The phosphagen energy system would primarily supply ATP for which of the following activities? a. 100-m dash. b. 400-m dash. c. 1600 meters. d. Marathon.
A 54/57
An operational plan should be created in which of the following phases? a. predesign phase. b. design phase. c. construction phase. d. preoperation phase.
A 545 Predesign = 25% (6 months) Design = 10% Contruction = 50% Preoperation - 15%
Which of the following has the greatest influence on the energy system used for a given exercise? a. Intensity. b. Duration. c. Mode. d. Frequency.
A 55
For cyclists, which of the following would result in a decrease in exercise economy? a) Increased cycling velocity. b) Decrease in body mass. c) Improved aerodynamic positioning. d) Decreased weight of the bike frame.
A 561
19. Which of the following types of aerobic endurance training occurs at an intensity greater than VO2max? A. High-Intensity Interval Training. B. Interval. C. Pace/Tempo. D. Long, Slow Distance.
A 567
27. A high school cross-country runner wants to improve her speed-endurance. Which of the following types of training is MOST appropriate? A. interval B. pace/tempo C. fartlek
A 568
Which of the following types of training is conducted at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold? a. pace/tempo. b. interval. c. high-intensity interval training (HIIT). d. Fartlek.
A 568
7. Depletion of which of the following fuel sources hinders marathon performance MOST? A. muscle glycogen B. triglycerides C. creatine phosphate
A 57
Which of the following energy sources when depleted would have the greatest impact on the performance of a male shot putter? A. ATP and Creatine Phosphate. B. Muscle Glycogen. C. Liver Glycogen. D. Fat Stores.
A 57
30. A collegiate softball player is participating in an in-season strength and conditioning program. She is transitioning between phases in the program. Phase A Sets Repetitions %1RM 1-3 1-3 95 Phase B Sets Repetitions %1RM 2-3 6-8 80 Which of the following BEST describes the change in phases? A. peaking to maintenance B. strength/power to peaking C. basic strength to hypertrophy
A 590
An athlete is performing exercises with 50-75% of her 1RM for 3-6 sets of 10-20 repetitions. She is at a time of year when she has no competitions, what phase of her preparatory period is she likely in? a) Hypertrophy/Endurance Phase. b) Basic Strength Phase. c) Strength/Power Phase. d) Strength/Endurance Phase.
A 590
The amount of force produced by a muscle at any given time is directly related to which of the following. A. The number of myosin cross bridge heads that are attached to actin filaments. B. The number of actin cross bridge heads that are attached to myosin filaments. C. The strength of the attachment between the myosin cross bridge heads and the actin filaments. D. The strength of the attachment between the actin cross bridge heads and the myosin filaments.
A 6 - 7
25. An athlete is using interval training to increase the capacity of the oxidative energy system. Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is MOST appropriate? A. 1:3 B. 1:4 C. 1:5
A 60
You decide to use interval training to stress the phosphagen energy system, which of the following would be an appropriate work to rest period ratio? a. 1:15. b. 1:10. c. 1:5. d. 1:3.
A 60
31. Which of the following protocols MOST closely simulates the metabolic demands of a basketball game? Work interval Intensity (%maximal power) A. 10 sec 95% B. 30 sec 75% C. 50 sec 55%
A 60/89
Which of the following is considered an open kinetic chain exercise? a) Leg extension. b) Squat. c) Lunge. d) Push-up.
A 615
A softball player is rehabilitating her shoulder and utilizing the De Lorme resistance training program. She is ready for her third and final set of the standing dumbbell lateral raise exercise. Which of the following repetition and load schemes should she choose? a) 10 repetitions at 100% of the 10 RM. b) 5 repetitions at 75% of the 10 RM. c) 10 repetitions at 50% of the 10 RM. d) 5 repetitions at 100% of the 10 RM.
A 616
You have been approached by administration to begin planning for a new strength and conditioning facility on the college campus and begin conducting a feasibility study, this would occur during which phase of new facility design? a) Predesign. b) Design. c) Construction. d) Preoperation.
A 624
13. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate set of conditions for a strength and conditioning facility? Temperature Humidity Sound levels A. 72°F (22.2° C) 55% 85 dB B. 70°F (21.1° C) 50% 95 dB C. 68°F (20.0° C) 65% 80 dB
A 627-628
9. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate guideline for the arrangement of equipment for safety in a strength and conditioning facility? A. visibility and traffic flow B. grouping according to emphasis on body parts C. grouping according to equipment manufacturer
A 628-629
6. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for an assistant strength and conditioning professional to perform? A. properly instruct exercise techniques B. provide appropriate nutritional recommendations C. purchase equipment for the facility
A 642-652
10. A new collegiate athlete wants to use the strength and conditioning facility for the first time. The FIRST priority of the strength and conditioning professional is to make sure that the new student-athlete A. obtains clearance from the sports medicine staff. B. signs a release agreement form prior to using the facility. C. attends an orientation session for familiarization.
A 647-648
When scheduling training sessions in the strength and conditioning facility, priority is given to which teams? a) Those that are in-season. b) Those that are in the off-season. c) Men's teams. d) Women's teams.
A 653
Which of the following is NOT a component of an emergency plan? a. emergency medicine. b. emergency communication. c. emergency equipment. d. emergency personnel.
A 653
What is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the myofibril, causing tension development in a muscle? a. Calcium ions that bind to troponin. b. Calcium ions that bind to tropomyosin. c. Sodium ions that bind to troponin. d. Sodium ions that bind to tropomyosin.
A 7
33. Which of the following involves training loads that are MOST associated with increases in serum testosterone concentrations? A. muscular strength B. muscular hypertrophy C. muscular endurance
A 74-75/85
What type of resistance training workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following the exercise session? Rest. Volume. Sets. a. 30 seconds. High. 3. b. 30 seconds . Low. 1. c. 3 minutes. High. 1. d. 3 minutes. Low. 3.
A 75
Which of the following hormones enhance(s) muscle tissue growth? I. growth hormone. II. cortisol. III. IGF-I. IV. progesterone. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.
A 77/80
All of the following are physiological roles of growth hormone EXCEPT A. Increase glycogen synthesis. B. Increase protein synthesis. C. Increase lipolysis. D. Increase collagen synthesis.
A 78
41. To allow for cross-bridge interactions during muscular contraction, calcium must bind with which of the following? A. troponin B. tropomyosin C. actin
A 8
Which of the following exercise protocols results in increased serum cortisol values? A. 4 sets of 10 repetitions of front squats with 1 minute between sets. B. 4 sets of 10 repetitions of dumbbell lateral raises with 1 minute between sets. C. 4 sets of 5 repetitions of front squats with 4 minutes between sets. D. 4 sets of 5 repetitions of dumbbell lateral raises with 4 minutes between sets.
A 83 -multiple sets -5-10 RM -less rest?
46. An 18-year-old collegiate rugby player is participating in a resistance training program. The strength and conditioning professional conducted strength testing every 6 weeks with the following results: Exercise 1 RM bench press Pre-testing Week 6 Week 12 Week 18 200 lb (91 kg) 210 lb (95 kg) 215 lb (98 kg) 225 lb (102 kg) Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for the increases in strength from week 6 to week 18? A. muscle fiber hypertrophy B. motor unit synchronization C. muscle fiber recruitment increases
A 88-95
14. A motor neuron excites the muscle fibers it innervates by releasing which of the following? A. Acetylcholine. B. Dopamine. C. Serotonin. D. Epinephrine.
A 9
22. If calcium is not returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which of the following BEST describes what occurs in the muscle? A. fused tetanus B. flaccid paralysis C. twitch summation
A 9
A muscle fiber that is small in diameter has a slow contraction speed, and a high capillary density would be classified as? a. Type I. b. Type IIa. c. Type IIb. d. Type IIc.
A 9
An athlete training for a marathon would benefit from having a high concentration of which muscle fiber type? a. Type I. b. Type IIa. c. Type IIb. d. Type III.
A 9
Which of the follwing substance acts at the neuromuscular junction to excite the muscle fibers of a motor unit? a. acetylcholine. b. ATP. c. creatine phosphate. d. serotonin.
A 9
A 16 year old male basketball player has begun a resistance training program. Initially, maximal strength and power gains in his agonist muscles will generally result from an increase in all of the following EXCEPT? A. Size of muscle fibers. B. Recruitment of muscle fibers. C. Rate of motor neuron firing. D. Synchronization of motor neuron firing.
A 91
28. Which of the following components stimulate new bone? A. progressive overload, direction of force, and rate of loading B. rate of loading, progressive overload, and rest period C. rest period, direction of force, and progressive overload
A 98-99
Which of the following components of mechanical load is the LEAST important for stimulating new bone formation? A. rest period. B. magnitude. C. rate of loading. D. direction of force.
A 99
When is explicit instruction inadvisable and when is discovery instruction inadvisable?
A discovery instructional style can slow the learning process while explicit instructions can impair performance in a stressful environment
Policies
A facility's rules and regulations; reflect the goals and objectives of the program
Liability
A legal responsibility, duty, obligation
Third class lever, definition and example
A lever for which the muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum with the muscle force acting through a shorter moment arm than the resistive force ex. biceps curl
Second class lever, definition and example
A lever for which the muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, with muscle force acting through a longer moment arm than the resistive force ex. calf muscle
What energy substrate cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensity or duration?
ATP
Crossbridge Cycling
ATP and Calcium are necessary to cycle the actin and myosin filaments
Contraction cycle
ATP hydrolysis Formation of cross-bridges = myosin attaches to myosin binding sites on actin Power Stroke = crossbridges rotate, sliding the filaments Detachment of myosin from Actin = as the next ATP binds to the myosin head the myosin head detaches from binding site Cycle will continue as long as ATP and Ca2+ Levels are high
Which of the following shoulder movements and planes of motion/action are associated with a tennis backhand
Abduction/Transverse
Sliding-Filament Theory of Muscular Contraction
Actin filament at each end of the sarcomere slide inward on the myosin filaments, pulling the Z-discs towards the M-line/center of the sarcomere (shortening the muscle fiber)
Autogenic Inhibition
Active contraction of a muscle before a passive stretch of the same muscle GTO (reflexive muscle relaxation)
Ballistic Stretch
Active muscular effort, typically bouncing-type movement, end position not held
Combination training
Adds aerobic endurance training to the training of anaerobic athletes in order to enhance recovery May reduce anaerobic performance capabilities (high-strength, high-power) Can reduce gain in muscle girth, maximum strength, and speed/power May be counterproductive in most strength and power sports
Protein requirements
Adults: 0.8g/kg body weight Athletes: 1.5-2.0g/kg body weight
Growth Hormone Release
Affected by the type of resistance training protocol used Short rest period types of workouts result in greater serum concentrations compared to long rest protocols of similar total work GH comes out in bursts of release, happens with adequate deep sleep
Insulin-like Growth Factor
Affected by what you eat or drink, and what your baseline levels are
Variations in Tendon Insertion
Affects ability to lift heavier weights, maximum speed, and force capability
What is the pathway that is most important in directly regulating adaptations to resistance training?
Akt/mTOR
Emergency procedures
All staff members must be familiar with! includes: building evacuation accidents and injuries fire weather first aid kit
All-or-None principle
All the muscle fibers in a motor unit contract and develop force at the same time
Multiaxial
Allow movement in all three axes (shoulder/hip)
Synovial Joint
Allows considerable movement (elbows/knees)
Cartilaginous Joint
Allows limited movement (intervetebral)
Adenosine Triphosphate
Allows the transfer of energy from exergonic to endergonic
Fibrous Joint
Allows virtually no movement (Sutures of skull)
Adaptations in Endocrine System
Amount of synthesis and storage of hormones Duration of liver and other tissue clearance Number of receptors in tissue Degree of interaction with the cell nucleus
Wheelchair Access
Any change of height greater than .5 inch (1.3 cm) Ramp needs 12 inches run for every 1 inch rise Steps need rough strip on edge to prevent people from falling
What characterizes Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder?
Apparently lack of interest in eating or food based on sensory characteristics of food or the aversive consequences of eating
Skeletal Muscle Striated appearance
Arrangement of Actin (thin) and Myosin (thick)
Activation of Muscle
Arrival of the action potential at the nerve terminal causes the release of acetylcholine, once a sufficient amount of acetylcholine is released an action potential is generated across the sarcolemma and the fiber contracts
Warm-Up Area Size
At least 49 square feet
The mean arterial pressure is defined as
Average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle
The skull, vertebral column, and sternum are referred to as the?
Axial Skeleton
1. Which of the following activities occurs primarily in the transverse plane? A. Back Flip. B. Tennis Backhand. C. Kicking a Football. D. Spiking a Volleyball.
B
1. Which of the following physical competency screens is most appropriate for assessing mobility of the hips and upper back? A. sit-and-reach test B. overhead squat C. star-excursion balance test
B
10. A strongman competitor is performing a standing barbell shoulder press using a load of 85% of his 1RM. Approximately how many repetitions can he expect to perform? A. 8 B. 6 C. 4
B
10. During the hockey offseason you suspect that the goalie is suffering from overtraining as a result of too much volume in the weight room. Which of the following hormonal responses would help confirm your suspicions? A. Increased resting leutienizing hormone. B. Increased cortisol. C. Increased total testosterone concentrations. D. Increased free testosterone concentrations.
B
11. An athlete is scheduled to perform the following assessments: • 40-yd (37 m) sprint • 300-yd (274 m) shuttle • Pro agility • 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run • Skinfold measurements Which assessment should be administered on a separate day? A. 300-yd (274 m) shuttle B. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run C. 40-yd (37 m) sprint
B
11. Which of the following best represents a required procedure, or standard, for the Strength and Conditioning professional? A. the Strength & Conditioning practitioner should acquire a bachelor's or master's degree B. Strength & Conditioning programs must provide adequate and appropriate supervision C. Strength & Conditioning professionals should develop and maintain various records
B
11. Which of the following exercises contains a second class lever? A. Triceps Pushdown. B. Standing Heel Raise. C. Barbell Biceps Curl. D. Lying Hamstring Curl.
B
12. A college wrestler would like to decrease his bodyweight by 4.5 kg while maintaining his fat free mass and strength prior to the next season. His current 3,200 kilocalorie diet has allowed him to maintain a weight of 82 kg. In order to achieve his goal which of the following daily guidelines would be MOST appropriate? A. Maintain a 500 kilocalorie deficit and consume 123 g of protein per day B. Maintain a 500 kilocalorie deficit and consume 189 g of protein per day C. Maintain a 1,000 kilocalorie deficit and consume 131 g of protein per day D. Maintain a 1,000 kilocalorie deficit and consume 238 g of protein per d
B
13. Compared to a cross country skier, a basketball player would have a higher percentage of which of the following? A. Type I Muscle Fibers B. Type II MuscleFibers C. Capillary Density D. Myoglobin Content
B
13. Which of the following is a structural exercise that requires free weights to be performed? A. front squat B. power snatch C. bent-over row
B
14. When compared to females, the potential for force production of males per muscle cross sectional area is? A. Lower. B. Equal. C. Higher. D. Dependent on the individual's level of training.
B
15. An American collegiate rugby player is participating in a pre-season strength and conditioning program. He is transitioning between phases in his program. Phase A Sets Repetitions %1RM 3-6 10-20 50-75 Phase B Sets Repetitions %1RM 3-5 4-8 80-90 Which of the following BEST describes the change in phases? A. basic strength to strength/power B. hypertrophy to basic strength C. strength/power to peaking
B
16. An athlete is scheduled to perform 12 repetitions in the incline bench press exercise. Which of the following percentages of his 1RM is MOST appropriate to assign? A. 60% B. 70% C. 80%
B
16. Isokinetic testing has revealed which of the following regarding muscle torque and joint angular velocity? A. During eccentric exercise as joint angular velocity increases, maximal torque capability decreases until about 90°/s. B. During concentric exercise torque capability decreases as angular velocity increases. C. During concentric exercise torque capability increases as angular velocity increases. D. During eccentric exercise as joint angular velocity decreases, maximal torque capability increases until about 90°/s.
B
16. Which of the following tests requires the greatest amount of time to administer to ensure reliable results? A. 1RM deadlift B. 12-min run C. 300-yd (274 m) shuttle
B
17. Which of the following protocols is MOST appropriate to develop muscular hypertrophy? Repetitions Sets A. 6 2 B. 10 4 C. 16 3
B
18. A strength and conditioning professional is testing a female athlete using the Jackson-Pollock 3-site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? A. abdomen, triceps, and suprailium B. suprailium, triceps, and thigh C. thigh, abdomen, and suprailium
B
18. A strength and conditioning professional is working with an athletic trainer to recondition a cross-country runner who has an injured ankle. During which of the following phases is it appropriate to introduce rotations on a wobble board? A. inflammation B. repair C. remodeling
B
19. A 120-lb (55-kg) female field hockey player has the following test results: 1RM bench press: 155 lb (70 kg) 1RM back squat: 190 lb (86 kg) Vertical jump: 15 in. (38 cm) 1-minute sit-up test: 65 She is currently performing the following program: Back squat 3x5 @ 95% 5RM Leg (knee) curl 3x6 @10RM Incline bench press 3x5 @ 95% 5RM Upright row 2x8 @ 10RM Abdominal crunch 3x30 Which of the following exercises is the MOST important to introduce into her training program? A. goblet squat B. hang clean C. front plank
B
2. A national rugby player has completed his first resistance training macrocycle. Pre- and post-tests are as follows: Pretest Post-test Body Weight 190 lbs (86.4 kg) 210 lbs (95.45 kg) Bench Press 295 lbs (134.1 kg) 335 lbs (152.3 kg) Squat 310 lbs (140.9 kg) 360 lbs (163.6 kg) 40 m Sprint 5.18 s 5.16 s Vertical Jump 20.0 in (50.7 cm) 20.0 in (50.7 cm) Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation for a lack of change in the vertical jump? A. Lack of effort B. Increased body weight C. Inefficient training program
B
21. An athlete's trial on the T-test is disqualified for which of the following reasons? A. touching the base of the cones B. crossing the feet when moving C. facing forward the entire time
B
21. The triceps brachii performs which of the following types of muscle actions during the upward movement phase of a seated dumbbell shoulder press? A. Isometric. B. Concentric. C. Eccentric. D. Isokinetic.
B
22. Which of the following resistance training exercises MOST closely mimics the movement pattern of dribbling a basketball? A. Lat Pulldown B. Close Grip Bench Press C. Flat Dumb bell Fly D. Bent Over Row
B
24. An Olympic marathoner moves to Colorado Springs (Altitude 6,035 feet) to train at the U. S. Olympic center 1 year prior to her event. Which of the following describes a long term physiological adjustment that her body would undergo? A. Decreased hematocrit. B. Decreased plasma volume. C. Decreased submaximal heart rate. D. Increased stroke volume at rest.
B
26. A high school basketball player would like to increase his muscle mass and strength. Currently his average kilocalorie intake of 2,700/day has allowed him to consistently maintain a bodyweight of 80 kg. In order to gain 5 kg of lean body mass, he should adhere to which of the following guidelines each day? A. Consume 300 additional kilocalories and 120 g of protein. B. Consume 500 additional kilocalories and 144 g of protein. C. Consume 300 additional kilocalories and 96 g of protein. D. Consume 500 additional kilocalories and 80 g of protein.
B
27. A spotter is NOT indicated in which of the following exercises? A. Barbell Bench Press B. Snatch C. Overhead Dumb bell triceps extension D. Step Up
B
28. Which of the following muscles acts synergistically to the gastrocnemius during the upward movement phase of a standing calf (heel) raise? A. Tibialis Anterior. B. Soleus. C. Rectus Femoris. D. Iliopsoas.
B
29. A strength and conditioning professional is redesigning a high school strength and conditioning facility. In order to ensure traffic flow and access, which of the following is the recommended space between resistance training machines? A. 22 inches B. 36 inches C. 54 inches D. 60 inches
B
29. Which of the following resistance training program design variables is most associated with elevated cortisol levels? A. Small muscle exercises performed at high intensity. B. High intensity exercises performed with short rest intervals. C. Large muscle exercises performed with long rest intervals. D. Low intensity exercises performed with short rest intervals.
B
3. An athlete initiates the T-test by performing which of the following movements? A. diagonal hop B. forward sprint C. lateral shuffle
B
31. An athlete has recurring hamstrings injuries. He currently performs the following exercises: Back squat Bench press Dumbbell lunge Pull-up Step-up Seated row Which of the following exercises should be included in the athlete's program? A. leg (knee) extension and good morning B. stiff-leg deadlift and leg curl C. push jerk and power clean
B
33. A female college soccer player weighs 108 lbs. and is 5'5‖ tall. She has recently become a vegan and relates that she feels she is overweight and intends to lose a few more pounds. You have not noticed any decrease in her on field performance. As the strength and conditioning professional, which of the following is the most appropriate action to take with this athlete? A. Give her nutritional information. B. Refer her to a dietician. C. Monitor her caloric intake. D. Tell her that she looks fine.
B
33. During the performance of the deadlift, which of the following muscles acts isometrically? A. Vastus Lateralis B. Triceps Brachii C. Semitendinosus D. Iliocostalis Lumborum
B
35. Which of the following motion and exercise combinations is most specific to spiking a volleyball in the sagittal plane? Motion Exercise I. Shoulder Abduction Bent over lateral raise II. Shoulder Extension Straight Arm Cable Pulldown III. Elbow Extension Triceps Pushdown IV. Elbow Flexion Biceps Curl A. I and II. B. II and III. C. II and IV. D. I and III.
B
36. Which of the following sequences of exercises is most appropriate for a college football tight end during the strength phase of his training program? A. Knee curl, Back Barbell Squat, Deadlift, Power clean. B. Hang Clean, Push Jerk, Bench Press, Shoulder Shrug. C. Deadlift, Abdominal Crunch, Snatch, Bench Press. D. Bent Over Row, Triceps Pushdown, Bench Press, Snatch.
B
39. For increased safety and stability in the strength and conditioning facility, which of the following pieces of equipment should be bolted to the floor? A. Weight Trees. B. Squat Racks. C. Incline Bench Press. D. Dumbbell Racks.
B
42. Which of the following periodization periods within a macrocycle would occur during spring training for a professional baseball player? A. Competition. B. Preparatory and First Transition. C. Competition and Active Rest. D. Active Rest.
B
42. Which of the following plyometric drills has the LOWEST level of intensity? A. Split Squat Jump B. Jump to Box C. SingleLeg Hop D. Depth Jump
B
44. An athlete is performing the standing military press exercise with 75% of his 1 RM. How many repetitions can typically be performed with this load? A. 15. B. 10. C. 7. D. 5.
B
46. You are watching a video of a sprinter at maximum velocity. During the early flight phase which of the following decelerates backward rotation of the thigh? A. Concentric Hip Flexion. B. Eccentric Hip Flexion. C. Concentric Knee Extension. D. Eccentric Knee Flexion.
B
46. You have just been hired to run the strength and conditioning facility at a high school and need to determine the number of staff you must hire in order to ensure proper supervision. It is recommended that the staff to athlete ratio in this type of facility not exceed which of the following? A. 1:10. B. 1:15. C. 1:20. D. 1:50.
B
50. The strength and conditioning professional should instruct the athlete to do which of the following during the sticking point of a biceps curl exercise? A. Inhale B. Exhale C. Hold their Breath D. Arch the Back
B
51. Which of the following is a technique error that should be corrected when sprinting? A. Eyes focused ahead during maximum velocity. B. Eyes focused ahead during the start. C. Arms at shoulder width during the start. D. 90° knee angle of front leg during the start.
B
56. When looking at the results from the baseball team's 1 RM back squat testing, the strength and conditioning coach notices that 3 results are significantly lower than the rest, while the remaining scores are fairly similar. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for these results? A. Mean. B. Median. C. Mode. D. Standard Deviation.
B
58. A high school wrestler is entering the pre-season. Which of the following training goals holds the lowest priority? A. Increasing muscle strength. B. Increasing aerobic endurance. C. Increasing joint flexibility. D. Improving technical skill.
B
6. Preloading a muscle just before a concentric muscular contraction enhances force production by the stimulation of what proprioceptor? A. Golgi Tendon Organ. B. Muscle Spindle. C. Pacinian Corpuscle. D. T-Tubule.
B
64. Which of the following goal repetitions, sets, and rest periods MOST effectively promotes muscular strength? Goal Repetitions Sets Rest Periods A. 8 2 1 minute B. 5 3 4 minutes C. 5 4 1 minute D. 8 4 1 minute
B
65. Which of the following sequences of tests will produce the most reliable results? I. Vertical Jump. II. 1.5 mile run. III. T-Test. IV. 1 RM Bench Press. A. I, II, III, IV. B. I,III,IV,II. C. IV,II,III,I. D. I, IV, II, III.
B
66. The five-point body contact position of this exercise(Bench Press) is described by which of the following? A. Left Hand, Right Hand, Buttocks, Left Foot, Right Foot. B. Head, Shoulders, Buttocks, Left Foot, Right Foot. C. Head, Left Shoulder, Right Shoulder, Buttocks, Feet. D. Left Hand, Right Hand, Buttocks, Left Foot, Right Foot.
B
68. When utilizing a spotter for Incline DB Chest Press, which of the following identifies the position for the spotter to place their hands in order to reduce the potential for injuries to the athlete? A. On the athlete's upper arms. B. On the athlete's wrists. C. On the athlete's elbows. D. On the athlete's shoulders.
B
7. Which of the following are necessary for myosin and actin cross bridge interactions? A. ATP and Niacin. B. Calcium and ATP. C. Epinephrine and Calcium. D. ATA and Epinephrine.
B
7. Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results when testing? A. 1RM power clean, 1RM incline bench press, T-Test, 1-min sit-up test B. T-Test, 1RM power clean, 1RM incline bench press, 1-min sit-up test C. 1RM incline bench press, 1RM power clean, 1-min sit-up test, T-Test
B
74. In order to more readily activate the biceps brachii during the performance of Hammer Curl, the strength and conditioning professional would instruct the athlete to perform which of the following? A. Pronate the forearm at the elbow. B. Supinate the forearm at the elbow. C. Flex the shoulder. D. Extend the shoulder.
B
8. Which of the following tests is the MOST appropriate for assessing a soccer goalie? A. 300-yd (274-m) shuttle B. Margaria-Kalamen C. 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run
B
A 13 year old boy is just beginning a resistance training program, at this stage which type of adaptations will predominate? a. Muscular. b. Neural. c. Hormonal. d. Cardiovascular.
B
A female volleyball player is performing the single leg squat with her left leg on the floor and the foot of her right leg atop a bench. During the downward movement phase which of the following occurs? A. Left gluteus maximus acts concentrically. B. Left biceps femoris acts eccentrically. C. Left psoas major acts eccentrically. D. Right psoas major acts concentrically.
B
A freshman wrestler has to drop a weight category and increase lean muscle mass before the season begins. Which is the MOST appropriate action for the strength and conditioning professional to take? a) Design a nutrition program. b) Refer to the school's nutritionist. c) Provide a list of low fat foods. d) Recommend taking human growth hormone (HGH).
B
A nutritionist is testing a male basketball player using the Jackson Pollack 3 site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? A. Triceps, suprailiac, thigh. B. Triceps, abdomen, thigh. C. Chest, abdomen, thigh. D. Abdomen, subscapular, calf.
B
All of the following are examples of Anaerobic Power/Maximum Muscular Power (High Speed Strength) tests EXCEPT? a) 1 RM Power Clean. b) 1 RM Bench Press. c) Vertical Jump Height. d) Time to sprint up a staircase.
B
All of the following are true regarding dietary supplements EXCEPT? a) Their safety is not guaranteed. b) They may be advertised as food replacements. c) They may be ineffective. d) They do not need to be approved by government agencies to be sold.
B
Which of the following vitamins are toxic in excess amounts? A. Vitamin C. B.Vitamin A. C. Vitamin B1. D. Vitamin B2.
