VET 1338 Surg. MT

Dehydration is life threatening above ___%: A) 15% B) 7% C) 9% D) 10%

*A) 15%

What information is included in the patient's signalment? A) Age, Gender, Breed B) "Proceed With Caution" Signals (E.G., "Will Bite") C) Previous Surgeries D) All Of The Above E) None Of The Above

*A) Age, Gender, Breed

In a dog pancreatic problems can be indicated by 3X the elevation of: A) Amylase and lipase B) Creatinine C) Calcium D) BUN

*A) Amylase and lipase

The effectiveness of a surgical scrub of the hands and arms with a bactericidal soap depends on the A) Combination of contact time and scrubbing action B) Time the soap is in contact with the skin C) Scrubbing action of the brush D) Temperature of the water

*A) Combination of contact time and scrubbing action

Which is a cause of a increased plasma protein: A) Dehydration B) Starvation C) Diarrhea D) Malabsorption syndrome E) Two of the above

*A) Dehydration

Pick out the INCORRECT statement. A) Elevated BUN is specific for urinary obstruction. B) The main source of Creatinine is muscle cell. C) Decreased BUN can indicate malnutrition, portal caval shunt or chronic liver disease. D) Normal BUN in the dog is approximately 9 - 29 MG% E) A decreased BUN can be caused by any malabsorption syndrome.

*A) Elevated BUN is specific for urinary obstruction.

A patient with jaundiced or icteric mucous membranes would be expected to have A) Elevation in the bilirubin test B) Elevation in amylase enzymes C) Low levels of glucose D) Elevated BUN and creatinine

*A) Elevation in the bilirubin test

A patient described with tachypnea and dyspnea is A) Having difficulty breathing and respirations are rapid B) Slowly breathing deeply C) Panting D) Rapid shallow respirations

*A) Having difficulty breathing and respirations are rapid

An elevated ALT (SGPT) indicates damage to: A) Liver B) Kidney C) Bone D) Muscle E) Two of the above

*A) Liver

Elevated AST (SGOT) indicates damage to: A) Liver & muscle B) Kidney C) Pancreas D) Bone

*A) Liver & muscle

Autoclave sterilization requires A) Loosely packing the chamber to allow penetration of steam through all surfaces B) Loosely wrapping in a single layer to allow penetration of water C) Double wrapping items in plastic peel pouches with glutaraldehyde D) Steam exposure of double wrapped, labeled packs to 5 pounds pressure for 10 minutes reaching a minimum temperature of 1250F

*A) Loosely packing the chamber to allow penetration of steam through all surfaces

Which of the following statement on electrolytes is correct? A) Low calcium levels are related to muscle tremors and eclampsia B) Vomiting will elevate chloride levels C) High potassium levels can cause tachycardia D) Phosphorus levels decrease in renal failure

*A) Low calcium levels are related to muscle tremors and eclampsia

Supplementation of this electrolyte when it's low in anorexic cats may stimulate appetite: A) Potassium B) sodium C) phosphorus D) calcium E) none of the above

*A) Potassium

Which of the following is true? A) Proper surgical attire includes wearing freshly laundered scrub top and pants, head cover, and mask. B) Each surgical facility will change its own surgery dress code each week. C) Surgical attire increases the risk of infection associated with surgery. D) All of the above E) None of the above

*A) Proper surgical attire includes wearing freshly laundered scrub top and pants, head cover, and mask.

The lymph nodes which are normally palpable are A) Submandibular and Popliteal B) Inguinal/Axillary C) Prescapular and Axillary D) Thoracic and Submandibular

*A) Submandibular and Popliteal

Why are leading questions inappropriate to ask during the history taking? A) They make the owner feel compelled to answer a certain way B) They will encourage the owner to give consise answers C) They are appropriate and should be asked D) Both a and b E) None of the above

*A) They make the owner feel compelled to answer a certain way

Why should the patient's identity be verified before anesthetizing the animal for surgery? A) To avoid anesthetizing the wrong patient or surgery on the incorrect site B) To perform surgery on the wrong patient C) It is not necessary to cross-check the patient's correct identity because any good technician should be able to distinguish all black cats in the hospital on any given day based on physical appearance alone D) Both a and b E) None of the above

*A) To avoid anesthetizing the wrong patient or surgery on the incorrect site

Why is it important to review all medications and supplements that a patient is taking before beginning the surgery? A) To avoid possible drug interactions B) To know if they should be discontinued C) To make any necessary adjustments to the diet of the patient D) All of the above E) None of the above

