Adaptive Quizing

The healthcare provider prescribes nitroglycerin ointment for a client who was admitted for chest pain and a myocardial infarction (MI). Which statement, if made by the client, would indicate understanding of the side effects of nitroglycerin ointment? A. "I may experience a headache." B. "Confusion is a common adverse effect." C. "A slow pulse rate in an expected side effect." D. "Increased blood pressure readings may occur initially."

A. "I may experience a headache."

A client with left ventricular heart failure is taking digoxin 0.25 mg daily. What changes does the nurse expect to find if this medication is therapeutically effective? (SATA) A. Diuresis B. Tachycardia C. Decreased edema D. Decreased pulse rate E. Reduced heart murmur F. Jugular vein distention

A. Diuresis C. Decreased edema D. Decreased pulse rate

A client is prescribed epoetin injections. To ensure the client's safety, which lab value should the nurse assess before administration? A. Hemoglobin B. Platelet count C. Prothrombin time D. Partial thromboplastin time

A. Hemoglobin

In the postanesthesia care unit a client received intrathecal morphine (CNS depressant) intraoperatively to control pain. Considering the administration of this medication, what should the nurse include as part of the client's initial 24-hour postoperative care? A. Monitoring of respiratory rate hourly B. Assessing the client for tachycardia C. Administering naloxone every 3 to 4 hours D. Observing the client for signs of central nervous system (CNS) excitement

A. Monitoring of respiratory rate hourly

A client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the critical care unit following a period of prolonged starvation. What signs or symptoms indicate to the nurse that the client may have hypokalemia? (SATA) A. Muscle weakness B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Cardiac dysrhythmias D. Respiratory rate of 24 or higher E. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L)

A. Muscle weakness C. Cardiac dysrhythmias

Which drug does a nurse anticipate may be prescribed to produce diuresis and inhibit formation of aqueous humor for a client with glaucoma? A. Chlorothiazide B. Acetazolamide C. Methazolamide D. Aclidinium bromide

B. Acetazolamide

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of heart failure and acute pulmonary edema. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide 40 mg intravenous (IV) stat to be repeated in 1 hour. What nursing action will best evaluate the effectiveness of the furosemide in managing the client's condition? A. Perform daily weights B. Auscultate breath sounds C. Monitor intake and output D. Assess for dependent edema

B. Auscultate breath sounds

A nurse assesses a client's intravenous site. What clinical finding, unique to infiltration, leads the nurse to conclude that the intravenous (IV) site has infiltrated, rather than become inflamed? A. Pain B. Coolness C. Localized swelling D. Cessation in flow of solution

B. Coolness

A nurse inspects a two-day-old intravenous (IV) site and identifies erythema, warmth, and mild edema. The client reports tenderness when the area is palpated. What should the nurse do first? A. Irrigate the IV tubing B. Discontinue the infusion C. Slow the rate of the infusion D. Obtain a prescription for an analgesic

B. Discontinue the infusion

What should the nurse monitor when a client is receiving a platelet aggregation inhibitor such as clopidogrel? A. Nausea B. Epistaxis C. Chest pain D. Elevated temperature

B. Epistaxis

A client reports fatigue and dyspnea and appears pale. The nurse questions the client about medications currently being taken. In light of the symptoms, which medication causes the nurse to be most concerned? A. Famotidinen B. Methyldopa C. Levothyroxine D. Ferrous sulfate

B. Methyldopa

A client who is receiving atenolol for hypertension frequently reports feeling dizzy. What effect of atenolol should the nurse consider may be responsible this response? A. Depleting acetylcholine B. Stimulating histamine release C. Blocking the adrenergic response D. Decreasing adrenal release of epinephrine

C. Blocking the adrenergic response

A healthcare provider prescribes tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) to be administered intravenously over 1 hour for a client experiencing a myocardial infarction. What is the nurse's priority assessment that is specific to this medication's effect? A. Respiratory rate B. Peripheral pulses C. Level of consciousness D. Intravenous insertion site

D. Intravenous insertion site

A client with chronic liver disease reports, "My gums have been bleeding spontaneously." The nurse identifies small hemorrhagic lesions on the client's face. The nurse concludes that the client needs which additional supplement? A. Bile salts B. Folic acid C. Vitamin A E. Vitamin K

E. Vitamin K

A nurse is teaching a client about ampicillin that has been prescribed for a severe infection. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further teaching? A. "I should report any problems with my hearing." B. "I may be required to get additional blood tests." C. "It is okay for me to stop taking this medication after I improve." D. "If I develop a fever, I will notify my primary healthcare provider."