B
36. Which of the following is an appropriate rest interval for a 10k runner performing 1 km intervals at race pace in 3 minutes and 30 seconds? A. 1 minute 15 seconds. B. 3 minutes 30 seconds. C. 7 minutes. D. 10 minutes 30 seconds.
B 5 - 10 s = 1:12 to 1:20 15 - 30 s = 1:5 1-3 min = 1:3 to 1:4 > 3 min = 1:1
A 29 year old female who weighs 110 lbs. (50 kg) is set to run a half marathon. Three days prior to her race she will consume a high carbohydrate diet. This carbohydrate loading regimen should consist of approximately how many grams of carbohydrate per day? A. 300 grams. B. 550 grams. C. 700 grams. D. 750 grams.
B Aerobic athletes need 10g/kg carbs.
19. Which of the following represents an appropriate pre-competition fluid recommendation for a 61 kg triathlete? A. 6 oz. fluid 4 hours before the competition. B. 9 oz. fluid 2 hours before the competition. C. 16 oz. fluid 1 hour before the competition. D. 16 oz. fluid 2 hours before the competition.
B 2 hours: 0.10 - 0.17 oz (3 - 5 ml) per kg > 4 hours: .17-.24 oz (5-7 ml) per kg
According to MyPlate, a sedentary adult male should consume approximately how many cups from the fruit group per day? A. 1 cup. B. 2 cups. C. 4 cups. D. 6 cups.
B https://www.choosemyplate.gov/fruit
62. Using the Karvonen method, which of the following is the target heart rate range for a 55 year old athlete aerobically exercising at 70-80% of her functional capacity if her resting heart rate is 71 bpm? A. 115-132 bpm. B. 137-146 bpm. C. 149-158 bpm. D. 149-165 bpm.
B 220-55 = 165 165-71 = 94 94 x .7 = 66 66 + 71 = 137
36. A 19 year old college baseball player was administered a battery of tests 2 months before the start of the season. Here are the results. Height: 5'10" Weight:190 lbs. 1RM Bench Press: 205 lbs. 1RM Squat: 285 lbs. Vertical Jump: 24 inches 40 yard Sprint: 4.9 seconds Sit and Reach: 20 inches Which of the following needs improvement? A. Speed and Flexibility B. Upper Body Strength only C. Upper Body Strength and Flexibility D. Flexibility only
B Bench press 50% = 225lbs Squat 50% = 275lbs 40-yard 50% = 5.0sec Vertical jump = 24 inches Sit & reach 50% = 17.5inches
A 275 lb. tight end has a 4500 daily kilocalorie intake, and would like carbohydrates to represent 60% of this total. How many grams of carbohydrate must he consume per day? A. 300 g. B. 675 g. C. 975 g. D. 2700 g.
B FAT = 9cal/g CARBS & PROTEIN = 4cal/g
16. Which of the following decreases as a result of resistance training and increases due to aerobic training? A. muscle fiber size B. mitochondrial density C. osteoblast synthesis
B 105-107/124-125
When punting a football, the punter's leg is stretched just prior to making contact with the football. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity? A. Golgi tendon organ. B. Muscle spindle. C. Extrafusal muscle. D. Pacinian corpuscle.
B 11
When throwing a baseball, an athlete's arm is rapidly stretched just before throwing the ball. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity? a. golgi tendon organ. b. muscle spindle. c. extrafusal muscle. d. pacinian corpuscle.
B 11
19. Which of the following muscles would be MOST affected by inactivity? A. Rectus Femoris B. Gluteus Maximus C. Pectoralis Major D. Triceps Brachii
B 110
Following prolonged periods of detraining in elite strength/power athletes, which of the following physical characteristics will likely show the largest reduction as a consequence of the removal of an anaerobic training stimulus? a. total fat mass. b. fast-twitch fiber cross-sectional area. c. slow-twitch fiber cross-sectional area. d. total Type I muscle fiber content.
B 111
21. An increase in which of the following increases oxygen delivery to the active muscles during acute aerobic exercise? A. blood hemoglobin B. cardiac output C. plasma volume
B 116
Which of the following reflects the pressure exerted against the arterial walls when no blood is being forcefully ejected by the ventricles of the heart? A. Systolic Blood Pressure. B. Diastolic Blood Pressure. C. Stroke Volume. D. Rate Pressure Product.
B 117
51. A high school junior 1600-m runner has been aerobically training for 2 years. She improves her performance time throughout the course of her first season on the team. Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for her performance increases? A. decrease in lean body mass B. improvement in VO2max C. increase in running economy
B 120/124 Most adaptations in Vo2max can be achieved within 6 - 12 months.
34. A previously untrained individual has been training to run a 10k for 8 weeks. Which of the following physiological changes would they experience?" A. Decreased tendon strength. B. Increased stored ATP. C. Decreased stored Glycogen. D. Increased Diastolic Blood Pressure.
B 121
Adaptations to aerobic endurance training include all of the following EXCEPT? a. Increased respiratory capacity. b. Increased blood lactate concentrations. c. Increase mitochondrial density. d. Increased capillary density.
B 121
From which of the following is the heart's electrical impulse normally initiated? a. AV node. b. SA node. c. the brain. d. the sympathetic nervous system.
B 13
Which of the following represents the correct transmission of the heart's electrical impulse? "a. AV node, AV bundle, SA node, Purkinje fibers. b. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers. c. SA node, Purkinje fiber, AV node, AV bundle. d. AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers, SA node.
B 13
2. Which of the following is a marker of overtraining in an aerobic endurance athlete? A. Decreased Creatine Kinase B. Increased Sympathetic Stress Response C. Increased Muscle Glycogen D. Decreased Submaximal Exercise Heart Rate
B 131
Following detraining, a marathon runner will first notice a decline in maximal? a. Power. b. Oxygen consumption. c. Strength. d. Blood Pressure.
B 131 -Strength and power can increase -BP would rise -Capillary density can decrease
Which of the following adjustments occur during prolonged altitude exposure? a. Decreased cardiac output. b. Increased blood viscosity. c. Decreased red blood cells. d. Hypoventilation.
B 134 -Elevation in submaximal HR -Decreased stroke volume at rest -Lowered max HR -Increased RBCs, viscosity, hematocrit -Decreased plasma volume -Increased mitochondria, capillary density -Reduction in alkaline reserve
Which of the following is a marker of aerobic overtraining? I. Increased Percentage Body Fat. II. Decreased Lactate. III. Increased Total Testosterone Concentration. IV. Decreased Muscle Glycogen. A. I, II only. B. II, IV only. C. III, IV only. D. I, II, III only.
B 138 -Decrease % body fat -Decreased max O2 uptake -Decreased muscle glycogen -Increased submaximal HR -Decreased lactate -Increased CK -Decreased total testosterone -Increased stress
40. A 12-year-old athlete has been resistance training twice a week for six weeks. Which of the following adaptations contribute the MOST to training-induced strength gains? A. increased muscle size B. increased motor unit activation C. greater testosterone concentration
B 139
Which of the following occurs during QRS complex of a typical ECG? I. depolarization of the atrium. II. repolarization of the atrium. III. repolarization of the ventricle. IV. depolarization of the ventricle. a. I and II only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only"
B 14
While reading an ECG, electrical potential that depolarizes the ventricles is represented by? a. P-wave b. QRS complex c. T-wave d. U-wave
B 14
An 11 year old boy begins a resistance training program and after 6 weeks has seen significant improvements in his strength. Which of the following factors are primarily responsible for his gains? A. Hypertrophic Factors. B. Neurological Factors. C. Psychological Factors. D. Cardiovascular Factors.
B 141
Which factor is primarily responsible for the significant improvements in strength of preadolescent boys and girls from resistance training? a) Hypertrophy. b) Neurological. c) Endocrine . d) Cardiac.
B 141
4. As compared to males, the potential for force production of females per muscle cross-sectional area is A. lower. B. similar. C. higher.
B 146
An area of special emphasis when designing a resistance training program for women is? a) Development of the core. b) Development of the upper body. c) Development of the back. d) Development of the lower body.
B 147
Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and soccer appear to be at increased risk for developing injuries to the. a. back. b. knee. c. wrist. d. neck.
B 147
2. Which of the following exchange nutrients, electrolytes, and hormones between the blood and the interstitial fluid in the tissues of the body? A. Venules. B. Capillaries. C. Arterioles. D. Alveoli.
B 15
What blood vessel functions to exchange oxygen, fluid, nutrients, electrolytes, hormones, and other substances between the blood and the interstitial fluid in the various tissues of the body? a. Arteries. b. Capillaries. c. Veins. d. Venules.
B 15
The ideal performance state includes all of the following EXCEPT? a) Absence of fear. b) A wide focus of attention. c) A sense of effortlessness. d) A distortion of time and space.
B 156
How does an athlete's optimal arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity? a. It increases. b. It decreases. c. It has no effect. d. It is not related to the activity.
B 157
Which of the following muscles help expand the lungs by elevating the rib cage? A. Internal intercostals. B. External intercostals. C. Internal obliques. D. External obliques.
B 16
8. Which of the following situations would MOST inspire an athlete with a high motive to achieve success? A. a very easy competition in which the probability of success is virtually guaranteed B. a challenging situation in which the probability of success to failure is even C. an extremely difficult situation in which the probability of success is highly unlikely
B 162
Any high school wrestler who achieves 100 wins in his career has his name and picture placed on the wall of the gym. This is an example of? a) Negative reinforcement. b) Positive reinforcement. c) Negative punishment. d) Positive punishment.
B 162
For a high school American football team, if any player squats two times his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of. a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. negative punishment. d. positive punishment.
B 162
A college basketball player steps to the free throw line and imagines setting up, shooting, sinking the free throw, and what the crowd reaction will be before actually taking the shot. What is this athlete engaging in? a) Autogenic training. b) Mental imagery. c) Hypnosis. d) Systematic desensitization.
B 166
During a session of intense aerobic exercise, what percentage of total body energy is required for pulmonary ventilation? A. 5%. B. 10%. C. 20%. D. 30%.
B 17
Which of the following BEST explains the need for increased protein intake by athletes? a. decreasd protein oxidation during aerobic exercise. b. increased need for tissue repair. c. restriction of calories to lose weight. d. the quality of protein consumed.
B 181
11. A 115-lb (61-kg) softball player has an average daily intake of 325 g of carbohydrate, 55 g of protein, and 75 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of her calories come from protein? A. 8% B. 10% C. 12%
B 188
1. A 165-lb (75-kg) athlete has an average daily intake of 450 g of carbohydrate, 75 g of protein, and 100 g of fat. What percent of the total kilocalorie intake is carbohydrate? A. 50% B. 60% C. 70%
B 188 450 x 4 = 1800 75 x 4 = 300 100 x9 = 900 3000 total 1800/3000 = 60%
20. What is the MINIMUM amount of carbohydrates that a 132-lb (60-kg) competitive Olympic triathlete should consume on a daily basis? A. 240 g B. 480 g C. 720 g
B 188 PROTEIN 10-15% or .8g/kg but for aerobic athletes can go to 1.4g/kg CARBS 45-65% Aerobic athletes need 7-10g/kg carbs. FAT 20-35% (<10% from saturated fats)
A 92 lb. female gymnast has a daily intake of 2100 kilocalories. 12% of her diet comes from protein. How many grams of protein is she consuming per day? A. 50. B. 63. C. 73. D. 252.
B 188 FAT = 9cal/g CARBS & PROTEIN = 4cal/g
18. Which of the following types of fat should be limited according to the 2015 Dietary Guidelines? A. unsaturated B. saturated C. trans
B 189
Which of the following vitamins aids in the absorption of calcium? A. Vitamin A. B. Vitamin D. C. Vitamin E. D. Vitamin K.
B 191
The following is the most likely contributor to fatigue and poor performance. a. low protein intake. b. iron deficiency. c. low calcium intake. d. omega-3 fatty acid deficiency.
B 195
4. An athlete is training at 85° F (29° C) and 90% humidity. At what percentage of weight loss due to dehydration will core body temperature potentially begin to increase and significantly affect athletic performance? A. 1% B. 2% C. 4%
B 196 2 - 3 %
After an exercise session, which of the following is the BEST method to determine a soccer players fluid replacement needs? A. Thirst. B. Change in Body Weight. C. Urge to Urinate. D. Amount of Sweat.
B 197
7. During a practice session a 73 kg high school soccer player was noted to lose 1.5 kg. of body weight. In order to rehydrate before tomorrow morning's training session, this athlete should consume how much fluid? A. 1.5L B. 2.25L C. 3.0L D. 3.75 L
B 198 1.5 L for per kilo 0.7 L for per LB
57. Which of the following muscles acts as an agonist during the second pull of the power clean exercise? A. latissimus dorsi B. trapezius C. tricep brachii
B 20/405
A pre-competition meal is MOST important for which of the following athletes? A. A 34 year old competing in a 5K at 8AM. B. A 29 year old competing in a marathon at 8AM. C. A 22 year old that has a basketball game at 6PM. D. A 20 year old that has a wrestling match at 12 noon.
B 202
The primary macronutrient that is addressed in the precompetition meal is. a. fat. b. carbohydrate. c. protein. d. vitamin.
B 202
What is the BEST recommendation for how far from a competition should an athlete begin carbohydrate loading? a) 1 week. b) 3 days. c) 24 hours. d) 7 days.
B 205
An athlete training for hypertrophy should consume which of the following after a muscle damaging training session in addition to 40 g of protein? A. 60 g of low glycemic carbohydrates. B. 70 g of high glycemic carbohydrates. C. 20 g of unsaturated fat. D. 5 g of saturated fat.
B 209 30 - 100 g high GI
Which of the following would represent an appropriate daily consumption of carbohydrate and protein for a 5'" 60 kg marathon runner? A. 540 g carbohydrate and 30 g of protein. B. 600 g carbohydrate and 78 g protein. C. 360 g carbohydrate and 66 g of protein. D. 480 g carbohydrate and 42 g of protein.
B 211 PROTEIN 10-15% or .8g/kg but for aerobic athletes can go to 1.4g/kg CARBS 45-65% Aerobic athletes need 7-10g/kg carbs. FAT 20-35% (<10% from saturated fats)
What portion of total fat calorie intake should consist of saturated fats? a) 100%. b) 10% or less. c) More than 50%. d) 40%.
B 212 20-35% of calories from fat and less than 10% from saturated fats
13. A high school American football player would like to increase his strength and muscle mass. His average caloric intake of 2200 kcals/day has allowed him to maintain a bodyweight of 160 lb (73 kg). He would like to gain 8 lb (4.5 kg) and has increased his caloric intake by 500 kcals and is following a periodized resistance training program. The athlete reports the following intake: Carbohydrate 1050 kcals Protein 700 kcals Fat 950 kcals Which of the following is MOST appropriate to recommend? Carbohydrate Protein Fat A. increase decrease decrease B. increase maintain decrease C. increase decrease maintain
B 217
16. An 18-year-old male collegiate baseball player is 5 ft, 10 in. (178 cm) and weighs 170 lb (77 kg). He wants to increase muscle mass and strength. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate daily intake of protein? A. 308 kcal B. 554 kcal C. 693 kcal
B 217
Which of the following MET levels has the highest caloric cost of exercise? a) 3.5. b) 10.0. c) 1.0. d) 6.0.
B 217
A male wrestler is 5'6 and weighs 127 lbs. Using BMI, how would this athlete be classified? A. Underweight. B. Normal. C. Overweight. D. Obese.
B 219 Kilos/meters*2 (LBS/Inches*2) x 703 Normal 18.5 - 24.9 Overweight 25.0 - 29.9 Obesity > 30.0 Extreme Obesity > 40
A volleyball player is performing standing plantar flexion against resistance. Which of the following types of levers occurs at the ball of the foot during this exercise? a. First class. b. Second class. c. Third class. d. Fourth class.
B 22
9. Which of the following is potentially a sign of anorexia nervosa? A. uncontrolled binge eating at least once a week for 3 weeks or more B. restriction of food followed by binge-eating and purging for several months C. binge-eating and purging at least once a week for 3 months or more
B 221-222
How does the patella increase the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps muscle group? A. It increases the area in which the quadriceps tendon exerts force. B. It maintains the moment arm through which the quadriceps tendon exerts force. C. It increases the length of the quadriceps tendon. D. It provides another surface for the quadriceps tendon to exert force.
B 23
15. Which of the following hormones are secreted by the liver? A. Insulin B. Insulin-Like Growth Factors C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine
B 234 Insulin by pancreas
An athlete who is blood doping would likely experience a substantial increase in what lab values? a) White Blood Cells and Triglycerides. b) Hematocrit and Hemoglobin. c) White Blood Cells and Hemoglobin. d) Hematocrit and Triglycerides.
B 236
Which of the following is the BEST reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use? a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease. b. It may cause an unregulated increase in red blood cell production. c. Resistance to infectious disease may be impaired. d. It may reduce the ability of the blood to carry oxygen.
B 236
7. Which of the following will improve the MOST with creatine monohydrate supplementation? A. 100-m sprint time B. squat strength C. volleyball jump performance
B 241-242
Which of the following dietary supplement is (are) considered a stimulant? I. creatine. II. caffeine. III. HMB. IV. citrus aurantium. a. I and II. b. II and IV. c. III and IV. d. I and III.
B 244/246 HMB /239
26. Which of the following activities occurs PRIMARILY in the transverse plane? A. barbell push jerk B. bent-over lateral raise C. bent-over row
B 25-27
Which of the following refers to the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test? a) Measurement. b) Reliability. c) Variability. d) Validity.
B 252
All of the following tests would have good predictive validity for a potential soccer player EXCEPT? a) Sprinting speed. b) Muscular strength of the arms. c) Agility. d) Kicking power.
B 253
Which of the following tests is MOST appropriate for assessing a female volleyball player? A. 1 RM Bench Press. B. Vertical Jump. C. Sit and Reach. D. 40 yard sprint.
B 253
63. You are performing a test battery on high school wrestlers that includes the maximum number of pull-ups, push-ups, and sit-ups they can perform. Approximately how long should these athletes be given between exercises to prevent fatigue from confounding the results? A. At least 2 minutes. B. At least 5 minutes. C. At least 10 minutes. D. At least 15 minutes.
B 255
12. During an intense outdoor summer soccer practice, a player is seen to be sweating heavily and performing poorly. A coach identifies that the athlete has cold, clammy skin. Which of the following is the MOST likely condition? A. heat stroke B. heat exhaustion C. fatigue
B 256
All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete's cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT a. performing the test in an indoor facility. b. using salt tablets to retain water. c. scheduling the test in the morning. d. drinking fluids during the test.
B 256
Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results? a. 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press. b. T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run. c. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press, T-test, 1RM power clean. d. 1RM bench press, 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run.
B 256
A strength and conditioning professional is going to administer the following tests to a professional basketball player. 40 yard sprint. 1RM Bench Press. 1RM Squat. Vertical Jump. Hexagon Test. Skinfold Measurement. Sit and Reach. 12 minute Run. Which test should be administered on a separate day? A. Skinfold Measurement B. 12 minute run C. 40 yard sprint D. 1RM Squat"
B 257
Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting. a. less than 10 seconds. b. 30 to 90 seconds. c. 2 to 3 minutes. d. longer than 5 minutes.
B 261
Which of the following tests would be the best to measure a basketball player's ability to start, stop, and change direction of her body rapidly? a) 40 yard sprint. b) T-test. c) 1 RM power clean. d) Sit and Reach.
B 261
You want to provide a measure of a running back's speed, tests of speed are usually not conducted over distances greater than which of the following? a) 50 m. b) 100 m. c) 800 m. d) 1600 m.
B 261
Which of the following is utilized to calculate the Reactive Strength Index? A. Jump Height X Contact Time. B. Jump Height / Contact Time. C. (Box Height -Jump Height) x Contact Time. D. (Box Height - Jump Height) / Contact Time.
B 271
25. Which of the following is used to calculate power? A. force x distance B. work ÷ time C. acceleration ÷ force
B 28
A strength and conditioning professional is conducting the T-Test on high school running backs. The initial movement is a forward sprint and touch of a cone. Which of the following represents the next movement in the testing sequence? A. Turn and sprint to the left. B. Continue to face forward and shuffle to the left. C. Run backward to the starting point. D. Continue to face forward and shuffle to the right.
B 280
17. What is the recommended length of the sides for the hexagon test? A. 12 in. (30 cm) B. 24 in. (60 cm) C. 36 in. (90 cm)
B 281 Jump over each line always facing forward Compare clockwise to counter.
When performing the pro agility test the athlete initially sprints 5 yards to the line on the left. Which of the following maneuvers occurs next? A. Sprints 5 yards to the right. B. Sprints 10 yards to the right. C. Springs 5 yards forward. D. Sprints 10 yards forward.
B 282
It took an American football lineman 14 seconds to complete 10 repetitions of a 102 kg bench press. If the bar had to travel 1.47 meters each repetition, what was the average power output during this set? A. 107.1 W. B. 1,049.58 W. C. 14,694.12 W. D. 20,991.6 W.
B 29
Which of the following identifies the correct location and limb position to take right upper arm girth measurements? A. At the point of maximal circumference with the elbow fully flexed and arm abducted to parallel to the floor. B. At the point of maximal circumference with the elbow fully extended and arm abducted to parallel to the foor. C. At the point midway between the olecranon and acromion process with the elbow fully extended and arm abducted to parallel to the floor. D. At the point midway between the olecranon and acromion process with the elbow fully extended and arm perpendicular to the floor.
B 290
When compiling results from the volleyball team's vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group? a. mean. b. median. c. mode. d. variance.
B 291
A college softball player was administered a battery of test 12 weeks before the start of the season. Here are the results Height: 5'6"" Weight: 120 lbs Percent Body Fat: 18.5% 1 RM Bench Press: 90 lbs 1 RM Squat: 150 lbs Vertical Jump: 19 inches Sit and Reach: 22.5 inches Which of the following should her program focus on?" A. Body Composition. B. Upper Body Strength. C. Muscular Power. D. Upper Body Strength and Body Composition.
B 295
48. A 20 year old collegiate female tennis player had the following test results. Height: 5"8" Weight: 126 lbs. 1RM Bench Press: 110 lbs. 1RM Squat: 120 lbs. Vertical Jump: 19 inches T-Test: 10.9 seconds 1.5 Mile Run: 14:20 Sit and Reach: 16.5 inches Which of the following exercises would be MOST beneficial to add to her training program? A. Dumbbell Bench Press and Power Clean B. Back Barbell Squat and Contract Relax PNF Stretching of her Hamstrings C. Back Barbell Squat and a 45 minute interval run with a work rest ratio of 1:1 D. Power Clean and Contract Relax PNF Stretching of her Hamstrings
B 295/306 Back Barbel 50 % = 126LBS Sit and Reach 50 % = 19" 1.5 Mile Run 50% = 14:04
A 6'4‖ 190 lb. Division I basketball player is 21 years old and had the following test . 1RM Bench Press: 230 lbs. 1RM Squat: 280 lbs. 1RM Power Clean: 180 lbs. T-Test: 8.8 seconds. Which of the following needs improvement? A. Agility. B. Power. C. Lower Body Strength. D. Upper Body Strength.
B 297 Bench 50% = 225lbs Squat 50% = 270lbs T-Test 50% = 9.2 seconds Power Clean 50% = 205lbs Power clean of 180 puts him at about 20%
14. A 23-year-old Division I college baseball player has the following test results: 1RM bench press: 245 lb (111 kg) 1RM back squat: 275 lb (125 kg) 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run: 10:16 (min:sec) Which of the following needs improvement? A. upper body strength B. lower body strength C. aerobic endurance
B 297/305
Which type of muscle arrangement is NOT matched with the correct muscle example? a. Rectus femoris: Bipennate. b. Biceps Brachii: Longitudinal. c. Deltoid: Multipennate. d. Gluteus Medius: Radiate.
B 31
39. The latissimus dorsi performs which of the following muscle actions during the upward movement phase of the lat pulldown exercise? A. isometric B. eccentric C. concentric
B 32
2. Which of the following muscle groups and types of muscle actions are associated with the downward phase of the dumbbell biceps curl exercise? Primary muscle group Primary muscle action A. elbow extensors eccentric B. elbow flexors eccentric C. elbow flexors concentric
B 32/367
35. Which of the following muscles acts isometrically during the deadlift exercise? A. gastrocnemius B. erector spinae C. rectus femoris
B 32/389
14. Which of the following muscle actions precedes a countermovement jump? A. concentric B. eccentric C. isometric
B 32/474
Which type of stretching has been shown to increase the risk of injuring muscles or connective tissue, especially when there has been a previous injury? a) Static. b) Ballistic. c) Dynamic. d) PNF.
B 323
43. Which of the following BEST describes the hamstrings during the contract-relax PNF technique? Initial pre-stretch Duration A. active 10 sec B. passive 10 sec C. passive 30 sec
B 323-328 Contract-Relax 1. 10 second passive 2. Active down 3. passive 30 seconds Hold Relax - isometric for 6 seconds
10. A constant joint angular velocity that is met with variable resistance refers to which of the following? A. Isotonic. B. Isokinetic. C. Eccentric. D. Isometric.
B 33
50. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate when performing the forward walking lunge stretch? A. planting the heel of the front foot into the floor B. moving the hips forward and downward C. keeping the knee of the forward leg behind the foot
B 335
During a reverse curl and athlete's palms are down and her knuckles are up, this grip isreferred to as? a) Supinated. b) Pronated. c) Alternated. d) Underhand.
B 352
During the flat bench press the spotter should? a) flex the knees during the upward movement. b) use an alternated grip. c) extend the knees during the downward movement. d) use a supinated grip.
B 355
During which of the following exercises should a spotter's hands be placed on the athlete's wrists? a) bench press. b) dumbbell incline bench press. c) overhead triceps extension . d) biceps curl.
B 355
While spotting a basketball player during the incline bench press you should provide assistance when? a) When the athlete looks tired. b) When the designated sound or signal is performed. c) When the athlete inhales. d) When the athlete exhales.
B 355
68. Which of the following describes the correct way to spot Bench Press? A. Grasp the bar with an alternated grip wider than the athlete's grip. B. Grasp the bar with an alternated grip narrower than the athlete's grip. C. Grasp the bar with a supinated grip wider than the athlete's grip. D. Grasp the bar with a supinated grip narrower than the athlete's grip.
B 371
During which of the following exercises should a spotter's hands be placed on the athlete's forearms near the wrist? a. bench press. b. incline dumbbell bench press. c. upright row. d. lying barbell triceps extension.
B 373
Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step-up exercise? a. step up left foot, step up right foot, step down left foot, step down right foot. b. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot. c. step up left foot, step down left foot, step up right foot, step down right foot. d. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down right foot, step down left foot.
B 386
Which of the following identifies the layer of connective tissue enveloping a bundle of muscle fibers? A. Endomysium. B. Perimysium. C. Epimysium. D. Endomysium.
B 4
47. Which of the following BEST identifies the joint actions during the upward phase of the push press exercise? A. rapidly flex the hips, knees and ankles while extending the arms to push the bar overhead B. rapidly extend the hips, knees and ankles and then the arms to push the bar overhead C. rapidly extend the arms overhead while a slightly flexed position at the hip and knees
B 400
The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is. a. hip flexion. b. hip extension. c. knee flexion. d. dorsiflexion.
B 404
38. Which of the following would represent a technique error during the performance of the snatch that would need correcting? I. Feet are placed shoulder width apart II. Shoulders behind the bar with eyes focused straight ahead III. Squatting down with the hips higher than the shoulders IV. Back flat, chest held up and out A. I and II only B. II and III only C. II, III, and IV only D. I, III, IV only
B 406
Which of the following are benefits of bodyweight training? I. Develops absolute strength. II. Often includes open chain based exercises. III. Is specific to each individuals anthropometrics. IV. Improves body control. A. I and II only. B. III and IV only. C. II, III, IV only. D. I, III, IV only.
B 411
When compared to a barbell squat performance of a squat on a Smith Machine reduces the activity of the back stabilizers by what percentage? A. 10%. B. 30%. C. 60% . D. 90%.