*A) To avoid possible drug interactions

Why is it important to restrict traffic through the surgical area? A) To keep microbial counts as low as possible B) To promote elitism in the OR C) To provide stimulating conversation D) Both a and b E) None of the above

*A) To keep microbial counts as low as possible

Asepsis is the the absence of pathogenic microorganisms that cause infections. A) True B) False

*A) True

If unscrubbed personnel enters or touches the sterile field, it is no longer considered sterile. A) True B) False

*A) True

Peripheral catheters generally suffice for short-term use, and central lines are more appropriate for long-term vascular access (days). A) True B) False

*A) True

The edges of all sterile packages are considered nonsterile. A) True B) False

*A) True

The space above and surrounding an open sterile pack is considered part of the sterile field. A) True B) False

*A) True

The surgical nurse's scrub top should be tucked into the scrub pants. A) True B) False

*A) True

Orthopedic patterns for skin preparation A) Work from distal to proximal B) Work from medial to lateral C) Work from proximal to distal D) are performed as target pattern

*A) Work from distal to proximal

Isotonic saline (physiological saline) is___ % NaCl: A) 0.45 B) 0.9 C) 5 D) 7 E) None of the above

*B) 0.9

An elevated creatinine of the dog would be greater than A) 0.3 B) 1.5 C) 0.83 D) 0.74 E) 0.1

*B) 1.5

If an item is double cloth wrapped, stored on a open shelf and not used within _____ ; it should be reautoclaved. A) 1 week B) 3 weeks C) 5 weeks D) 6 weeks E) 12 weeks

*B) 3 weeks

What is the formula for calculating fluids for a small animal surgical patient? A) 2 - 3 mls per pound per hour intravenously B) 5 - 10 mls per pound per hour intravenously C) 10 - 20 mls per pound per hour intravenously D) 20 - 30 mls per pound per hour intravenously E) None of the above

*B) 5 - 10 mls per pound per hour intravenously

What powder should be used when autoclaving gloves? A) Talcum B) Corn starch C) Antibiotic powder D) Any powder can be used E) None of the above

*B) Corn starch

A pre-renal cause of azotemia is: A) Cystic calculi B) Dehydration C) Cardiac disease D) Kidney stones E) Crystal blockage in the urethra in male cats

*B) Dehydration

Alcohol may not be used as a rinsing agent because A) Coagulates proteins and kills microbes B) Drops body temperature C) Not flammable in an OR with cautery D) Not compatible with chlorhexadine or iodines

*B) Drops body temperature

Which of the following is true regarding the sterile field? A) Only scrubbed-in personnel need to know what is sterile and nonsterile. B) Everyone in the surgical suite needs to keep track of what is sterile and nonsterile. C) Excessive talking and movement among scrubbed-in personnel are acceptable, but not among non-scrubbed-in personnel. D) All of the above E) None of the above

*B) Everyone in the surgical suite needs to keep track of what is sterile and nonsterile.

"Strike-through" renders surgical drapes "sterile proof," and therefore drapes affected by strike-through cannot become contaminated under any circumstance. A) True B) False

*B) False

A surgical pack kept in a closed shelf which had a ripped outer covering and intact inner cover is considered sterile. A) True B) False

*B) False

Anesthesia (as provided by gas anesthetics) provides multimodal analgesia. A) True B) False

*B) False

It is acceptable practice for the non sterile circulator to reach over the sterile field if required to assist the surgeon or surgical assistant. A) True B) False

*B) False

It is recommended that all non-scrubbed personnel wear long-sleeve laboratory coats in the OR. A) True B) False

*B) False

Jewelry and long fingernails are protected by the sterile gloves worn by scrubbed-in surgical personnel and therefore do not need to be removed (jewelry) or cut (nails). A) True B) False

*B) False

The surgery room should never be spot-cleaned between patients because the thorough cleaning performed at the completion of the day's surgery should sufficiently disinfect any soiling that occurs through normal use. A) True B) False

*B) False

The words "aseptic" and "sterile" are synonyms and can be used interchangeably. A) True B) False

*B) False

Wet vacuuming of the surgery room floor should not be done because it introduces more microorganisms than wet mopping. A) True B) False

*B) False

What areas of the scrubbed-in personnel's gown are parts of the sterile field? A) Back of the gown B) Front from chest to the level of sterile field C) Cuffs of the sleeves D) All of the above if the gown was autoclaved E) None of the above

*B) Front from chest to the level of sterile field

What cold sterilization solution destroys spores? A) Alcohol B) Glutaraldehyde C) Benzylkonium chloride D) Sodium bicarbonate E) None of the above

