???
Which of the following cellular organelles transforms organic compounds into energy that is easily accessible to the cell? A) Golgi complex B) Ribosomes C) Lysosomes D) Mitochondria
D
A mutation due to the substitution of one DNA nucleotide for another is called a A) point mutation B) frameshift mutation C) codon mutation D) single-gene mutation
A
A 7 year old boy is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of lead toxicity. Which of the following assessment findings is most congruent with the client's diagnosis? A) Hemoglobin 9.9 g/dL B) Diffuse muscle pain C) White blood cells 11,000/mm3 D) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
A
A client asks the nurse why a scar developed after an injury. The best response would be: A) Fibrous tissue B) Parenchymal tissue C) Stem cells D) Cell apoptosis
A
A client has an increase in core body temperature. What assessment findings does the nurse expect? A) Flushed skin B) Decreased skin temperature C) Blue nail beds D) Decreased urination
A
A client has been diagnosed with inherited hypercoagulability. Select the most likely cause? A) Factor V gene mutation B) Prolonged immobility C) Hyperestrogenic state D) Myocardial infarction
A
A client has developed heart failure. The doctor reviews the client's chest x-ray and notes that the heart has enlarged. The changes in the size and shape of the heart are the result of: A) Hypertrophy B) Hypoplasia C) Atrophy D) Hyperplasia
A
A nurse is caring for a client in the intensive care unit who has sustained severe trauma and now has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The nurse is aware that the client is experiencing? A) Widespread coagulation and bleeding in the vascular compartment B) Thrombocytosis as a result of widespread infection C) Impaired platelet function due to Vitamin K deficiency D) Bleeding due to structurally weak vessels resulting from vitamin C deficiency
A
A nurse is providing care for several clients on a neurological unit of a hospital. With which of the following clients would the nurse be justified in predicting a problem with thermoregulation? A) A 66 year old male with damage to his thalamus secondary to a cerebral vascular accident B) A 22 year old male with damage to his cerebellum secondary to a motorcycle accident C) A 45 year old female with a T8 fracture secondary to a diving accident D) A 68 year old male with end stage neurosyphilis
A
A patient diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse reviewing the patient's laboratory results notes an increase in the number of bands in the white blood cell count. Which of the following is the priority action of the nurse? A) Continuing to monitor the client's laboratory results; this is an expected finding in an acute infection B) Placing the client in contact isolation immediately C) Requesting a repeat blood draw to verify the findings D) Notifying the physician of the abnormal lab result
A
A patient is admitted with an alteration in arterial blood gases. Cellular injury is most likely to result from which of the following aspects of this abnormality? A) Hypoxia B) Alkalemia C) Hypocapnea D) Hypercapnea
A
A patient is experiencing anorexia, myalgia, arthralgia, headache, and fatigue. The nurse should assess for which of the following? A) Temperature B) Urinary output C) Respirations D) Hypothermia
A
A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease has metaplasia. Which of the following is the cause? A) Cells are replaced in response to chronic irritation B) This represents cancerous cells C) Cells are increased in size due to increased oxygenation D) These are nonreversible cell changes
A
Examples of connective tissue include A) bone marrow B) neuroglia C) skin epithelium D) glands
A
Following a school shooting, many of the children want to talk about the traumatic event. The school nurse knows this is very therapeutic and would be called: A) Debriefing B) Guided imagery C) Non-adaptive functioning D) Fatalism
A
Hypertrophy may occur as the result of normal physiologic or abnormal pathologic conditions. The increase in muscle mass associated with exercise is an example of physiologic hypertrophy. Pathologic hypertrophy occurs as the result of disease conditions and may be adaptive or compensatory. Examples of adaptive hypertrophy are the thickening of the urinary outflow and the myocardial hypertrophy that results from valvular heart disease or hypertension. What is compensatory hypertrophy? A) When on kidney is removed, the remaining kidney enlarges to compensate for the loss B) When the body controls myocardial growth by stimulating actin expression to enlarge the heart C) When the body stimulates gene expression to begin a progressive decrease in left ventricular muscle mass D) When the body increases its major organs during times of malnutrition
A
Select the main function of nervous tissue A) Communication B) Contractility C) Support D) Connecting body structure
A
Select the most important treatment for thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP) A) Plasmapheresis B) Heparin infusion C) Intravenous administration of Vitamin C D) Transfusion with factor VIII
A
Select the organelle that is responsible for the breakdown of excess and worn-out cell parts as well as foreign substances that are taken into the cell A) Lysosomes B) Peroxisomes C) Ribosomes D) Proteasomes
A
Select the statement that best describes apoptosis A) Highly selective in eliminating injured or aged cells B) The release of products of cell death is uncontrolled C) Unregulated by enzymatic digestion of cell components D) Responsible for initiating an inflammatory response
A
Some members of the population are so sensitive to certain antigens that they react within minutes by developing itching, hives, and skin erythema, followed shortly thereafter by bronchospasm and respiratory distress. What is this near immediate reaction commonly known as? A) Anaphylactic reaction B) Antigen reaction C) Hyposensitive reaction D) Arthus reaction
A
The client has expressed a desire to explore stress-reducing strategies for chronic migraines. The provider explains that one technique that involves electronic monitoring of physiologic responses to stress with immediate feedback. This is known as which of the following? A) Biofeedback B) Imagery C) Music therapy D) Progressive muscle relaxation
A
The faculty member is explaining homeostasis to her student. The faculty member knows the student understands the concept when he states which of the following about homeostasis? A) "It is a system of carefully coordinated physiologic processes that oppose change" B) "It is characterized by a severe stress response secondary to experiencing previous trauma" C) "It is a control system that monitors a function or value. When the function or value decreases below the set point of the system, the mechanism causes the function or value to increase" D) "An organism is able to survive as long as the composition of the external environment compatible with the survival needs of the individual cells"