B 412
With regard to core training, when is instability exercise best applied? a. with untrained athletes who are relatively weak. b. in trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury. c. with trained athletes who are trying to optimize strength and power. d. with untrained athletes who are new to the exercise.
B 413
Correctly applying resistance bands to the back barbell squat achieves which of the following? A. Tension at bottom of the squat. B. No Tension at the bottom of the squat. C. No Tension at the top of the squat. D. Greatest Tension during the mid-range of the squat.
B 416
If during the tire flip the athlete's hip rise faster than the shoulders during the initial pushing motion, what is an effective correction to give the athlete? a. Start with a higher hip position. b. Keep the hip slightly below the shoulders in this position. c. Lift the tire upward instead of driving it forward. d. Push with the arms first.
B 418
The upward movement phase of the tire flip is initiated by which of the following motions? A. Hip extension, knee extension, triceps extension. B. Hip extension, knee extension, ankle plantarflexion. C. Hip extension, knee extension, biceps flexion. D. Hip flexion, knee extension, biceps flexion.
B 418
When initiating the tire flip, placing the feet too close to the tire often results in which of the following? A. An arched back. B. A rounded back. C. Knees too far from the athletes chest. D. Inability to place the chin on the tire.
B 418
When performing the tire flip, an athlete strikes the tire with his leg when the tire is halfway vertical, at this point the strength and conditioning professional would instruct the athlete to take which of the following grips on the tire? A. Supinated. B. Pronated. C. Neutral. D. Alternated.
B 418
Unilateral training methods may be beneficial for which of the following individuals? I. Trained. II. Strong. III. Weak. IV. Injured. V. Untrained. A. I, II, IV only. B. III, IV, V only. C. I,II only. D. III, V only.
B 421
A core exercise that emphasizes loading of the spine directly or indirectly is known as? a) Assistance exercise. b) Structural exercise. c) Sport Specific exercise. d) Functional exercise.
B 444
Which of the following exercises would be related to ball dribbling and passing for a female college basketball player? a) Bent-over lateral raise. b) Close-grip bench press. c) Pullover. d) Dumbbell fly.
B 445
A junior high soccer player is just beginning a resistance training program, based on his beginner training status, what is the recommended number of resistance training sessions per week he should train? a) 1-2. b) 2-3. c) 4-5 . d) 5-7.
B 447
An American football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance? a. back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl, power clean. b. power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl. c. leg (knee) curl, back squat, power clean, hip sled. d. hip sled, power clean, leg (knee) curl, back squat.
B 448
32. A basketball player needs to increase his muscular strength. Which of the following protocols is MOST appropriate for him to use while performing the deadlift exercise? Load (%1RM) Goal repetitions Sets A. 80 8 3 B. 90 4 4 C. 95 4 3
B 452
Which of the following substances can be metabolized anaerobically? a. glycerol. b. glucose. c. amino acids. d. free fatty acids.
B 46
A male cross country runner is working on improving his upper body muscular endurance, which of the following number of sets of a given exercise would help maximize his goal? a) 1. b) 3. c) 5 . d) 6.
B 463
The reflexive component of plyometric exercise is primarily initiated by? a) Golgi Tendon Organ. b) Muscle Spindle. c) Extrafusal Muscle Fiber. d) Pacinian Corpuscle.
B 472
Which of the following structures detects rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex? a. golgi tendon organ. b. muscle spindle. c. extrafusal muscle. d. pacinian corpuscle.
B 472
After an intense exercise session involving resistance training one method lactate can be cleared from the blood involves transport to which of the following? A. Pancreas where it is converted to glucose. B. Liver where it is converted to glucose. C. Pancreas where it is converted to sodium. D. Liver where it is converted to sodium.
B 48
37. Which of the following would be an appropriate depth jump box height for a male shot putter who is 6'5‖ and weighs 340 lbs.? A. 1 inch. B. 12 inches. C. 24 inches. D. 36 inches.
B 482
You are instructing a volleyball player on the proper execution of the jump and reach drill. During this lower body plyometric drill, arm action would be described as? a) Single. b) Double. c) Reciprocal. d) None.
B 485
What is the thick structural protein inside the sarcomere? a. Actin. b. Myosin. c. Sarcoplasm. d. Sarcolemma.
B 5
The meditum-size training cycle that lasts two to six weeks in duration is referred to as a. I. block of training. II. macrocycle. III. microcycle. IV. mesocycle. a. II and III only. b. I and IV only. c. I, II, and IV only. d. III and IV only.
B 509 Macrocycle = entire training year Mesocycle = weeks to months Microcycle - 1-4 weeks (smallest)
23. The goal of the hypertrophy/endurance phase of the preparatory period is to increase A. muscular strength. B. fat free mass. C movement speed.
B 511 Prep period - low intensity, high volume
The force used to return the ball to the partner during the 45 degree sit-up should come primarily from the a) Triceps. b) Abdominals. c) Iliopsoas. d) Pectoralis Major.
B 519
The relationship between force and time refers to which of the following A. Velocity. B. Impulse. C. Acceleration. D. Momentum.
B 523
38. A strength and conditioning professional is working with a novice sprinter. In order to improve their sprint speed, which of the following is the MOST critical component to improving their speed? A. increasing stride frequency while decreasing stride length B. increasing vertical force application C. increasing ground contact time
B 527-333
Obesity BMI
BMI: >30 30% of those who are severely obese suffer from bing-eating
Fusiform
Biceps Brachii
Which type of muscle arrangement it NOT matched with the correct muscle sample?
Biceps Brachii: Longitudinal
What does Tanners 5 stages of development measure?
Biological age
Endocrine Glands
Body structures specialized for releasing hormones into the blood
To compare performances of Olympic weightlifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athlete's
Body weight
What is the gold standard for measuring how much fluid will need to be replaced after training?
Bodyweight
What is the formula used to compare performances of olympic weightlifters of different body weights?
Bodyweight to the 2/3 power
Osteoporosis
Bone mineral density below -2.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean
Glycolysis
Breakdown of carbohydrates either in glycogen stored in muscle or glucose delivered in the blood to resynthesize ATP
Glycolysis
Breakdown of carbs for energy, occurs in sarcoplasm
ATP Hydrolysis
Breaks a phosphate bond, releases energy, and leaves ADP, an inorganic phosphate (Pi), and a hydrogen ion (H+)
HIIT
Brief repeated bouts of high-intensity exercise with intermittent recovery periods to elicit cardiopulmonary, metabolic, and neuromuscular adaptations Suggested work to rest ratio 1/1
1. Which of the following increases cortisol levels the MOST during resistance training? A. Moderate Volume B. Isolated Muscles C. Short Rest Periods D. Low Volume
C
14. An athlete is performing three sets of the bench press exercise. What is the volume load of the workout shown below? SET 1 SET 2 SET 3 load reps load reps load reps 100 lb (45 kg) 6 115 lb (52 kg) 4 125 lb (57 kg) 2 A. 4080 lb (1581 kg) B. 3930 lb (1783 kg) C. 1310 lb (594 kg)
C
15. Which of the following explains the increased protein requirements for athletes? I. Tissue Repair Decreased. II. Protein Oxidation during aerobic exercise. III. The use of branched chain amino acids as auxiliary fuel. IV. The consumption of incomplete proteins. A. I, II, III only. B. I,III only. C. I, III, IV only. D. II, IV only.
C
19. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate order when rest periods need to be minimized and training time is limited? A. bench press, shoulder press, hang clean, lunge B. lunge, hang clean, shoulder press, bench press C. hang clean, bench press, lunge, shoulder press
C
20. Which of the following tests are MOST appropriate for women's collegiate field hockey? A. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run and 1RM power clean B. 1RM deadlift and 300-yd (274 m) shuttle C. 40-yd (37-m) sprint and 20-m beep test
C
23. A high school baseball player has a 1RM bench press of 220 lbs. How much weight should he lift in this exercise to allow him to perform 6 repetitions before failure? A. 205 lbs. B. 200 lbs. C. 185 lbs. D. 175 lbs.
C
24. Which of the following BEST describes the upward movement phase of the deadlift? A. Hips and knee flex and the gluteus maximus and rectus femoris are antagonists B. Hips flex and the gluteus maximus is an antagonist, knees extend and the rectus femoris is an agonist C. Hips and knees extend and the gluteus maximus and rectus femoris are agonists D. Hips extend and the gluteus maximus is an agonist, knees flex and the rectus femoris is an antagonist
C
25. Which of the following exercise variables increases blood serum testosterone concentrations after resistance training? A. Small muscle group exercises (forearm curls). B. Light Resistance (50% of 1 RM). C. Short Rest Periods (30 seconds to 1 minute). D. Single set exercises.
C
28. A volleyball player is in a pre-season preparatory period and currently performing a resistance training program at a moderate intensity 4 times per week. Which of the following modifications is MOST appropriate when progressing to an in-season training program? Intensity Frequency A. increase increase B. decrease increase C. increase decrease
C
28. Which of the following is a technique error during the performance of the upward movement phase of the step up that needs correcting? A. Torso kept erect B. Entire foot of the lead leg placed on the box C. Pushed off with the trailing leg D. At highest position paused before beginning the downward phase
C
30. What type of lever occurs when the muscle force and the resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, and the muscle force acts through a moment arm shorter than through which the resistive force acts? A. First Class. B. Second Class. C. Third Class. D. Fourth Class.
C
31. Slow-twitch muscle fibers have which of the following characteristics? A. Large motor neuron size. B. High contraction speed. C. High fatigue resistance. D. High force production.
C
33. An untrained 14 year old male has begun a resistance training program. After training for two and a half weeks his 1 RM bench press has increased 25 lbs., and his 1 RM back barbell squat has increased 45 lbs. Which of the following is most likely responsible for his improvement? A. Increased number of muscle fibers. B. Increased size of muscle fibers. C. Improved neuromuscular efficiency. D. Increased fat free mass.
C
35. Which of the following occurs in the biceps brachii during the concentric muscle action of a dumbbell curl exercise? A. Each individual sarcomere is stimulated by an alpha motor neuron. B. Chloride ions are released inside the sarcomere. C. The myosin cross bridge heads attach to the actin filaments. D. The H zone increases as the Z lines are pulled away from each other.
C
37. A field hockey player has a running pace of 6.5 mph (10.5 km/h). She now must run indoors due to inclement weather. The strength and conditioning professional observes the athlete set the treadmill to 6.5 mph (10.5 km/h) at a 3% grade. Which of the following treadmill adjustments is MOST appropriate to mimic her outdoor pace? Speed Grade A. increase decrease B. increase maintain C. maintain decrease Do Online
C
39. Which of the following guidelines should be followed when designing a strength training and conditioning facility? I. An unobstructed pathway of 24 inches should be maintained in the facility at all times. II. Mirrors should be placed a minimum of 2 inches above the floor. III. Barbells should be placed a minimum of 36 inches between bar ends. IV. Drinking fountains should be placed close to entrances. A. I, II, III only. B. I,III only. C. III, IV only. D. I, III, IV only.
C
4. A 175 lb. lacrosse player has an average daily intake of 600 g of carbohydrate, 90 g of protein, and 100 g of fat. What percentage of his total kilocalorie intake is carbohydrate? A. 10% B. 23% C. 67% D. 76%
C
4. Which of the following instructions are appropriate to give to an athlete who is preparing to perform the T-test? A. Keep your head slightly tilted down and focus your eyes on each cone. B. Keep your head in a neutral position and focus your eyes on each cone. C. Keep your head in a neutral position and focus your eyes straight ahead.
C
40. A college basketball player is spending most of his training program focusing on his ball handling and defensive skills. He is likely in what period of his training cycle? A. Preparatory. B. First Transition. C. Competition. D. Active Rest.
C
40. All of the following describe proper guidelines for performing the barbell bench press EXCEPT? A. Grasp the bar with a closed pronated grip. B. Lower the bar to touch the chest at approximately the nipple level. C. Raise the chest to meet the bar. D. Keep the wrists stiff and forearms perpendicular to the floor.
C
41. Which of the following is a technique error of the lying barbell triceps extension exercise? A. Keep the upper arms perpendicular to the floor. B. Keep the upper arms parallel to each other. C. Grasp the bar with a closed supinated grip. D. Keep the wrists stiff.
C
42. A basketball player is training for muscular hypertrophy, which of the following load and repetition combinations is the MOST appropriate? Load (% 1RM) Goal Repetitions A. 87-93 3-5 B. 87-90 6-8 C. 75-80 8-10 D. 65-67 12-15
C
43. When administering a battery of tests to a male basketball player, which of the following sequences will produce the most reliable results? A. Partial Curl Up, 300 yard shuttle, 1RM Squat, 40 yard sprint B. 1RM Bench Press, 300 yard shuttle, 40 yard sprint, Partial Curl Up C. T- Test, 1RM Squat, 40 yard Sprint, Partial Curl Up D. Partial Curl Up, 40 Yard Sprint, 1 RM Bench Press, T-Test
C
44. A running back is performing the barbell bench press when the bar slips out of his right hand and comes crushing down on his throat. He begins coughing up blood and loses consciousness. Luckily, the strength and conditioning director was spotting him. Which of the following actions should IMMEDIATELY be taken? I. Call the head football coach II. Call 911 III. Move him to the locker room IV. Administer CPR if he is not breathing A. I, II, III B. II,III C. II, IV D. I, II, III, IV
C
44. During the second pull phase of the snatch, what is the primary movement? A. Knee flexion. B. Shoulder flexion. C. Hip extension. D. Hip flexion.
C
45. Which of the following is a test of maximum muscular power? A. 1 RM Bench Press. B. T-Test. C. Standing Long Jump. D. 1 RM Back Squat.
C
48. What is the TOP priority when determining placement of equipment in the strength and conditioning facility? I. Safety. II. Appearance. III. Cost. IV Function. A. I, II, III only. B. II, IV only. C. I, IV only. D. I, III only.
C
48. Which of the following plyometric jump drills has the HIGHEST intensity? A. Split Squat Jump. B. Jump to Box. C. Single Leg Vertical Jump. D. Jump over Barrier.
C
49. Which of the following describes the proper way to grasp a dumbbell during the performance of a hammer curl? A. Closed Pronated Grip. B. Closed Supinated Grip. C. Closed Neutral Grip. D. Open Supinated Grip.
C
5. Following a football practice session, the strength and conditioning coach determines a defensive lineman's fluid replacement needs. Which of the following factors is the LEAST effective to use? A. Duration of the practice. B. Temperature and Humidity of the practice. C. The athlete's thirst. D. The intensity of the practice.
C
50. During spring training a baseball player is administered a physical and underwent a battery of strength tests. Based upon the results below, his training program should emphasize improvement in which of the following areas? Height: 6'1. Weight: 240 lbs. % Body Fat: 28%. 1 RM Bench Press: 315 lbs. 1 RM Squat: 390 lbs. A. Upper body strength. B. Lower body strength. C. Body composition. D. Aerobic endurance.
C
53. Of the following people, who is MOST responsible for preparing a budget and selecting equipment for the strength and conditioning facility? A. Facility Supervisor. B. Individual Sport Coaches. C. Strength and Conditioning Director. D. Assistant Strength and Conditioning Coach.
C
6. A strength and conditioning professional is designing a reconditioning program for an athlete who has undergone physical therapy after ACL reconstruction surgery. The athletic trainer indicates that joint movement is CONTRAINDICATED. Which of the following types of exercise is MOST appropriate? A. isokinetic B. isotonic C. isometric DO ONLINE
C
6. Rebounding the ball in basketball is most closely mimicked by which of the following exercises? A. Back Squat. B. Bent Over Row. C. PushJerk. D. Deadlift.
C
60. Before a female cheerleader participates in a strength and conditioning program, which of the following is recommended? I. Nutritional Analysis. II. Physical Examination by a Physician. III. 1 RM testing. IV. Signed form indicating assumption of risk. A. I, II, III, IV. B. I,II. C. II, IV. D. I, III, IV.
C
61. A baseball player is performing 4 sets of the deadlift exercise. What is the volume load of the workout below? Set 1 Set 2 Set 3 Set 4 Load Reps Load Reps Load Reps Load Reps 135 10 225 6 275 6 330 2 A. 24. B. 965. C. 5010. D. 7065.
C
61. Which of the following factors affect the intensity of lower body plyometric drills? I. Gender. II. Height of the drill. III. Body weight. IV. Speed of the drill. A. I, II, III only. B. II,III only. C. II,III,IV only. D. I, III, IV only.
C
62. A basketball player has an elbow extension to elbow flexion strength ratio of 4:1. Which of the following exercises should be added to his program to reduce the potential for injury? A. Incline Bench Press. B. Deadlift. C. Barbell Biceps Curl. D. Overhead Triceps Extension.
C
66. All of the following would be appropriate for the strength/power phase of a periodized training program for a college football offensive lineman EXCEPT? A. Barbell Back Squat with 85% of the 1 RM. B. Barbell Bench Press with 90% of the 1 RM. C. Seated Shoulder Press with 60% of the 1RM. D. Plyometric Medicine Ball Drop and Upward throw with a 12 lb. ball.
C
67. In order to minimize the health risks associated with aerobic endurance testing in the heat, which of the following guidelines should be followed? I. Utilize salt tablets. II. Encourage athletes to drink. III. Wear dark colored clothing. IV. Test in the morning or evening hours. A. I,II,IV. B. I,IV. C. II, IV. D. I, II, III.
C
69. Which of the following exercises trains the antagonists of the muscles trained in Bench Press? A. Triceps Pushdown. B. Seated Shoulder Press. C. One Arm Dumbbell Row. D. Cable Cross-Over.
C
70. During the slow downward motion of Incline DB chest Press, all of the following muscles act eccentrically EXCEPT? A. Pectoralis Major. B. Triceps Brachii. C. Biceps Brachii. D. Deltoid.
C
71. During the performance of Hummer Curl, what type of lever is acting at the elbow joint? A. First Class. B. Second Class. C. Third Class. D. Fourth Class.
C
72. Which of the following display an isometric muscle action during the performance of Hammer Curl? A. Biceps Brachii. B. Brachioradialis. C. Flexor Carpi Radialis. D. Brachialis.
C
8. Which of the following exercises requires the longest recovery time after a training session if performed using 90% of 1RM? A. bench press B. leg press C. front squat
C
9. Which of the following are the MOST sport-specific exercises for a sprinter? A. triceps pushdowns and leg (knee) extensions B. barbell back squats and lat pulldowns C. seated arm swings and dumbbell lunges
C
9. Which of the following equations is used to calculate power? A. Force x Distance B. Force / Time C. (Force x Distance) / Time D. (Force/ Time) x Distance
C
A college football player decides to add 30 minutes of intense stationary cycling every other day to his current resistance training program. Which of the following best describes the effect the stationary cycling will have on his performance? a. No effect on strength gains. b. Strength gains enhanced. c. Strength gains compromised. d. Number of muscle fibers increased.
C
A female tennis player is beginning a resistance training program and can incorporate all of the following to reduce the risk of injury EXCEPT? A. Performing several variations of an exercise. B. Performing one warm-up set with light weight. C. Performing basic exercises through a partial range of motion. D. Using light weight for new exercises.
C
A punter is utilizing static stretches to increase his hamstring length, how long should this type of stretching be held at the point of minor discomfort? a) 15 sec. b) 20 sec. c) 30 sec. d) 1 minute.
C
All of the following individuals can provide medical supervision during a college soccer match EXCEPT the. a. athletic trainer. b. team physician. c. Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist. d. Sports Certified Physical Therapist.
C
During the upward movement phase of a barbell bench press, which of the following muscles acts as an antagonist? A. Deltoid. B. Pectoralis Major. C. Biceps Brachii. D. Serratus Anterior.
C
Even though only one athlete at a time performs an exercise in the Olympic lifting area, the space should accommodate at least? a) 1-2 people. b) 2-3 people. c) 3-4 people. d) 4-5 people.
C
The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to preseason training. How should the team's resistance training frequency be altered? a. Increase frequency to improve muscular endurance. b. Do not change frequency and add plyometrics. c. Decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice. d. Design a split routine with three days on and one day off.
C
When passing a basketball which muscles act as the agonist and antagonist? a. Agonist: Biceps. Antagonist: Triceps. b. Agonist: Triceps. Antagonist: Infraspinatus. c. Agonist: Triceps. Antagonist: Biceps. d. Agonist: Infraspinatus. Antagonist: Triceps.
C
Which of the following exercises would closely mimic the resistance encountered while swimming the breast stroke? A. Triceps Pushdown. B. Seated Shoulder Press. C. Lat Pulldown. D. Biceps Curl.
C
Which of the following identifies the starting position for the front plank? A. Prone, Biped. B. Supine, Biped. C. Prone, Quadruped. D. Supine, Quadruped.
C
Which of the following is a side effect associated with caffeine? A. Bradycardia. B. Lethargy. C. Increased Urine Output. D. Hallucinations.
C
You are observing an athlete perform the Bent-over row and notice which of the following technique flaws that needs correction? a) Pronated closed grip. b) Grip wider than should width. c) Torso flexed so it is slightly below parallel to floor. d) Bar hangs with the elbows fully extended.
C
15. Which of the following is an essential amino acid? A. Glutamine. B. Glycine. C. Lysine. D. Tyosine.
C histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine
A 6'6 college football offensive lineman weighs 157 kg and has an average daily intake of 5,800 kilocalories. During the offseason he would like to maintain his muscle but decrease his weight by 10 kg. A general guideline would be for him to consume which of the following each day? A. 314 g of protein and a 1,500 kilocalorie deficit. B. 235 g of protein and a 500 kilocalorie deficit. C. 360 g of protein and a 500 kilocalorie deficit. D. 190 g of protein and a 1,500 kilocalorie deficit.
C 1.8 to 2.7 g per/kilo LIMITS TO WEIGHT GAIN/LOSS .5-1kg/week = 500-1000 calories/day
11. A 135 lb. volleyball player has and average daily intake of 62 g of protein, 400 g of carbohydrate, and 80 g of fat. Approximately what percent of her total kilocalorie intake is fat? A. 10%. B. 15%. C. 28%. D. 62%.
C 62 x 4 = 250 400 x4 = 1600 80 x 9 = 720 720/2570 = 28%
18. An athlete should employ arousal control techniques in all of the following scenarios EXCEPT? A. In order to reduce arousal when performing a new skill. B. In order to enhance arousal when executing simple skills. C. In order to enhance arousal when performing a complex skill. D. In order to enhance arousal when executing a well learned skill.
C Arousal control -Reduction when performing new skill or one that is complex -Enhancement when executing simple skills or ones well learned
During the performance of high intensity anaerobic exercise accumulation of which of the following in working skeletal muscle leads to decreased performance? A. ATP. B. Creatine Phosphate. C. Hydrogen Ions. D. Calcium Ions.
C Hydrogen ions released during formation of lactic acid.
A 6'4 college quarterback weighs 180 lbs. and desires to gain muscle mass and strength. He has a daily intake of 3200 kilocalories that consists of 26% fat, 14% protein, and 60% carbohydrate. Which of the following guidelines will be MOST important to achieve his goal? A. Decrease fat, increase protein and carbohydrate B. Increase fat, decrease carbohydrate, and increase protein C. Maintain current proportions but increase fat, protein, and carbohydrate consumption D. Increase protein, decrease fat, decrease carbohydrate"
C PROTEIN - 10-15% CARBS - 45-65% FAT - 20-35%
63. A 10 km runner is using interval training to improve his speed. Which of the following describes this type of training? I. Intensity close to VO2max II. Work bout duration 30-90 seconds III. Frequency 1-2 times per week IV. Work:Rest Ratio 1:1 A. I and II only B. I,II,III only C. I, III, IV only D. I, III only
C 3-5 min HIIT = 30-90 s (work:rest 1:5)
28. Which of the following foods has the LOWEST glycemic index? A. White Rice. B. Watermelon. C. Apple Juice. D. Pineapple.
C white rice = 70 or more watermelon = 70 or more apple juice = 40 pineapple = 55-69
An athlete would gain a physiological benefit from carbohydrate consumption during which of the following activities? I. 5k Run. II. Soccer Match. III. Half Marathon. IV. College Wrestling Match. A. I, III. B. I,II,III. C. II, III. D. II, III, IV.
C Carbs are burned as you get to higher intensities?
29. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate to include in the hypertrophy phase for a professional basketball player? A. push jerk with 85% of 1RM for 3 sets of 3 repetitions B. hang clean with 95% of the 1RM for 5 sets of 2 repetitions C. front squat with 65% of the 1RM for 4 sets of 12 repetitions
C hypertrophy - many sets and reps
29. Gas exchange during respiration occurs in which of the following structures? A. veins B. bronchioles C. capillaries
C (alveoli and capillaries)
58. The tests below should be administered in which order to ensure reliability? I. 1 RM Deadlift. II. Hexagon Test. III. Flexibility. IV. 400 m Run. A. II, I, IV, III. B. II,IV,I,III. C. III, II, I, IV. D. I, II, IV, III.
C non-taxing agility power endurance
Acute cardiovascular responses to anaerobic exercise result in all of the following EXCEPT? a. Increased heart rate. b. Increased stroke volume. c. Increased blood flow to resting muscles. d. Increased systolic blood pressure.
C 103
Heavy resistance exercise has what effect on cardiac output? a. Increases rapidly. b. Decreases. c. No change. d. Decreases rapidly.
C 103
Which of the following performance or physiological characteristics is NOT usually observed in a state of nonfunctional overreaching (NFOR) within athlete populations? a. stagnation and a decrease in performance. b. hormonal disturbances. c. mood disturbances and depression. d. increased levels of fatigue.
C 107
58. Which of the following cause an athlete's heart rate to increase during the anticipatory period immediately before the start of a race? Parasympathetic activity Sympathetic activity A. increase decrease B. increase increase C. decrease increase
C 116-117
The pressure against the arterial walls when no blood is being forcefully ejected by the heart is referred to as? a. Systolic. b. Orthotic. c. Diastolic.. d. Pneumatic.
C 117
What is the value of a metabolic equivalent (MET) a. 2.5 ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute. b. 3.5 ml of carbon dioxide per kilogram of body weight per minute. c. 3.5 ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute. d. 2.5 ml of carbon dioxide per kilogram of body weight per minute.
C 117
23. A novice athlete has been following an aerobic endurance training program for 6 months. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur? A. decreased resting a-vO2 difference B. decreased maximal tidal volume C. increased resting stroke volume
C 121
Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following? A. increased maximal oxygen uptake. B. decreased blood lactate concentration. C. increased running economy. D. decreased capillary density.
C 124
Cardiovascular adaptations to endurance training include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Increased cardiac output. b) Increased blood volume and red blood cell count. c) Increased submaximal hear rate. d) Enhanced blood flow to skeletal muscle.
C 126
Musculoskeletal adaptations to endurance training include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Increased arteriovenous oxygen difference. b) Increased mitochondrial size. c) Decreased mitochondrial density. d) Increased cappilarization in the muscle bed.
C 126
Respiratory adaptations to endurance training include which of the following? a) Decreased oxygen exchange in the lungs. b) Increased submaximal pulmonary ventilation. c) Decreased submaximal respiratory rate. d) Reduced blood flow throughout the lungs.
C 126
Which of the following adaptations occur as an outcome of an aerobic endurance program? I. increased oxygen delivery to working tissues. II. higher rate of aerobic energy production. III. greater utilization of fat as a fuel source. IV. increased disturbance of the acid-base balance. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.
C 126
19. An increase in which of the following is a marker of aerobic overtraining? A. body fat percentage B. muscle glycogen C. creatine kinase concentration
C 130-131 there is a small amount of creatine kinase circulating in the blood, but when muscle damage occurs, the amount of CK in the blood can spike
34. A parent informs the strength and conditioning professional that her child has been classified as being at Tanner's Stage 1. What does this classification assess? A. chronological age B. psychological age C. biological age
C 137
A 10 year old boy is beginning a resistance training program, all of the following are likely benefits EXCEPT? a) Increased 1 RM strength. b) Increased bone density. c) Increased muscle hypertrophy. d) Increased resistance to injury.
