ACE Group Fitness Instructor chapter 3

In the sagittal plane, which fundamental movements occur? a. Flexion and extension b. Circumduction and opposition c. Rotation and supination d. Adduction and abduction

a - In the sagittal plane, fundamental movements include flexion, extension, hyperextension, dorsiflexion and plantarflexion.

It is the "crossover" point - a level of intensity at which blood lactate accumulates faster than it can be cleared, which causes the person to breathe faster in an effort to blow off the extra CO2 produced

What is the first ventilatory threshold (VT1)?

You have decided to administer the talk test to your cstudents to be assured that they are below the first ventilatory threshold or at an RPE of 3 to 4. In what phase of cardiorespiratory training would your students be in? a. Aerobic-base Training b. Aerobic-efficiency Training c. Anaerobic-endurance Training d. Anaerobic-power Training

a - Aerobic-base training is the first phase of cardiorespiratory training where a person develops an initial aerobic base. A person should be able to talk comfortably during the talk test and be at a RPE of 3 to 4 on a 0 to 10 scale.

According to the ACE IFT Model, what is phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training component? a. Anaerobic Power Training b. Anaerobic Endurance Training c. Aerobic Efficiency Training d. Aerobic Base Training

a - Anaerobic power training is typically the last phase in cardiorespiratory training because a person needs a good aerobic foundation in order to train for power.

Which of the following are utilized for anaerobic energy production? a. Glycogen b. Fatty Acids c. Amino acids d. Oxygen

a - Glycogen and creatine phosphate are the main substrates utilized for anaerobic energy production

Which phase of cardiorespiratory training challenges the phosphagen system and is typically only entered into for clients with sport specific training goals? a. Anaerobic-endurance Training b. Aerobic-base Training c. Aerobic-efficiency Training d. Anaerobic-power Training

d - Anaerobic-power training overloads the fast glycolytic system and challenges the phosphagen system with high intensity intervals, which are typically sport specific.

How many vertebrae are in the lumbar spine?

5

How many vertebrae are in the cervical spine?

7

How many vertebrae are in the thoracic spine?

12

In your class you are doing speed and agility drills in which students perform high intensity drills for 15-30 seconds at an intensity level for 70% of their maximal effort. Which of the following energy systems is predominant during this drill? a. Phosphagen system b. Glycolytic system c. Both a and b d. ATP system

The glycolytic system is predominating in speed and agility drills that require moderate power at a moderate duration.

Which of the following is an example of Movement training? a. Bend and lift movements b. Leg extension c. Depth jumps d. Isolated isometric contractions

a - Movement training consists of developing movement efficiency in all three planes of motion. Bending and lifting movements is one example.

Moving the leg medially toward the body in a frontal plane is referred to as: a. Adduction b. External Rotation c. Hip Flexion d. Abduction

a - Moving the leg toward the body medially in the frontal plane is adduction (think "adding the leg to the body).

What is the biggest issue most people face when squatting? a. Not enough ankle dorsiflexion b. Too much ankle dorsiflexion c. Quadriceps are not strong enough d. None of the above

a - One of the most common problems people face when squatting is not enough ankle dorsiflexion and they have trouble keeping their heels down.

There are six external rotators of the hip. Which of the following muscles is not one of them? a. Adductor magnus b. Gluteus minimus c. Gluteus medius d. Quadratus femoris

a - The adductor magnus is one of the muscles of the hip that produces adduction and internal rotation.

Which of the following has been thought to represent the highest sustainable level of exercise intensity? a. Anaerobic threshold b. Aerobic threshold c. First ventilator threshold d. Talk test threshold

a - The anaerobic or lactate threshold is used as a marker of exercise performance as it is thought to indicate when an exercise intensity can no longer be sustained.

Bob is new to working out and is struggling to maintain a neutral spine during a bodyweight lunge and is finding it difficult to maintain balance. In which phase of the functional movement and resistance training should Bob be in? a. Stability and Mobility Training b. Movement Training c. Load Training d. Performance Training

a - The development of proper motor control to establish a base for future exercise programming is critical for Bob's success. Establishing proper posture, balance, movement, and range of motion will all need to be developed first in the stability and mobility training.

Tight hip adductors and weak gluteus medius muscles can lead to which compensation? a. Knees moving inward b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine c. Lateral torso shift to one side d. Lack of foot stability

a - The muscles that oppose the inward movement of the knees are weak and the muscles that generate it are tight, therefore causing the movement to occur.