A
The most important differentiating feature between benign and malignant tumors is A) Invasiveness B) A difference in the rate of cell growth within the tumor C) A difference in the tissue of origin D) The size of the tumor
A
The mother of a newborn infant questions why her baby needs a vitamin K injection immediately after birth. The best response by the nurse would be? A) Infants are not born with the normal intestinal bacteria that synthesizes vitamin K for clotting B) Infants have a higher body fat content, which prohibits the absorption of vitamin K C) The infant was exposed to high levels of heparin upon birth D) It is hospital policy to administer the injection to newborns
A
The nurse assessing a client admitted with a diagnosis of "fever of unknown origin" notes that the temperature is elevated, but the heart rate is within normal range. What further assessment will the client require? A) Test for Legionnaire disease B) V/Q scan for pulmonary emboli C) Thyroid scan for nodules D) Sedimentation rate for RA
A
The nurse is assessing lab values of a client with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The nurse would anticipate the results to include? A) Increased prothrombin time (PT) B) Increased fibrinogen C) Decreased partial thromboplastin time (PTT) D) Decreased fibrin degration product
A
The nurse is aware of the importance of potassium and sodium for normal physiologic functions of a client. The rapid movement of potassium and sodium in actions is known as: A) Primary active transport B) Endocytosis C) Exocytosis D) Vesicular transport
A
The nurse is caring for a post operative patient and documents that the surgical incision is healing by which of the following? A) Primary intention B) Tertiary intention C) Systemic intention D) Secondary intention
A
The nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client. Select the medication that the nurse would administer to prevent platelet aggregation? A) Ticlopidine (Ticlid) B) Tirofiban C) Vitamin K D) Warfarin
A
The psychologist is leading a group session with clients who have recently undergone a variety of stressful events. Which of the following clients will have the best adaptation? A) 50-year-old female who sees her new life as a widow as a challenge rather than a threat B) 89-year-old man with congestive heart failure C) 40-year-old man who is unable to make appropriate choices related to his new life as a single parent D) 40-year-old female with insomnia
A
The radiologist is reviewing potential types of radiation therapy for a client. Select the type of radiation that directly breaks down chemical bonds in a cell A) Ionizing radiation B) Sunlight radiation C) Ultraviolet radiation D) Nonionizing radiation
A
Transcription is inhibited by A) repressor proteins B) histone proteins C) chromatin proteins D) ribosomla proteins
A
Tumor staging is a process whereby A) The location of tumors in the body is determined B) All of the tumors are removed by the body C) Tumor cell characteristics are analyzed under the microscope D) The tissue of origin is biochemically determined
A
What causes cell lysis instead of stimulating phagocytosis? A) Complement B) Neutralization C) Agglutination D) Precipitation
A
Which of the following clients would be considered a good candidate for hyperbaric oxygen therapy? A) An older adult with history of diabetes and intermittent claudication (poor circulation in the legs) who received a laceration while on the lawnmower B) A motorcycle accident client with lots of "road rash" requiring scrubbing of the wounds with a brush to remove all the debris C) A middle-aged adult who got in a fight and received a laceration above the eye D) A fifth grade student who fell on the playground and broke his femur and developed large hematoma over the injured leg
A
Which of the following is the main effect of HIV infection? A) Poor helper T-cell function B) Poor B-cell function C) Poor suppressor T-cell function D) Poor natural killer cell function
A
Which of the following patients, when faced with acute stressful situations, would be considered highest risk for becoming non-compliant with their medication regimen? A) End stage renal failure patient experiencing electrolyte imbalances related to having trouble sticking to their prescribed diet B) Paraplegic patient who forgot their pressure control device and has a small decubitus on their coccyx C) New mother who is breastfeeding every 2-3 hours throughout the day and night D) Teenager whose period is late by 2 weeks and afraid to tell her parents
A
Which responsibility of the extracellular matrix (ECM) is most accurate? A) The ECM provides the scaffolding for tissue renewal B) An injured body part can be restored without the ECM C) When the basement membrane is disrupted, cells will proliferate in an organized fashion D) The structural integrity of the ECM does not have remain intact for healing to occur
A
Which type of RNA moves from the nucleus into the cytoplasm, carrying the genetic code? A) messenger RNA (mRNA) B) transfer RNA (tRNA) C) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) D) All of the above can move between the nucleus and the cytoplasm
A
While reviewing the basic information related to hemodialysis, the professor explains that water molecules move through adjacent phospholipid molecules in the cell membrane by: A) osmosis B) active transport C) secondary active transport D) diffusion E) vesicular transport
A
A 19 year old intravenous drug user was exposed to the HIV virus 3 weeks ago and is experiencing a rapid proliferation in viral load. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the process of HIV replication that underlies this proliferation? A) Free HIV RNA is able to attach to the cell coat of CD4+ cells B) HIV is able to change its RNA to DNA to allow for replication of CD4+ cells C) Expression of reverse transcriptase by CD4+ cells allows replication of HIV cells rather than new lymphocytes D) The cytoplasm of CD4+ cells provides a protected environment for the replication of RNA by HIV
B
A child has experienced a "bee-sting" while at the park. The health care provider is walking by and notices the child has swelling around the eyes, lips, and face in general. What priority assessment should the nurse make at this time? A) Palpate for carotid pulses in the neck B) Assess and establish an open airway C) Try to listen to breath sounds by placing your ear on the child's chest D) Assess skin on the truck and back for development of hives
B
A client experiencing an acute stress response has increased urination. What does the nurse determine is the cause of this symptom? A) The client has been holding his urine B) The client has hyperglycemia C) The client has been taking diuretic medications D) The client's kidneys are overstimulated