C 140
What should be the INITIAL focus when incorporating the clean and jerk into the conditioning program of a 12 year old boy? A. Developing Power. B. Developing Strength. C. Developing Proper Technique. D. Assessing the 1RM.
C 143
Which of the following can be utilized to reduce the risk of overuse injuries in youth athletes? I. Have them evaluated by a sports medicine physician prior to participating. II. Encourage them to participate in a single sport. III. Encourage them to participate in physical activity only during the sport season. IV. Monitor their nutritional status to ensure their diets are adequate. A. I, III, IV only. B. I,III only. C. I, IV only. D. I, II, IV only.
C 143
When comparing absolute strength between men and women, which of the following statements is true? a) Muscle quality is sex specific. b) When comparing relative to muscle cross sectional area men are stronger than women. c) In terms of absolute strength women are generally weaker than men. d) Men have lower quantity of muscle.
C 145
A 67 year old female was found to have a bone mineral density -1.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean and would like to begin a resistance training program. Based on her bone mineral density she would be classified as having? a) Osteoporosis. b) Sarcopenia. c) Osteopenia. d) Sarcoporosis.
C 148
The condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called. a. sarcopenia. b. osteopenia. c. osteoporosis. d. scoliosis.
C 148
A basketball player at the free throw line during a close game experiences tense muscles, an elevated heart rate, and the butterflies, which type of anxiety do these physical symptoms relate to? a) Cognitive anxiety. b) Behavioral anxiety. c) Somatic anxiety. d) Environmental anxiety.
C 158
Which of the following represents a muscle of expiration? a. Scalene. b. External Intercostal. c. Internal Intercostal. d. Anterior Serratus.
C 16
A gymnast has a desire to perform to the best of her potential. This is an example of? a) Dissociation. b) Achievement motivation. c) Intrinsic motivation. d) Dissociation.
C 161
54. Which of the following is characterized by a personal desire to improve? A. extrinsic motivation B. achievement motivation C. intrinsic motivation
C 161-162
Which of the following protein sources does not contain all essential amino acids in appreciable quantities? a. poultry. b. eggs. c. lentils. d. beef.
C 162
27. Which of the following may hinder an athlete's focus during competitive sport performance? A. placekicker stretching his hamstrings or checking the turf B. pitcher's awareness of players on base C. basketball player focusing on other players during a free throw
C 163
The ability to effective manage many environmental stimuli simultaneously refers to which dispositional style? a) Broad internal attentional focus. b) Overloaded by external stimuli. c) Broad external attentional focus. d) Overloaded by internal stimuli.
C 164
24. An athlete with a high motive to achieve success (MAS) would be inspired by which of the following situations? A. A situation in which it is very easy to achieve success. B. A situation in which it would be very difficult to achieve success. C. A situation in which the probability of success is 50%. D. A situation that leads to a fear that there is a threat to self esteem.
C 166 MAS - athletes intrigued by uncertain situations. MAF (motive to avoid failure) - comfortable with very easy or extremely difficult (not expected to win)
In teaching the push press, which of the following is an example of segmentation with pure-part training integration? a. Practice the push press without any equipment, progress to practice with a PVC pipe, and end with and unloaded bar. b. Practice dip, followed by the dip with the drive, and end with practice of the entire push press. c. Practice dip, the drive and the catch independently before practicing the entire push press. d. Practice the dip and the drive independently, followed by practice of the dip with the drive; then practice the catch independently and end with practice of the entire push press.
C 170
Which of the following is the MOST important for tissue repair in the strength and power athlete? a) Fat. b) Carbohydrate. c) Protein. d) Lipid.
C 181
All of the following food choices have an amino acid pattern similar to that needed by the body EXCEPT? A. Tuna. B. Turkey. C. Avocado. D. Eggs.
C 182
Which of the following represents an incomplete protein? A. Milk. B. Salmon. C. Broccoli. D. Pork.
C 182
A 210 lb. baseball player has an average daily intake of 120g of fat, 100 g or protein, and 500 g of carbohydrate. What percentage of his total kilocalorie intake is fat? A. 11%. B. 17%. C. 31%. D. 57%.
C 188 FAT = 9cal/g CARBS & PROTEIN = 4cal/g
Which of the following should you recommend if an athlete's goal is to rapidly replenish glucose and glycogen after a workout? a) Low-GI food. b) High Omega-6 food. c) High-GI food. d) Low Omega-3 food.
C 188 GI = how high and how long it raises blood-glucose levels
20. Which of the following vitamins is important for red blood cell formation and reduces the risk of neural tube birth defects? A. Vitamin A. B. Biotin. C. Folic Acid. D. Vitamin K.
C 192
8. Which of the following minerals is necessary for red blood cell formation? A. Copper. B. Iodine. C. Iron. D. Zinc.
C 194
Which of the following identifies the equation for sweat rate? A. (Pre-Exercise Body Weight - Urine Produced) + (Post-Exercise Body Weight +Fluid Intake During Exercise). B. (Pre-Exercise Body Weight + Fluid Intake During Exercise) - (Post-Exercise Body Weight + Urine Produced). C. (Pre-Exercise Body Weight -Post-Exercise Body Weight) + (Fluid Intake During Exercise - Urine Produced). D. (Pre-Exercise Body Weight + Urine Produced) - (Post-Exercise Body Weight + Fluid Intake During Exercise).
C 196
12. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to determine an athlete's fluid replacement needs after an exercise session? A. thirst mechanism B. pre-exercise urine color C. change in body weight
C 197
How many grams of carbohydrate should a 17 year old high school basketball player who is 6'1" and weighs 78kg consume 2 hours before a game? A. 39 grams. B. 50 grams. C. 78 grams. D. 156 grams.
C 204 !!!!!!!! > 1 hour: 0.5 g per kg 2 hours: 1 g per kg > 4 hours: 1 - 4 g per kg
Which of the following exercises involves a first-class lever? A. standing calf (heel) raise. B. dumbbell biceps curl. C. Lying Triceps extension. D. Lying hamstring curl.
C 21
An athlete is performing a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercise. Which of the following type(s) of levers occur(s) at the elbow during this exercise? I. first class. II. second class. III. third class. a. I only. b. II only. c. I and III only. d. II and III only.
C 21/22
17. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate food to consume to promote glycogen restoration immediately following a 10k training run? A. 1 c (274 ml) of noncarbonated soft drink B. 1 oz (28 g) of honey roasted peanuts C. 1 pint (473 ml) of chocolate milk
C 210-211 As your blood glucose levels begin to run low, your body converts the glycogen back to glucose by a process called glycolysis Consume simple carbohydrates immediately following an intense workout. fruits, milk, chocolate milk, and vegetables. Foods prepared with refined sugars are also sources of simple carbohydrates, such as cakes and candies, however these sources lack nutritional value
6. A 6-ft, 2-in. (188-cm), 220-lb (100-kg) college American football player wants to gain muscle mass. He has a daily intake of 3000 kcal that consists of 18% protein, 55% carbohydrate, and 27% fat. Which of the following is the MOST important to consider? A. decrease carbohydrate and increase protein and fat B. increase protein and carbohydrate and decrease fat C. increase protein, carbohydrate, and fat proportionally
C 217 PROTEIN 10-15% or .8g/kg but for aerobic athletes can go to 1.4g/kg CARBS 45-65% Aerobic athletes need 7-10g/kg carbs. FAT 20-35% (<10% from saturated fats)
A college football nose guard is 188 cm tall and weighs 135 kg. How would this athlete be classified using BMI? A. Normal. B. Overweight. C. Obese. D. Extreme Obesity.
C 219
Which of the following lever classes has the fulcrum at one end and the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the load? A. Class I lever. B. Class II lever. C. Class III lever. D. Class IV lever.
C 22
5. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate if an athlete is suspected of having an eating disorder? A. Monitor the athlete's weight weekly B. Provide basic nutritional information C. Refer the athlete to the team physician
C 221
Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa? a. normal body weight. b. very low dietary fat intake. c. preoccupation with food. d. secretive eating.
C 221
Which of the following is warning sign for Anorexia Nervosa? A. Disappearance of large amounts of food. B. Disappearing after eating. C. Preoccupation with calories. D. Increased time spent exercising.
C 221
When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should. a. monitor the athlete's daily food intake. b. require frequent weigh-ins. c. encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist. d. provide nutritional information.
C 223
A female gymnast notifies the strength and conditioning specialist that she observed one of her teammates eating chalk and hair. This is associated with which of the following disorders? A. Binge Eating Disorder. B. Rumination Disorder. C. Pica. D. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intact Disorder
C 228 -PICA - obsessed with eating non-food items -Rumination disorder - brings back up and re-chews partially digested food that has already been swallowed -Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intact Disorder - foods is limited based on the food's appearance, smell, taste, texture, or a past negative experience with the food.
An athlete with tendon insertions farther from the joint, would have an advantage during which of the following activities? A. Tennis. B. Sprinting. C. Powerlifting. D. Swimming.
C 23
During medical screening by a physician all of the following might suggest anabolic steroid use EXCEPT? a) Gynecomastia. b) A new acne problem. c) HDL Cholesterol level >50 mg/dl. d) Soft and small testes.
C 232 Gynecomastia - enlarged breasts in men
All of the following are functions of Human Growth Hormone EXCEPT? a) Increased bone and muscle growth. b) Increase uptake of glucose. c) Decreased uptake of amino acids. d) Increased utilization of fatty acids.
C 234
Creatine supplementation improves all of the following variables EXCEPT. a. lean body mass. b. maximal strength. c. endurance performance. d. power.
C 243
19. A strength and conditioning professional suspects a 100 m sprinter is taking an ergogenic aid. She displays changes in mood, nausea, increased heart rate and palpitations. Which of the following is MOST likely? A. human growth hormone B. anabolic steroids C. ephedrine
C 246
49. Which of the following refers to the degree to which a test or test item measures what it is supposed to measure? A. Objectivity. B. Reliability. C. Validity. D. Evaluation.
C 250
When measuring maximal strength of a soccer player, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results? I. using multiple testers. II. retesting at a different time of day. III. an athlete's inexperience with the tested exercise. IV. using an established testing protocol. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.
C 252
When selecting a test for use all of the following should be taken into account EXCEPT? a) Energy System Used. b) Temperature. c) Height of Athlete. d) Sex of Athlete.
C 253
A strength and conditioning professional will be administering a 3 mile run to the lacrosse team in 91° heat. Which of the following guidelines should be followed in order to minimize the health risks associated with these conditions? A. Allow the athletes 1 day to acclimatize to the heat. B. Make sure the athletes are well hydrated 8 hours before the test. C. Measure the relative humidity. D. Instruct the athletes to wear tight fitting dark clothing.
C 253 LIMITS 95 degrees = 0% humid 90 degrees = 1-20% 85 = 21-50% 80 = 51-90% 75 = 91-100%
You are about to perform a sequence of tests on a male basketball player. The tests are vertical jump, skinfold measurements, 1 RM back squat, and T-Test. What should be the proper sequence of these tests? a) T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Vertical jump, Skinfold measurements b) Skinfold measurements, T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Vertical jump c) Skinfold measurements, Vertical jump, T-Test, 1 RM back squat d) T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Skinfold measurements, Vertical jump"
C 256
All of the following would represent tests of local muscular endurance EXCEPT? a) Maximum number of chin-ups in 1 minute. b) Maximum number of chin-ups in 30 seconds. c) Maximum number of chin-ups in 1 minute with 5 seconds rest every 10 seconds. d) Maximum number of sit-ups in 30 seconds.
C 261
Which of the following tests is NOT used to measure maximum muscular power? a. Margarina-Kalamen test. b. vertical jump. c. 40 yard (37 m) sprint. d. 1RM power clean.
C 272/283
In order to test the aerobic capacity of the members of the women's soccer team, a collegiate strength and conditioning specialist could utilize which of the following tests? A. 300 yard shuttle. B. Hexagon Test. C. Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test. D. Margaria-Kalamen Test.
C 278
When is the Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test Terminated? A. The first time the start line is not reached. B. After 15 minutes. C. Inability of an athlete to maintain the required pace for two trials. D. After 400 m.
C 278 A warning is given when the subject does not complete a successful out and back shuttle in the allocated time, the subject is removed the next time they do not complete a successful shuttle.
23. You would like to compare the power produced by two football players performing the snatch. Which of the following formulas should you use? A. Force ÷ Time. B. Repetitions x Weight Lifted. C. (Force x Distance) ÷ Time. D. (Weight Lifted x Acceleration) ÷ Repetitions.
C 28
When comparing the power produced by two athletes performing the back squat, the strength and conditioning professional should use which of the following formulae to calculate power? A. fore X distance. B. Sets X rep X weight lifted. C. Work / time. D. acceleration / force.
C 28
Which of the following is the definition of power? a. mass x acceleration. b. force x distance. c. force x velocity. d. torque x time.
C 28 A = Force B = Work
Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified (see figure 13.18)? a. touching the base of cone D. b. shuffling from cone C to cone D. c. crossing the feet from cone B to cone C. d. running forward from cone A to cone B.
C 280
Which of the following would cause a trial of the Star Excursion Balance Test to be discarded? I. Athlete remains facing in the beginning direction. II. Athlete maintains start and return position for 1 second. III. Athlete rests 30 seconds between reaches. IV. Athlete does not touch the line. A. I, II, IV only B. II, IV only C. III, IV only D. II, III, IV only"
C 285 45 deg angles Compare one leg vs. the other
Which of the following represents a correct procedure during the application of the Sit- and-Reach-Test? a) Wear shoes. b) Use Ballistic stretches to warm up the low back and hamstrings. c) The tester may hold the athlete's kneed down if necessary. d) Reach forward as fast as possible.
C 286
What measure of central tendency is represented by the score that occurs with the greatest frequency? a) Mean. b) Median. c) Mode. d) Average.
C 291
6. A female collegiate basketball forward in her junior year is administered a battery of tests. The results are shown below: Height: 69 in. (175 cm) Weight: 150 lb (68 kg) Percent body fat: 20% 1RM bench press: 100 lb (45 kg) 1RM squat: 215 lb (98 kg) Vertical jump: 19 in. (48 cm) Which of the following needs improvement? A. body composition B. anaerobic power C. upper body strength
C 295 50% Bench press = 106lbs
A high school soccer player was tested during the offseason and here are the results Height: 5'9" Weight: 158 lbs 1 RM Bench Press: 190 lbs 1 RM Squat: 245 lbs T-Test: 12 seconds Sit and Reach: 15 inches Vertical Jump: 25 inches 40 yard Sprint: 4.7 seconds Which of the following needs improvement? A. Muscular strength and power. B. Muscular power and speed. C. Agility and Flexibility. D. Flexibility and Speed.
C 305/311
5. A college baseball player was tested ten weeks before the start of the season with these results: Height: 6 ft, 0 in. (182 cm) Weight: 212 lb (96 kg) 1 RM bench press: 275 lb (125 kg) 1 RM squat: 325 lb (147 kg) Vertical jump: 24 in. (61 cm) T-Test: 11.6 sec 40-yard (37-m) sprint: 4.8 sec 1-minute sit-up: 37 Which of the following need improvement? A. agility and muscular strength B. power and local muscular endurance C. agility and local muscular endurance
C 311 !!!!! T-Test for baseball player = 9.2 1 minute sit-up: 35-38 = average
Which of the following is a nontemperature-related effect of a warm-up? a. enhanced neural function. b. disruption of transient connective tissue bonds. c. elevation of baseline oxygen consumption. d. increase in muscle temperature.
C 318
When a male gymnast performs a push-up exercise, which of the following muscle actions occurs at the erector spinae muscle group? A. Concentric . B. Eccentric. C. Isometric. D. Myocentric.
C 32
Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a. a. relaxation of GTOs. b. relaxation of the stretched muscle. c. contraction of the stretched muscle. d. contraction of the reciprocal muscle.
C 323
Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation? a. dynamic. b. ballistic. c. static. d. passive.
C 323
A track sprinter performing long walking strides that emphasize hip extension would be utilizing what type of stretching? a) Static. b) Ballistic. c) Dynamic. d) PNF.
C 324
All of the following are types of basic PNF stretching EXCEPT? a) Hold-Relax. b) Contract-Relax. c) Hold-Relax with Antagonist Contraction. d) Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction.
C 327
55. During the downward movement phase of a front squat, all of the following would indicate a need to initiate the upward movement phase EXCEPT? A. The trunk begins to flex forward. B. The trunk begins to round. C. The knees reach a ROM of 90° flexion. D. The heels rise off the ground.
C 352
Which of the following exercises would the valsalva maneuver be most useful to an athlete trying to maintain proper vertebral alignment and support? a) wrist curl. b) knee extension. c) standing shoulder press. d) triceps pressdown.
C 353
You are assisting a freshmen football player during his workout and provide spotting during the execution of all of the following exercises EXCEPT? a) Back squat. b) Seated Dumbbell Shoulder Press. c) Power Clean. d) Flat Bench Press.
C 355
You are spotting an athlete during the bench press and move the bar from the upright supports to a position in which the athlete can begin the exercise. This is called? a) scoop. b) pull. c) liftoff. d) dip.
C 356
You are instructing an athlete in the weight room, the correct grip for the hammer curl is? a) pronated. b) supinated. c) neutral. d) alternating.
C 368
Two spotters are utilized for the? a) incline dumbbell fly. b) snatch. c) front squat. d) step-up.
C 382
Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift exercise? I. overhand. II. closed. III. open. IV. alternated. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and IV only. d. II, III, and IV only.
C 389
You are observing a group of football players performing the deadlift, which of the following is a common error? a) slowly flexing the hips and knees during the downward movement. b) keeping the elbows extended. c) extending the knees before the hips during the upward movement. d) keeping the bar as close to the shins as possible.
C 389
20. Use of a weight belt is the MOST important when performing which of the following exercises at a 1RM load? A. leg press B. bench press C. back squat
C 39
All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff EXCEPT? A. Supraspinatus. B. Infraspinatis. C. Teres Major. D. Teres Minor.
C 39
Which of the following activities would be classified as bodyweight training? I. Gymnastics. II. Sit-Ups . III. Tire Flip. IV. Yoga. A. I and II only. B. II and III only. C. I, II, and IV only. D. II, III, and IV only.
C 410
The strength and conditioning professional is selecting exercises to target the core of a 20 year old female basketball player. Performance of which of the following exercises will also improve sports performance? I. Plank. II. Deadlift. III. Push-Up. IV. Push-Press. A. I, II, and IV only. B. I and III only. C. II and IV only. D. I, II, and III only.
C 411
When an athlete executes the front plank the internal obliques perform what type of muscle action? A. Concentric. B. Eccentric. C. Isometric. D. Isokinetic.
C 411
Training on instability devices can reduce the overall agonist force production capacity and power output of the athlete to less than _____ of what can be achieved in a stable condition. a. 20%. b. 50%. c. 70%. d. 90%.
C 412
A professional baseball player would like to train a 6RM load in the bench press with the addition of chains. Presently the athlete's 6 RM is 200 lbs. How much weight should be placed on the barbell if the athlete applies a 24.4 lb. chain? A. 175 lbs. B. 178 lbs. C. 188 lbs. D. 195 lbs."
C 414
Which of the following is the aim of using chains when performing the back barbell squat? A. Reduce resistance at the bottom of the squatting motion and reduce resistance as the athlete ascends from the bottom position. B. Increase resistance at the bottom of the squatting motion and reduce resistance as the athlete ascends from the bottom position. C. Reduce resistance at the bottom of the squatting motion and increase resistance as the athlete ascends from the bottom posit. D. Increase resistance at the bottom of the squatting motion and increase resistance as the athlete ascends from the bottom position.
C 414
You have decided to use tire flips as part of the offseason conditioning program for a college football offensive lineman. Which of the following are suggested guidelines for tire selection and exercise setup? I. The tire should not be shorter than the athlete. II. The exercise surface should be hard. III. Tires with good tread are easier to grip . IV. Narrow tires are easier to flip for tall athletes. A. I, II only. B. II, III, IV only. C. II,III only. D. I, II, III only.
C 417
During the catch phase of the log clean and press, where is the athlete instructed to rack the log? A. Overhead in full elbow extension. B. Overhead in slight elbow flexion. C. Across the clavicles and anterior deltoids. D. Across the mid-biceps brachii.
C 430
You are instructing a female volleyball player on the Two Arm Kettlebell swing. At what level should she forcefully swing the kettlebell to? A. Umbilicus. B. Nipple. C. Eye. D. Full arm extension above the cranium.
C 433
11. Which of the following factors should be determined FIRST when designing a training program for a rugby team? A. exercise order B. goal repetitions C. metabolic demands
C 441
An evaluation of the requirements and characteristics of the sport and an athlete assessment is known as? a) Exercise selection. b) Strength assessment. c) Needs analysis. d) Conditioning analysis.
C 441
You are instructing an athlete on exercise order during her training session, which of the following would represent the proper sequence of exercises? a) Squat, Power clean, Leg extension. b) Leg extension, Squat, Power Clean. c) Power clean, Squat, Leg extension. d) Squat, Leg extension, Power Clean.
C 448
All of the following are examples of a push and pull arrangement EXCEPT? a) Bench press, Lat pulldown. b) Shoulder press, Bent over row. c) Triceps extension, Bench press. d) Triceps extension, Biceps curl.
C 449
What percentage of the 1RM allows an athlete to perform 6 repetitions of a given exercise? a) 70. b) 75. c) 85. d) 95.
C 452
Which energy system results in the formation of the organic end product lactic acid? a. Phophagen. b. Slow glycolysis. c. Fast glycolysis. d. Oxidative.
C 46
A defensive lineman is training to increase his strength. Which of the following rest period lengths would maximize his goal? a) 30-60 seconds. b) 60-90seconds. c) 2-5 minutes. d) 5-10 minutes.
C 465
A volleyball player would like to increase her vertical jump, how can this athlete improve her force production? A. Recruit small muscles or muscle groups during an activity. B. Increase the cross sectional area of muscles uninvolved in the activity. C. Preload a muscle involved in the activity just before a concentric muscle action. D. Unload a muscle involved in the activity just before a concentric muscle action.
C 473
All of the following are components of the stretch-shortening cycle EXCEPT a) Concentric. b) Eccentric. c) Isometric. d) Amoritization.
C 473
You would like to increase the intensity of plyometric drills for a volleyball player, changing all of the following would result in an increase in intensity EXCEPT? a) Using a single leg. b) Adding a weight vest to the athlete. c) Decreasing jump height. d) Increasing the speed of the drill.
C 476
Which of the following is the suggested volume for a basketball player beginning a lower body plyometric training program? a) 40-60 throws per session. b) 40-60 contacts per session. c) 80-100 contacts per session. d) 100-120 contacts per session.
C 477
To assess an athlete's preparedness to participate in an advanced plyometric training program the athlete must maintain the single leg half squat for how many seconds? a) 20 seconds. b) 5 seconds. c) 30 seconds. d) 60 seconds.
C 481
Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program? I. balance. II. strength. III. training history. IV. lean body mass. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. I, II, III, and IV.
C 481
Which of the following types of plyometric drills is generally considered to be the MOST intense? a. jumps in place. b. bounds. c. depth jumps. d. box jumps.
C 482
2. A male collegiate volleyball player is performing lower-body plyometric drills that are of high intensity in the strength and conditioning facility. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate surface? A. carpet B. turf C. rubber floor
C 482/627
Each muscle fiber is surrounded by a connective tissue called? a. Fasiciculi. b. Perimysium. c. Endomysium. d. Epimysium.
C 5
When relating the season terminology to periodization periods, which season corresponds to the preparatory period of training? a. in-season. b. preseason. c. off-season. d. postseason.
C 509 Prep - usually longest and when there is no competitions and limited sport-specific practice. GOAL = establish base level of conditioning
Elite sprinters produce ____forces in a ____ ground contact time as compared to their novice counterparts. a. larger, longer. b. similar, shorter. c. larger, shorter. d. smaller, longer.
C 527
Running speed is the interaction between? a) Acceleration and stride length. b) Acceleration and velocity. c) Stride length and stride frequency. d) Velocity and stride length.
C 527
Approximately how many net ATP are produced via the oxidative energy system from the metabolism of one glucose molecule? a. 27. b. 34. c. 38. d. 41.
C 53
Drills or tests that require the athlete to move rapidly in response to a stimulus such as a whistle, arrow, or opponent are best for measuring which of the following? a. change of direction. b. maneuverability. c. agility. d. acceleration.
C 533
51. When changing direction in response to movements by a wide receiver a defensive back is instructed to focus on which of the following body parts of the wide receiver? A. Head. B. Arms. C. Hips. D. Legs.
C 535
ATP used during the 400-m dash would be primarily supplied from what energy system? a. Phosphagen. b. Slow glycolysis. c. Fast glycolysis. d. Oxidative.
C 54
Which of the following are the primary and secondary factors that MOST determine which energy system an athlete will predominantly rely on during an exercise session? A. exercise mode - available energy stores. B. exercise duration - exercise intensity. C. exercise intensity - exercise duration. D. available energy stores- exercise mode.
C 54
You are about to conduct a training session for a college 800m runner. During this session the dominant energy system used will depend primarily on which of the following? A. Session intensity and athlete's age. B. Session duration and athlete's age. C. Session intensity and session duration. D. Session intensity and athlete's training status.
C 54
10. Which of the following relies predominantly on the phosphagen energy system? A. 200-m swim B. 3K race C. 5RM push press
C 54/89
When deciding to use heart rate as a method of prescribing exercise intensity, you must keep in mind that age contributes what percentage to the variability of heart rate? a) 25%. b) 50%. c) 75%. d) 100%.
C 563
Using the Karvonen method, what is the target heart rate of a 65 year old male who will be working out at 50-60% of his functional capacity? He is 6 foot tall and weighs 175 lbs with a resting heart rate of 80 beats per min. a) 88-95 b) 100-110 c) 118-125 d) 148-155.
C 564
What is the age-predicted maximum heart rate of a 50 year old male who is 6 foot tall and weighs 180 lbs with a resting heart rate of 70 beats per min? a) 100. b) 110. c) 170. d) 180.
C 564
What would be the primary energy system used for a male athlete running the 400m hurdles in the Olympics? A. Phosphagen. B. Phophagen and Fast Glycolysis. C. Fast Glycolysis. D. Oxidative.
C 57/60
A high school wrestler injured his right shoulder and stopped his training regimen over the last 3 weeks, what has occurred? a) Tapering. b) Cross Training. c) Detraining. d) ResistanceTraining.
C 571
the loss of physiological adaptations upon the cessation of training is an example of. a. specificity of training. b. cross-training. c. detraining. d. tapering.
C 571
47. An athlete is trying to determine the correct seat height on a stationary cycle. Which of the following is MOST appropriate with the pedal in the bottom position? A. placing the toes on the pedal with no bend in the knee B. placing the heel on the pedal with a 10° bend in the knee C. placing the heel on the pedal with no bend in the knee
C 576
During which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) does the body lose its ability to adapt to the stressor? a) Alarm. b) Resistance. c) Exhaustion. d) Extinction.
C 585
During which of the following periods are sport-specific activities performed in the greatest volume? a. preparatory. b. first transition. c. competition. d. second transition.
C 591
Which of the following best describes appropriate activity during the competition period for a college football wide receiver? a) Low intensity recreational exercise. b) High volume, low intensity resistance training. c) Sprinting specific plyometric drills. d) High volume, high intensity resistance training.
C 591
Which of the following structures of a sarcomere shrinks in the pectoralis major muscle during the concentric action of a bench press? A. A-band. B. M-line. C. H-zone. D. Z-line.
