VTNE

Which of the following medications requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in humans?

Chloramphenicol Chloramphenicol can cause a rare reaction in people who are exposed to the drug leading to aplastic anemia. Because of this, chloramphenicol is typically used as a last resort and only in special situations. Direct contact with the drug should be avoided and therefore gloves must be worn when handling. The tablets should never by crushed to avoid inhalation of any powder.

You are scrubbed in as the surgery technician and are assisting with an intestinal foreign body removal. The surgeon wants to clamp the intestine above and below the foreign body. What instrument could be used for this?

Doyen intestinal forceps are a curved non-crushing occluding clamp with longitudinal grooves. They are used for the purpose described, but over-tightening should be avoided because they can still damage the intestinal tissue. The others listed should not be used on the intestines.

An increase in the total protein, PCV, and BUN with a urine specific gravity of 1.061 may be due to:

Hemoconcentration or dehydration may cause an increase in the albumin, PCV or hematocrit, and BUN. The elevated specific gravity helps to determine that the BUN is elevated due to dehydration and not due to renal failure. Animals in kidney failure typically have hyposthenuria because the kidneys have lost the ability to concentrate.

What is most often seen in a cat with heartworm disease?

Most cats with heartworm are not clinical for the disease. If they do show symptoms, they are typically respiratory in nature (coughing, wheezing). Chronic vomiting can also be a sign. All coughing cats should be tested for heartworm.

The adrenal glands are closest to what other structure?

Kidneys. The adrenal glands are located right above the kidneys. The bladder sits in the caudal abdomen ventral to the colon. The liver is just caudal to the diaphragm and is the most cranial organ in the abdomen. The right limb of the pancreas runs parallel with the duodenum while the left limb runs along the body of the stomach.

What is the name for the muscles in the group that called the hamstrings?

The hamstrings are the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscles.

What is the name for the muscle group that includes the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius?

"Quad" means four, and the Quadriceps femoris is a large group of muscles that cover most of the middle thigh. This muscle group extends the knee. The rectus femoris originates on the ilium and also flexes the hip. The other three muscles originate from the femur. All four parts attach to the patella through the quadriceps tendon.

When performing a direct fecal smear to look for "swimmers" or parasitic trophozoites, the feces cannot be older than which of the following?

1 hour. Fresh feces are needed for a direct smear. The smear should be made and read within 1 hour of fecal collection for most accurate results. Also, serial samples are ideal. Sometimes 4 to 5 smears are needed to find an organism. A negative direct smear does not rule out a parasite.

You draw up a canine distemper-parvo combination vaccine. How long is the vaccine considered viable at room temperature?

1 hour. Vaccines should be discarded if they have been left out at room temperature for longer than one hour. Most references state that if they are refrigerated they can be used within 24 hours, but this is controversial. The best option is to use the vaccine shortly after it is drawn up to avoid any concerns.

A dog refuses a rectal temperature. You take his temperature under the axillary region and get a reading of 99.5F. What is likely his core body temperature?

101.5F Typically a temperature taken in the ear or under a peripheral limb reads 1 to 2 degrees lower than rectal temperature, or core body temperature.

When taking a radiograph of an equine limb, you take a radiograph where the portable X-ray unit source is 90 cm away from the cassette. You then move closer so that the X-ray source is now 30 cm away from the cassette. If no changes were made to the settings of the machine, what will the beam intensity be at the second radiograph relative to the first one?

9 times greater intensity at 30 cm compared to 90 cm. The inverse square law states the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the X-ray source. Therefore, the intensity is greater as the cassette is moved closer to the source. To calculate the answer, the intensity of beam 1 is (x/90)^2 and the intensity of beam 2 is (x/30)^2 where x is the number of photons produced by the x-ray machine. The math here works out as follows: (x/30)^2 / (x/90)^2 = [(x/30)/(x/90)]^2 = (90/30)^2 = (3)^2 = 9

Which material is used to record impressions or imprints of the teeth for orthodontic evaluation? -casting gel? -plaster of paris -gel foam -alginate

Alginate This material is mixed, placed into an impression tray, and placed over the teeth. After it sets, the tray is removed in one motion in the direction of the long axis of the teeth. Plaster of Paris is the classic material that used to be used to make casts; however, nowadays most doctors use fiberglass to make casts. Gel foam is a collagen sponge that surgeons use to help create clots during surgical procedures.

Asepsis implies what?

Answer:

In what order does an electrical impulse travel through the heart?

Answer: SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers The sinoatrial node (SA node) is the pacemaker of the heart located in the wall of the right atrium. It generates an electrical impulse that is carried to the atrioventricular node (AV node) which is located between the atria and ventricles. The impulse is then relayed down the conducting tissues, or the Bundle of His, and branches to the paths that supply the right and left ventricles (the right and left bundle branches). Purkinje fibers are reached last and are conductive fibers within the walls of the ventricles that relay the impulses to the cells that cause contraction of the ventricles. This process of impulse travel is known as depolarization.