A pull-up (wide grip) is an example of shoulder a) adduction b) extension c) horizontal abduction d) abduction

a)

Cues such as "ankles under soft knees, under neutral hips, navel in, shoulders back and down, eyes forward with chin down" would be appropriate for what category of movements? a) bilateral standing b) unilateral standing c) quadruped d) supine

a)

The dorsal side of your foot is: a) top b) back c) bottom d) side

a)

What four muscles are primarily responsible for hip extension? a) Gluteus maximus, biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus b) Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, tensor fasciae latae, Sartorius c) Gracilis, adductor magnus, adductor brevis, adductor longus d) Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius

a)

Which of the following is an example of a concentric contraction? a. Hamstrings in a leg extension b. Hamstrings in a leg curl c. Triceps in a bicep curl d. Erector spinae in the upward portion of an abdominal crunch

b - A concentric contraction occurs when the agonist muscle shortens, generating force. This occurs during the force-producing phase of the exercise, which in this case the hamstrings produce in the curling phase of a leg curl.

According to the ACE FIT model, which phase of cardiorespiratory training should come first? a. Aerobic-efficiency training b. Aerobic-base training c. Anaerobic-endurance training d. Anaerobic-power training

b - Aerobic base training is the first phase of the ACE IFT model. It gets sedentary clients to begin exercising at a low-moderate intensity.

Which of the following exercises should you recommend to improve hip mobility, stability and core stability by activating the gluteal muscle groups? a. Hip mobilization: supine 90-90 hip rotator stretch b. Hip mobilization with glute activation: shoulder bridge c. Posterior mobilization: rocking quadrupeds d. None of the above

b - Hip mobilization: Lie supine with knees bent and the feet placed flat on the floor, aligning the anterior superior iliac spine with the knee and second toe. Activate the gluteal muscles to elevate the hips off the floor into hip extension without increasing lordosis.

Most non-competitive fitness goals can be accomplished through which phase of cardiorespiratory training? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4

b - Phase 2 is the final phase before the anaerobic phases, and most non-competitive fitness goals can be accomplished aerobically.

Lateral shoulder raises occur in which plane? a) sagittal plane b) frontal plane c) transverse plane

b)

Which of the following exercises has a PRIMARY focus of increasing strength in the pectoralis major muscles? a) Standing dumbbell lateral raises b) Supine medicine ball chest press c) Standing dumbbell flys with elbows bent, hands above elbows, and upper arms moving horizontally d) Front plank with hands on the ground and elbows extended

b)

Which of the following does aerobic exercise utilize but anaerobic does not? a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Oxygen d. Carbon dioxide

c - Aerobic exercise depends on oxygen to burn calories, and anaerobic does not.

While performing an overhead press, which muscle should you coach your client to engage during the lowering phase? a. Anterior deltoid b. Posterior deltoid c. Latissimus dorsi d. Triceps

c - If the latissimus dorsi is engaged to begin the lowering phase, anterior containment is provided to help stabilize the shoulder and precipitate greater force production during the lifting phase.

You have observed that your student is exhibiting a muscle imbalance commonly associated with lordosis posture. Which muscle do you suspect is shortened? a. Hip extensors b. Neck flexors c. Lumbar extensors d. Scapular stabilizers

c - If your client has lordosis, this is an indication that the lumbar extensors are shortened and tight. It also means the hip extensors, neck flexors and scapular stabilizers are lengthened.

Which of the following would be an example of a closed-chain exercise? a. Preacher curl b. Leg extension c. Barbell squat d. Triceps extension

c - In a closed-chain movement, the end of the chain farthest from the body is fixed, such as a squat where the feet are fixed on the ground and the rest of the leg chain moves. In an open-chain exercise, the end of the chain farthest from the body is free, such as in a seated leg extension.

Of the three energy systems in the body, which one is considered the most rapid in ATP production? a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic glycolysis c. Phosphagen d. None of the above

c - Phosphagen has the fastest rate of ATP production.

Susan is a fitness enthusiast who is looking for a higher-intensity cardiorespiratory routine. She is ready to increase the amount of sustained work at the second ventilatory threshold. In which phase of cardiorespiratory training is Susan in? a. Aerobic-base Training b. Aerobic-efficiency Training c. Anaerobic-endurance Training d. Anaerobic-power Training

c - Susan is ready to go into phase 3 of cardiorespiratory training which is also referred to as lactate threshold tolerance training. In Anaerobic-endurance training, she will have the benefit of utilizing the working muscles to produce force at an extended period of time to get her at or above VT2.

Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation? a. Knees moving inward b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine c. Raised heels d. Lateral torso shift to one side

c - The plantarflexor muscles cause the heels to elevate, therefore tight, or overactive, plantarflexors can lead to the inability to keep heels in contact with the floor.

Which of the following is an example of alternating pushing and pulling exercises? a. 3 sets of chest press alternating with 3 sets of chest flys b. 3 sets of leg press alternating with 3 sets of squats c. 3 sets of bicep curls alternating with 3 sets of tricep push-downs d. 3 set of lat pulldowns alternating with 3 sets of rows

c - When alternating pushing versus pulling, the exercises must alternate between targeting muscles on either side of the joint. Biceps are on anterior side of the elbow joint and triceps are on the posterior side.