B
A client is said to be in the chill stage of the fever process when the nurse does which of the following? A) Administers an antipyretic medication B) Observes piloerection on the skin C) Observes the client is sweating D) Determines the client will benefit from a cool sponge bath
B
A client refuses to take the 81 mg of aspirin ordered by the physician, stating, "I don't have any pain". The best response by the nurse would be? A) The doctor wants you to take the medication to prevent you from experiencing pain B) The 81 mg aspirin daily will help protect you from a stroke or heart attack C) This dose of aspirin will break apart the blood clot that you have in the leg D) The low-dose aspirin will help prevent you from having increased bleeding after surgery
B
A client tells the nurse that he has recently begun to take over the counter (OTC) calcium supplements to ensure that his blood will clot. The best response by the nurse would be: A) It will not cause problems and it will keep your bones strong B) This is not necessary unless it has been prescribed by your health care provider C) Take the supplement twice a day with milk to increase absorption D) It is a good idea. You will prevent bleeding
B
A nurse is assessing a patient who is a body builder. The nurse documents the increased size of the patient's muscle as resulting from which of the following? A) Atrophy B) Hypertrophy C) Dysplasia D) Hyperplasia
B
A nurse is assisting a client with self-care and observes the following: -areas of bruising (purpura) on the client's arm and leg -pinpoint hemorrhages (petechiae) on the leg -pinpoint hemorrhages (petechiae) in the mouth -platelets level of 90,000/mcL The nurse recognizes these data as a manifestation of? A) Thrombocytosis B) Thrombocytopenia C) Neutropenia D) Leukopenia
B
A patient is admitted with frostbite. Which of the following will the nurse tell the patient about the changes that have occurred due to cold exposure? A) Cold exposure results in hypertrophy of cells in the affected area B) Cold increases blood viscosity and thrombosis C) Cold increases the speed of blood flow through the vessel D) Cold causes vasodilation and redness
B
A patient with a rising temperature is pale and has begun to shiver. The nurse reports that the patient is in which of the following phases of fever development? A) Prodrome B) Chill C) Flush D) Defervescence
B
A previously healthy 42-year-old client was recently diagnosed with hypertension. Select the response that best describes a positive reaction to the acute stress A) Ceasing to exercise B) Decreasing dietary sodium and fat intake C) Spending more time at work D) Exhibiting a carefree attitude about life
B
A two-day postoperative patient's temperature was 98.5F at 3:00 PM. At 6:00 PM, the unlicensed assistant notifies the nurse that the patient's temperature is 102F. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A) Increase intravenous fluid rate B) Notify the physician C) Document the temperature D) Offer the client a cold drink
B
After exposure to poison ivy, the client has hives on his trunk and extremities. In an effort to decrease his immune response the practitioner places him on which of the following medications? A) Antidiuretic hormone B) Glucocorticoid C) Insulin D) Aldosterone
B
An older adult's dysfunctional temperature regulator function places the client at greatest risk for: A) Acute dementia B) Delayed initiation of appropriate treatment C) Acute renal failure D) Misdiagnosis of pathology
B
Antigens have specific regions where antibodies bind to that are called antigenic determinants or A) Isotopes B) Epitopes C) Isomers D) Epigens
B
Cells differ in structure and function because they A) all have different DNA and genes B) selectively express certain genes that give them their character C) selectively eliminate certain genes from the genome during development D) undergo selective mutations over time
B
HIV is considered to be a retrovirus because: A) It carries a genetic marker for a previously discovered virus that was a source of an epidemic in an earlier time period B) It carries its genetic information in ribonucleic acid (RNA) rather than in deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) C) It reproduces at a rapid rate D) It converts to a primitive form of virus when duplicated
B
Henry is a performer. He spends night after night on stage doing speaking routines and playing in his band. Due to his schedule he does not sleep enough and has a very poor diet. What type of stress is Henry putting his body in? A) eustress B) distress C) compress
B
If a tumor is characterized according to the TNM system as T2 N1 M0, what is the correct interpretation? A) Tumor is localized with no lymph node involvement or metastasis B) Tumor is locally invasive with regional lymph node involvement; there is no metastasis C) Tumor has spread to distant lymph nodes; there is no metastasis D) Tumor is disseminated to lymph nodes and distant sites
B
Of the following list of patients, which would likely benefit the most from hyperbaric oxygen therapy? A) A football player who has torn a meniscus in their knee for the third time this year B) A trauma patient who developed Clostridum spp., an anaerobic bacterial infection in their femur C) A school-aged child who fell on gravel and has terrible road rash D) A patient who developed a fistula between their bowel and vagina following cervical cancer surgery
B
The body responds to stress due to its ability to adapt to the stressful event. One of the main reasons we can adapt is that we have physiological and anatomical reserves. Which of the following factors is a type of physiological reserve? A) Paired lungs B) Increased hematocrit C) Adrenal structure D) Having two kidneys
B
The nurse is caring for a client who has just learned that he is HIV positive. The client asks the nurse how long he has been able to infect others. Select the best response by the nurse A) You can infect others only after you have experienced seroconversion B) You can infect others before the HIV antibody is detectable in your blood C) You can infect others only when you are actually diagnosed with AIDS D) You can infect others when you start to get sympotms
B
The nurse is caring for a client whose temperature is increasing. The nurse is aware that the client will also experience an increase in: A) White blood cell count B) Heart rate C) Respiratory rate D) Blood pressure
B
The nurse is caring for a client with a chronic wound. The most important intervention for the nurse to include in the plan of care would be: A) Protein-controlled diet B) Vitamin C and Zinc supplements C) Steroid therapy D) Low-carbohydrate diet
B
The nurse is reviewing assessment documentation of a client's wound and notes "purulent drainage". The nurse would interpret this as: A) Exudate containing large amounts of fibrinogen B) Exudate containing white blood cells, protein, and tissue debris C) Exudate that is water fluid, low in protein D) Exudate that resulted from leakage of red cells