What is colic in a horse?

Answer: Abdominal pain that can be secondary to multiple etiologies. The best answer choice is abdominal pain that can be secondary to multiple etiologies. It is a very broad term, and colic can be secondary to any of the other answer choices. In effect, knowing that the patient has colic does not necessarily mean the clinician knows exactly what treatment to provide until the underlying cause of colic is identified.

A canine hospitalized following a TPLO surgery unexpectedly cardiac arrests. Endotracheal intubation and chest compressions have been initiated. What two drugs are usually administered FIRST during CPCR? A.) Mannitol and hypertonic saline B.) Atropine and epinephrine C.) Dexamethasone sodium phosphate and methylprednisolone D.) Dextrose and intravenous fluids E.) Propofol and diazepam

Answer: B.) Atropine and epinephrine Atropine is used in CPCR because it blocks signals from the vagus nerve and is used to treat bradycardia. Epinephrine is used because it increases cardiac output by causing peripheral vasoconstriction and causes bronchodilation. Mannitol and hypertonic saline are used to decrease intracranial pressure and are not the first drugs to be administered during CPCR. Dex SP and methylprednisolone are both steroids and do not increase cardiac function or output. Propofol and diazepam are drugs that might be given during status epilepticus, not during CPCR. Dextrose and fluids may be administered during CPCR but are not usually the first drugs of choice.

Colostrum provides passive immunity to the neonate because it is rich in which of the following? A.) Folate B.) Immunoglobulins C.) Antigens D.) Electrolytes

Answer: B.) Immunoglobulins Immunoglobulins are antibodies that are essential to the neonate to protect against infections.

Which of the following medications is known to cause perivascular tissue sloughing if given out of the vein? A.) Dimethyl Sulfoxide (DMSO) B.) Phenylbutazone C.) Ampicillin D.) Ascorbic acid

Answer: B.) Phenylbutazone Phenylbutazone or "Bute" is an NSAID used for analgesia or fever (mostly in horses). It can cause tissue sloughing and necrosis if given out of the vein (it should NEVER be given subcutaneous or intramuscular). Also to note: In humans, phenylbutazone can cause aplastic anemia.

A 10 year old male neutered West Highland White Terrier with a history of 1st degree AV block is admitted to the clinic for a routine dentistry. All of his pre-anesthetic lab work has come back normal. Which of the following anesthetic drugs would be most contraindicated in this case? A.) Butorphanol B.) Acepromazine C.) Dexmedetomidine D.) Diazepam

Answer: C.) Dexmedetomidine Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor) is an alpha 2 agonist of which the major side effect is bradycardia. Patients with 1st degree AV block are often already bradycardic, and the AV block could be made worse by giving an alpha 2 agonist. While diazepam, butorphanol, and acepromazine all cause different degrees of sedation, they do not cause significant changes in heart rate or contractility. Acepromazine causes vasodilation, which can lead to hypotension, but it is anti-arrhythmic and can actually help stabilize the heart.

Tetanus in the horse is caused by the toxin produced by which anaerobic bacterium?

Answer: Clostridium tetani C. tetani is the strain of Clostridium that causes tetanus. Back To Stats

Which of the following is NOT true regarding platelets? A.) They are derived from megakaryocytes B.) Platelet clumping can cause falsely low platelet counts C.) A purple top tube with EDTA should be used when collecting blood for a platelet count D.) Birds and reptiles have nucleated platelets

Answer: D.) Birds and reptiles have nucleated platelets Birds and reptiles have nucleated red blood cells, not nucleated platelets. A purple top is used for platelets counts. Clumping of platelets can cause a low reading, so the periphery of the slide should be checked for clumping. In cases where clumping is present, a platelet estimate may be more valuable. The megakaryocyte is a bone marrow cell responsible for the production of blood thrombocytes (platelets).

Which drug is a fluoroquinolone? A.) Clindamycin B.) Cephalexin [ Your answer ] C.) Carprofen D.) Enrofloxacin [ Correct answer ]

Answer: D.) Enrofloxacin Explanation - Fluoroquinolones include antibiotics such as enrofloxacin (Baytril), ciprofloxacin (Cipro), and marbofloxacin (Zeniquin). The fluoroquinolones are bactericidal. If possible, they should not be used in young, growing animals due to potential for cartilage disturbances. In some cases, they also have the potential side effect of causing blindness in cats at higher doses and should be used with caution.