C 6
25. Which of the following is an appropriate rest interval for a 1600m runner performing 400m high-intensity intervals at greater than V02 max in 53 seconds? A. 53 seconds B. 1 minute 46 seconds C. 4 minutes 25 seconds D. 8 minutes 50 seconds
C 60
3. Which of the following rest periods is MOST appropriate for a middle distance runner performing 800-m running intervals in 2 min? A. 2 min B. 4 min C. 6 min
C 60
34. Which of the following is an approximate rest interval for a sprinter performing 200m sprint intervals in 25 seconds? A. 50 seconds. B. 1 minute 40 seconds. C. 2 minutes 5 seconds. D. 6 minutes 15 seconds.
C 60 5 - 10 s = 1:12 to 1:20 15 - 30 s = 1:5 1-3 min = 1:3 to 1:4 > 3 min = 1:1
30. An athlete wants to train the glycolytic and aerobic energy systems. Which of the following rest periods is the MOST appropriate if she performs work intervals of 60 sec in duration? A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 3 min
C 60 5 - 10 s = 1:12 to 1:20 15 - 30 s = 1:5 1-3 min = 1:3 to 1:4 > 3 min = 1:1
Aerobic training added to the training of anaerobic athletes (Combination Training) can lead to all of the following EXCEPT? a. Reduced anaerobic energy production. b. Reduced gain in muscle girth. c. Increased speed. d. Reduced power.
C 61
Which does not occur during the inflammation phase of tissue healing? a) Pain. b) Swelling. c) Increased collagen synthesis. d) Increased number of inflammatory cells.
C 610
Which of the following types of activity would not be recommended during the inflammatory phase of an ankle sprain? a) Hip flexor stretching. b) Ice applied to the ankle. c) Depth jumps. d) Upper extremity ergometry.
C 612
Which of the following would NOT be considered an open kinetic chain exercise? a) Leg extension. b) Bench press. c) Front Squat. d) Hip Abduction.
C 615
What is recommended minimum distance between the floor and the bottom of the mirrors on the walls in the strength and conditioning facility? a) 16 inches. b) 18 inches. c) 20 inches. d) 22 inches.
C 628
What is the recommended minimum distance between the floor and the bottom of mirrors on the walls? a. 16 inches. b. 18 inches. c. 20 inches. d. 22 inches.
C 628
4. Which of the following will optimize traffic flow in a strength and conditioning facility? A. pathways with a width of 24 in (61 cm) B. spacing equipment at least 36 in (91 cm) apart C. arrangement of the equipment
C 629
What is the minimum recommended space between the ends of racks to provide room for spotters. a. 1 foot. b. 2 feet. c. 3 feet. d. 4 feet.
C 629
When designing strength and conditioning facility, how many square feet should be dedicated to a rack where athletes will be performing squats and standing shoulder presses with a 7 foot Olympic bar? A. 49 square feet. B. 70 square feet. C. 130 square feet. D. 170 square feet.
C 631
40. Which of the following responsibilities would be MOST important for the Strength and Conditioning Director? A. Assist in cleaning of the facility B. Enforce facility rules C. Stay updated on the latest strength and conditioning research D. Assist with spotting
C 644
Which of the following individuals is responsible for allowing an athlete to begin formal involvement in a strength and conditioning program? a. athletic director. b. athlete's parent or guardian. c. team's certified athletic trainer. d. strength and conditioning professional.
C 644
The strength and conditioning professional's knowledge and skill development includes competencies in all of the following EXCEPT. a. exercise and sport science. b. administration and management. c. financial appraisal. d. teaching and coaching.
C 646
For the second time this week a member of the football team was observed squatting outside the rack. He was reminded of the facility rules and guidelines during the last incident. What is the strength and conditioning director's most appropriate action at this time? a) Permanent dismissal from the facility. b) Dismissal from the facility for one week. c) Dismissal from the facility for one day. d) A verbal warning.
C 650
All of the following would be responsibilities of the Facility Supervisor EXCEPT a) Assist in testing of athletes. b) Enforce facility policies and rules. c) Develop the annual budget. d) Maintain and clean the facility.
C 652
What is the recommended coah-to-participant ratio during peak weight room usage time in a collegiate setting? a. 1:10. b. 1:15. c. 1:20. d. 1:25.
C 652
You are scheduling a high school football team's use of the strength and conditioning facility, the staff to athlete ratio should be? a) 1:10. b) 1:12. c) 1:15. d) 1:20.
C 652
8. Which of the following is given FIRST priority when setting up a weight room schedule? A. off-season athletes B. pre-season athletes C. in-season athletes
C 653
All of the following represent the primary anabolic hormones involved in muscle tissue growth and remodeling EXCEPT? A. Testosterone. B. Growth Hormone. C. Progesterone. D. Insulin Like Growth Factor.
C 67
49. Within the biceps brachii muscle, the I-bands lengthen during the downward movement phase of which of the following exercises? A. bench press B. lat pulldown C. bent-over row
C 7
6. Which of the following events occurs in the hamstring muscles during the concentric muscle action of leg (knee) curl exercise? A. the A-band length increases B. the I-band length stays the same C. the H-zone length decreases
C 7
Which of the following locations produce testosterone in women? A. Testes and Ovaries. B. Anterior Pituitary and Adrenal Gland. C. Ovaries and Adrenal Gland. D. Anterior Pituitary and Ovaries.
C 75
Growth hormone stimulates what organ to secrete Insulin-Like Growth Factors? A. Pituitary gland B. Adrenal gland C. Liver D. Pancreas
C 78
For women still having a menstrual cycle, which of the following hormones is higher than men at rest? A. Cortisol. B. Insulin. C. Growth Hormone. D. Testosterone.
C 79
21. Which of the following is a physiological function of epinephrine in muscle? I. Decrease blood flow II. Decrease blood pressure III. Increase muscle contraction rate IV. Decrease force production A. I, II only B. I, II, IV only C. III only D. IV only
C 84 catecholamines = Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
17. An exercise session consisting of which of the following modalities results in the LARGEST increase in serum HGH concentration? A. moderate-intensity aerobic exercise B. moderate-intensity resistance exercise C. high-intensity resistance exercise
C 85
During resistance training which of the following increases serum testosterone concentrations the MOST? A. Isolating Specific Muscles. B. 2 minute Rest Intervals. C. Multiple Sets and Multiple Exercises. D. Lifting 70% of the 1RM.
C 85
37. All innervated muscle fibers of a motor unit fully contract when stimulated due to which of the following? A. size principle B. selective recruitment C. all-or-none principle
C 9
When a motor unit is stimulated, all of its innervated muscle fibers fully contract due to... A. the size principle. B. the principle of selective recruitment. C. the all-or-none law. D. muscle tetanus.
C 9
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of Type II muscle fibers? A. slow contraction speed B. small fiber diameter C. high power output
C 9-10
56. Which of the following adaptations results from heavy resistance training? A. increased capillary density B. decreased triglyceride storage capacity C. increased Type II fiber cross-sectional area
C 90
Which of the following occurs as result of heavy resistance training? a. Decreased Anaerobic Power. b. Decreased Stored Glycogen. c. Decreased Mitochondrial Density. d. Decreased Stored ATP.
C 90 -Mitochondrial and myoglobin density
18. A female, college-age athlete began a strength and conditioning program 8 weeks ago. In the weeks following, she continues to see gains in her strength. Which of the following MOST likely contributes to this change? A. improved neuromuscular efficiency B. conversion of Type I to Type II muscle fibers C. increased size of muscle fibers
C 93
Which of the following would result in increased motor cortex activity? a. When an athlete performs the same routine day after day. b. When an athlete reduces the intensity of a particular exercise. c. When an athlete learns a new sprinting technique. d. When an athlete takes a week off from the gym.
C 93
Following a period of chronic high-intensity resistance training, a variety of physiological adaptations take place in a number of systems within the body that promote improved athletic performance in strength/power activities. If an elite athlete were to undergo 12 weeks of heavy strength training, which of the following adaptations would NOT be expected consequent to this type of anaerobic exercise? a. a transition from Type IIx to Type IIa muscle fiber. b. increased pennation angle in certain muscle groups. c. reduced sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-tubule density. d. elevated sodium-potassium ATPase activity.
C 95/96
A 56 year old female has concerns that she might develop osteoporosis, which of the following exercises would be MOST beneficial? A. Knee Extensions. B. Push-Ups. C. Back Barbell Squat. D. Seated Military Press.
C 99
1. During the concentric phase of the low-bar back squat, which of the following muscles acts as an antagonist to the gluteus maximus? A. quadriceps B. hamstrings C. psoas major
C. 20/381
Creatine Phosphate Depletion
Can decrease markedly (50-70%) during 5-30 seconds of high intensity exercise, 3-5 minutes partial repletion, 8 minutes complete repletion
Macronutrient that can be metabolized without O2
Carbs
Vertebral Column
Cervical 7 (lordotic curve) Thoracic 12 (Kyphotic curve) Lumbar 5 (Lordotic) Sacral 5 ( Kyphotic) Coccygeal 3-5 Curves help to distribute forces
Force Output Variation
Change in frequency of activation of individual motor units of the number of activated motor units
"The burn"
Change in ph from excess hydrogen ions accumulating in the muscle cells, not accumulation of lactate
What characterizes binge eating disorder?
Characterized by repeated episodes, occurring at least once a week for a period of 3 weeks of uncontrolled binge eating NOT followed by purging
Hormones
Chemical messengers that are synthesized, stored, and released into the blood by endocrine glands and other cells Intimately involved with protein synthesis and degradation mechanisms that are part of muscle adaptations to resistance exercise
Physiological mechanisms that contribute to changes in peripheral blood concentrations of hormones with exercise
Circadian pattern Fluid volume shifts Tissue clearance rates Venous pooling of blood Hormone interactions with binding proteins
Mechanisms of Hormonal Interactions
Combination of many different mechanisms is thought to stimulate exercise-induced hypertrophy
Sarcomere
Compartments of arranged filaments Basic functional unit of a myofibril
What is the first thing that should be done before initiating an exercise program for a senior?
Complete a medial history and risk factor questionnaire
Transverse Tubules
Connect to plasma membrane to interior Action potentials travel through Ensures AP excites all parts of the muscle fiber at the same time
Myofibrils
Contractile organelles Extend length of muscle fiber
Reciprocal Inhibition
Contracting the muscle opposing the muscle that is being passively stretched GTO (reflexive muscle relaxation)
By which process is lactate transported in the blood to the liver where it is converted to glucose?
Cori cycle
What is the intensity that HIIT should be performed at?
Cumulative duration of active portions of the duty cycles should add up to several minutes over 90% of Vo2 max
"During a session of heavy resistance training, which of the following responses occur in the cardiovascular system? I. Increase in Heart Rate II. Increase in Stroke Volume III. Increase in Blood Flow to all Muscles IV. Increase in Systolic Blood Pressure A. I, II only B. I, III, IV, only I, C. IV only D. I, II, IV only"
D
13. The mechanism of ATP production during an exercise session depends primarily and secondarily on what factors? Primary Secondary A. Exercise Duration Exercise Intensity B. Training Status Exercise Mode C. Exercise Mode Training Status D. Exercise Intensity Exercise Duration
D
14. Which of the following has the fastest rate of ATP production? A. Oxidation of Carbohydrates B. Oxidation of Fats C. Oxidation of Proteins D. Slow Glycolysis
D
16. Which of the following increases as an adaptation to chronic aerobic endurance training but decreases as an adaptation to chronic resistance training? A. Muscle Fiber Size. B. %BodyFat. C. Vertical Jump. D. Capillary Density.
D
2. The depletion of which of the following fuel sources may contribute to fatigue in 10 repetitions of the Power Clean exercise with 60% of the 1 RM? A. Fat Stores. B. Liver Glygocen. C. Triglycerides. D. Creatine Phosphate.
D
20. In an athlete suspected of having an eating disorder, which of the following warning signs can be used to differentiate bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa? A. Complaining of constipation B. Criticism of one's body C. Excessive exercise D. Repeatedly disappearing right after eating
D
20. The use of a weight belt may improve safety during the performance of which of the following exercises? A. Dumbbell curls performed with 75% of 10 RM. B. Dumbbell curls performed with 100% of 6 RM. C. Back Barbell Squat performed with 75% of 10 RM. D. Back Barbell Squat performed with 100% of 6 RM.
D
21. Which of the following represent a reason for an athlete to reduce dietary fat? I. To increase carbohydrate intake to support training type. II. To improve performance. III. To reduce caloric intake to achieve weight loss. IV. To decrease elevated blood cholesterol. A. I, II, III only. B. I, IV only. C. II, IV only. D. I, III, IV only.
D
23. Which of the following knee movements and planes of action are associated with the lying hamstring curl exercise? A. Extension, sagittal plane. B. Extension, frontal plane. C. Flexion, frontal plane. D. Flexion, sagittal plane.
D
25. A 21 year old golfer has been performing 3 sets of 8-10RM loads per body part for the last 6 months. All of the following are associated with this type of training EXCEPT? A. Increased fat free mass. B. Increased Type II fiber area. C. Increased swinging velocity. D. Increased capillary density.
D
26. Which of the following would disqualify an athlete during the administration of a T-Test? A. The athlete touches a cone with her hand B. The athlete shuffles her feet C. The athlete keeps her head forward the entire time D. The athlete crosses her feet
D
27. The greatest muscle force in the biceps brachii can be generated during which of the following actions? A. Isometrically holding the barbell perpendicular to the floor during a biceps curl exercise. B. Slowly performing a concentric muscle action during a biceps curl. C. Rapidly performing a concentric muscle action during a biceps curl. D. Slowly lowering the barbell during a biceps curl with a load that is greater than the 1RM.
D
29. As a response to aerobic exercise, which of the following is decreased? A. Stroke volume. B. Systolic blood pressure. C. Blood flow to muscles. D. Blood flow to organs.
D
32. All of the following are important components of mechanical load in order to stimulate new bone formation EXCEPT? A. Intensity of the load. B. Number of Repetitions. C. Direction of the load. D. Rest Periods between sets.
D
32. Which of the following are closed kinetic chain exercises? I.Push-ups II. Pull-ups III. Barbell Bent Over Row IV. Dips A. I, II only B. I,II,III only C. III, IV only D. I, II, IV only
D
35. Which of the following should be considered when scheduling athletes in the strength and conditioning facility? I. Seasonal Priority II. Gender of Athletes III. Training Status of Athletes IV. Staff to Athlete Supervision Ratios A. I, II, III B. I,II C. II, III, IV D. I, IV
D
37. Which of the following goal repetitions and rest periods would BEST promote muscular hypertrophy? A. 5 repetitions and 3 minute rest periods B. 5 repetitions and 1 minute rest periods C. 8 repetitions and 3 minute rest periods D. 10 repetitions and 1 minute rest periods
D
38. A female tennis player has a 145 lb. 1 RM in the bench press. Which of the following loads would allow her to perform 8 repetitions in that exercise? A. 130 lbs. B. 125 lbs. C. 120 lbs. D. 115 lbs.
D
38. When administering a battery of tests, which of the following tests should be completed prior to performing 1 RM testing of the back barbell squat? A. 40 yard dash. B. Curl-up. C. 300 yard shuttle. D. T-Test.
D
39. Which of the following muscles acts isometrically during the forward lunge? A. Vastus Medialis B. Gluteus Maximus C. Semitendinosus D. Adductor Brevis
D
4. Creatine supplementation would be MOST beneficial to performance in which of the following swimming events? A. 400m individual medley. B. 10km freestyle. C. 200m Backstroke. D. 50m freestyle.
D
41. A soccer player has a knee extension to knee flexion strength ratio of 5:1. Which of the following exercises should be added to her program to reduce the potential for injury? A. Front Squats B. Plyometric Depth Jumps C. Power Cleans D. Lying Leg Curl
D
52. Which of the following exercises is the most sport specific for a high school tennis player? A. Upright row. B. Lat Pulldown. C. Overhead Triceps Extension. D. Bent-Over Lateral Raise.
D
53. When obtaining skinfold measurements all of the following should be adhered to EXCEPT? A. Measurements should be made on dry skin. B. Measurements should be taken at least 2 times. C. Measurements should be taken prior to exercise. D. The caliper prongs should be parallel to the folds of skin.
D
57. Which of the following will have the greatest effect on reducing the risk of liability from athletic injuries in the strength and conditioning facility? A. Pre-participation physical examination by a licensed physician. B. Proper instruction of safe and effective strength and conditioning techniques. C. A certified strength and conditioning specialist on staff. D. Qualified and appropriate supervision of athletes at all times.
D
59. When arranging equipment in the strength training facility, what is the minimum recommended distance between the ends of 2 adjacent Olympic barbells? A. 24 inches. B. 28 inches. C. 32 inches. D. 36 inches.
D
60. A softball player was lifting 67% of her back squat 1RM; this load would typically allow her to perform how many repetitions? A. 6. B. 8. C. 10. D. 12.
D
7. Which of the following is a dietary source of a high quality protein? A. Spinach. B. Pinto Beans. C. Grains. D. Milk.
D
70. Which of the following describes the type of hand grip used for Bench Press? A. Supinated. B. Overhand. C. Neutral. D. Pronated.
D
71. During the upward movement phase of Incline DB chest Press, the strength and conditioning professional should instruct the athlete to do which of the following? A. Keep the wrists loose. B. Keep the forearms parallel to the floor. C. Arch the back. D. Push the dumbbells upward until the elbows are fully extended.
D
9. A 14 year old female has been resistance training 3 times a week for 5 weeks. Which of the following adaptations contribute the MOST to her strength gains? A. Increased Muscle Fiber Size. B. Greater Blood Serum Growth Hormone Concentrations. C. Increased Number of Muscle Fibers. D. Increased Motor Unit Activation.
D
9. All of the following factors can have a significant effect on flexibility EXCEPT? A. Age. B. Activity Level. C. Joint Structure. D. Dietary Intake.
D
A 22 year old field hockey player is running intervals in preparation for her upcoming season, which of the following DOES NOT affect her blood lactate concentration? A. The duration of her exercise session. B. Her state of training. C. Her initial glycogen levels. D. Female gender.
D
A golfer would like to incorporate PNF stretching into his program to improve his flexibility, and asks you what the most effective PNF stretching technique is? a) Hold-Relax. b) Contract-Relax. c) Hold-Relax with Antagonist Contraction. d) Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction.
D
All of the following athletes should time food consumption as close as 30 minutes prior to competition EXCEPT? A. Athletes that have a tendency to feel shaky or weak. B. Athletes who participate in an aerobic endurance event. C. Athletes who feel hungry during the event. D. Athletes who feel nauseated before competition.
D
An athlete performs a vertical jump height test followed by a 1 RM test of his back squat. What is the primary energy source utilized during these tests? a) Oxygen. b) Glucose. c) Fat. d) ATP.
D
Maximal force output of a muscle is generally greater when all of the following occur EXCEPT? A. More motor units are involved. B. The motor units are greater in size. C. The motor units are firing faster. D. The motor units contain Type I fibers.
D
Muscle uptake of creatine can be enhanced by pairing it with which of the following? a) Fats. b) Oils. c) Proteins. d) Carbohydrates.
D
The rotator cuff muscle act as stabilizers to the shoulder joint. During the maturation-remodeling phase of rotator cuff (supraspinatus muscle ) tedinitis rehabilitation of a basketball player, what exercise repetition range is MOST appropriate for improving the muscular endurance of the rotator cuff muscles? a. 3-5. b. 5-8. c. 8-12. d. 12-20.
D
22. Which of the following upper arm muscle groups and types of muscle actions are associated with the standing triceps pressdown? Primary Muscle Group. Primary Muscle Action. I. Flexors. Eccentric. II. Flexors. Concentric. III. Extensors. Eccentric. IV. Extensors. Concentric. A. I and II only. B. II and III only. C. III and IV only. D. I and IV only.
D 20
A college soccer player who excludes dairy from her diet will have a hard time meeting her nutritional requirements for which of the following nutrients? I. Protein. II. Vitamin D. III. Magnesium. IV. Potassium. A. I and II only, B. II only, C. I, II, IV only, D. II, and IV only,
D DAIRY calcium, potassium, vitamin D, and protein
32. A female soccer player is on a 2,200 kilocalorie diet and weighs 59 kg. Which of the following represents an appropriate amount of protein that she should be consuming each day? A. 30 g. B. 41 g. C. 47 g. D. 94 g.
D Heavy resistance can go to 1.8g/kg - 2.7g/kg
Having a high concentration of Type II muscle fibers would be most beneficial to an athlete participating in which of the following sports? A. Marathon. B. Cross Country Skiing. C. Distance Cycling. D. Tennis.
D 11
The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the: a. cardiac output. b. a-vO2 difference. c. heart rate. d. stroke volume.
D 116
12. Aerobic training causes increases in all of the following EXCEPT? A. Capillary Density. B. Stored ATP. C. Mitochondrial Density. D. Cytoplasmic Density.
D 117
Which of the following does NOT normally increase during an aerobic exercise session? a. end-diastolic volume. b. cardiac contractility. c. cardiac output. d. diastolic blood pressure.
D 117
Through which of the following valves does blood flow after contraction of the right atrium? a. Aortic. b. Pulmonary. c. Mitral. d. Tricupsid.
D 12
All of the following physiological changes occur with aerobic endurance training EXCEPT? a. Increased capillary density. b. Increased aerobic power. c. Increased mitochondrial density. d. Increased muscle strength.
D 121
A 17-year-old high school cross-country runner has been training aerobically for six months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscle during that time? a. increased concentration of glycolytic enzyme. b. hyperplasia of Type II fibers. c. transformation from Type I to Type II fibers. d. hypertrophy of Type I fibers.
D 122
Which of the following is one of the most commonly measured adaptations to aerobic endurance training? a. Maximum systolic blood pressure. b. Maximum diastolic blood pressure. c. Maximum heart rate. d. Maximum oxygen uptake.
D 124
Which of the following occurs during the T wave of a typical ECG? A. Atrial depolarization. B. Atrial repolarization. C. Ventricular depolarization. D. Ventricular repolarization.
D 14
An 8-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six-month resistance training program. Which of the following is MOST likely responsible for this gain? a. increased number of muscle fibers. b. enhanced -cross-sectional area. c. greater muscle density. d. improved neuromuscular functioning.
D 141
Youth resistance training guidelines include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Stretching exercises should be performed before resistance training. b) Children should be encouraged to drink plenty of water. c) Increase resistance 5-10% as strength improves. d) 3 consecutive training sessions per week are recommended.
D 144
All of the following show decreases with the normal aging process EXCEPT? a) Muscle mass. b) Bone mineral density. c) Resting metabolic rate. d) Body fat.
D 149
Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when one is designing a training program for a 68-year-old competitive female tennis player? a. cardiovascular fitness. b. lower body strength. c. balance and agility. d. medical history.
D 151
You are designing a training program for a 70 year old female golfer, which of the following should be evaluated first? a) Upper body strength. b) Flexibility. c) Core strength. d) Medical history.
D 151
Which of the following are indicative of the ideal performance state? I. A broad focus of attention. II. Clear thinking about performance. III. The absence of fear. IV. A sense of personal control. a) I, III, IV only. b) II, III, IV only. c) II, IV only. d) III, IV only.
D 156
An athlete's desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of. a. motive to avoid failure. b. autogenic training. c. selective attention. d. achievement motivation.
D 162
During a field goal attempt, the kicker blocks out the crowd noise and the opposing players to focus specifically on the task at hand, this is referred to as? a) The Zone. b) Arousal. c) Psychic energy. d) Selective attention.
D 163
The head football coach benches the starting quarterback for the first quarter of the game after the quarterback missed a mandatory team meeting. This is an example of which of the following? A. Positive Reinforcement. B. Negative Reinforcement. C. Positive Punishment. D. Negative Punishment.
D 163
The women's soccer coach felt the team hustled especially hard at today's practice and announced that no wind sprints would be required at the end of practice. Which type of motivational phenomena does this relate to? a) Positive reinforcement. b) Achievement motivation. c) Intrinsic motivation. d) Negative reinforcement.
D 163
Which of the following represents a complete protein? A. Grains. B. Pinto Beans. C. Spinach. D. Chicken.
D 182
Which of the following is classified as a disaccharide? A. Starch. B. Fiber. C. Glycogen. D. Lactose.
D 184 Disaccharide: sucrose, lactose, and maltose Polysaccharides: starch, fiber and glycogen Monosaccharides: glucose, fructose, and galactose
What is the primary source of fuel for a 120 min low intensity workout on a rowing ergometer? a) Protein. b) Carbohydrates. c) Water. d) Fat.
D 190
Which of the following is a recommendation for lowering undesirably high levels of blood lipids? a. reduce complex carbohydrate intake. b. limit saturated fatty acid intake 30% of total calories. c. consume a minimum of 500 mg of dietary cholesterol per day. d. replace saturated fatty acids with monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids .
D 190
The structures of the skull are an example of what type of joint? a. Cartilaginous. b. Synovial. c. Orthotic. d. Fibrous.
D 2
How many thoracic vertebrae are in the human body? A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 12
D 2 7, 12, 5, 5
Which of the following is the LEAST contributing factor to total energy expenditure? "A. Basal Metabolic Rate. B. RestingMetabolicRate. C. Physical Activity. D. Thermogenesis.
D 216
Which of the following athletes require the highest amount of protein per kilogram of bodyweight? A. A 20 year old male in a general fitness program. B. A 22 year old female cross country runner. C. A 23 year old college football offensive lineman. D. A 21 year old wrestler on a reduced calorie diet in order to make weight.
D 218 !!!!!!!!
18. Which of the following describes erythropoietin? Secreted by Produces A. Pituitary Gland Red Blood Cells B. PituitaryGland Epinephrine C. Kidneys Epinephrine D. Kidneys Red Blood Cells
D 235
Which of the following is a protein primarily produced in the kidney that stimulates new red blood cells? a) Insulin. b) Stanozolol. c) Epinephrine. d) Erythropoietin.
D 235
Which of the following is NOT part of caffeine's role in improving athletic performance? a. increased power production. b. decreased glycogen depletion. c. increased fat oxidation. d. decreased urine production.
D 245
Which of the following refers to the degree to which a test or test item measures what it is supposed to measure? a) Measurement. b) Reliability. c) Variability. d) Validity.
D 250
The bench press, vertical jump, and 10 m (11-yard) sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions? a. quarterback. b. defensive back. c. wide receiver. d. defensive lineman.
D 253
Which of the following would be the most valid test for measuring a volleyball player's muscular power? a) 1 RM Bench Press. b) 100-m Sprint. c) 1 mile run. d) Vertical Jump.
D 253
When administering a battery of tests to a high school quarterback, which of the following sequences will produce the most reliable results? A. 300 yard shuttle, T-Test, 1RM Bench Press, 1RM Power Clean. B. 1RM Bench Press, 1RM Power Clean, T-Test, 300 yard shuttle. C. 1RM Power Clean, 1 RM Bench Press, 300 yard shuttle, T-Test. D. T-Test, 1RM Power Clean, 1RM Bench Press, 300 yard shuttle.
D 256
22. The clearance of lactate from the blood can occur via all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT? A. Oxidation within the muscle fiber in which it was produced. B. Transported in the blood to other muscle fibers to be oxidized. C. Transported in the blood to the liver where it is turned to glucose. D. Transported in the blood to the pancreas where it is turned to insulin.
D 26 Lactate clearance 1. Oxidation within muscle fiber 2. Transported by blood to other muscles 3. Transported by blood to liver (turned to glucose - Cori Cycle)
You would like to test a freshmen soccer player's aerobic capacity, which of the following activities would be the best measure? a) 100 meter dash. b) 200 meter dash. c) 400 meter dash. d)1600 meter dash.
D 261
56. Which of the following are tests of maximum muscular power? I. Vertical Jump. II. Margaria-Kalamen Test. III.1 RM Back Squat. IV.1 RM Power Clean. A. II, III only. B. I, IV only. C. III, IV only. D. I, II, IV only.
D 264
Which of the following is a measure of high speed strength? A. 1 RM Back Squat. B. T-Test. C. Straight-Line Sprint Test. D. Standing Long Jump.
D 267
Which of the following activities occurs primarily in the transverse plane? A. shooting a basketball. B. setting a volleyball. C. punting a football. D. swinging a bat.
