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Hemorrhagic shock usually begins when blood loss is:

2000 ml

50. How much degrees has Gustillo Tscherne classification of open fractures ? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) this classification does not exsist

4

541. Where is the common place of tendon rupture: a) in muscle-tendon junction and in tendon insertion b) approximately in the middle of tendon c) only in tendon insertion d) only in muscle-tendon junction

???

Staging C P Y

C stage given by clinical examination P stage given by pathologic examinantion of surgical specimen Y stage assessed after neoadjuvant therapy

Malignant tumor at epithelium in stomach:

Carcinoma

Radioactive iodine can not be used for treatment of: spr odp a) papillary carcinoma b) follicular carcinoma c) anaplastic carcinoma d) medullary carcinoma

D but also C

First trimordial peak after polytrauma: Second trimordial peak after polytrauma: Third trimordial peak

Death seconds to minutes Death minutes to hours after injury Days to weeks

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peripheral_artery_disease

Fontaine`s stages

What is about the treatment with kumarine derivates? a) Optimal INR is 2-3 b) works as vitamin K agonist c) increase efficiency of factors II, VII, IX, X

Google this shit

What is the difference in Wallace and Lund Browder charts?

Lund Browder charts takes the age of patient into account. In burns

Which neuroendocrine tumor is least likelly to metaztasise?

Neuroliomma, schwannoma

114. The patient after decompensation in pulmonary circulation can be electively operated: a) after 3 weeks from the decompensation b) after 2 weeks c) after 3 moths d) after 6 months

a

115. In the patients after myocardial infarction is the risk of new ischaemia after operation until 3 months: a) 30% b) 50% c) 70% d) 5%

a

236. Most often used prophylactic A TB is: a) cafzolin b) tetracyklin c) nakomycin d) chloramfenikol

a

272. Typical sign in acute appendicitis is a) Blumberg sign b) Homans sign c) Payr sign d) all from above

a

298. Spica is used for: a) femor immobilization b) fingers immobilization c) humerus immobilization d) clavicle immobilization

a

423. Hypospady is: a) congenital disease urethral opening on the ventral side of the penis in the area of anterior urethra b) congenital disease urethral opening on the dorsal side of the penis in the area of anterior urethra c) depression of the urinary bladder d) depression of the urinary bladder together with incontinency

a

434. Protein denaturation and cell death in burn trauma happen: a) in temperatures over 55 C b) in temperatures over 50 C c) in temperatures over 45 C d) in temperatures over 43 C

a

443. In substituting the patient with fluids we give, according to Par kland scheme, in first 24 hours: a) 4 ml x weight of the patient in kg x BSAP in % b) 40 ml x weight of the patient in kg x BSAP in % c) 400 ml x weight of the patient in kg x BSAP in % d) independently of burn extent patienr has to get 3 l of fluids in 24 hours

a

496. Ogilvie's syndrome is: a) acute colon pseudoobstruction, paralytic ileus, mainly in proximal part of colon b) treated with urgent surgery c) always treated medicamentously d) when there is a risk of caecal perforation from extreme distension, caecostomy is more appropriate than colonoscopic decompression

a

507. What we use for neutralization of heparine effect? a) protamine sulfate b) vitamine K c) usually fresh frozen plasma d) usually full blood

a

512. Amputation in Lisfranc's joint is: a) exarticulation of tarsometatarsal joint b) tarsal amputation c) metatasrsal amputation d) exarticulation of foot digits

a

513. Amputation in Chopart's joint is: a) disarticulation of talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joint b) exarticulation of tarsometatarsal joint c) amputation of transmetatarsal bones d) exarticulation of foot digits

a

526. T ransversal patella fractures are usually treated with: a) stable osteosynthesis with screws b) conservative therapy (plaster or orthesis) c) cerclage d) external fixator

a

53. Pulmonal atelectasis after abdominal operations: a) in 25% of patients b) in 50% of patients c) in 5% of patients d) in 75% of patients