*B) Glutaraldehyde

The term cryptorchidism refers to: A) Fully descended testicles B) Hidden testicles (retained in the inguinal canal or abdomen) C) Testicles in the scrotum D) Flowers grown in a cave

*B) Hidden testicles (retained in the inguinal canal or abdomen)

When should the patient's temperature be taken at the beginning of the physical examination (PE)? A) When it is the least important part of the PE B) It is easier to do with a cooperative patient and if adequate restraint is available C) By the end of the PE, the examiner should have already ascertained whether the patient is febrile, and only then will the temperature need to be taken D) Intractable animals should have their temperature taken when the technician is alone to reduce anxiety E) When the patient presents as an anxious and defensive fear biter

*B) It is easier to do with a cooperative patient and if adequate restraint is available

What should the surgical nurse don on leaving the surgery suite? A) Street clothes. B) Laboratory coat C) Shoe covers D) Cap and mask E) None of the above

*B) Laboratory coat

Microbes that are normally found on the skin of a healthy animal are A) Pathogenic bacteria B) Normal Microflora C) Vectors D) Septic bacteria

*B) Normal Microflora

Open gloving is used to A) Aseptically remove surgical gown from pack and don B) Perform a procedure if only the hand needs to be sterile C) Properly glove when gowned D) Enter the abdomen for a laprotomy

*B) Perform a procedure if only the hand needs to be sterile

The most common cause of mildly elevated blood glucose is: A) Diabetes mellitus B) Stress or excitement C) Failure to separate the cells from the serum. D) Starvation E) None of the above

*B) Stress or excitement

Which of the following is false regarding the surgical hand preparation? A) The preparation should begin with a quick, general hand and arm wash. B) The purpose of the prep is to sterilize the skin on the surgeon's hands and arms. C) Stiff scrub brushes should not be used to scrub the hands and arms. D) The product manufacturer determines the recommended length of time the product should be scrubbed on the hands and arms during the surgical hand prep.

*B) The purpose of the prep is to sterilize the skin on the surgeon's hands and arms.

The PCV can be estimated by A) Three times the hematocrit B) Three times the hemoglobin C) Three times the RBC D) The RBC divided by 3 and multiplied by the hemoglobin

*B) Three times the hemoglobin

Which of the following is false regarding the sterile field? A) Unscrubbed personnel should not walk between two sterile fields. B) Unscrubbed personnel should never face the sterile field. C) All unscrubbed personnel should keep a safe distance from the sterile field. D) Only sterile items should be in the sterile field. E) The sterile field should never be left unattended

*B) Unscrubbed personnel should never face the sterile field.

Sterilization of items used in a procedure are verified sterile by A) Processing in a autoclave regardless of procedure B) Use of an sterilization indicator inside the pack and outside the wrapper C) Cold sterilization D) Culture testing

*B) Use of an sterilization indicator inside the pack and outside the wrapper

Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) may be elevated in normal young animals because it is found in: A) Liver B) Muscle C) Bone D) Kidney

*C) Bone

What surgery is routinely performed at 3 - 5 days of age? A) Orchidectomy B) Ovariohysterectomy C) Dewclaws/tail docking D) No surgery can be done on neonates

*C) Dewclaws/tail docking

Which tactic(s) may stop a cat from purring during thoracic auscultation? A) Gently squeezing the abdomen with one hand while the other holds the stethoscope on the chest wall B) Massaging the cat's abdomen C) Holding the cat near a sink or faucet, with or without the water running D) All of the above E) None of the above

*C) Holding the cat near a sink or faucet, with or without the water running

An elevated cholesterol is suggestive of what common hormonal problem in dogs: A) Diabetes mellitus B) Hyperadrenocorticism C) Hypothyroidism D) Hyperthyroidism E) None of the above

*C) Hypothyroidism

Why is stainless steel considered the best surface for surgical tables? A) It is not considered the best; in fact, it is the worst because it gets cold and promotes hypothermia. B) Its durability causes fatique among surgical personnel C) Its smooth surface allows for easy cleaning and discourages harboring of microorganisms. D) Both b and c E) All of the above

*C) Its smooth surface allows for easy cleaning and discourages harboring of microorganisms.