B
The nurse is teaching a patient about genetic disorders. Which of the following contains the genetic code? A) mRNA B) DNA C) tRNA D) rRNA
B
The nurse monitors the client's oxygen levels and respiratory status. The nurse is aware that oxygen is necessary for: A) Lactic acid formation B) Aerobic metabolism C) Anaerobic metabolism D) Glycolytic pathway
B
The nurse review the lab results of a client who has a thrombocyte count of 60,000/mcL. The client is at rick for? A) Hypercoagulation B) Bleeding C) Deep vein thrombosis D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B
The processes that allow individual cells to develop into complex organisms include all of the following except A) cell-to-cell interactions B) cellular mutations C) cellular specialization D) cellular proliferation
B
Warfarin has been prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the client will have? A) Inhibited activation of Factor X B) Decreased prothrombin and other procoagulation factors C) Binding of antithrombin III, which prevents other clotting mechanisms to occur D) Suppressed formation of fibrin
B
What is the most common cause of drug fever? A) Increased heat production from PTU B) Hypersensitivity reaction to medication C) Impaired peripheral heat dissipation by atropine D) Serotonin syndrome
B
What type of tissue cells are the source of cancer cells? A) Morphogenic cells B) Stem cells C) Terminally differentiated cells D) Embryonic cells
B
When exercising outside on an extremely warm day, the client can feel his heart pounding very rapidly. Thinking in terms of the ability of the aorta to stretch to accommodate more blood circulating during exercise and the warm environment, this is an example of which fibrous protein? A) Ligaments B) Elastin C) Reticular D) Collagen
B
When working with a client who has end-stage renal disease (ESRD) and is receiving peritoneal dialysis, the concept of diffusion can be explained by which of the following statements? A) "Your potassium molecules are lipid soluble and will dissolve in the lipid matrix of your cell membranes" B) If your potassium level is high, then K+ particles will move from your peritoneal cavity into the dialysis solution, where the concentration of K+ is lower C) "You will need to give yourself a potent diuretic so that you can pull the potassium into your blood stream and filter that potassium out in your kidneys" D) "If you can get very warm in a sauna, you will heat up your K+ particles, and the kinetic movement of the particles will increase and pass through the cell membranes faster"
B
Which of the following best describes the consumption of a foreign substance, such as bacteria, in a cell? A) Anaerobic metabolism B) Phagocytosis C) Meiosis D) Hemolysis
B
Which of the following can be used as a treatment to a gene-linked disorder? A) rRNA B) iRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA E) None of the above
B
Which of the following patients is most likely to have impairments to the wound healing process? A patient with: A) A diagnosis of multiple sclerosis and consequent impaired mobility B) Poorly controlled blood sugars with small blood vessel disease C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D) Congenital heart defects and anemia
B
Which of the following statements regarding cell metabolism is most accurate? A) Energy from foodstuffs is used to convert ATP to ADP B) Glycolysis also provides energy in situations when delivery of oxygen to the cells is delayed C) Anabolism consists of breaking down stored nutrients and body tissues to produce energy D) The aerobic pathway occurs in the cytoplasm
B
Which of the following would be a significant risk factor for having a fetus with Down syndrome? A) family history of autosomal genetic disorders B) advanced maternal age (>35 years) C) exposure to rubella in the second trimester D) perinatal hypoxemia
B
Which type of receptor binds with insulin? A) G-protein-linked B) Enzyme-linked C) Ion-channel-linked D) Intracellular
B
While explaining to a young child why he should be careful with a wound, the nurse reviews healing with the parent. The nurse educates the parent about how strength in the healing wound site is developed based on which substance being available? A) Exudate B) Collagen synthesis C) Plasma D) Stable cells
B
While sponging a client who has a high temperature, the nurse observes the client begins to shiver. At this point, the priority nursing intervention would be to: A) Administer an extra does of aspirin B) Stop sponging the client and retake a set of vital signs C) Increase the room temperature by turning off the air conditioner and continue sponging the client with warmer water D) Place a heated electric blanket on the client's bed
B
While studying for a pathophysiology exam on cells and tissue repair, a student asks, "What happens if, in the process of going through the cell cycle, a cell is damaged?" Which is the best response? A) "The cell will die at that point since it will not have an accurate DNA replication" B) "There are built checkpoints in the cell cycle to allow for defects to be edited and repaired" C) "I guess that is how you get skin cancer, the defect was allowed to complete the cycle and continue reproducing defective cells" D) "The cell will complete its cycle with an end result that one of the daughter cells will not be identical of the parent cell"
B
While teaching about HIV/AIDS to a group of high school seniors, the school health curse will begin by explaining the basic facts which will likely include which of the following information? A) Like all viruses, HIV is a genetic material made from DNA with long molecules that carry genetic information B) HIV is different from other viruses since it is a retrovirus that selectively attacks the body's immune cells C) HIV type 1 for some reason rarely develops into full-blown AIDS D) There are two types of HIV, but the one that is endemic to the US is HIV type 2
B
A 24-year-old woman presents with fever and painful swollen cervical lymph nodes. Her blood work indicates neutrophilia with a shift to the left. She most likely has: A) A mild viral infection B) A mild parasitic infection C) A severe bacterial infection D) A severe fungal infection
C
A 42 year old male client recently diagnosed with liver cancer is noted as at high risk for bleeding abnormalities. The nurse recognizes this risk as a result of? A) Vitamin C deficiency in the diet B) Increased amount of vitamin K being produced in the liver C) The reduction of clotting factors synthesized in the liver D) Weakening of the organ walls as a result of inflammation
C
A client diagnosed with autosomal dominant von Willebrand factor disease (vWF) is experiencing mild to moderate bleeding. The health care provider would classify the diagnosis as? A) Type 3 B) Type 1 C) Type 2 D) Type 4