a

534. Periprothetic fractures are special type of fractures. They usually occur near implanted endoprothesis. Classification is called according to city where it was accepted. It is: a) Vancouver b) Paris c) Montreal d) Hamburg

a

570. What is pentaplegia? a) paralysis of diaphragma and all extremities b) paralysis of extremities c) paralysis of ipsilateral extremities d) paralysis of extremities with incontinence

a

602. Bennett's fracture is: a) fracture of I. metacarpal b) fracture of II. metacarpal c) fracture of III. metacarpal d) fracture of IV. metacarpal

a

668. For suturing skin during amputation for gangrene in we don't use: a) tweezers b) needleholder c) scissors d) suture material

a

681. Fontaine's stage I I is called: a) claudication stage b) stage of rest pain c) stage of gangrene d) asymptomatic stage

a

713. The most common E C G change in massive pulmonary embolism is: a) T wave inversion in chest leads b) normal T wave c) wider QRS complex d) P wave

a

85. Healing of the wound per tertiam intentionem is: a) healing of the primary sutured wound after the evacuation of abscess by secondary suture b) non-complicated healing of the wound with ATB c) healing of the wound with fever d) creation of fistula in the wound

a

86. A TB prophylaxis in colorectal surgery is applied: a) immediately before surgical procedure b) 24 hours before surgical procedure c) 48 hours befor surgical procedure d) 12 hours before surgical procedure

a

Fontaine classification stage I of chronic limb ischemia is characterised: a) stenosis of closure of vessels without symptoms b) claudicatio intermidients after walking apwcific distance c) rest or nigh pain d) ischemia-> with trophic changes or necrosis

a

For bleeding from upper GIT is used: a) Forrest classification b) Fontaine classification c) Strasberg classification d) Birsmuth classification

a

Lowenbergg sign is positive if values are a) 80-100 torr b) 120 to 140 torr c) above 150 torr d) 180 torr

a

The start of strong anaesthesis and muscle relaxation in subarachnoidal block: a) to 5 min b) to 10 min c) to 15 min d) to 20 min

a

What does belong to the neurologic complications of regional anesthesia: a) meningitis b) transient ischemic attack c) vertebro - algic syndrome d) intravertebral abscess

a

What is the time period stated in secondary early suture: a) from 10 till 20 days b) from 7 till 10 days c) until 10 days d) more than 20 days

a

What kind of anastomosis is performed after right hemicolectomy: a) Ileo-transversoanastomosis b) Ileo-coloanastomosis c) Colo-rectoanastomosis d) Ileo-sigmoanastomosis

a

Which pancreatic tumor is associated with Whipple trias: a) insulinoma b) glucagonoma c) gastrinoma d) somatostatinoma

a

Which thyroid carcinoma is developed from parafollicular C cells? a) medullary b) anaplastic c) follicular d) papillary

a

Coniotomy:

a) between cricoid and thyroid cartilage

106. According to the risk factors in anesthesiologic examination we distiguish: a) groups ASA 1-5, and ASA 1 patients have the highest risk b) groups ASA 1-5, and ASA 5 patients have the highest risk c) gropus ASA 1-3, and ASA 1 patients have the highest rist d) groups according to GCS

b

119. The cor rection of metabolic alkalosis in gastric atonia is done by: a) by solutions of glucosis b) by saline c) by plasmaexpanders d) total parenteral nutrition

b

166. Slash wound is: a) vulnus morsum b) vulnus scissum c) vulnus sectum d) vulnus sclopetarium

b

342. Resuscitation of the circulation in children is initiated if heart rate is: a) 20/ min b) 60/min c) 0/min. d) 100/min

b

343. Proportion of inbreaths and ches compressions in one rescuer in K PR in children is: a) 2:15 b) 2:30 c) 1:3 d) 1:15

b

410. Stranguria means: a) impossible urination b) burning sensation during urination c) bloody urine d) incontinency of urine