What is the most likely period of time during the estrous cycle that a female will be receptive to mating? A.) Diestrus B.) Proestrus C.) Anestrus D.) Estrus

Answer: D.) estrus Estrus is the main period of sexual receptivity. At this point, the uterus and uterine horns are primed for receiving an embryo. Proestrus is the period just prior to estrus and is under the influence of a hormone call follicular stimulating hormone (FSH). During this period FSH stimulates release of estrogen. During diestrus the corpus luteum (ruptured follicle) secretes hormones. If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate and stop secreting hormones. Anestrus is the period in which there is sexual inactivity. Back To Stats

A client calls to schedule an appointment with the doctor because her dog has been shaking his head and now his ear flap feels swollen, warm to the touch, and is squishy. What should you book the appointment as?

Answer: Ear hematoma Explanation - An ear hematoma occurs when the vessels inside the pinna rupture (from shaking the head, trauma, or vasculitis). The pinna (ear flap) fills with blood like a balloon. The term for this condition is an ear hematoma. The most common treatment includes placing a drain in the pinna that stays in place for a couple of weeks. Underlying ear disease should be treated as well.

In which species will you never perform a reticulocyte count?

Answer: Equine. Horses do not release reticulocytes (immature erythrocytes) into circulation.

You are asked to prepare a patient for a bone marrow aspirate. Which of the following sites are commonly used in dogs to obtain a bone marrow sample?

Answer: Humeral head and iliac crest The most common collection sites in the dog are the humeral head, iliac crest, and femoral canal. In cats, the femoral head can be used. In horses, bone marrow can be obtained from the sternum.

You pull a 6 year old film out of a folder to compare to radiographs that you took today. The old film appears to have yellow-brown staining. What is the likely cause of this? A.) Film was left in developer too long B.) Incomplete drying of the film C.) Storing the film at a hot temperature D.) Incomplete washing of the film

Answer: Incomplete washing of the film Explanation - Yellow-brown staining over time is the result of incomplete removal of chemicals (usually from the fixer) during the final washing step in film development. A film that is not dried completely commonly has artifacts around the edges of the film.

The skin of a prepped surgical site is considered:

Aseptic means the number of bacteria has been reduced below the level that would overwhelm the body's defenses. It is not possible to completely sterilize the skin. Note that "aseptic" and "aseptic technique" have slightly different meanings than the term "asepsis" which is the state of being free from disease-causing contaminants (such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites).

A 3-month old kitten presents for mucoid diarrhea and anemia. The clinic where you work has recently seen several other puppies and kittens with similar clinical signs that were infected with Strongyloides stercoralis. You look up and find that this parasite is passed in the feces in the L1 larval form. What is the best way to recover and identify this parasite?

Baermann fecal technique. Strongyloides stercoralis mainly causes a mucoid diarrhea and possibly anemia in puppies and kittens. It passed in the feces in the L1 larvae form. The best technique for recovering larvae is the Baermann technique. Fecal flotations are good for eggs that float. Fecal sedimentation is good for eggs that sink, such as most fluke eggs. A direct fecal smear can find any type of egg or larva passed in feces but does not concentrate the sample to improve the yield in finding the eggs or larvae.

You are asked to run an Azostix strip on a dog prior to anesthesia. What does this test for?

Blood urea nitrogen The Azostix tests for BUN. It is a small strip to which a drop of blood is applied and gives a result in one minute.

What tissue is the MOST sensitive to radiation therapy?

Bone Marrow. Bone marrow consists of progenitor and stem cells, the most radiosensitive cells. Cells going through division are generally the most sensitive.

What are Brown-Adson forceps used for?

Brown-Adson forceps are for holding tissue and have grasping teeth.

What are DeBakey forceps used for?

DeBakey forceps are vascular forceps that are used to hold vascular tissue with minimal damage to the vessels.

What does a Wright's stain do?

Differentiates blood cell types. A Wright's stain is used to stain blood smears when doing a differential. It stains red cells red and white cells various shades of blue/purple. It allows for subtle color differences between the different white cells to enhance proper identification. A Gram stain is used to differentiate bacteria, thus the term Gram +, Gram -. New Methylene Blue is the stain to enhance visualization of reticulocytes. Sedi Stain is the stain most commonly used for urinalysis.

Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have a 4 year old domestic short hair named Fluffy that has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Mrs. Johnson normally administers 2 units of PZI insulin by subcutaneous injection to their cat twice a day, but she is out of town. Mr. Johnson calls your hospital and says that when he gave Fluffy her morning dose she jumped and he is not sure if all of the insulin was injected. He wants to know what to do. Which of the following is the correct advice to give Mr. Johnson?

Do not give Fluffy more insulin until her evening dose is due. At that time he should give 2 units of PZI. The correct advice to give Mr. Johnson is to wait until the evening dose is due and then give 2 units of PZI insulin on the regular schedule. Because he does not know how much insulin was actually administered when he gave the morning dose, giving more insulin at this time could cause Fluffy's blood glucose level to drop too low and she could become hypoglycemic.

From youngest to oldest, which is the correct order of the tick's life cycle?