D 27
When administering the partial curl up test, the strength and conditioning professional should set the metronome to how many beats per minute? A. 10. B. 20. C. 30. D. 40.
D 274 Set 2 pieces of tape at fingers (4.7 inches for <45yo, 3.1 inches for >45yo) Do as many as possible up to 75.
A female collegiate soccer player was administered a battery of tests, and here are the results. Height: 5'8" Weight: 137 lbs. 1RM Bench Press: 110 lbs . 1RM Squat: 155 lbs. Vertical Jump: 18 inches. T-Test: 10.6 seconds. V02 Max: 33ml/kg/min. Which of the following needs improvement? A. Muscular Power. B. Upper Body Strength. C. Agility. D. Aerobic Capacity.
D 275 VO2 Max 50% = 37.8
A 16 year old female basketball player had a standing long jump of 66 inches? How would this performance be classified in comparison to other girls her age competing in sports? A. Poor. B. Below Average. C. Average. D. Excellent.
D 279 50% = 57" Excellent = 65 inches Poor = <53 inches
How much work is required to lift a 75 kg barbell, 1.75 m for 6 repetitions? A. 82.75 J. B. 787.5 J. C. 4,410 J. D. 7,717.5 J.
D 28
Which of the following represents the equation for Power? a. Force x Distance. b. Work / Distance. c. Force x Time. d. Work / Time.
D 28
When taking skinfolds of an athlete the midaxilla measurement is represented by which of the following? a) Diagonal fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the nipples. b) Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the nipples. c) Diagonal fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process. d) Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process.
D 288 !!!!!
Using the International System of Units and dividing Joules (J) by Seconds (s), will give us what unit of measurement? A. Newtons. B. Meters. C. Force. D. Watts.
D 29
A 5'10‖ 187 lb. college football defensive back was administered a battery of tests and had the following results. 1RM Bench Press: 265 lbs 1RM Squat: 320 lbs T-Test: 8.6 seconds Standing Long Jump: 65 inches Sit and Reach Test: 21.5 inches 1.5 mile run: 9:59 seconds A. Barbell Bench Press. B. Contract Relax PNF Stretching of his hamstrings. C. Long Slow Distance Training of 5 kilometers. D. Power Clean.
D 296/300 Bench 50% = 280lbs Squat 50% = 365lbs T-Test 50% = 10sec Sit & Reach 50% = 17.5 inches 1.5 mile run 50% = 12:18 Standing Long Jump 50% = 110 inches
A muscle has the greatest capability to generate force when it is at which of the following states of length? A. Stretched. B. Shortened. C. Contracted. D. Resting.
D 32
What type of muscular contraction occurs in the pectoralis major during the slow, controlled, downward phase of a bench press? a. Concentric. b. Isometric. c. Myocentric. d. Eccentric.
D 32
All of the following affect flexibility EXCEPT? a) Age and Sex. b) Joint Structure and Muscle Bulk. c) Age and Activity Level. d) Race and Height.
D 321
When stimulated during PNF stretching, Golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of the. a. stretched muscle by contracting the reciprocal muscle. b. reciprocal muscle by contracting the stretched muscle. c. reciprocal muscle by its own contraction. d. stretched muscle by its own contraction.
D 323
Contracting the hamstrings muscle group while it is passively being stretched stimulates the Golgi Tendon Organ and allows which of the following? a) Relaxation of the hamstrings muscle group by relaxing the hip flexors. b) Relaxation of the hip flexors by contracting the hamstrings. c) Relaxation of the hip flexors by the contraction of the hip flexors. d) Relaxation of the hamstrings by contraction of the hamstrings.
D 325
In order to stretch her hamstring muscle group a college soccer player asks a partner to passively move her hip into flexion, after a 10 s stretch the partner continues to move the leg further into hip flexion while the soccer player resists the movement, after 6 s she relaxes and the partner further moves her leg into hip flexion. This type of stretching is referred to as? a) Static. b) Ballistic. c) Dynamic. d) PNF.
D 325
To compare performance of Olympic weightlifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athlete's a. body weight. b. body weight squared. c. lean body weight. d. body weight to the two-thrids power.
D 33
All of the following are advantages of weight stack machines EXCEPT? a. Safety b. Design flexibility c. Ease of use d. Simulation of real life activities
D 34
64. Which of the following would represent a technique error during the performance of the power clean that would need correcting? I. Grasping the bar with a closed pronated grip. II. Placing the hands on the bar outside of the knees. III. Squatting down with the hips at the level of the shoulders. IV. Positioning the bar over the toes of the feet. A. I, II, III only. B. I, IV only. C. II,IV only. D. III, IV only.
D 372 Squat down with hips LOWER than shoulders Place the bar one inch in front of shins and over balls of feet
A softball player elects to use the vertical (machine) chest press, in order to ensure proper alignment for the exercise the handles should be at the level of what anatomical landmark? a) Clavicle. b) Elbows. c) Belly Button. d) Nipples.
D 375
Which of the following exercise does NOT require concentric activation of the brachialis? a) Hammer curl. b) Lat pulldown. c) Biceps curl. d) Wrist curl.
D 377
Of the following back postures during lifting, which has been found to be the best at avoiding injury? a. Rounded. b. Scoliotic. c. Kyphotic. d. Slightly Arched.
D 38
The normal lumbar spine has what kind of curvature? a. Kyphotic. b. Scoliotic. c. Ventral. d. Lordotic.
D 38 Kyphotic = thoracic spine
Which of the following exercise requires a spotter? a. lat pulldown. b. wrist curl. c. power clean. d. step-up.
D 386
An athlete could benefit from the use of a weight belt during the performance of which of the following sets? A. 10 Reps of the Bench Press with 75% of the 1 RM. B. 4 Reps of the Bench Press with 90% of the 1 RM. C. 10 Reps of the Standing Shoulder Press with 75% of the 1 RM. D. 4 Reps of the Standing Shoulder Press with 90% of the 1 RM.
D 39
46. Which of the following is a technique error during the performance of the barbell upright row? A. Grasp the bar with a closed pronated grip B. Rest the bar on the front of the thighs with the elbows extended C. Pull the bar along the abdomen D. As the bar rises keep the elbows tucked to the sides
D 396
When are instability devices best utilized for core training? A. With trained athletes to maximize movement velocity. B. With trained athletes to maximize force production. C. With trained athletes to maximize rate of force production. D. With trained athletes to rehabilitate from injury.
D 413
Which of the following is an example of an accommodating load? A. Free Weights. B. Chains. C. Resistance Bands. D. A device that controls the speed of movement throughout a range of motion.
D 413
When applying resistance bands to the barbell bench press, where is the highest resistance encountered? A. At the bottom of the pressing movement. B. Slightly before the mid-range of the pressing movement. C. Slightly after the mid-range of the pressing movement. D. At the top of the pressing movement.
D 416
Which of the following relates to kettlebell training as a strength and conditioning tool? I. Kettlebell swings are superior to traditional weightlifting in terms of increasing vertical jump height. II. Kettlebell training increases muscular strength compared to no training. III. Kettlebell swings offer the same level of cardiovascular benefit as treadmill training. IV. Kettlebell goblet squats are inferior to back barbell squats in terms of developing muscular strength. A. I, II only. B. I, II, IV only. C. II, III, IV only. D. II, IV only.
D 419
When observing the ending position of a stability ball rollout, the strength and conditioning professional would need to correct which of the following? A. Knee and toes on the floor. B. Arms parallel to each other. C. Top of ball very close to the face. D. Hips sagging toward the floor.
D 425
Which of the following is a technique error during the first pull of the log clean and press? A. Hip and Knee extension. B. Elbow extension. C. Shoulders over the log. D. Hips rise before the shoulders.
D 430
Which of the following energy substrates cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations? a. creatine phosphate. b. glycogen. c. water. d. ATP.
D 44
Which of the following refers to the number of training sessions completed in a given time period? a) Training volume. b) Training load. c) Training intensity. d) Training frequency.
D 447
A college football offensive lineman has entered the offseason, and will resume his resistance training program after a period of active rest. What is the recommended frequency of resistance training sessions per week during the offseason? a) 1-2. b) 1-3 . c) 3-4 . d) 4-6.
D 448
A high school wrestler is looking to increase his overall strength. What percentage of his 1 RM should he be working with? a) 65. b) 75. c) 80. d) 90.
D 458
A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using three sets of 15 reps per exercise, which of the following rest period lengths will MAXIMIZE her goal? a. 3 minutes. b. 1.5 minutes. c. 45 seconds. d. 30 seconds.
D 465
Which of the following is NOT a phase of the stretch cycle? a. amortization. b. concentric. c. eccentric. d. isometric.
D 474
Athletes weighing over 220 lbs should not perform depth jumps from heights greater than a) 10 inches. b) 6 inches. c) 42 inches. d) 18 inches.
D 481
You are setting up a series of plyometric drills for the women's basketball team, which of the following surfaces is best suited for this type of training? a) Concrete. b) Tile. c) Astro Turf. d) Suspended Wood Floor.
D 482
Which of the following is the primary energy system at work when the body is at rest? a. Phosphagen. b. Slow glycolysis. c. Fast glycolysis. d. Oxidative.
D 51
59. When performing a plyometric sit-up, which of the following describes the starting position? A. Athlete lays flat on the ground holding the medicine ball. B. Athlete lays flat on the ground while their partner is in front of them holding the medicine ball. C. Athlete sits on the ground with the trunk at a 45° angle and holds the medicine ball. D. Athlete sits on the ground with the trunk at a 45° angle while their partner is in front of them holding the medicine ball.
D 519
What does the term impulse refer to? a. the relationship between power and velocity. b. the relationship between acceleration and velocity. c. the relationship between force and velocity. d. the relationship between force and time.
D 524
What stage of sprinting consists of eccentric hip flexion, concentric knee extension and concentric plantar flexion? a) Early flight. b) Mid flight. c) Early support. d) Late support.
D 531
Which of the following has the greatest impact on a wide receiver's maximum velocity during the 40 yard dash? a) Reaction time. b) Leg length. c) Stride length. d) Stride frequency.
D 532
In addition to change of direction ability, agility requires which of the following? A) The ability to change velocity. B) The ability to change mode of travel. C) The ability to decelerate. D) The use of perceptual cognitive ability
D 533
Which of the following pathways/systems has the highest capacity for energy production? a. Phosphagen. b. Slow glycolysis. c. Oxidation of carbohydrates. d. Oxidation of fats and proteins.
D 54/55
65. Which of the following types of aerobic training is characterized by an intensity slightly above race pace? A. Long, slow distance. B. Interval. C. Fartlek. D. Pace/Tempo.
D 567
All of the following aerobic endurance training methods have the correct associated exercise intensity EXCEPT? a) Long, slow distance ~70% of VO2 max. b) Pace/Temp- at the lactate threshold, at or slightly above race pace. c) High Intensity Intervals - greater than VO2 max. d) Interval - ~40% of V02 max.
D 568
A female weightlifter is only able to complete 8 repetitions of a 10 RM set of power cleans. Which of the following factors is the least likely to have contributed to her missed repetitions? a. ATP and Creatine Phosphate. b. Muscle Glycogen. c. Lower pH. d. Fat Stores.
D 57
The longest aerobic endurance training sessions should be performed during which of the following sport seasons? a. postseason. b. preseason. c. in-season. d. off-season.
D 570
Improving weaknesses and maintaining strengths of the athlete typically occur during which sport season? a) Post-Season. b) Off-Season . c) Pre-Season . d) In-Season.
D 571
A sprinter is spending the next 3 weeks after his competitive season to rest physically and mentally by performing swimming and light resistance training, what period of his training is he likely in? a) Preparatory period. b) First transition period. c) Competition period. d) Second transition period.
D 590
Which of the following shoulder movements and planes of action are associated with a tennis backhand? a. Adduction/frontal. b. Abduction/frontal. c. Adduction/transverse . d. Abduction/transverse.
D 6
A college soccer player is taking part in an interval training session using 1:1 work to rest ratios at 25% maximal power. She runs for 4 minutes then rests for 4 minutes. This type of training primarily stresses what system? A. Phosphagen. B. Fast Glycolysis. C. Fast Glycolysis and Oxidative. D. Oxidative.
D 60
A female cross country runner is rehabbing her left knee and is now in the remodeling phase of tissue healing. Which of the following is not a goal or strategy during this stage of her rehabilitation? a) Optimization of her tissue function. b) Sport specific exercise. c) Joint angle specific strengthening. d) Prevent new tissue disruption.
D 614
During the remodeling phase of biceps tendinitis rehabilitation, what exercise repetition range is most appropriate for improving endurance of the biceps muscle? a) 3-5. b) 6-8. c) 8-12. d) 12-20.
D 618
What is the order of the four phases involved in designing a new strength and conditioning facility? a. construction, predesgin, design, preoperation. b. preoperation, design, construction, predesign. c. predesign, construction, design. d. predesign, design, construction, preoperation.
D 624
Which of the following is NOT a key consideration when determining the space requirements of a college strength and conditioning facility? a. accessibility for the athletes. b. amount and type of equipment. c. number of athletes using the facility. d. number of athletic teams desiring to use the facility.
D 626
Benches should be spaced so that there is a minimum of how many inches between barbell ends? a) 18 inches. b) 24 inches. c) 30 inches. d) 36 inches.
D 631
The main goal of a strength and conditioning program is to a) Improve strength and power. b) Improve quickness and agility. c) Improve flexibility. d) Improve athletic performance.
D 642
Proper documentation is essential to the strength and conditioning facility. Which of the following is NOT part of the records that should be kept on file in the strength and conditioning facility? a. manufacturer's user's manual. b. participant training logs. c. written emergency plan. d. medical health history.
D 648
An 18 year old college running back scrapes his shin while performing deadlifts and begins to bleed. Which of the following is the IMMEDIATE responsibility of the facility supervisor? A. Call 911. B. Contact the Strength and Conditioning Director. C. Wash and apply a triple antibiotic ointment to the injured area. D. Compress the injured area to stop the bleeding.
D 655
Which of the following glands secretes Growth Hormone? A. Liver. B. Pancreas. C. Thyroid. D. Pituitary.
D 67
Which of the following hormones is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland? A. Testosterone. B. Epinephrine. C. Calcitonin. D. Luteinizing Hormone.
D 67 Epinephrine from Adrenal Medulla Calcitonin from Thyroid gland
After a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following information to the body EXCEPT a. amount of physiological stress. b. metabolic demands of exercise. c. type of physiological stress. d. energy expended.
D 72
Which of the following represents a physiological role of Growth Hormone? A. Increases glucose utilization. B. Increases glycogen synthesis. C. Decreases retention of sodium. D. Increases retention of potassium.
D 78 Decreases blood sugar utilization Decreases glycogen synthesis Increases amino acid transport into cells and protein synthesis Increases fat breakdown and utilization Increases collagen synthesis and cartilage growth Increases retention of nitrogen, sodium, potassium, and phosphorus Increases kidney flow and filtration Enhances immune function
Catecholamines act as all of the following EXCEPT? A. Central motor stimulators. B. Peripheral vascular dilators. C. Enhanced enzyme systems. D. Vasoconstrictors.
D 84
Which of the following variables would promote the greatest increased serum testosterone levels? A. Small muscle exercises (bicep curls, calf raises). B. Light resistance (50-60% of 1 RM). C. One set of each exercise. D. Short rest intervals (30 sec to 1 min).
D 85
Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of. I. increased agonist muscle recruitment. II. muscle hypertrophy. III. improved firing rate. IV. greater synchronization. a. all of the above. b. I and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. I, III, and IV only.
D 88
3. A 19 year old college basketball player began a resistance training program 12 weeks ago and continues to see gains in his strength. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for his continued gains? A. Neural Adaptations B. Improved Exercise Technique C. Conversion of Muscle Fiber Type D. Increased Muscle Fiber Area
D 93 Neural adaptation 6-10 weeks Hypertrophy Over 10 weeks
The process of muscle hypertrophy involves which of the following? I. Increase in synthesis of actin II. Increase in synthesis of myosin III. Increase in number of capillaries IV. Increase in number of myofibrils A. I, II only B. I, III, IV only C. II,IIIonly D. I, II, IV only"
D 93 -Increase in production of contractile proteins (actin & myosin) -Increase in myofibrils within muscle fiber -Capillary density decreases
Which of the following cells are responsible for new bone formation? a. Chronoblasts. b. Osteoclasts. c. Chronoclasts. d. Osteoblasts.
D 97
In which of the following athletes might you expect limited bone mineral density (BMD) levels as a consequence of the force vectors and the physical demands associated with the given sport? a. a 16-year-old gymnast with a seven-year training history in her sport. b. 23-year-old offensive lineman who has lifted weights for eight years. c. a 33-year-old track cyclist who has a 1RM squat of 352 pounds. d. a 19-year-old 800 m freestyle swimmer with one year of dryland training.
D 99
Anthropomorphic responses to aerobic overtraining
Decrease in body fat
Cardiovascular responses to aerobic overtraining
Decrease in: - maximal O2 uptake - maximal HR - HR variability Increase in - submaxmal exercise HR Alterations in - resting HR
Which of the following occurs as a result of heavy resistance training?
Decreased Mitochondrial Density Decreased Stored ATP
Female strength and power output
Decreased strength and power compared to men; more LE strength than UE, women have less muscle mass in UE
Endocrine responses to aerobic overtraining
Decreased: - pituitary secretion of GH - total testosterone concentration - ratio of total testosterone to cortisol - ratio of free testosterone to cortisol - ratio of total testosterone to sex hormone-binding globulin - sympathetic tone - noctural and resting catecholamines Alterations in - cortisol concentration Increase in: - sympathetic stress response
Fascia
Delicate "cobwebby" tissue
Multipennate
Deltoid
Pre competition food
Depends on athlete! 3-4 hours prior is common, no new food, something pt likes and can tolerate
Three Energy System Contribution
Depends primarily on intensity of muscular activity and secondarily duration, at no time during rest or exercise does just one energy system provide the complete supply of energy
Procedures
Describe how policies are met or carried out
Growth cartilage in children is located at all of the following except the?
Diaphysis
Which of the following does not normally increase during an aerobic exercise session?
Diastolic Blood Pressure
Force Production of a Muscle
Dictated by the number of crossbridges that are formed between actin and myosin
Essential AA supplement
EAA supplement prior to PRE has greater effects, but increases treating effects when taken post workout
EMG Anaerobic
EMG shows bilateral deficit, shows co-contractionl increases in EMG activation, early neural adaptations, cross-education as a result of anaerobic training
Catecholamines
EPINEPHRINE increase force production increase metabolic enzyme activity increase muscle contraction rate Increase blood pressure Increase energy availability Increase muscle blood flow Augment secretion rates of other hormones, such as testosterone Heavy resistance training has been shown to increase the ability of an athlete to secrete greater amounts of epinephrine during maximal exercise
Interval Training
Emphasizes bioenergetic adaptations for a more efficient energy transfer within metabolic pathways by using predetermined intervals of exercise and rest periods Much more training can be accomplished at higher intensities
Exergonic Reactions
Energy releasing reactions that are generally catabolic
Muscle Tissue
Epimysium (outer layer) Perimysium (surrounding group of fibers/fascicules) Endomysium (surrounding individual fibers)
EPOC
Excess Postexercise Oxygen Conxumption Oxygen uptake above resting values used to restore the body to preexercise condtion (oxygen debt)
What is metabolic acidosis?
Exercise-induced decrease in pH.
Cortisol
Exerts its major catabolic effects by Stimulating conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates increasing proteolytic enzymes inhibiting protein synthesis suppressing many glucose dependent processes Greater effect on type 2 fibers
Breathing
Exhale through the sticking point, inhale during less stressful phase of rep
Mnemonic for LEVERS
F1 = (1st class) fulcrum in the middle L2 = (2nd class) load is in the middle E3 = (3rd class) effort/applied force is in the middle
Type 2x
Fast Glycolytic Fibers Largest in diameter Generate most powerful contractions White muscle fiber Few blood capillaries/mitochondria Generate ATP through Glycolysis Fatigue quickly Intense anaerobic movements of short duration
Type 2a
Fast Oxidative-Glycolytic Fibers Intermediate in diameter Red muscle fiber Generate ATP by cellular respiration and anaerobic glycolysis Moderate resistance to fatigue
production of lactic acid results from the activation of which energy system?
Fast glycolysis
During interval training at 75-90% of maximum power, what is the primary energy system used, the typical exercise time, and the proper work to rest ratio?
Fast glycolysis 15-30s 1:3-1:5
Following prolonged periods of detraining in elite strength/power athletes, which of the following physical characteristics will likely show the largest reduction as a consequence of the removal of an anaerobic training stimulus?
Fast-twitch fiber cross-sectional area
Fast vs. Slow Glycolysis
Fast: speed = 100* faster, net 2 ATP Slow: slow = 1* faster, 38 ATP
Warm-Up
Faster muscle contraction and relaxation on both agonist and antagonist muscles Improvements in rate of force development and reaction time Improvements in muscle strength and power Lowered viscous resistance in muscles Increased blood flow to active muscles Enhanced metabolic reactions An increased psychological preparedness for performance
Steroid Hormone
Fat soluble, passively diffuse across cell membrane
The Sutures of the skull are an example of what type of joint?
Fibrous
Design Phase
Finalize Committee Create Blueprint Plan around "flow" of facility
A lever in which the muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum is referred to as?
First Class
Construction Phase
Follow Master Plan Check Construction Process Arrange Equipment
When to Stretch
Following practice/competition Increased muscle temperature -> ROM improvements May also decrease muscle soreness Or separate session following a warm up
What is the definition of power?
Force x velocity Work / Time
First Step of New Facility
Forming a committee of professionals
Motor Recruitment
Frequency can increase and force summation until tetanus is reached, recruits more motor units
Filaments
Function in the contractile process Thick and thin filaments 2 thin for every 1 thick
Dynamic Stretch
Functionally based stretching exercise that uses sport-specific movements to prepare the body for activity
GAS
General Adaptation Syndrome Alarm Resistance Fatigue
Radiate
Gluteus medius
What metabolic energy stores increase in response to aerobic endurance training?
Glycogen ATP Creatine Phosphate Triglycerides
Sarcoplasm (muscle cytoplasm)
Glycogen, myoglobin, mitochondrion
Mechanical Advantage
Greater than 1.0 = less muscle force than resistive force to produce equal amount of torque Less than 1.0 = greater muscle force needed than the amount of resistive force, creating disadvantage for the muscle
Describe HAZIM
H = h-zone: only myosin present (middle space between i-bands) A = A-band: entire length of myosin filament (actin+myosin overlap) Z = z-line: termination of sarcomere, actin anchors I = i-band: are where only actin is present (space where only actin; between z-line & myosin) M = m-line: anchor for myosin
ETC
H+ are passed down to form a proton concentration gradient to provide energy for ATP production
Methods used to measure psychological arousal
HR BP EEG EMG Catecholamine levels Self report instruments
Acute CV responses to aerobic ex
HR, SV, CO, BP increase during resistance training, muscular contractions greater than 20% of max voluntary contraction impeded blood flow during, but increase during rest
What are the paramaeters of RESISTANCE exercises that will produce the greatest effect on EPOC?
Heavy resistance exercise, ex 3 sets, 8 exercises to exhaustion, 80-90% of 1RM
When selecting a test for use all of the following should be taken into account except?
Height of the Athlete
Increase Plyometric intensity
Height, Speed, single leg, complex drill
IGF
Help most with contractile/structural protein synthesis
Cortisol with Resistance Training
High volume, large muscle group exercises, and short rest intervals result in increased serum cortisol values. Chronic high concentrations of cortisol have adverse catabolic effects, but acute increases still contribute to the remodeling of muscle tissue and maintenance of blood glucose
Uniaxial
Hinge, rotate around one axis (elbow)
Preoperation Phase
Hire Staff Assign Duties Create Cleaning Schedule Create Plan for Operations
Name the essential amino acids
Histidine Isoleucine Leucine Methionine Phenylalanine Threonine Tryptophan Valine Lysine
Lock and Key
Hormonal action with cell receptors Bonded hormones cannot bond with cell receptors Allosteric chemicals enhance the effect of that hormone
Heavy Resistance Hormone Increases
Hormones are secreted before, during, and after resistance exercise due to the physiological stress of resistance exercise As few as one/two heavy resistance exercise sessions can increase the number of androgen receptors in the muscle
A 17 year-old high school cross-country runner has been training aerobically for 6 months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscles during that time?
Hypertrophy in type 1 fibers
What type of muscle fibers are able to change type?
IIx
What is the continuum of muscle fibers from least oxidative to most oxidative
IIx, IIax, IIa, IIac, IIc, Ic, I
GTO
In tendon, inhibits muscle to prevent injury
Downregulation
Inability of a hormone to interact with a receptor adaptations through alterations of binding sites and number of receptors
Excitation-Contraction Coupling
Increase in Ca2+ concentration in the muscle starts contraction Decrease in Ca2+ stops it Action Potentials causes Ca2+ to be released from the SR into the muscle cell Muscle cell membrane pumps Ca2+ back into SR Myosin binding sites are covered and the muscle relaxes
What is the most significant change in cardiovascular function with long term aerobic endurance training?
Increase in maximal cardiac output
Upregulation
Increase of receptors occur much more than increasing the amount of anabolic hormone
Long term hematologic adjustments to altitude
Increased RBC production Increased blood viscosity Increased hematocrit Decreased plasma volume
Biochemical responses to aerobic overtraining
Increased: - creatine kinase Decrease in: - lactate - muscle glycogen
Discovery (type of instruction provided to athlete)
Instructions on the overarching goal of the task with little direction on how to complete the task
Hormonal Considerations
Insulin, thyroid hormones, beta-endorphin have been implicated in growth, repair, pain analgesia, and exercise stress mechanisms
"Fluid Ball"
Intra-abdominal pressure aids in supporting the vertebral column during resistance training
ATP Production
Inverse relationship between energy systems maxium rate of ATP and total duration of ATP it is capable of producing over time
Control of Oxidative System
Isocitrate dehydrogenase is simulated by ADP and inhibited by ATP Rate of Krebs cycle is reduced if NAD and FAD are not available to accept hydrogen ETC is stimulated by ADP and inhibited by ATP
During a free weight exercise , muscle force varies with which of the following?
Joint angle and movement velocity squared
Joints
Junctions of bones
plyo most commonly used for
LE
Cori Cycle
Lactate can be transported in the blood to the liver to be repackaged as a substate to be glucose
Cori Cycle
Lactate is shuttled to the liver and converted to glucose
Testosterone
Large muscle group exercises using an adequate volume of total work result in acute increased total testosterone concentrations in men Large muscle group exercises Heavy resistance (80-95% of 1 rm) 6 sets of 10 reps at 80% 1 rm Moderate to high volume of exercises Short rest intervals (30-60 seconds) Two years or more of resistance training experience Women have 15-20 fold lower concentrations of circulating testosterone than men do
Control of Phosphagen System
Law of Mass Action concentrations of reactants of products in solution will drive the direction of reactions Concentration of ATP is high = no further reaction, too low = further reaction
Which of the following protein sources does not contain all essential amino acids in appreciable quantities?
Lentils
Environmental factors
Lights 50-100 lumens 68-78 degrees with 60% relative humidity Mirrors must be 6 inches from any equipment and minimum of 20 inches above the floor
Fat Oxidation
Lipase breaks down adipose tissue into triglycerides which release free-fatty acids into the blood, where they can circulate and enter muscle fibers FFA's enter mitochondria, broken down/form acetyl-CoA and Hydrogen protons Acetyl CoA into Krebs Cycle Hydrogen to electron transport chain
Sliding Filament Resting Phase
Little CA2+ present in myofibril so few myosin cross-bridges are bound to actin
Glucose Stores
Liver & Muscles Blood glucose 80mmol (after waking) <60 hypoglycemic >100 hyperglycemic
Golgi Tendon Organ
Located in myotendinous junction Detect tension and activate inhibitory interneuron to synapse and inhibit motor neuron in the same muscle
Pull Up Example
Lose of force production at top due to actin and myosin overlap, lose of force production at bottom due to actin myosin stretch
Female athlete triad
Low bone density Amenorrhea Eating disorder
Maximal Contraction of Myofibril
Low force potential due to reduced crossbridge-actin alignment
What is the equation for MAP?