b

547. T ransscissio tendinis means: a) tendon rupture b) light tendon rupture c) tendon contusion d) tendon intersection

b

562. How many vertebrae has cervical spine?: a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

b

61. Mortality in patients with massive asspiration and following pneumonia is: a) 30% b) 50% c) 70% d) 10%

b

652. Value of ABI index is in a healthy person: a) 07-0.8 b) 0.9-1.0 c) more than 1.3 d) less than 0.5

b

655. We know Fontaine's: a) criteria b) stages c) fames d) indices

b

663. Pirogov's amputation is: a) resection of ossis cuboideum b) resection in level of talus c) resection in calcaneal level d) exarticulation in the ankle joint

b

685. Fontaine's stage IV is: a) rest interval b) stage of gangrene c) asymptomatic stage d) claudication stage

b

688. Fontaine's stage I I is divided into: a) II a, b, c b) II a, b c) II c d) II a

b

709. Where is contrast agent injected into when ascending phlebography is performed: a) arteria dorsalis pedis b) v. dorsalis pedis c) vena femoralis d) arteria femoralis

b

80. The incidence of postoperative myocardial infaction is: a) 4% b) 0.4% c) 14% d) 20%

b

84. Healing of the wound per secundam intentionem is: a) non-complicated healing of the wound after primary suture b) primary healing of the sutured wound after evacuation of abscess c) healing of the wound after lavage of the wound by desinfection solution d) healinmg of the wound with prophylactic drainage

b

Erysipelas can result in: a) gangrene b) chronic lymphedema c) skin cancer d) crural ulcer

b

In diagnostic of panaritium is important: a) CT scan b) history, clinical examination, eventually X-rays c) history, actual epidemiologic situation, level of CA 19-9 d) history, recommendation document from general practitioner

b

Liver contains: a) 7 segments b) 8 segments c) Right and left lobe d) 8 lobes

b

Miles operation consists of: a) Colo-rectoanastomosis b) Amputation of the rectum c) Axial transversostomy d) Ileo-transversoanastomosis

b

Recurring erysipelas can cause: a) skin cancer b) ulcer c) ulcer that can lead to cancer d) diabetic foot e) gangrene

b

V phlegmona a) affected are tendineal capsules of 2. and 3. or 3. and 4. finger b) affected are the tendineal capsules of 1. and 5. finger c) affected are allways 2 adjacent tendineal capsules, 1st and 2nd, 2nd and 3rd. or 4th and 5th finger d) is superficial panaritium

b

What is not distributive shock: a) Neurogenic b) Hemorrhagic c) Septic d) Anaphylactic

b

Which surgeon was the first to win nobel prize a) prof. Billroth b) prof. Emil Theodor Kocher c) prof. Steiner d) prof. Barnard

b

10. Refractory stage of hypovolemic shock arise: a) 15-30% volume loss b) 30-40% volume loss c) 40-50% volume loss d) 15% volume loss

c

17. The patient after commotio cerebri has: a) fever b) reduced bowel peristalsis c) retrograde amnesia d) increased apetite

c

20. For examination of basal nutritional metabolism in surgical patient can be used: a) Quirck - Larsson formula b) Aspen formula c) Harris Benedict formula d) McLaren formula

c

238. A TB prophylaxis should last: a) min. 5 days b) min. 2 weeks c) max. 24 hours d) max. 3 days

c

24. Operations in gastrointestinal tract perforations belong to procedures which are: a) elective b) acute c) urgent d) none of a, b and c

c

253. Vulnus scissum is a) chopping wound b) laceration wound c) biting wound d) cutting wound

c

256. Vulnus sectum is: a) cutting wound b) lacareation wound c) chopping wound d) gunshot wound

c

294. Stella dorsi is used in treatment of: a) femur fracture b) humerus fracture c) clavicle fracture d) scapulla fracture

c

338. Distension of abdomen and high level of diaphragmas endangers children with respiratory failure: a) in first week of life b) in first month of life c) 2 years d) 5 years

c

345. Heimlich maneuver in children is used: a) in all ages b) in children older than 1 year c) in older children d) is not used