Egg, larva, nymph, adult

Which of the following medications should be used with caution in cats, as it could cause blindness in some cats?

Enrofloxacin (Baytril) is used in cats at no higher than a 5mg/kg per dose. Higher doses increase the risk for blindness in cats, and in general this drug should be used with caution because of this potential side effect.

Oviducts are also known as which of the following?

Fallopian tubes and oviducts are the same structure. It is the structure that transports the egg from the ovary to the uterus.

The best locations to administer intramuscular injections, such as penicillin, to a horse include all of the following EXCEPT?

Epaxial muscles. The epaxial muscles, which are at the dorsum of the horse surrounding the vertebrae, are not an acceptable location for an intramuscular injection due to their relatively small size and location near the spinal cord. All the other injection sites are acceptable.

Which species is not susceptible to "hoof-and-mouth" disease?

Hoof-and-mouth disease (often called foot-and-mouth disease) is a viral disease of cloven-hoofed animals including cattle, pigs, sheep, and goats.

When placing lateral radiographs of the stifle joint on a viewer for a veterinarian to evaluate, how should the film be oriented?

It is proper to place a lateral radiograph of the stifle such that the cranial or dorsal side of the limb is to the left and the proximal aspect of the limb is toward the top of the viewbox. For a caudocranial view, the lateral side of the right limb should be to the viewer's left and the lateral side of the left limb should be to the viewer's right.

Anal pruritus in the horse can be associated with an infestation of this parasite. Note the alopecia around the anal region and around the tail caused by rubbing.

Oxyuris equi. Explanation - The correct answer is Oxyuris equi. This is the equine pin worm, which will infest the perineal region and result in perineal irritation after eggs are laid. A frequent diagnostic test performed when visualizing damaged perineal regions is a scotch tape preparation.

What are Gelpi's?

The Gelpi is a self-retaining small retractor.

Which of these drugs should not be used in Greyhounds?

The correct answer is thiopental. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting barbiturate. Recovery depends on redistribution to tissues, including fat. Because sighthounds have very little fat, they have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs.

Name the heart chamber responsible for pumping blood toward the lungs.

The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the vena cava. This blood is then pumped into the right ventricle (passing through the tricuspid valve) which then gets pumped into the lungs (passing through the pulmonary valve) via the pulmonary artery for oxygenation. The newly oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium via the pulmonary vein. Once in the left atrium, the blood is pumped into the left ventricle (passing through the atrioventricular valve) from which it is then pumped into the circulation via the aorta (passing through the aortic valve).

What is the dental formula for the adult horse (i.e. incisor-canine-premolar-molar)?

Upper: 3-1-4-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3 The upper quadrant of the horse's dental arcade has 3 incisors, 1 canine (primarily male horses), 4 premolars (including "wolf" tooth) and 3 molars; the lower arcade has 3 incisions, 1 canine, 3 premolars and 3 molars. Not all horses have the 1st upper premolar, the so-called wolf tooth. Generally, females do not have canine teeth.

A 12 pound DSH is presented to your hospital for a dental cleaning. The attending veterinarian has asked you to induce the cat with Propofol at a dosage of 4 mg/kg IV. The concentration of Propofol is 10 mg/ml. How many milliliters will you draw up in the syringe?

You must first convert pounds to kilograms dividing 12 by 2.2 = 5.4 kg. 5.4 kg multiplied by 4 mg/kg = 21.8 mg. 21.8 mg divided by 10 mg/ml = 2.18 mls.

Which of the following solutions used for fecal flotation floats protozoal organisms with the least distortion?

Zinc sulfate. Zinc sulfate solutions are generally used in diagnostic laboratories because they cause the least distortion of organisms. Other solutions, particularly sodium nitrate, are commonly used in veterinary practices because of cost and/or convenience. It is particularly important with sodium nitrate solutions to avoid letting them sit too long, as they cause distortion and form crystals, particularly after sitting longer than 20 minutes. Saturated sodium chloride is rarely used because it distorts organisms, creates crystals, and corrodes laboratory equipment. Formalin solutions alone are not used for flotation.

Ivermectin is effective against which organisms? A.) Cestodes B.) Trematodes C.) Protozoa D.) Nematodes

answer: nematodes Nematodes or roundworms are susceptible to ivermectin. Ivermectin has activity against ticks, mites, nematodes, and even lice.

You are working at the specialty center and are observing an echocardiogram for the first time. The cardiologist prescribes the drug propanolol to a canine patient. What effect will this medication have on the heart?

slows the heart rate. Propanolol is a Beta-1 and Beta-2 blocker. It blocks the sympathetic nervous system (sympatholytic) which allows for the parasympathetic effects on the heart to dominate. The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart. Remember- parasympathetic- rest and digest (slower heart rate), and sympathetic- fight or flight (increased heart rate).