Hydration is assessed by A) Tenting of skin equals 1% dehydration B) Gums and membranes are moist equals 12% dehydration C) MM tacky, Eye sunken into orbit, Skin tents equals 10-12% dehydration D) Patient is stable up to 50% dehydration

*C) MM tacky, Eye sunken into orbit, Skin tents equals 10-12% dehydration

The true statement concerning feline onychectomy is A) It is performed the same way as canine onychectomy B) It renders a cat completely defenseless C) May be the only option for a cat to live in their current home D) Laser procedures are expensive and offer no advantage

*C) May be the only option for a cat to live in their current home

What needs to be done to the patient after the hair clip and before moving the patient into the OR? A) Brush the clipped hair and clipped area of skin B) Avoid expressing the bladder so urine can be collected for kidney assessment C) Perform initial skin scrub D) All of the above E) None of the above

*C) Perform initial skin scrub

The most important practices to prevent surgical infections are A) Disinfection of skin, antiseptics applied to instruments B) Bandaging of surgical wounds C) Proper cleaning, disinfection of surgical suite, properly scrubbed personnel D) Sterilization of patient and personnel skin surfaces

*C) Proper cleaning, disinfection of surgical suite, properly scrubbed personnel

The proper way to open a sterile pack is A) The top flap should be opened towards you since there are still three more flaps covering the pack B) The top flap is opened and the pack is then rotated 90 degrees C) The top flap is opened away from you D) The side flaps are opened first

*C) The top flap is opened away from you

Which structure is commonly emptied before abdominal surgery? A) Stomach B) Anal sac C) Urinary bladder D) Gallbladder

*C) Urinary bladder

Which size of electrical clipper blade is most commonly used for removing hair from a surgical site? A) #10 B) #20 C) #30 D) #40

*D) #40

The temperature of ___ degrees F usually meets the normal steam sterilization requirement of at 15 PSI and 15 minutes? A) 100 F B) 121 F C) 200 F D) 250 F E) None of the these

*D) 250 F

Dehydration is not clinically evident until a minimum of _____ % A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 6

*D) 5

The normal Ph of dog blood is approximately: A) 7.05 - 7.15 B) 7.15 - 7.25 C) 7.25 - 7.35 D) 7.35 - 7.45 E) 7.45 - 7.55

*D) 7.35 - 7.45

What is the purpose of premedicating a patient before inducing anesthesia for surgery? A) To provide a smooth transition to anesthesia B) To provide surgical plane of anesthesia C) To facilitate a smooth extubation D) All of the above E) None of the above

*D) All of the above

Which of the following should be performed on the day of the surgery? A) Thorough physical examination B) Review of the patient's medical history with the owner C) Verbal review of the consent form and obtaining the owner's signed consent for anesthesia and surgery D) All of the above E) None of the above

*D) All of the above

Methods which cause a loss of sensations specifically pain are: A) Analgesics B) Antinflammatories C) Antibiotics D) Anesthetics

*D) Anesthetics

____________kill germs that are present and _____________keeps them out altogether. A) Autoclaving/disinfection B) Sterilization/asepsis C) Disinfection/sanitation D) Antiseptics/asepsis

*D) Antiseptics/asepsis

What are the two most important practices used to prevent surgical infections? A) Aseptic and septic technique B) Sterile and septic technique C) Septic and antiseptic technique D) Aseptic and sterile technique E) Sterile and antiseptic technique

*D) Aseptic and sterile technique

Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein? A) Albumin B) Fibrinogen C) Antibodies D) Blood urea nitrogen E) Globulins

*D) Blood urea nitrogen

What electrolyte when greatly elevated can indicate malignant tumors? A) Potassium B) Sodium C) Phosphorus D) Calcium E) None of the above

*D) Calcium

A common cause of low blood calcium in the nursing bitch is called: A) Azoturia B) Hyponatremia C) Hypokalemia D) Eclampsia E) None of the above

*D) Eclampsia

Excessive tearing is called ________________ and bleeding from the nose is___________. A) Epistaxis and epiphora B) Chemosis and conjunctivitis C) Epistaxis and chemosis D) Epiphora and epistaxis

*D) Epiphora and epistaxis

What sterilization agent is the most hazardous to use A) Steam B) Benzylkonium chloride C) Phenol D) Ethylene oxide E) Alcohol

*D) Ethylene oxide

The most common cause of low blood glucose is A) Diabetes mellitus B) Stress or excitement C) Acute pancreatitis D) Failure to separate the cells from the serum E) None of the above

*D) Failure to separate the cells from the serum

The best test for pancreatitis in a cat is: A) Amylase B) Lipase C) Ultrasound D) Fpli (feline pancreatic lipase) E) Two of The Above

*D) Fpli (feline pancreatic lipase)

Microbial agents capable of causing disease are: A) Viruses B) Bacteria C) Parasites D) Pathogens

*D) Pathogens

Spaying female canines will aid in preventing: A) Lung Cancer B) Urinary Incontinence C) Dehiscence D) Pyometra