MAP= [(SBP-DBP)/3] DBP
Polypeptide Hormone
Made of chains of amino acids Ex. Growth hormone and insulin Cannot diffuse across the membrane, partially because so large Binds with external receptor and a secondary messenger is activated that can enter the cell nucleus
Psychological effects of Testosterone supplementation
Mania Depression Aggression Hostility Mood swings
Lactate Threshold
Marker of anaerobic threshold around 50%-60% of maximal oxygen uptake in untrained and 70%-80% in trained Exercise intensity at which the blood lactate level begins to increase above the baseline concentration
Which of the following is one of the most commonly measured adaptations to aerobic endurance training?
Maximum oxygen uptake
Muscles with precision
May have as few as one muscle fiber per motor nueron
Muscles that require less precision
May have several hundred fibers served by one motor neuron
Flexibility
Measure of ROM, has static and dynamic components Joint Structure Age & Sex Muscle & Connective Tissue Stretch Tolerance Neural Control Resistance Training Muscle Bulk Activity Level
Which of the following should be evaluated first when one is designing a training program for a 68 year old competitive female tennis player?
Medical history
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
Membranous sacs around each myofibril Stores Calcium ions (Ca2+) Release of Ca2+ triggers muscle contraction
How many grams of hemoglobin are in 100mL of blood for men and for women?
Men = 15-16g Women = 14g
What is the recommended daily allowance of fiber for men and for women?
Men = 28-30g/day Women = 21-29g/day
Staff to athlete ratio
Middle school 1:10 High school: 1:15 College 1:20
Lever Arms
Moment & Force arms Whichever has the furthest distance from the fulcrum will have the advantage
Patella Advantage
Moment arm is longer with patella by increasing the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps muscle group, keeping the quadriceps tendon's distance from the knee's axis of rotation
Somatic anxiety
Moment to moment changes in perceived physiological arousal with symptoms such as muscle tension, tachycardia and upset stomach
Cognitive anxiety
Moment to moment changes in worries and negative thoughts
Which of the following performance or physiological characteristics is not usually observed in a state of nonfunctional overreaching within athlete populations?
Mood disturbances and depression
Creatine Phosphate
Most stores are located in muscle cells, some in circulation, body manufactures CP stores 1 molecule CP for 1 molecule ATP 80-90% after 90 seconds rest, 2-5 minutes to replenish CP stores, 8 minutes to replenish fully
Motor Unit
Motor Neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates Typically several hundred muscle fibers in a single motor unit
Motor Units Composed of
Muscle fibers with specific morphological and physiological characteristics that determine their functional capacity
First-Class Lever
Muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum ex. Tricep extension (No mechanical advantage)
Second-Class Lever
Muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, muscle force having a longer moment arm than resistive force. ex. Plantarflexion, wheelbarrow (Mechanical Advantage)
Third-Class Lever
Muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, muscle force having a shorter moment arm than resistive force. ex. Biceps curl (Mechanical advantage less than 1.0 making muscle work harder)
Stretch Reflex
Muscle spindles are stimulated during rapid stretch movement which will limit motion
All of the following tests would have good predictive validity for a potential soccer player EXCEPT
Muscular Strength of Arms
What is the difference between NFOR and OTS?
NFOR - stagnation or decrease in performance due to intensification of a training stimulus without adequate recovery OTS - prolonged maladaptation of several biological, neurochemical and hormonal regulation mechanisms, decrease in performance
Trainability of children
NOT mini adults; absolute strength gains are less trainable; detraining occurs quickly; hypertrophy more significant in pubescent boys; preadolescents have more potential for increase in strength gain due to neural factors
Lactate
NOT the cause of fatigue Formation of lactate from pyruvate is catalyzed by the enzyme lactate dehyrogenase
Respiratory Pathway
Nasal cavities -> trachea -> bronchi -> bronchioles -> alveoli
Predesign Phase
Needs Analysis Master Plan Feasibility Study Hire Architect
How does hypertrophy at the fiber level?
Net accreditation (increase in synthesis/decrease in degradation) of actin and myosin within the myofibrial and an increase in the number of myofibrils within the muscle fiber. increase in the number of myofibrils results in the enlargement of the muscle fibers
Biomechanical Factors of Human Strength
Neural Control Muscle Cross-Sectional Area Arrangement of Muscle Fibers Muscle Length Joint Angle Muscle Contraction Velocity Joint Angular Velocity Strength-to-Mass Ration Body Size
What is the most significant factor that contributes to ACL injury in females?
Neuromuscular deficiency which leads to abnormal biomechanics
OBLA
Onset Blood Lactate Accumulation Where the line spikes up on the graph, 2nd increase in the rate of lactate accumulation 4 mmol/L
Biaxial
Operate in two perpendicular planes (ankle/wrist)
Most Skeletal Muscles
Opperate at a considerable mechanical disadvantage During physical activity, forces in the muscles and tendons are much higher than those exerted by the hands or feet on external objects or the ground
Improve Force Production
Optimize neural recruitment through training with heavier loads Hypertrophy Perform multijoint/muscle exercises with explosive action to optimize fast-twitch muscle recruitment
Staff policies and activities
Orientation meeting annual plan budget staff facility use staff workout times relationships with athletes/staff staff professional goals posted messages/signs touring S&C facility approved exercises, techniques, spotting, safety equip testing procedures and schedule workout sheet records and awards
The condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 sd below the young adult mean is called?
Osteoporosis
which energy system is predominantly active at the initiation of all exercise?
Oxidative
Low intensity long duration
Oxidative glycolysis
Partial pressures of oxygen and CO2 during exercise
Oxygen = 3mmHg CO2 = 90mmHg
High Power and high intensity
PCr
Short, high intensity activity
PCr and fast (anaerobic) glycolysis
Used to replenish ATP
PCr and myokinase/adenylate kinase reaction
which enzyme catalyzes the rate limiting step of glycolysis?
PFK - Phosphofructokinase
PNF (Contract-Relax)
Passive prestretch (10 seconds) Concentric muscle action through full ROM Passive Stretch (30 Seconds)
Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (Hold-Relax)
Passive prestretch (10 seconds) Isometric Hold (6 seconds) Passive Stretch (30 seconds) Most effective due to autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition
Warm-Up Structure
Period of aerobic exercise Stretching Period of activity similar to the upcoming activity (10-20 minutes)
During interval training at 90-100% of maximum power, what is the primary energy system used, the typical exercise time, and the proper work to rest ratio?
Phosphagen system 5-10s 1:12-1:20
Energy Systems
Phosphagen system Glycolysis Oxidative system
Oxidative System
Primary source of ATP at rest and low intensities Uses carbohydrates and fats as substrates
Informed Consent
Process by which a procedure or activity is described to a participant, with explanation of inherent risks and benefits invovled, allowing participant to determine if her or she desires to participate
Work
Product of force exerted on an object and the distance the object moves in the direction the force is exerted (work=forcexdisplacement)
Protein Oxidation
Protein not a significant source of energy for most activities Protein broken down into amino acids which are converted into glucose, pyruvate to produce ATP
Phosphagen System
Provides ATP for short-term, high intensity activities, and is active for the beginning of all exercise regardless of intensity Creatine Kinase catalyzes the synthesis of ATP from (Creatine Phosphate) CP and ADP
Krebs Cycle
Pyruvate enters mitochondria, converted to Acetyl-CoA Acetyl-CoA enters Krebs Cycle NADH molecules enter electron transport chain to be used to resynthesis ATP Glucose +2Pi + 2ADP + 2 NAD -> 2 pyruvate + 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H2O
Krebs Cycle
Pyruvate sent to mitochondria with 2NADH; pyruvate converted to acetyl-CoA, which goes into Krebs cycle; NADH enters ETC
End result of Glycolysis
Pyruvate to either lactate (fast glycolysis, ATP resynthesized faster but limited duration) or to mitochondria (slow glycolysis, undergo Kreb's cycle)
RAMP Protocol
Raise (Elevate body temperature, heart rate, respiration rate, circulation, joint fluid viscosity via low-intensity activities that simulate the movement patterns of upcoming activity) Activate & Mobilize (Actively move through a ROM) Potentiate (Perform sport-specific activities that progress in intensity until intensity meets that of training/competition)
Glycogen depletion
Rate of glycogen depletion is related to exercise intensity Repletion appears to be optimal with 0.7 - 3.0 g of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight is ingested every 2 hours following exercise
Bipennate
Rectus Femoris
Longitudinal
Rectus abdominis
What characterizes Bulimia Nervosa?
Recurrent consumption of food in amounts significantly greater than would customarily be consumed in a discrete period of time FOLLOWED by purging in the form of
Muscle Fibers vary in their content of myoglobin
Red muscle fibers have HIGH myoglobin content White muscle fibers have LOW myoglobin content
Following a period of chronic high-intensity resistance training, a variety of physiological adaptations take place in a number of systems within the body that promote improved athletic performance in strength/power activities. If an elite athlete were to undergo 12 weeks of heavy strength training, which of the following adaptations would not be expected consequent to this type of anaerobic exercise?
Reduced sarcoplasmic reticulum and t-tubule density
Troponin & Tropomyosin
Regulating proteins that cover binding sites
Muscle Action Potential
Release acetylcholine Activation of ACh receptors Production of muscle action potential Termination of ACh activity (rapidly broken down by AChE)
Which of the following refers to the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test?
Reliability
Endergonic Reaction
Require energy and include anabolic processes and the contraction of muscle
Elbow Flexion Angles
Resistive moment arm changes horizontal distance from weight to elbow through range, majority of muscles are strongest at 90 degrees
Resting and maximal cardiac output in highly trained elite subjects
Resting = 94 L/min Maximal = 187 L/min
Sliding-Filament phases
Resting Phase Excitation-contraction coupling phase Contraction phase Recharge phase Relaxation phase -70 resting, -55 threshold
Endomorphic
Rounder and broader hips
"Hitting the Wall"
Running out of glycogen stores, blood glucose goes to vital organs instead of muscles
What node is the hearts electrical impulse initiated from?
SA node
Cardiac Conduction System
SA node -> internal pathways -> AV node -> AV bundle -> L and R bundle branches -> Purkinje fibers
Sliding Filament Excitation-Contraction Phase
SR releases CA2+, binds to troponin, causing shift in tropomyosin; force production is directly related to # of cross bridges formed
acute CV adaptations to aerobic
SV increases at onset; increased venous return-> increased end diastolic volume-> more forceful contraction (Frank Starling Mechanism); HR increases linearly with intensity; O2 uptake related to mass of muscle, met efficiency and ex intensity; SBP increases with exercise; change is distribution of blood flow
A vertical jump involves knee, hip, and shoulder movement primarily in which plane?
Sagittal
Punting a football requires flexion of the hip that occurs in which plane of motion?
Sagittal
Define these part practice types: Segmentation Fractionalization Simplification
Segmentation - subcomponents are performed with breaks in between Fractionalization - subcomponents are performed simultaneously Simplification - adjusts difficulty of tasks such as execution speed or equipment used
Mission Statement
Short and sharply focused Clear and easy to understand Defines why the organization exists Does not prescribe means Broad in scope Provides direction for upholding code of ethics Addresses and matches the organization's scope of practice Inspires commitment
Phosphagen system
Short term, high intensity, active at onset of activity, relies on hydrolysis of ATP and breakdown of PCr
Appendicular Skeleton
Shoulder Girdle; bones of arms, wrists, hands, and pelvic girdle; bones of legs, ankles, and feet
What type of situations most intrigue an athlete motivated to achieve success?
Situations that are uncertain or challenging with about 50% probability of success, opportunity to assess ones abilities
What is the gold standard for determining biological maturation?
Skeletal age assessment
You are about to perform a sequence of tests on a male basketball player, the tests are vertical jump, skinfold measurements, 1RM back squat, and T-Test, what is the proper sequence?
Skinfold, Vertical, T-Test, 1 RM back squat
Axial Skeleton
Skull, Vertebral Column, Ribs and Sternum
Of the following back postures during lifting, which has been found to be the best at avoiding injury?
Slightly Arched
Type 1
Slow Oxidative fibers Smallest in diameter Least powerful Red muscle fiber Generate ATP by aerobic cellular respiration High Resistant to fatigue Posture, endurance-type activities
Most common ions lost in sweat
Sodium Chloride Potassium Magnesium Calcium
Proprioceptors
Specialized sensory receptors that provide the central nervous system with information needed to maintain muscle tone and perform complex coordinated movements
Control of Glycolysis
Stimulated by high concentrations of ADP,P, and ammonia, and by decrease in pH and AMP Inhibited by lower ATP, CP, citrate, and free fatty acids Phosphofructokinase (PFK)
Stress, Distress and Eustress
Stress - imbalance between demand and response capability Distress - negative stress Eustress - positive stress
Running Speed
Stride Length and Stride Frequency
The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the ?
Stroke Volume
Net ATP yield of glycolysis
Substrate-level phosphorylation: 4 Blood glucose: 2 Muscle glycogen: 3
What are the two distinct types of Over training Syndrome and what characterizes the two of them (not NFOR vs FOR)
Sympathetic overtraining syndrome - increased sympathetic activity at rest Parasympathetic overtraining syndrome - increased parasympathetic activity at rest and with exercise
Amine Hormone
Synthesized from amino acid Tyrosine (ex. epinephrine, dopamine) or tryptophin (serotonin) Bind to membranes via secondary messengers Positive feedback (ex. childbirth) Majority of systems in body are negative feedback
T/F: high fat diets can improve aerobic endurance in trained athletes
TRUE
T/F: lactic acid is not the end result of glycolysis
TRUE: lactic acid can't exist at physiological pH, result is anion lactate and H+; lactate is not cause of muscle fatigue
What is the primary androgen that interacts with skeletal muscle?
Testosterone
Primary anabolic hormones
Testosterone, GH, IGFs, insulin, TH
Catabolism
The breakdown of large molecules into smaller molecules, associated with the release of energy
Strength
The capacity to exert force at any given speed
Acceleration
The change in velocity per unit of time (F=MxA)
Bioenergetics
The flow of energy in a biological system The conversion of macronutrients into biologically usable forms of energy
Biomechanics
The mechanisms through which components interact to create movement
Sarcolemma
The plasma membrane of a cell
What is the significance of the testosterone/cortisol ratio and what are the acute effects of training on this ratio?
The ratio decreases in relation to the intensity and the duration of exercise Indicates the physiological strain of training (cannot be used for diagnostic purposes)
Anabolism
The synthesis of larger molecules from smaller molecules Can be accomplished using the energy released from catabolic reactions
Unipennate
Tibialis posterior
SAFETY AND FUNCTION
Top priorities when one is deciding placement of equipment
Rotational Work
Torque x Angular displacement
Metabolism
Total of all catabolic or exergonic and anabolic or endergonic reactions in a biological system
Describe the overtraining continuum
Training over load -> Acute fatigue (days) -> functional overreaching (FOR) (days to weeks) -> nonfunctional overreaching (NFOR) (weeks to months) -> Overtraining syndrome (OTS) (months or more)
When passing a basketball, which muscles act as the agonist and antagonist?
Triceps, Biceps
T/F: Type II muscle produces more lactate that Type I
True
Stimulated Motor Unit
Twitch Twitch Summation Tetanus of motor unit
When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time, which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment?
Type 1
Muscle Fiber types
Type 1 (slow twitch) Type 2a (fast twitch) Type 2x (fast-twitch)
Hypertrophy muscle type
Type 2
Muscle types in order of power
Type IIb > Type IIx > Type IIa > Type I
Aerobic/Oxidative Glycolysis
Uses carb and fat as substrate; yields 38 ATP, 39 if use muscle glycogen
The Fick Equation
VO2 = Q X A-VO2 DIFF Q = CO A-VO2 diff = oxygen extraction
Which of the following refers to the degree to which a test of test item measures what it's supposed to mean?
Validity
Muscle Spindles
When a muscle is stretched the muscle spindle activates the sensory neuron, sends an impulse to the spinal cord, synapses with motor neuron causing muscle to contract
When does drive theory of arousal work well and when does it not
When people learn basic skills it may be good to have more arousal, when people learn complex skills more arousal can be detrimental
Negative Work
Work performed on, rather than by, a muscle Occurs during eccentric muscle actions
Power
Work/Time
In which of the following athletes might you expect limited bone mineral density levels as a consequence of the force vectors and the physical demands associated with the given sport?
a 33-year-old track cyclist, 1 rm of 352 pounds
Trait anxiety
a personality variable or disposition relating to the probability that one will perceive an environment as threatening
Gains in maximal strength and power of agonist muscles are due to what neruological adaptations?
a. increase in recruitment b. increased rate of firing c. greater synchronization of neural discharge d. a combination of these factors
What is the sequence of protein synthesis?
a. water uptake b. non-contractile protein synthesis c. contractile protein synthesis
Muscles of expiration
abdominals, internal intercostals
discriminant validity
ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs and is evidenced by a low correlation between the results of the test and those of tests of a different construct
construct validity
ability of a test to represent underlying construct
Strength
ability to exert force
Central adaptations to anaerobic training
ability to increase motor unit activation beings in motor cortex; substantial changes occur in spinal cord; untrained have limited ability to maximally recruit motor units
Selective attention
ability to inhibit awareness of some stimuli in order to process others
How long does altitude acclimatization take?
about 3-6 weeks
Ideal performance
absence of fear no analysis of performance narrow focus of attention on activity itself sense of effortlessness sense of personal control distortion of time and space
Sliding Filament Theory
actin filaments at each end of sarcomere slide inward on myosin, pulling Z-lines toward center of sarcomere, thus shortening muscle fiber. Everything shrink BUT A-band
State anxiety
actual experience of apprehension and uncontrolled arousal effects on athletic performance can be positive, negative, or null
Nadir effect
acute anabolic stimulus from dietary protein, resistance ex, or both would be matched by a negative muscle protein balance equal in magnitude during the night
Pretest
administered at beginning of training to determine initial basic ability level; allows tailoring of the program to initial training level and program objectives
posttest
administered at the end of the training period to determine success of training program in achieving objective
midtest
administered one or more times during training period to assess progress and modify program to max benefit
What is combination training?
aerobic training plus anaerobic training
positive reinforcement
aids focus on task-relevant cues
Adenylate kinase rxn
aka myokinase rxn, single enzyme rxn that rapidly replenishes ATP
forced repetitions
aka partner-assisted reps spotter assists with some or all reps
General adaptation syndrome phases
alarm resistance exhaustion
spotting over the face ex
alternated grip inside athletes; spot DB as close to DB as possible
External influences on cardiopulm system
altitude, hyperoxic breathing, smoking, blood doping
Which of the following performance-enhancing substances is most likely to increase lean body mass?
anabolic steroids
sodium bicarbonate
antacid; increases blood pH, drawing out H+ from muscle during high intensity anaerobic exercise; at dose needed for benefit uncomfortable GI side effects
face validity
appearance to measure what its supposed to measure
Inverted U theory
arousal facilitates performance up to an optimal level, beyond which further increases in arousal are associated with reduced performance
Inverted U theory
arousal facilitates performance up to an optimal level, beyond which further increases in arousal are detrimental to performance
Arranging equipment in facility
arrange by body part or by equipment type (i.e. DB, machines, etc)
Drive theory
as an individuals arousal or state anxiety increases, so does performance
plyo intensity
as intensity increases, volume should decrease
Sliding Filament Recharging Phase
as long as Ca2+ is available in myofibril and ATP is available for uncoupling, process continues and muscle contraction occurs
content validity
assessment by experts that the testing covers all relevant subtopics or component abilities in appropriate proportions
overload
assign a workout or training regiment of greater intensity than the athlete is used to
pace/tempo training
at lactate threshold or slightly above race pace, 20-30 min, 1-2x/week; develops sense of race pace and enhances body systems ability to sustain exercise at that pace
circuit training area
at least 24", preferably 36" apart; 36" safety space cushion if free weight station is used
What is the cardiac output in L/min at rest and during maximal exercise?
at rest = 5L/min During exercise it can be up to 20-22 L/min
outcome goals
athlete has little control; i.e. winning championships, team outcome
Catastrophe theory
athlete may suffer severe and catastrophic decline rather than a gradual decline in performance
Repetitive part training
athlete participates the first part in isolation, then each subsequent part is added until the whole task is reintegrated
Bracketing technique
athlete performs sport movement with less than normal and greater than normal resistance, form of acceleration training
Pure part training
athlete practices each subcomponent independenly then the whole skill in its entirety
Progressive part training
athlete practices each subcomponent independenly, then the first two parts together, then the third part separately before putting them all together
Dosing
athletes typically stack steroids with other drugs to increase potency; usually cycle on and off; as dose increases, lean body mass increases
Autogenic training
attention state that focuses on the warmth and heaviness of a particular limb or muscle group
Mental-psychological efficiency
attentional allocation or shift in allocation to process only the cues and cognitive activity that relate to the athletic performance
what occurs when GTO is activated during stretch
autogenic inhibition
What is the definition (in words) of mean arterial pressure?
average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle
How much fluid loss due to sweat should be avoided?
avoid losing more than 2% of body weight due to sweat loss
Resistance training for bis
barbell bicep curl, hammer curl
Testing conditions should...
be as similar as possible test to test
max mm strength (low speed strength) testing
bench, back squat 1RM
Resistance training for abs
bend knee sit up, crunch
Resistance training for back
bent over row, lat pulldown, seated row, low pulley row
Ephedrine
beta agonist; increases fat oxidation and spares muscle glycogen, only effective with caffeine; may cause n/v, psychiatric sx
What is the concentration of blood lactate that defines OBLA?
blood lacate exceeds 4 mmol
Agility technical considerations
body position visual focus leg action braking mechanisms
Osteopenia
bone mineral density between -1 and -2.5 standard deviations below young adult mean
Which of the following dietary supplements are considered stimulants
caffeine, citrus aurantium
Product liability
can be named as codefendants if product has been changed from original condition and if produced was used as intended by manufacturer
Aerobic endurance Detraining
can be reduced by cross-training, but not completely if primary mode of exercise isn't used
Aerobic Programs for optimizing adaptations
can improve athletes aerobic power by 5-30% depending on initial fitness; most adaptations can be achieved in 6-12 months
sodium citrate
can increase blood pH without GI side effects
The primary macronutrient that is addressed in the precompetition meal is
carbohydrate
Flooring for facility
carpet or rubberized surface; wood for olympic platform
Supervision location for facility
centrally located, larger than average windows all around
Detraining
cessation of anaerobic training or reduction in frequency, volume, intensity or any combo that results in decrements in performance and loss of some physiological adaptations of resistance training; aerobic gains are more sensitive to periods of inactivity due to enzymatic basis
What type of skills are better learned with part practice?
challenging tasks with low inter-relatedness of the subcomponents eg. snatch - first pull, transition, second pull, catch
psychological effects of anabolic steroids
changes in aggression, arousal, irritability (increases may be beneficial to self esteem and performance), mood swings, psychotic episodes; dissipate after ceasing use
What characterizes Anorexia Nervosa
charecterized by distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat
Beta adrenergic agonist
chemically related to epi, regulates lipolysis and thermogenesis; findings have indicated ergogenic potential for strength improvements
Krebs cycle
citric acid cycle, series of reactions that continues the oxidation of the substrate initiated in glycolysis and produces ATP indirectly from guanine triphosphate via substate level phosphorylation for each molecule of glucose
interval training
close to VO2max, 3-5 min with 1:1 work:rest; 1-2x/week increase VO2max and anaerobic metabolism
3 stages of motor learning
cognitive associative automaticity
plyo considerations for older adults
comorbs!; no more than 5 low to mod intensity ex; lower volume; more recovery
sports in season
competition period all contests and tournaments
agonist contraction
concentric muscle action of the agonist
When is it better to provide concurrent feedback? When is it better to provide delayed feedback? Why?
concurrent feedback is better in a competition setting, delayed feedback that is initially frequent and decreases with time will facilitate learning of complex movement patterns
Feasibility study
conducted to determine cost, facility location, programs of interest and projected usage
Program design considerations for children
consider quality of instruction and rate of progression; kids should have emotional maturity to follow directions and should be eager to try activity
Recommended carbohydrate intake for aerobic atheletes post exercise
consume 1.5g of high glycemic carbohydrates per kg bw 30 mins post exercise
Recommended daily carbohydrate intake for aerobic athletes post exercise
consume 1.5g of high glycemic carbohydrates per kg bw 30 mins post exercise
Cortisol
converts AA to carb, increases level of proteolytic enzymes, inhibits protein synthesis; greater catabolic effect on TII fibers due to more protein, more involved with control of degradation in TI; testosterone and insulin combat effects of cortisol
Resistance training for forearms
curl and ext
Hormonal markers of anaerobic overtraining
decrease resting concentration of testosterone and IGF but increases acute testosterone response; volume related increases cortisol and free testosterone; intensity related doesn't alter resting concentrations
Physiological roles of GH
decrease:glucose utilization, synthesis Increase: AA transport, protein synthesis, utilization of FA, lyposis, availability of glucose and AA, collagen synthesis, stimulates cartilage growth, retention of nitrogen, sodium, potassium and phosphorus, renal plasma flow and filtration, immune cell function
Age related changes
decreased muscle and bone mass with age; lose power faster than strength
Which of the following is not part of caffeine's role in improving athletic performance?
decreased urine production
discrete skills
definite start and finish
reliability
degree of consistency or repeatability of a test
variability
degree of dispersion of scores within a group; range, SD
validity
degree to which a test measures what its supposed to measure
What occurs during the QRS complex of an ECG?
depolarization of the atrium and ventricle
QRS Complex
depolarization of ventricles resulting in ventricular contraction
Most intense plyometric
depth jump
motive to achieve success
desire to achieve success and intrigued by challenging or uncertain situations
motive to avoid failure
desire to protect ego and self-esteem
motive to avoid failure
desire to protect one's ego and self-esteem
Statistic eval of test data
determine change in performance, look at the group as a whole, compare athlete to the group; compare athlete to local, state, national or international norms; more trained=less change
# of spotters needed
determined by load, experience and ability of spotters/athlete and spotters strength
Off season (base training) aerobic training
develop sound conditioning base, 5-6x per week, long duration, low to mod intensity
long term planning
developmental stars is dominant consideration; tactical and strategic qualities are focus of later stages
Where does bone formation occur in growing bone?
diaphysis
split routine
different mm groups trained on different days
Individual Zones of optimal functioning theory
different people, in different types of performances perform best with very different levels of arousal, the optimal level of arousal is situation dependent
What is pica?
disorder characterized by consuming non-nutrititive substances
inferential stats
draw conclusions about a population based on sample; assumes sample is true representation of population
Other facility considerations
drinking fountain; restrooms; emergency phones; signage for policies/procedures; bulletin board, storage room
partitioning agents
drugs with specific effects on body composition
Negative work
eccentric movements
Type 1 Muscle Fiber
efficient, fatigue resistant, high capacity for aerobic energy supply, limited potential for rapid force development, low actomyosin myofibrillar ATPase activity, low anaerobic poser
mechanical model of plyo
elastic energy in musculotendinous component increases with rapid stretch and stored in SEC; if concentric action doesn't immediately follow the stretch, stored energy dissipates as lost heat
Acute anabolic hormone response to anaerobic training
elevated testosterone, GH and cortisol for up to 30 minutes also increased concentrations of catecholamines
Acute anabolic hormonal responses to anaerobic tx
elevated testosterone, GH, cortisol for 10-30 min post ex in men, magnitude of elevate is greatest with large muscle mass ex, mod-high intensity and volume, short rest; high correlation btw blood lactate and GH concentrations
Program considerations for women
emphasis on development of UE strength; increased risk of ACL injury in females
Stretch shortening cycle
employs energy storage of SEC and stimulation of stretch reflex to facilitate a max increase in mm recruitment over a min about of time; eccentric --> transition/amortization--> concentric
Allosteric inhibition
end product binds to the regulatory enzyme and decreases turnover rate and slows product formation
Creatine supplementation improves all of the following variables except
endurance performance
Sliding Filament Contraction Phase
energy for cross bridge formation comes from hydrolysis of ATP to ADP+Pi; another ATP must attach to myosin head for it to detach from actin and recock
Creatine Kinase
enzyme that catalyses the synthesis of ATP from ADP + PCr
Female athletes body size and comp
estrogen in girls increases fat deposition and great development, girls have shorter grown period; low body fat has detrimental effects in women; women have broader hips than shoulders
needs analysis consists of what?