c

353. Intraperitoneal bleeding in patients with negative clinical finding is seen approximately in: a) 5% of patients b) 10% of patients c) 20% of patients d) 30% of patients

c

37. Classification of desinfection according to the grade of effectivity: a) classification total and zero b) there is no classification c) total and partial d) minimal and maximal

c

524. Hoff's fracture is: a) supracondylar femoral fracture b) fracture of patella c) transversal fracture of femoral condyli d) fracture of femur and tibia

c

578. Uncertain signs of lumbar spine fracture is: a) positive X-ray b) crepitus c) pain and swelling d) all above

c

656. Fontaine's stages are divided into: a) 2 stages b) 5 criteria c) 4 stages d) 3 indeces

c

670. F lexion contracture occurs after: a) femoral exarticulation b) amputation of thigh c) amputation in crural area d) transmetatarsal amputation

c

674. Prevention of phantom pain is: a) application of anesthetic into nerve area b) nerve suture c) use of analgetics d) use of antibiotics

c

704. Perthes' test is used to determine: a) passability of lymphatic system b) passability of arterial system c) passability of deep venous system d) arteriovenular communications

c

708. Where is contrast agent injected into when retrograde descending phlebography is performed: a) v. poplitea b) femoral artery c) v. femoralis d) a. dorsalis pedis

c

712. Gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism is: a) plethysmography b) Doppler examination c) angiopulmography d) ECG

c

Acute rejection: a) is not prevented by immunosuppressive drugs b) always occur in the first year after transplantation c) is mediated primarily by T lymphocytes d) is prevented ny screening the recipient for performed antibody

c

Baushins valve is: a) mitral valve b) valve of papilla Vateri c) ileocecal valve d) none answer is correct

c

CTSI ( CT severity index) score in acute pancreatitis: a) Bolzano score b) Basel score c) Balthazar score d) Balzer score

c

In gas gangrene, clostridia: a) streptokinase b) hyaluronidase c) lecithinase d) all is correct

c

Localised Soft tissue "diseases" are all except: a) Foruncles b) folliculitis c) cellulitis d) lymphadenitis

c

Lowenberg`s sign is performed by: a) pressing planta pedis b) pressing calf by hand c) pressing calf by blood pressure cuff d) dorsal flexion in ankle

c

Typical position for a patient with perforated duodenal ulcer is: a) laying on the back with extension of the limbs b) laying on the stomach c) laying on the back with the flexion of lower limbs d) laying on he side with flexion of the limbs

c

What is the time period specified in the primary delayed suture: a) until 4 days b) from 2 till 4 days c) from 4 till 7 days d) more than 7 days

c

Which carcinoma of thyroid gland is most aggressive: a) papillary carcinoma most common b) follicular carcinoma c) anaplastic carcinoma d) medullary carcinoma

c

Which is not used for long time nutrition: a) Esophageostomy b) Gastrostomy c) Duodenostomy d) Jejunostomy

c

567. Which spinal nerve comes out neuroforamen C5-C6? a) C4 b) C5 c) C6 d) C7

c All cervical nerves except C8 emerge above their corresponding vertebrae, while the C8 nerve emerges below the C7 vertebra

11. The haemor rhagy by subdural hematoma is: a) hidden b) between pia and dura mater c) below the fascia of the muscle d) in patients with coagulopathy

d

173. Replantation means: a) translocation of cutaneous lobe b) transplantation of the big toe instead of a thumb c) transplantation from the cadaverous donor d) microsurgical suture of completely amputed part of the body

d

211. What is not a crystaloid solution: a) saline b) Ringer solution c) Hartmann solution d) dextran

d

235. For antibiotic prophylaxis is not used: a) penicilins b) cefalosporins c) chinolones d) macrolides

d

360. Pringle maneuver is: a) releasin duodenom from retroperitoneum b) mobilisation of liver by cutting triangular ligaments and falciforme hepatis ligament c) cutting lig. teres hepatis d) compression of the portalm triad with fingers or clamps