C
A client has an impaired platelet function that may have developed from inheritance, drugs, disease, or extracorporeal circulation. The health care provider would document this as? A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation B) Fibrinolysis C) Thrombocytopathia D) Plasmapheresis
C
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis and started on intravenous heparin therapy. Seven days later, the clients lab values identify a rapid decrease in platelets. The health care provider recognizes this as? A) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) B) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) C) Drug-induced thrombocytopenia D) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
C
A client states, "I heard that my healed wound tissue is stronger than my normal tissue. Is that true?" The nurse responds that roughly 3 months after a wound; the wound tensile strength is approximately what percentage from normal? A) 10% of normal B) 50% of normal C) 70% of normal D) 30% of normal
C
A client with a torn rotator cuff has been asked by his physician, a regenerative specialist, to consider allowing transplantation of his own stem cells into his area of injury. This is an example of: A) proper use of corticosteroid injection B) bone grafting C) therapeutic cloning D) surgical repair of the cartilage
C
A client with diabetes has an admission hemoglobin A1C level of 13 (goal is 6) and an abdominal wound that will not heal. The nurse knows that hyperglycemia (poor blood glucose control) has an effect on wound healing, especially related to neutrophils affecting: A) Collagen synthesis B) Ability to utilize protein to begin the inflammatory phase of healing C) Ability to engulf and kill bacteria because of poor phagocytic function D) Ability to carry oxygen to the wound bed
C
A couple is scheduled to obtain familial lineage studies. The nurse is aware that an analysis will occur identifying maternally inherited: A) Extrachromosomal DNA B) G-protein-linked receptors C) Mitochondrial DNA D) Mitochondrial RNA
C
A genetic carrier who does not suffer from a disease is demonstrating his or her: A) Karyotype B) Genotype C) Phenotype D) Haplotype
C
A nurse is providing care for a client with a diagnosis of Crohn's disease. The nurse recognizes the fact that the disease involves the inflammation and irritation of the intestinal lining. Which of the following types of tissue is most likely involved in the client's pathology? A) Stratified epithelium B) Glandular epithelium C) Simple columnar epithelium D) Simple cuboidal epithelium
C
A school nurse is teaching a class on immunity. Which statement contains an accurate explanation about cellular defenses? A) Ion channels allow rapid polarity changes, which inactivate invading organisms B) Cells release enzymes into the extracellular fluid that degrade invading organisms C) Neutrophils engulf invading organisms where lysosomes break them down D) Active transport draws invading organisms through cell channels to be destroyed
C
All of the following nucleotide bases are found in RNA except A) adenosine B) cytosine C) thymine D) guanine
C
Characteristics of autosomal dominant disorders include the fact that A) offspring of an affected individual have a 25% chance of being carriers B) males are affected more often than females C) unaffected individuals do not transmit the disease
C
Coagulation activated by the extrinsic pathway is initiated when? A) Blood is exposed to tissue extracts B) An increase in blood volume occurs in the vascular system C) Release of thromboplastin from the injured vessel wall D) Factor X is activated
C
Following surgery for appendicitis, the teenager notes she has 4 small "stab" wounds on her abdomen. She is obviously worried about her body appearance. The nurse explains, "Your body will heal quickly and tissue repair will allow for regeneration of any cells needed." The client asks, "What does regeneration mean?" The nurse responds that tissue repair by regeneration means: A) "Your body will fill-in the wound with connective tissue, making the scar area very strong" B) "Your body will develop a complex matrix of cells that will fill-in the scar giving it greater structure than before" C) "Any injured cells are replaced with cells of the same kind. Therefore, after healing, the wound will look like your surrounding skin" D) "Your blood will send stem cells to the area to allow it to heal faster than normal"
C
Genes that code for a particular trait come in several forms called A) exons B) introns C) alleles D) phenotypes
C
How does the nurse best define hardiness to a client? A) Hardiness assists you in preventing nausea and vomiting B) Hardiness helps you respond to medications better C) Hardiness describes a personality characteristic that assists in the stress response D) Hardiness is how your muscles respond to stress
C
Patients with HIV are immunocompromised. Which type of leukocyte is the best indicator of immune function? A) Neutrophil B) Eosinophil C) T-lymphocyte D) Monocyte
C
Select the statement that best describes stem cells A) Cells that normally do not divide but are capable of regeneration when confronted with an appropriate stimulus B) Epithelial cells of the skin and gastrointestinal tract are those that continue to regenerate throughout life C) Undifferentiated cells of continuously dividing tissues that have the capacity to generate multiple cell types D) Cells that are unable to regenerate
C
Telomerase is an enzyme that A) Allows cancer cells to metastasize B) Is essential for normal cellular function C) Confers immortality to cancer cells D) Initiates apoptosis
C
The Krebs cycle provides a common pathway for the metabolism of nutrients by the body. The Krebs cycle forms two pyruvate molecules. Each of the two pyruvate molecules formed in the cytoplasm from one molecule of glucose yields another molecule of what? A) H2O B) NADH+ H+ C) ATP D) FAD
C
The acronym TORCH refers to infectious diseases that may be teratogenic and include all the following except A) toxoplasmosis B) rubella C) chickenpox D) herpes
C
The client experienced a traumatic event in the past that has caused chronic nightmares in which the event is relived. The client may have increased levels of which of the following? A) Aldosterone B) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) C) Norepinephrine D) Cytokines
C
The elderly client, with a history of congestive heart failure, is upset following the death of her husband yesterday. The practitioner observes the client for which of the following? A) Cerebrovascular accident B) Renal failure C) Arrhythmias D) Anemia
C
The locus caeruleus (LC) is an area in the brain stem that produces which of the following hormones? A) Cortisol B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C) Norepinephrine (NE) D) Aldosterone
C