evaluation of sport assessment of athlete -training status -physical testing and eval -primary resistance training goal
convergent validity
evidenced by high positive correlation between results of the test being assessed and the gold standard
exercise selection considerations
ex type (core and assistance, structural and power) moment analysis of sport (sport specific, muscle balance) exercise technique experience available equipment available time
What is selective recruitment?
exception to the size principle, CNS adaptation by well trained athletes to inhibit low threshold motor units and recruit higher threshold motor units first in order to express power at high speed
Primary method of developing speed and agility
execution of sound movement technique in a specific task
circuit training
exercises performed with little or no rest, improves CV endurance
Cross education
exercising muscle undergoing unilateral resistance training produces increased strength and neural activity in the contralateral resting muscle
breathing considerations
exhale through sticking point, inhales through less stressful phase
Action for ineligible person
explain why they can't use facility and ask to leave; if refuse contact security
Cue utilization
explains effect of stress or increased levels of physiological arousal on an attentional processing of information; high level of arousal has narrow attention base and vice versa
criterion referenced validity
extent to which test scores are associated with some other measure of the same ability
concurrent validity
extent to which test scores are associated with those of other accepted tests that measure same ability
predictive validity
extent to which the test score corresponds with future behavior or performance
Muscles of inspiration
external intercostals, SCM, serratus anterior, scalenes
extrovert vs introvert
extroverts are sensory reducers, introverts are sensory augmenters
Insulin
facilitates uptake of blood glucose and AA into cells; increases protein synthesis and is a peptide hormone, so not detected in urine; hypoglycemia risk
steps in management of eating disorders
fact finding confronting referring follow up
T/F: you should always spot power exercises
false
During a 30s-2min event, what is the primary energy system used?
fast glycolysis
During a 2-3 min event, what is the primary energy system used?
fast glycolysis and oxidative
During interval training at 30-75% of maximum power, what is the primary energy system used, the typical exercise time, and the proper work to rest ratio?
fast glycolysis and oxidative 1-3 minutes 1:3-1:4
Pyruvate --> Lactate
faster ATP resynthesis, but limited; anaerobic glycolysis
Short term agility planning
fatigue management and task specificity are driving forces of short range planning of speed and agility development
Resistance training for chest
flat bench, incline bench, flat DB fly, incline DB fly, OH press
plyo considerations for teens
focus on quality; high intensity can close epiphyseal plates early; min 2-3 days between; emotional maturity
What types of athletes is autogenic training good for?
for injured athletes who find it uncomfortable or impractical to perform progressive muscle relaxation techniques
work (J or Nm)=
force (N) x distance (m)
Bilateral deficit
force produced with both limbs contracting together is less than the sum of the forces produced unilaterally
Work
force x displacement
Exercise Progression
frequency, intensity or duration should not increase by more than 10% each week
Growth Hormones
from anterior pituitary, enhances cellular amino acid uptake and protein synthesis in skeletal muscle
citrus aurantium
from bitter orange; may contribute to appetite suppression and increased metabolic rate and lipolysis
Human chorionic gonadotropin
from placenta; similar to LH; in men stimulates testosterone production
P wave
generated by atrial depolarization and results in atrial contraction
Individual factors influencing adaptations to aerobic training
genetics, age, sex, overtraining, CV responses, biochemical responses, endocrine responses
anthropometric testing
girth measurements
Prep period: basic strength phase
goal is to increase strength of muscles essential to primary sport movements
competition period
goal is to peak strength and power through increases in intensity and decrease in volume generally only peaks athlete for 1-3 weeks; if season is longer goal is to maintain strength, power and performance
Long term goals
goals that overreach the series of short term goals
Process goals
goals that the athlete has control over, focus on actions the individual must engage in to perform well
Outcomes goals
goals that the athlete has little control over, contingent on the efforts of the individual but also the efforts of external factors
repetition training
greater than VO2max, 30-90sec w/1:5 work:rest, 1x/week improved running speed, enhanced running economy, increase capacity for and tolerance of anaerobic metabolism; good for final push of race
Location considerations for facility
ground floor w/service entrance or w/stable floor and sound absorption
Electric considerations for facility
grounded circuits for cardio and other equipment; need GFCIs
5 point body contact position
head, shoulders and upper back, butt, R and L foot all in contact with bench or floor
Arousal
heightened mental state characterized by positive thoughts and a strong sense of control
post ex food
high GI food replaces glycogen faster than low GI; immediate CHO consumption not necessary as long as ingesting throughout the day
Glycolysis stimulated by:
high concentration of ADP, Pi, ammonia, and slight increase in pH and AMP
Sequence of tests
high skill before fatiguing tests non fatiguing->agility->max power/strength->sprint test->mm endurance-> fatiguing aerobic capacity->aerobic capacity
pre period: strength/power phase
higher loads, less volume, more sport-specific
Mirrors in facility
higher than 20" to prevent breakage
How the mind affects physical performance
highly aroused or anxious state may enhance performance by increase neural traffic, but also may hinder performance due to excessive tension or a lack of inhibition and relaxation in antagonistic muscles
The primary movement during the second phase of the power clean exercise is
hip extension
Resistance training for hip and thigh
hip sled, back squat, front squad, lunge, step up, good morning, DL, RDL, leg ext, leg curl
types of performance enhancing substances
hormones and drugs that mimic hormonal effects; dietary supplements
Steroid hormone
hormones from adrenal cortex and gonads; fat soluble and passively diffuse across sarcolemma and then interact with cytosol and binds with regulatory element on DNA
systematic desensitization (SD)
hybrid of cognitive and somatic techniques that allows an athlete to replace a fear response to various cues with a relaxation response
Muscular adaptations to anaerobic tx
hypertrophy, increased in myofibrils, TII has more potential for hypertrophy, transformation within subtypes to become more oxidative is normal; increased myofibrillar volume, cytoplasm density, SF and t-tubule density and Na-K ATPase activity; reduced mitochondrial density
Variables of HIIT training
i) Intensity of the duty cycles ii) Duration of duty cycles iii) Intensity of recovery of duty cycles iv) Duration of recovery of duty cycles v) Number of cycles in each set vi) Number of sets vii) Rest in between sets viii) Recovery intensity between sets Mode of exercise
Adaptations produced by HIIT
i) Stimulates large motor units ii) oxidative muscle fiber adaptation iii) myocardial hypertrophy iv) Increase in Vo2 max Adaptations similar to LSD training but more quickly
2 for 2 rule
if athlete can perform 2 or more reps over the goal for 2 consecutive sessions, up the wt
anabolic steroids and athletic performance
if using normal physiological dose, no affect; suprapharmacological dose yielded results; strength gains can be 2-3x those of athletes not using; affects testosterone/cortisol ration which maintains a higher intensity and volume of training and enhances recovery
Growth Hormone
important for normal development of child Vital role in adapting to the stress of resistance training Several types of GH, different responses in body
Preseason aerobic training
improve factors important to aerobic endurance performance, 6-7x/week, mod to long duration with mod to high intensity
An 8 year old dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six month resistance training program, which of the following is most likely responsible for his gains?
improved neuromuscular functioning
Benefits of ex in older adults
improves bone mass, increase power production (ADLs), increased energy balance
Maintaining adequate glycogen stores
improves maximum power
Caffeine use
in aerobic athletes may increase fat oxidation, slow glycogen depletion, delay fatigue; may cause anxiety, GI upset, restlessness, insomnia, tremors, arrhythmias, addiction
Muscle Spindle
in intrafusal fibers, provide information on muscle length and rate of change in length, indicate the degree to which muscle must contract to overcome resistance, facilitates muscle
Facility scheduling
in season team is priority try to schedule constant flow through day
Role of catecholamines (epi)
increase force production, metabolic enzyme activity, muscle contraction rate, BP, available energy blood flow, augment secretion rates of other hormones
What is the acute cardiovascular response to anaerobic exercise
increase in CO, SV, HR, O2 uptake, SBP and blood flow to active muscles
Respiratory response to aerobic ex
increase in O2 delivery to tissue, minute ventilation increases due to increase depth, frequency or both
EPO
increase in RBC improves capacity to transmit O2; increased viscosity of the blood due to increased hematocrit can be fatal
What is the most significant cardiovascular adaptation in response to aerobic endurance training?
increase in maximal CO
Neural adaptations to anaerobic training
increase in neural drive due to increases in agonist muscle recruitment, firing rate, and timing and pattern of discharge and to decreases in inhibitory mechanisms (GTO)
anabolic steroids and mm mass and strength
increase in protein synthesis even if not doing PRE, increase in lean mass and decrease in fat mass can persist several months after cessation
GH response to stress
increase in response to breath holding, hyperventilation and hypoxia
Hormone receptor changes in response to anaerobic training
increase in the number of receptors per area on the target tissue
Chronic CV response to aerobic ex
increased CO, SV, capillarization; decreased RHR, increased max CO, L ventricular hypertrophy
Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of?
increased agonist muscle recruitment, muscle hypertrophy, greater synchronization
HGH
increased availability and use; no studies of efficacy in athletic populations; may cause acromegaly
CT adaptations to anaerobic
increased bone density (Wolfe's law), tendons/ligaments/fascia increase strength and load bearing capacity proportionally to intensity, increased strength at bone-tendon junction, within body of tendon/ligament, in network of fascia within skeletal muscle
Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following?
increased maximal oxygen uptake, decreased blood lactate concentration, increased running economy
which of the following best explains the need for increased protein intake by athletes?
increased need for tissue repair
After 6-12 months of aerobic training, changes in aerobic endurance performance are due to what?
increased running economy and increased lactate threshold
What is an indirect hormonal marker of motor unit activation and metabolic demand?
increased testosterone
Ventilatory response to anaerobic
increased tidal volume, increased breathing frequency
Creatine supplementation
increases creatine content in muscles by 20%, but can become saturated; may enhance quality of individual workouts, resulting in better performance; increases FFM
Motor Unit adaptations to anaerobic
increases in recruitment, firing rate, synchronization of firing, or a combination
negative reinforcement
increases probability of occurrence of a given behavior by removing an act, object or event that is typically aversive
positive reinforcement
increasing probability of occurrence of a given behavior by following it with an action, object, or event such as praise, decals on helmet, prize, awards, etc
Type II Muscle Fiber
inefficient, fatiguable, low aerobic power, rapid force development, high actomyosin myofibrillar ATPase activity, high anaerobic power
Intrinsic vs augmented feedback
intrinsic feedback is provided by athletes own senses and augmented feedback is provided by an outside observer
neurophsy model of plyo
involves potentiation of concentric muscle action by use of stretch reflex
Self controlled practice
involves the athlete in creating the practice structure including when to receive feedback and which skill to practice
The following in most likely to contribute to fatigue and poor performance
iron deficiency
How does an athletes optimal level of arousal change with limited skill an ability to perform the activity?
it decreases
Which of the following is the best reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use?
it may cause an unregulated increase in red blood cell production
LE plyo
jumps in place standing jumps multiple hops and jumps bounds box drills depth jumps
Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and soccer appear to be ar increased risk for developing injuries to the
knee
Knowledge of performance vs knowledge of results
knowledge of results is information about the execution of the task goal in comparison to normative information knowledge of performance is information about the athletes movement pattern
Overtraining Markers
lack of sleep, etc
equipment and facility considerations for plyo
landing surface training area equipment supervision footwear depth jumping
4 ways of ordering ex
large mm/multijoint -> small mm/single jt alternate UE and LE Alternate push and pull SS and compound sets
fluid replacement during activity
large volumes of cool water
Nonlinear/undulating training
large, daily fluctuations in load and volume for core exercises
sports Preseason
late prep period and first transition leads up to first contest
What percentage of total calories should come from saturated fats?
less than 10%
Branched Chain Amino Acids (BCAA)
leucine, isoleucine and valine
First class lever
lever for which muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum
First class lever, definition and example
lever for which the muscle force and restive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum ex. triceps extension
Components of mechanical load that stimulate bone growth
load (intensity) rate (speed) of loading direction of forces volume of loading (reps)
structural exercises
load and stress placed on vertebral column
Classical formula
load lifted divided by body weight to the 2/3 power, accounting for the relationship of cross-sectional area vs volume
avg wt lifted per rep
load volume / rep volume
Preparatory period
longest, no competition focus is base level of conditioning to increase tolerance for more intense training low intensity, high volume
Sarcopenia
loss of muscle mass and strength associated with age
Risk of Injury from resistance training is
low compared to that with other sport and physical conditioning activities
Glycolysis inhibited by:
low pH, ATP, CP, citrate, FFA
Resistance training for tris
lying tri ext, tri pushdown
Periodization cycles
macro--> meso--> micro
polypeptide hormone
made of amino acids; can bind to receptors in blood or receptors located in cell membrane of target tissue; 3 major signaling pathways: cAMP, JAK/STT, prototypical GF mitogen activated
cross training
maintain general fitness, reduce overuse injuries, but will not improve single-event performance like mode-specific training
In season (competition) aerobic training
maintenance, 5-6x/week, short duration low intensity for training; race distance and high intensity for racing
Assistant Strength and conditioning professional
many same responsibilities as head, but only directly responsible for a number of teams
Force =
mass x acceleration
factors affecting aerobic endurance
max aerobic power exercise economy lactate threshold
Local mm endurance testing
max chin ups, dips, Test protocol: push ups, partial curl up, YMCA bench
Most athletes eat to:
maximize performance and optimal body comp
Cross training
may enhance recovery due to aerobic mechanisms of recovery, but aerobic endurance may reduce anaerobic performance capabilities
Combining anaerobic and aerobic training
may interfere with strength and power gains primarily if high intensity, volume and frequency aerobic training; result of resistance training on VO2 unclear currently
resistance training for aerobic ex
may not improve VO2max but faster recovery from injuries, prevents overuse injuries, reduce muscle imbalances
Beta blockers
may reduce anxiety and tremors during performance; may reduce performance by impairing CV response to evercise
Sport psychology
measure psychological phenomena relationship between psych variables and performance apply theoretical knowledge to improve performance
adequate water intake
men 3.7L women 2.7L
Fiber recommendations
men 38g/day women 25g/day
tertiary method of developing speed and agility
mobility strength speed-endurance
Overtraining psychological factors
mood disturbances, decreased vigor, motivation, confidence; increased tension, depression, anger, fatigue, confusion, anxiety, irritability, impaired concentration
Neuromuscular response to aerobic
more efficient locomotion with lower energy expenditure; increased aerobic capacity, TIIx fibers -> TIIa fibers to decrease fatigue with aerobic training, increase in size and number of mitochondria, increased myoglobin content in muscles
Muscle force is greater when:
more motor units are involved, motor units are greater in size, faster rate of firing
Inertia
more resistance early in ROM, less at the end of ROM
Neuromuscular adaptations to anaerobic training
morphological changes at NM junction are conducive to enhanced neural transmission, may have enhanced reflex respose
Random practice
multiple skills are practiced in a random order during a given session eg. depth jump, split squat, side to side push off
Third class lever
muscle force and resistive force act on the same side as the fulcrum with the muscle force acting through a shorter moment arm than that through which the resistive force acts. Mechanical advantage is less than 1
Second class lever
muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of fulcrum with the muscle force acting through a moment arm longer than that through which the resistive force acts
Primary type of adaptation that takes place during the first >10 weeks of a training program
muscle hypertrophy
avoid activating what during stretching?
muscle spindle
Mesomorphic
muscular and broad shoulders
speed and agility sessions
need to balance fitness and fatigue responses; enzymes for ATP resynthesis and pyruvate-lactate interconversion are key determinants of sprinting speed; ATP won't deplete more that 40-60%, but PCr can be gone in a few seconds
Primary type of adaptation that takes place during the first 6-10 weeks of a training program
neural adaptations
continuous skill
no identifiable start or finish
beta alanine supplement
nonessential AA; estimated to contribute up to 40% muscle buffering capacity during anaerobic exercise; found in fast twitch
open agility
nonprogrammed, unpredictable or unstable environments
Overtraining
not good; rate of progression may be too high
speed endurance sessions
not limited to submax work during offseason; glycolytic activity can exceed mitochondrial capacity; ensure adequate rest times or mm mechanical properties and energetic efficiency will be depressed
Plyo + resistance
not recommended to do heavy lifting and high intensity plyo on same day, but some athletes may benefit
goal of aerobic tapering
objective is to attain peak performance at time of competition
Facility supervisor
observes activités within facility and cleans and maintains equipment
Allosteric activation
occurs when an "activator" binds with the enzyme and increases its turnover rate
Sliding Filament Relaxation Phase
occurs when nerve stops firing, Ca2+ pumped back into SR, preventing link between actin and myosin
Program design considerations for older adults
offset age related losses and help maintain active, high quality lifestyle; consider comorbs, nutrition, ex progression; longer recovery; start with lower intensity
first transition period
one week of lower intensity, volume or both
How does athlete skill level influence the optimal level of arousal required for competition?
optimal arousal is higher for advanced athletes and lower for less skilled advanced athletes
vitamins
organic substances that can't be synthesized by the body; specific metabolic function
During a >3min event, what is the primary energy system used?
oxidative
During interval training at 20-30% of maximum power, what is the primary energy system used, the typical exercise time, and the proper work to rest ratio?
oxidative >3minutes 1:1-1:3
What does the MET measure?
oxygen used per kilogram of body weight per minute
Access to and supervision of facility
participation requirement for student athlete must be full or part time student athletes, PE students, coaching staff, sports med staff, alumni athletes, groups approved by director
contract relax
passive stretch, concentric through full ROM against resistance, passive stretch
hold relax
passive stretch, iso contraction, passive stretch
hold relax with agonist contract
passive stretch, iso contraction, passive stretch with concentric action
Traffic flow should be around...
perimeter; be at least 36" across and unobstructed
Trait anxiety
personality characteristic which represents a latent disposition to perceive situations as threatening acts as a primer for state anxiety
Glycolysis Limiting Factor
ph from build up of hydrogen ions accumulating in muscle cells
During a 0-6 second event, what is the primary energy system used?
phosphagen
During a 6-30 second event, what is the primary energy system used?
phosphagen and fast glycololysis
Motor learning guideline
physical practice best; 10 year rule for mastery (10,000 hours); feedback needed; part practice for complex but low organization task; whole practice for low complex but high organization task
Overreaching
planned phase of training program, excessive training on a short term basis with recovery achieved within a few rest days
plyo + aerobic
plyo first to prevent decreased power production from fatigue
Types of self talk
positive negative instructional
Equipment placement
power exercises away from windows, mirrors, exits tallest machines against walls BB and DB min of 36" between bar ends bolt equipment to floor as needed all equipment 6" from mirrors
Affect of concurrent high intensity resistance and aerobic endurance training on power development
power is negatively effected
Strength and Conditioning Director (Head S&C Professional)
practitioner and administrator
Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
preoccupation with food
Sports off season
preparatory phase period between postseason and ~6 weeks prior to first contest
warm up goals
prepare athlete for exercise or competition; increase muscle and core temp, up blood flow
positive punishment
presentation of an act, object or even following a behavior that could decrease the behavior's occurrence
Oxidative system
primary source of ATP at rest and during low intensity ex
closed agility
programmed assignments and predictable or stable environments
Testosterone
promotes GH response in pituitary, influences protein synthesis, increases peripheral blood concentrations following high intensity aerobic and resistance ex more men than women
handgrip types
pronated, supinated, natural, alternated, hook
Macronutrients
protein (1-1.7 g per kg bodyweight) , carbohydrate, fat
Mission statement
provides focus, direction and sense of purpose
Guided discovery
provides the athlete with instructions about the overall movement goal without explicit instructions on how to complete the task
Weight stack machines
pulleys, cams, cables and gears provide increased control over direction and pattern of resistance
preexhaustion
purposely fatiguing a large muscle group as a result of performing a single jt ex before multi jt ex
Resistance training for power exercises
push press, push jerk, power clean/hang clean, snatch
Pyruvate --> mitochondria for Krebs cycle
rate of ATP resysnthesis is slower, but longer duration --> aerobic glycolysis
What is ventilatory equivalent?
ratio of minute ventilation to oxygen uptake
Post season (active rest) aerobic training
recovery from competitive season, 3-5x/week, short duration, low intensity but enough activity to maintain sufficient level of fitness
core exercise
recruit one or more large muscle areas
What is the size principle?
recruitment or derecruitment of motor units in ascending order according to their recruitment thresholds and firing rates
Accumulation of H+
reduces pH, inhibits glycolytic reactions, directly interferes with muscles excitation-contraction coupling, and inhibits enzymatic turnover rate of cells energy system
Strength to Mass ratio
reflects ability to accelerate the body; as body size increases, mass increases more rapidly than strength
achievement motivation
relates to athletes' wish to engage in competition or social comparison
cognitive anxiety
relates to psychological processes and worrisome thoughts
somatic anxiety
relates to such physical symptoms as tense muscles, tachycardia, butterflies
negative punishment
removal of something valued to decrease the behaviors occurrence
fluid replacement after activity
replace each lb lost with 1 pt water
Which of the following is a recommendation for lowering undesirable high levels of blood lipids?
replace saturated fatty acids with monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids
rep volumne
reps x sets
Which of the following makes the greatest contribution to total energy expenditure?
resting metabolic rate
What is form drag?
results from the way in which a fluid presses against the front or rear of an object passing through it
Explicit instructions
rules for effectively executing the task are given
Advantage of weight stack
safety, design flexibility, ease of use
Resistance training for calves
seated or standing calf raise
sports post season
second transition
IGF
secreted by liver after GH stimulation; takes 8-29 hours to produce after GH stimulation
self confidence vs self efficacy
self confidence is the belief that one can successfully perform a desired behavior, more of a meta confidence self efficacy the perception of ones ability to perform a specific task in a given situation, self efficacy is more task specific
medium term planning
sequenced training, basic objective to exploit complementary training effects at optimal times and minimize compatibility problems associated with concurrent training; 4 week period optimal biologic window for integrating responses over the intermediate term
Short term goals
short term goals are generally those that are directly related to training or competition also increase likelihood of success because the are close to athletes skill level
successive approximation
short term goals that progressively increase in difficulty
Olympic lifting area
should accommodate 3-4 people, 3-4' perimeter walkways; secure to platform; bars 36" between ends
spotting overhead exercises OR those with bar on shoulders
should be at least as strong and at least as tall as athlete lifting
Maintenance and cleaning equipment
should be locked in cabinet or closet; supposed to be inventoried and stocked 2x per week
Resistance training for shoulder
shoulder press, seated shoulder press, upright row, lats
Lactate Threshold
shown that an athlete's lactate threshold appears to be a better indicator of their aerobic endurance performance than v02max
reps x set for power
single effort: 1-2 rep, 3-5set multiple effort 3-5rep, 3-5 set
flexibility testing
sit and reach test; must be able to hold
What type of situations most intrigue an athlete motivated to avoid failure?
situations where it is very easy to achieve success or so difficult that success would not be expected (avoiding shame)
drive theory
skill level task complexity
body comp testing
skin fold measure
Ectomorophic
slender and tall
Chronic CV adaptions at rest to anaerobic
small reductions in RHR, resting BP; heaving resistance training does little to enhance cardiac function; increased heart wall thickness in response to lifting
Catastrophe theory
somatic arousal has a curvilinear, inverted-U relationship to athletic performance, whereas cognitive anxiety shows a steady negative relationship to performance
progressive muscle relaxation
somatopsychic technique by which psychological and physical arousal are self-regulated through the control of skeletal muscle tension
What should adults consume for fluids during training in hot weather?
sport drink with 20-30mEq sodium, 2-5mEq potassium and 5-10% carbohyrdate
Test selection considerations
sport specific more similar the test to sport movement the better technique intensive test good for elite, not beginner consider age and gender environment factors
secondary method of developing speed and agility
sprint resistance sprint assistance
stretching during w/u
static stretching yields no preventative benefit; dynamic is preferred method
Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step-up exercise?
step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot.
State anxiety
subjective experience of apprehension and uncertainty accompanied by elevated autonomic and voluntary neural outflow and increased endocrine activity
creatine
substrate for ATP by rephsophorylating ADP during short-duration high intensity exercise; as PCr stores deplete, ability to perform high intensity exercise declines
descriptive stats
summarizes or describes a large group of data
Selective attention
suppression of task-irrelevant stimuli and thoughts
Anabolic steroids
synthetic derivative of testosterone; stimulate protein synthesis
Agility testing
t-test, hexagon test, pro agility
General agility
target one or more basic coordinative ability
what type of skills are better learned with whole practice?
task with subcomponents that are highly related eg. lunge
Pretaining eval of athlete for plyo
technique strength speed balance physical characteristics
Progressive muscle relaxation
technique by which psychological and physical arousal are self regulated through the control of skeletal muscle tension
Prep athletes
tell them ahead of time; familiarize athlete with procedures; pre-test w/u
field test
test used to assess ability that is performed away from a lab and doesn't require extensive training or expensive equipment
counterconditioning
the adaptive, learned replacement process, principle behind SD
Positive punishment
the addition of something negative following a behavior as a way of decreasing the probably of a behavior occurring eg. being made to run sprints
Positive reinforcement
the addition of something positive following a behavior as a way of increasing the probably of a behavior occurring ie. prizes
motive to achieve success
the capacity to experience pride in one's accomplishments, desire to challenge oneself
Bilateral deficit
the force produced when both limbs contract together is lower than the sum of the forces they produce when contracting unilaterally
What is a moment arm?
the perpendicular distance from the line of action of force to the fulcrum
Negative reinforcement
the removal of something negative following a behavior as a way of increasing the probably of a behavior occurring ie. no sprints b/c of great hustle at practice
Negative punishment
the removal of something positive as a way of decreasing the probably of a behavior occurring eg. removal of playing time
Minimal essential strain
the threshold stimulus that initiates new bone formation
Reversal theory
the way in which arousal and anxiety affect performance depends on the individuals interpretation of that arousal, one may interpret high arousal as beneficial excitement and others may interpret high arousal as unpleasant
process goals
those that the athlete has control over
UE plyo
throws plyo push up
Angular work=
torque x angular displacement
What is the definition of power?
torque x time work / time
specificity
train in a manner to produce a specific adaptation train for the sport/physical requirements
training frequency considerations
training status sport season training load and ex type other training
T/F: 1RM tables are to be used as a guide
true
t/f: spotting an exercise using DB requires more skill
true
Special skills
unity coordination in a skill specific manner
cultural tendency
values about which data tend to cluster; mean median mode
Variable practice
variations of the same skill within a single practice session eg. depth jump to varying heights
Fartlek training
varies between LSD and pace training intensities; 20-60min 1x/week
T wave
ventricular repolarization
Micronutrients
vitamins, minerals,
Prep period: hypertrophy/endurance phase
weeks 1-6 increase LBM and develop endurance base for more intense training
Environmental factors for facility
well lit; windows above 20" to prevent breaking from rolling equipment; 72-78 degrees; 60% or less humidity; music below 90 decibels
supercompensation
when mm tissue adapts by making various biochemical, structural and mechanical adjustments that lead to increased performance
Weight belts worn
when trying a near max to max load, stress on lower back
Advantage of free weights
whole body training, more functional
Whole vs part practice
whole practice addresses the entire skill, part practice separates the skill into a series of sub components
power (W) =
work x time (s)
Power
work/time