*D) Pyometra

The presence of pathogens or their toxic products in blood or tissues of patients is: A) Contamination B) Resistance C) Infection D) Sepsis

*D) Sepsis

Why does an orthopedic "clip and prep" of an extremity need to include a circumferential clip around the entire limb? A) If the incision goes all the way through the limb and out the other side, the other side will already be prepared for this scenario B) If the surgeon mistakenly incises the wrong side of the limb with the first incision, and if the leg is clipped circumferentially, the mistake is easily corrected C) For patient comfort D) To allow for manipulation of the limb during the procedure E) All of the above

*D) To allow for manipulation of the limb during the procedure

Pick out the factor that inactivates cold sterilization solutions. A) Pus on instruments B) Blood on instruments C) Equipment cleaning technique D) a and b E) Length of time in these solutions

*D) a and b

Acepromazine is contraindicated in dogs: A) Prone to convulsions B) With Von Willebrand's disease C) Over ten years of age D) Epilepsy E) All of the above

*E) All of the above

Which of the following should be assessed during the history taking? A) Patient's attitude and mental status B) Patient's previous medical problems and treatments C) Patient's genetic predisposition to diseases D) Patient's conformation, gait and body condition E) All of the above

*E) All of the above

Which of the following is the correct order of events associated with performing the surgical hand prep and donning the surgical gown and gloves? A) Confirm removal of or remove all jewelry-open gown and glove packs-don cap and mask-perform hand prep-dry hands using sterile hand towel-gown-perform closed gloving. B) Perform hand prep-open gown and glove packs-don cap and mask-don gown and perform open gloving. C) Remove all jewelry-do short hand wash-perform hand prep-open gown and glove packs-don cap and mask-don gown and gloves. D) Remove all jewelry-gown and glove-perform hand prep. E) None of the above

*E) None of the above

The proper way to aseptically transfer an item in a peel-apart package is A) Holding the open top flaps over your hands, peel down and remove the instrument to place on the field B) The top flap is opened and the pack is then rotated 90 degrees to place on the field C) The top flap is opened away from you and the item is picked and placed on the field D) The side flaps are opened first and handed to a circulator E) None of these are correct

*E) None of these are correct

Closed gloving would be acceptable if A) Done before donning surgical gown B) Done after open gloving C) done by pulling cuff of glove over cuff of gown after tying the front ties on a gown D) done to allow wearing of jewelry in surgery E) Place cuff of glove to cuff of gown with thumb to thumb and push hand into glove without exiting the cuff of the gown

*E) Place cuff of glove to cuff of gown with thumb to thumb and push hand into glove without exiting the cuff of the gown

Which parameters can assess dehydration. A) Can be determined by a total plasma/serum protein B) Can be determined from mucous membrane moisture C) Can be determined from skin elasticity D) Can be determined from PCV/HCT E) all of the above

*E) all of the above

How should scrubbed personnel pass each other in the operating room? A) front to front B) Back to front C) Front to back D) Side to side

A) front to front

Which of the following statements are true? A) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek developed the stethoscope B) Louis Pasteur was known as the "Father of Microbiology." C) Asepsis is the presence of pathogens in the blood or tissues of patients. D) Koch was responsible for developing aseptic technique

B) Louis Pasteur was known as the "Father of Microbiology."

Scrubbed surgical personnel become contaminated if they touch A) Objects in sterile fields B) Objects outside the sterile field C) Properly sterilized surgical instruments D) Freshly exposed tissues of the patient

B) Objects outside the sterile field

Which of the following does not have to be sterile during a surgical procedure to maintain aseptic technique? A) Drapes B) Gloves C) Gown D) Mask

D) Mask

Which of the following provide multimodal analgesia? A) Gas anesthetics, morphine, butorphanol, and fentanyl B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), Carprofen, and Meloxicam C) Xylazine and Medetomidine D) Opioids, NSAIDs, local anesthetic agents, and alpha2-adrenergic agonists E) None of the above

D) Opioids, NSAIDs, local anesthetic agents, and alpha2-adrenergic agonists

Which is the correct statement concerning female dogs. A) Dogs do have to go through a heat cycle before being spayed. B) Dogs are usually spayed around 4-6 years of age. C) Dogs have minimal bleeding when spayed during estrus D) Spayed dogs have a reduced incidence of mammary cancer.

D) Spayed dogs have a reduced incidence of mammary cancer.

Castrating a male cat is helpful because A) Usually increases spraying B) Usually encourages territorial straying C) Surgery is recommended around 1 year of age D) Usually stops urinary odor E) Increases the risk of cat bite abscesses from fighting

D) Usually stops urinary odor