The normal human genome consists of A) 23 chromosomes B) 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome C) 46 chromosomes D) 22 pairs of autosomes
C
The nurse is assessing a client with diabetes and notes an area on the client's right foot as inflamed, necrotic, and eroded. The client states he accidentally slammed his foot in a door 2 weeks ago. The nurse would document this finding as a(n): A) Fungus B) Pustule C) Ulceration D) Abscess
C
The obstetric nurse explains to the client that when she stops breast feeding, her breast tissue will reduce in size. The nurse understands that this regression is due to which of the following? A) Hypoxia B) Cell necrosis C) Apoptosis D) Atrophy
C
The provider explains to the client, who smokes, that cells in the trachea are substituted with cells that are better able to survive. The process is known as which of the following? A) Hyperplasia B) Atrophy C) Metaplasia D) Dysplasia
C
Tumor suppression genes cause cancer when they are A) Overproduced in the cell B) Overactive in the cell C) Absent from the cell D) Present in more than one location on the chromosome
C
When caring for a client with a wound that is healing by primary intention the nurse recognizes which of these best describes this type of wound? A) Fibrin clot (scab) B) Abscess C) Surgical incision D) Burn injury
C
Which antibody class binds to mast cells in allergic reactions? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG
C
Which of the following chromosomal disorders is categorized as a monosomy? A) Klinefelter syndrome B) Down Syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) Cri du chat syndrome
C
Which of the following clients are at high risk for developing dilated cardiomyopathy? A) 17 year old with a diving injury resulting in paraplegia B) 78 year old Alzheimer's patient who received a third degree burn following an oven fire C) 44 year old noncompliant female who forgets to take her hypertensive medications D) 4 year old child born with cerebral palsy and confined to a wheelchair
C
Which of the following is NOT an example of innate immunity? A) Complement B) Lysozyme C) Antibodies D) Macrophages
C
Which of the following serves as recognition markers to aid in self-tolerance? A) Macrophages of the immune system B) Inactivated T cells C) HLA antigens encoded by MHC genes D) Inactivated B cells
C
Which of the following statements is true regarding drug therapy and its effects on the body? A) Drugs only have positive effects on cells B) Drugs do not injure tissues or cells C) Antineoplastic cells directly damage cells D) Drugs only have bad effects when they have side effects
C
Which of the following tumors is malignant? A) Adenoma B) Fibroma C) Carcinoma D) Osteoma
C
Which type of leukocyte works the hardest when you receive a vaccination? A) Eosinophil B) Basophil C) B-Lymphocyte D) Neutrophil
C
A client cuts herself with a sharp knife while cooking dinner. The client describes how the wound started bleeding and had a red appearance almost immediately. The nurse knows that in the vascular stage of acute inflammation, the vessels: A) Constrict as a result of "flight/flight" hormone release resulting in pale-colored skin B) Swell to the point of compromising circulation causing the limb to become cool to touch C) Bleed profusely until the body can compensate and start to send fibrinogen to the wound D) Vasodilate causing the area to become congested causing the red color and warmth
D
A 38 year old female is considering the use of oral contraceptives as a method of birth control. She asks her health care provider if any risks would be involved. The best response would be? A) There are no risks involved B) Why do you want the pill C) Have you talked about this with your partner? D) Yes, risks increase with age
D
A 5 year old child is experiencing itchy, watery eyes and an increased respiratory rate with some inspiratory wheezes. He has been outside playing in the yard and trees. The mother asks, "Why does he get like this?" The health care worker's best response is: A) This is pretty common in children. He is just getting used to all the allergens in the air. I suggest you just give him a shower after every time he plays outside B) This sounds like he is on his way to having an anaphylactic reaction and you need to get a prescription for an EpiPen to decrease his response to monocytes C) Because his allergy is related to something in his environment, the best thing you can do is try to keep him indoors as much as possible D) This is what we call a type I hypersensitivity reaction and usually occurs a few minutes after exposure to his allergen. It is primarily caused by mast cells in his body
D
A client asks why his temperature is always below 98.6F. The nurse responds: A) The best way to bring your body temperature up to normal is to live in a warmer climate B) Some people maintain a core body temperature of 41C and that is normal for them C) A person's highest point of core temperature is usually first thing in the morning D) Normal core temperature varies between individuals within the range of 97F to 99.5F
D
A client is experiencing the early stages of an inflammatory process and develops leukocytosis. The nurse recognizes this as an: A) Decrease in eosinophils at the tissue injury site B) Increase in cell production C) Decrease in blood supply to the affected area D) Increase in circulating neutrophils
D
A client who had an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) returns the next week with a fever, chills, and elevated WBC. The physician suspects the wound is infected. If this wound does not respond to antibiotic therapy, the nurse can anticipate the client will undergo: A) Skin grafting B) Debridement C) Whirlpool therapy D) Removal of device
D
A client's condition has resulted in a decrease in work demands on most cells in the body; the anticipated result would be: A) Decreased programmed cellular death B) Increased mitochondrial growth C) Increased oxygen consumption D) Decreased size of organelles
D
A codon is A) section of DNA that is spliced out of the original transcript to form messenger RNA B) sequence of nucleotides found on transfer RNA C) gene D) sequence of three nucleotides that code for an amino acid
D
A family member asks the nurse, "What do they mean when they start talking about stem cells?" What is the nurse's best response? A) Stem cells have a unique characteristic in that they can renew their cell populations continuously B) Stem cells are regulated by specific genes and the type of cell growing next to them C) Stem cells are specialized in terms of their structure and function D) Stem cells are undifferentiated cells with the capacity to generate multiple different cell types
D