d

371. Two stroke spleen rupture means: a) Rupture of the spleen on two and more sites b) rupture of two and more arteries going into spleen c) rupture of the spleen capsule and subsequent bleeding into abdominal cavity d) creation of subcapsular rupture and haematoma and latter rupture

d

42. Tscherne classification involves: a) damage of the bone only b) x-ray picture of the fracture c) prognosis of the treatment d) damage of the soft tissues in closed fractures as well

d

525. When we puncture in knee area in case of intraarticular fracture we get: a) pus b) synovial exudate c) pure blood d) blood with fat

d

539. Luxatio tendinis occurs as a result of: a) disruption of tendon vagina b) disruption of muscular fascia c) muscular rupture d) only tendon rupture

d

563. How many spinal nerves has cervical spine? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

d

6. Distributive shock is characterised with: a) blood volume problem b) blood pump problem c) bradycardia d) blood vessel problem

d

653. Value of ABI for critical ischemia is: a) 0.7-0.9 b) 0.6-0.8 c) more than 1.0 d) less than 0.5

d

675. Phantom pain after amputation occurs in: a) 40% b) 30% c) 20% d) 80%

d

682. Fontaine's stage I I I is called: a) claudication stage b) asymptomatic stage c) stage of gangrene d) stage of rest pain

d

689. Fontaine's stage I Ia claudications are after distance of : a) 500 m b) 100 m c) 50 m d) 200 m

d

7. Grade of anesthesia required for surgery a. stage I b. stage II c. stage III d. stage IV

d

705. Linton's test is used to determine: a) arteriovenular communications b) passability of arterial system c) passability of lymphatic system d) passability of deep venous system

d

711. Angiopulmography is used to diagnose: a) peripheral vascular disorders b) central venous pressure c) defects in gas exchange of O2 and CO2 d) pulmonary embolism

d

75. Incidence of preoperative arhytmias is: a) 50% b) 40% c) 70% d) 20%

d

Ankle Brachial Index is: a) one of the diagnostic methods used for chronic limb ischemia b) normal ABI is 0.9-1 c) in case of multi level occlusion ABI < 0,5 d) all answers are correct

d

Billroth I resection of the stomach includes: a) Gastro-enteroanastomosis b) Entero-enteroanastomosis c) Oeophago- gastroanastomosis d) Gastro-duodenoanastomosis

d

In perforative sigmoidal diverticulitis is usually performed: a) Miles operation b) Dixon operation c) Billorth operation d) Hartmann operation

d

Open book fracture of pelvis a) transcondylar traction b) embolism of injured vessels c) giving volumexpanders d) applying of pelvic clip

d

Recommended place for lumbar punction is: a) between 2 and 3 lumbar vertebrae b) between 4. and 5. lumbar vertebrae c) between 1 and 2 lumbar vertebrae d) between 3 and 4 lumbal vertebrae

d

Synchronous metastasis means: a) presence of distant metastasis without known origin of primary tumor b) primary tumor is found consequently after removal of metastasis c) metastasis are found consequently after removal of primary tumor d) primary tumor and metastasis are present at the same time

d

V - phlegemonia is: a) inflammation of the foot affected by DM b) inflammation of perirenal fascias without covers of the testicles c) inflammation of the knee d) inflammation of the tendons covers of the hand

d

What does not belong to first order septic mediator : a) IL-1 b) IL-6 c) TNF alpha d) prostaglandins

d

What is used for thrombolytic treatment: a) Urokinaze b) Streptokinaze c) ASA (acetylosalicylic acid) d) rTPA ( recombinant of tissue plasminogen activator)

d

Which one does not belong to soft tissue : a) folliculitis b) carbuncles c) serolitis? d) lymphadenitis

d

In thyroid carcinoma; which type is associated with MEN II?

medullary carcinoma

358. Most commonly injured organ in blunt and penetrating abdomnial injuries is: a) spleen b) liver c) panreas d) small intestine

|b