Which term describes muscle action which shortens to create muscle tension? a. Isometric b. Eccentric c. Concentric d. None of the above

c - When the muscle shortens in response to muscle tension, it is a concentric action.

A wide grip push-up is an example of shoulder: a) abduction b) extension c) horizontal adduction d) horizontal abduction

c)

Cues such as "Palms under gently flexed elbows, knees under hips, neutral spine, head and hips, feet pointing in the same direction, fingers pointing forward" a) bilateral standing b) unilateral standing c) quadruped d) supine

c)

What general cue should a GFI give to a class in which several participants exhibit exaggerated lordosis during exercises? a) Relax the shoulders b) Contract the back extensors c) Contract the abdominals d) Relax the gluteals

c)

Which of the following muscles contract concentrically during the lifting phase of an overhead dumbbell press exercise? a) Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi b) Middle trapezius and pectoralis major c) Deltoid and triceps brachii d) Rhomboids and biceps brachii

c)

Which of the following pairs of exercises represents a balanced push/pull sequence? a) oblique twist/upright row b) push-up/plank c) chest press/dumbbell row d) lateral arm raises/overhead press

c)

An instructor has programmed several sets of 60-second high-intensity intervals in an advanced indooor group cycling class. During the intervals, participants will PRIMARILY derive energy from which pathway? a) Phosphagen system b) Anaerobic threshold c) Glycolytic anaerobic system d) Aerobic system

c) Glycolytic anaerobic system Anaerobic glycolysis is capable of producing adenosine triphosphate (ATP) quite rapidly without oxygen for a few minutes (1 to 2 minutes).

As muscle fibers contract to provide the necessary movement force, what fuel sources do the fibers use for energy production? a. Cortisol and epinephrine b. Hydrogen ions and lactate c. Proteins and carbohydrates d. Creatine phosphate and glycogen

d - Creatine phosphate and glycogen are used for anaerobic energy production. This energy is used to power the movement of contraction.

Which of the following is not an example of a closed-kinetic chain exercise? a. Squats b. Deadlifts c. Lunges d. Leg extension

d - In a closed-chain movement, the distal end of the extremity is fixed, emphasizing joint compression and, in turn, stabilizing the joints. Leg extension is an example of an open-chain kinetic movement

Moving the leg laterally away from the body in the frontal plane is referred to as: a. Adduction b. External Rotation c. Hip Flexion d. Abduction

d - Moving the leg away from the body laterally in the frontal plane is abduction (think "the leg is being abducted, or taken away, from the body").

Which phase of the ACE integrated fitness training program is specific to the mode of activity and the intent is to perform very high-intensity training of nearly maximal muscular capacity? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4

d - Phase 4 focuses on anaerobic-power training. Only highly fit and competitive clients with very specific goals related to high-speed performance during endurance events will require exercise programming in phase 4.

Students should demonstrate the proper movement of 5 primary exercises in all three planes prior to progressing from movement training. Which of the following exercises is not included in the main 5? a. Pushing movements b. Single leg movements c. Bend and lift movements d. Core movements

d - The key 5 movements are bend and lift movements, single leg movements, pulling movements, pushing movements and rotational movements.

Which of the following muscles is not responsible for hip extension? a. Biceps femoris b. Gluteus maximus c. Semitendinosus d. Gluteus medius

d - There are four primary muscles that act as hip extensors including the biceps femoris, gluteus maximus, semitendinosus and semimembranosus. The gluteus medius is a hip abductor

Which of the following is an example of a positive progression in functional movement and resistance training? a. Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge b. Lunges to Wall sits c. Wood chop to Pelvic tilts d. Plank to Prone lies on stability ball with torso movements

d - When progressing in functional movement and resistance training, it is important to start with static exercises and move to movement training. Plank is a static exercise focusing on core. Torso movements on a stability ball focus on the core as well but with added movement, thus progressing the exercise in a positive direction.

According to the ACE IFT Model, what is phase 1 of the functional movement & resistance training component? a. Movement Training b. Load Training c. Performance Training d. Stability and Mobility Training

d)

Horizontal abduction is defined as: a) a frontal plane movement in which a bone moves away from the midline around a joint b) a horizontal plane movement in which 2 bones increase in angle around a joint c) a sagittal plane movement, in which 2 bones decrease in angle around a joint d) a transverse plane movement in which a bone moves away from the midline around a joint

d)

What postural deviation is characterized by an exaggerated curve of the thoracic spine? a) Sway-back b) Scoliosis c) Lordosis d) Kyphosis

d)

A bench press occurs in which plane of motion? a) sagittal plane b) frontal plane c) transverse plane

transverse plane