A father of a 2 year old boy recently diagnosed with hemophilia A asks the nurse how to prevent complications for his son. The best response would be? A) Do not allow the child to play outside or with other children B) Small bleeding in the joints is to be expected and can be treated at home C) Hemophilia A will no longer be a concern once treated with a blood transfusion D) Avoid administering asprin and non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D
A health care provider suspects a client has developed PTSD. Select the necessary criterion to validate the diagnosis A) A functional magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan that demonstrates that a client has decreased reactivity of the amygdala and hippocampus after a traumatic event B) An impaired deficit of memory and concentration for greater than a 6-month period after a traumatic event has occurred C) A positron emission tomography (PET) scan that demonstrates that a client has decreased reactivity of the anterior cingulated and orbitofrontal areas after a traumatic event D) At least 1 month of clinically significant distress affecting a person after witnessing or experiencing a traumatic event that affects other parts of his or her life
D
A normal response to fever is an elevated heart rate. A client with a fever who is not exhibiting an elevated heart rate would indicate to the nurse that the cause of the fever might be which of the following? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Flu C) Pulmonary emboli D) Legionnaires disease
D
A nurse is caring for four clients. Select the client at greatest risk for high blood levels of lead A) A 62-year-old male with hypercalcemia who smokes B) A 30-year-old Caucasian female office worker with asthma C) A 17-year-old Hispanic male student who takes a wood working class D) A 2-year-old anemic child who lives in a turn-of-the century home
D
A patient has been diagnosed with a neurodegenerative disease called multiple sclerosis (MS). The physician explains to the patient that this disease may be caused by dysregulated apoptosis. Later that day, the patient asks the nurse what this means. The nurse should reply: A) The cells around your nerves don't know how to die correctly B) There is an inappropriately low rate of apoptosis occurring within the cells C) The cytoplasm should neutralize the various apoptoic inhibitors but isn't working correctly D) Dysregulated apoptosis has caused an excessive rate of ptogrammed cell death along the neuro pathways
D
A potential donor is angry at the personal nature of the questions about HIV risk factors that he is required to answer at a blood collection center, and states that simple blood testing should suffice. How can the nurse at the center best respond? A) Even though blood tests are completely accurate, the high stakes of blood donation and transfusion mean that double measures are appropriate B) There's a chance that persons who are asymptomatic but HIV positive can have their antibodies missed by serum testing C) There are some very uncommon subtypes of the HIV virus that are not detectable by current testing methods D) There's a period shortly after someone is infected with HIV when blood tests might still be negative
D
A pregnant client is attending a nutrition class for first-time moms. During the class, the instructor stressed that they should avoid consumption of which food that may cause brain damage from methyl mercury exposure? A) Fresh milk B) Beets C) Raw hamburger D) Tuna
D
An infant was born with facial nerve paralysis that occurred with delivery. As the infant ages, it becomes apparent that the facial muscles affected by the nerve damage are not moving. Seeking surgical repair, the family asks why the damage to the child's face is not being repaired by the body. The healthcare provider states that neurons (connected to the facial muscles) are highly specialized cells that: A) cannot repair themselves without growth factors coming to the area B) will require stem cell injections in order to start the repair process C) cannot divide and repair themselves without a parent cell of the same lineage D) lose their ability to proliferate once development of the nervous system is complete
D
Biologic agents differ from other injurious agents in that they are able to replicate and can continue to produce their injurious effects. How do Gram-negative bacteria cause harm to the cell? A) Gram-negative bacilli enter cell and disrupt its ability to replicate B) Gram-negative bacilli cannot cause harm to the cell; only Gram-positive bacilli can harm the cell C) Gram-negative bacilli excrete elaborate exotoxins that interfere with cellular production of ATP D) Gram-negative bacilli release endotoxins that cause cell injury and increased capillary permeability
D
Cancer cells exhibit all of the following properties except A) Immortality B) Excessive proliferation C) Nomadic D) High differentiation
D
Cytotoxic T cells destroy infected cells by A) Perforin action B) Promoting apoptosis C) Stimulating necrosis D) A and B
D
During a review session discussing cells, a student asks, "What do you call it when a cell becomes more specialized in terms of structure?" Which response answers the question correctly? A) Cell proliferation B) Mitosis C) Matrix D) Cell differentiation
D
Full expression of cancer in a host is a multistep phenomenon. These steps include all the following except: A) Initiation B) Promotion C) Progression D) Emigration
D
Genetic disorders that follow predictable patterns of inheritance are called A) polygenic disorders B) chromosomal aneuploidy C) non-Mendelian disorders D) single-gene disorders
D
How does facilitated diffusion enable molecules to cross cell membranes? A) Substances use energy to move against the concentration gradient B) Ion channels are triggered to open and molecules cross the membrane C) Molecules are pulled in the direction of less concentration D) Transport proteins carry molecules to areas of lower concentration
D
Individuals affected with which genetic disorder are almost always males? A) autosomal dominant disorders B) autosomal recessive disorders C) chromosomal disorders D) X-linked disorderes
D
Photo-oncogene overexpression is associated with the development of A) Birth defects B) X-linked genetic defects C) Congenital disease D) Cancer
D
Proto-oncogene overactivity may increase cellular proliferation through all of the following mechanisms except A) Excessive production of growth factors B) Excessive production of growth factor receptors C) Excessive production of transcription factors D) Excessive production of p53
D
Select the first stage of hemostasis A) Clot diffusion B) Formation of the platelet plug C) Clot retraction D) Vessel spasm
D
Select the option that most accurately describes the process resulting in specialized cells A) Cell cycle B) Apoptosis C) Proliferation D) Differentiation
D
Select the statement that best describes autoimmune disease A) Autoimmune diseases results from an overuse of antibiotics that causes damage to body tissues by the immune system B) Autoimmune diseases represent an increase in self-tolerance that results in damage to body tissues by the immune system C) Autoimmune diseases represent overuse of the immune system that causes damage to the body tissues D) Autoimmune diseases represent a disruption in self-tolerance that results in damage to body tissues by the immune system
D
Selye suggested that stress could have positive influences on the body, and these periods of positive stress are called: A) Exercise stress B) Emotional stress C) Distress D) Eustress
D
The cells of the client's epithelial tissue are tightly bound together by specialized junctions. Select the junctions primarily responsible for preventing cell separation A) Occluding junctions B) Continuous tight junctions C) Nexus junctions D) Adhering junctions
D
The critical factor for initiation of gene transcription is A) an increase in cellular glucose B) sufficient nutrients C) extracellular signals to initiate the process D) assembly of transcription factors at the promoter area
D
The endothelium that lines the blood vessels is categorized as A) connective tissue B) muscle tissue C) nervous tissue D) epithelial tissue
D
The fetus is most vulnerable to teratogenic influences during A) delivery B) conception C) gestational weeks 1-3 D) gestation weeks 3-9
D
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) acts on which of the following types of cells? A) CD8+ T lymphocytes B) Red blood cells C) White blood cells D) CD4+ T lymphocytes
D
The nurse working at a community clinic is caring for a young male client. The client asks the nurse if he could get AIDS from being sprayed in the face with breast milk. Select the best response by the nurse A) Breast milk is not a mode of AIDS transmission B) Breast milk can contain HIV. You should be tested immediately C) Tell me more about your fear of AIDS D) Breast milk can contain the virus that causes AIDS, but to be infected, the milk needs to be in contact with your mucous membranes or an open sore
D
The psychologist is counseling a client who is overwhelmed by losing his job and the recent death of a parent. Which strategy would be effective for stress reduction? A) Encouraging the client to listen to music on the radio B) Encouraging the client to eat and drink whatever he wants C) Encouraging the client to decrease interaction with others D) Teaching the client to systematically contract and relax major muscle groups
D
The student nurse is removing sutures on client after abdominal surgery, and the wound begins to pull apart. The student asks their instructor, "Did I do something wrong?" The instructor reviews wound healing and replies: A) "Maybe you were a little rough when you pulled out the sutures" B) "Maybe the client was 'picking' at the wound and caused the edges to not be well-approximated" C) "Maybe the sutures were left in too long and impeded healing" D) "Maybe the wound edges were not close enough together to allow epithelialization of the wound to occur"
D
Tumor "grade" refers to what property of the cancer cells? A) Location in the body B) Degree of local invasiveness C) Extent of metastasis D) Histologic characteristics
D
Which identifies correctly how the G protein-linked receptors are similar? A) These linked receptors are involved in rapid synaptic signaling between cardiac electrical cells B) Their cytosolic domain has intrinsic enzyme activity C) Insulin is an example of the second messenger cAMP, which binds to an enzyme-linked receptor D) They have ligand-binding extracellular receptor components, which causes changes that activate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane
D
Which is an endocrine regulator of pituitary and adrenal activity and neurotransmitter involved in autonomic nervous system activity, metabolism, and behavior? A) Immune factor B) Fight-or-flight hormone C) Allostatic factor D) Corticotropin-releasing factor
D
Which of the following assessments supports the finding of lead toxicity? A) Heart rate 70 beats/min B) Hematocrit 40% C) Blood pressure 140/90 mm/Hg D) Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
D
Which of the following clients will have the most efficient adaptation? A) A client who has a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm B) A client in a motor vehicle accident who hemorrhages into his abdomen C) A client who is vomiting blood from ruptured espophageal varices D) A client who has been noticing small amounts of blood in his stool over the past week
D
Which of the following is least likely to contribute to the spread of HIV infection? A) Sharing of intravenous needles B) Oral sex C) Vaginal intercourse D) Mosquitos
D
Which of the following patients has the highest risk of contracting an opportunistic infection? A) A patient who has had HIV for 10 years and has a platelet count of 200/mL B) A patient who recently contracted HIV with a viral load of one million copies/mL C) A patient who has had HIV for 30 years and has a CD4+ count of 1000 cells/uL D) A patient who has had HIV for 3 years and has a CD4+ count of 50 cells/uL
D
Which of the following statements would a nurse tell a patient that best describes a lab finding of metaplasia? A) "This is a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the cells" B) "This is a change in the number of cells as they adapt to change" C) "This is a decrease in the size of the cell" D) "This is a change in cell form as it adapts to increased work demands or threats to survival"
D
Which statement accurately explains function of cellular components? A) Microfilaments help conduct electrical signals between cells B) Mitochondria make energy for the cells to use C) Plasma membranes are impermeable D) Microtubules aid intracellular transport
D
Which type of leukocyte is created in the bone marrow (myeloid)? A) Eosinophil B) Basophil C) Neutrophil D) All of the above
D
While explaining to a patient admitted for stress-induced supraventricular tachycardia, the nurse will incorporate which of the following statements about what happens in the body as a result of excess stress? A) Endorphins are released from the brain every time we experience stress B) The pituitary gland is ultimately responsible for growth, metabolism and maturation, all of which are important when the body is stressed C) The primary role of the parasympathetic nervous system is to stimulate the vagus nerve D) The corticotrophin-releasing factor stimulates the release of norepinephrine, which is responsible for "fight-flight" reaction to stress
D
The _____ arm of a chromosome is called p, and the _____ arm is called q
short; long
When duplicated homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange sections of DNA during meiosis, this is called _____
crossover
When duplicated chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is called _____
nondisjunction
The probability of a father transmitting an X-linked disorder, such as hemophilia, to his son is _____
zero