C. "It is okay for me to stop taking this medication after I improve."

What effect of povidone-iodine does a nurse consider when using it on the client's skin before obtaining a specimen for a blood culture? A. Avoids drying the skin B. Makes the skin more supple C. Eliminates surface bacteria that may contaminate the culture D. Provides a cooling agent to diminish the feeling from the puncture wound

C. Eliminates surface bacteria that may contaminate the culture

A client hospitalized for uncontrolled hypertension and chest pain was started on a daily diuretic 2 days ago upon admission, with prescriptions for a daily basic metabolic panel. The client's potassium level this morning is 2.7 mEq/L (2.7 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse take next? A. Hold the client's morning diuretic dose B. Notify the healthcare provider that the potassium C. level is above normal C. Notify the healthcare provider that the potassium level is below normal D. No action is required because the potassium level is within normal limits

C. Notify the healthcare provider that the potassium level is below normal

A nurse is providing discharge medication teaching to a client who will be taking furosemide and digoxin after discharge from the hospital. What information is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan? A. Maintenance of a low-potassium diet B. Avoidance of foods high in cholesterol C. Signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity D. Importance of an adequate intake and output

C. Signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity

Which medication requires the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hyperkalemia? A. Furosemide B. Metolazone C. Spironolactone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Spironolactone

A client with type 2 diabetes is taking one glyburide tablet daily. The client asks whether an extra pill should be taken before exercise. What is the nurse's best reply? A. "You will need to decrease how much you are exercising." B. "An extra pill will help your body use glucose when exercising." C. "The amount of medication you need to take is not related to exercising." D. "Do not take an extra pill because you may become hypoglycemic when exercising."

D. "Do not take an extra pill because you may become hypoglycemic when exercising."

A nurse prepares to administer intravenous (IV) albumin to a client with ascites. What effect does the nurse anticipate? A. Ascites and blood ammonia levels will decrease. B. Decreased capillary perfusion and blood pressure. C. Venous stasis and blood urea nitrogen level will increase. D. As extravascular fluid decreases, the hematocrit will decrease.

D. As extravascular fluid decreases, the hematocrit will decrease.

A client with an intractable infection is receiving vancomycin. Which laboratory blood test result should the nurse report? A. Hematocrit: 45% B. Calcium: 9.0 mg/dL C. White blood cells (WBC): 10,000 mm 3 D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 30 mg/dL

D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 30 mg/dL

Enoxaparin 40 mg subcutaneously daily is prescribed for a client who had abdominal surgery. The nurse explains that the medication is given for what purpose? A. Control postoperative fever B. Provide a constant source of mild analgesia C. Limit the postsurgical inflammatory response D. Provide prophylaxis against postoperative thrombus formation

D. Provide prophylaxis against postoperative thrombus formation

A client using fentanyl transdermal patches for pain management in late-stage cancer dies. What should the hospice nurse who is caring for this client do about the patch? A. Tell the family to remove and dispose of the patch. B. Leave the patch in place for the mortician to remove. C. Have the family return the patch to the pharmacy for disposal. D. Remove and dispose of the patch in an appropriate receptacle.

D. Remove and dispose of the patch in an appropriate receptacle.

A client takes isosorbide dinitrate daily. The client states, "I would like to start taking sildenafil for erectile dysfunction." The nurse explains that taking both of these medications concurrently may result in which complication? A. Constipation B. Protracted vomiting C. Respiratory distress D. Severe hypotension

D. Severe hypotension

A client is taking lithium sodium. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider for which laboratory value? A. Negative protein in the urine B. Prothrombin of 12.0 seconds C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L) D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 15,000 mm 3 (15 X 10 9/L)

D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 15,000 mm 3 (15 X 10 9/L)

A client admitted for uncontrolled hypertension and chest pain was prescribed a low-sodium diet and started on furosemide. The nurse should instruct the client to include which foods in the diet? A. Liver B. Apples C. Cabbage E. Bananas

E. Bananas

A client with Hodgkin disease is to receive the cyclic antineoplastic vincristine as part of a therapy protocol. The client asks how this medication works. What mechanism of action does the nurse consider when responding to the client's question? A. Arresting mitosis in metaphase B. Inhibiting the synthesis of thymidine C. Alkylating nucleic acids needed for mitosis E. Inactivating DNA while inhibiting RNA synthesis

A. Arresting mitosis in metaphase

A client is admitted to the emergency department with crushing chest pain. A diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome is suspected. The nurse expects that the client's initial treatment will include which medication? A. Aspirin B. Midazolam C. Gabapentin D. Alprazolam

A. Aspirin

A client is receiving hydrochlorothiazide. What should the nurse monitor to best determine the effectiveness of the client's hydrochlorothiazide therapy? A. Blood pressure B. Decreasing edema C. Serum sodium level D. Urine specific gravity

A. Blood pressure

A healthcare provider prescribes doxorubicin for a client with acute myelogenous leukemia. Which specific interventions should the nurse implement? (SATA) A. Monitor for jaundice B. Increase fluids by mouth C. Provide frequent oral care D. Increase physical activities E. Assess vital signs routinely F. Serve hot liquids with meals

A. Monitor for jaundice B. Increase fluids by mouth C. Provide frequent oral care E. Assess vital signs routinely

A healthcare provider prescribes two units of blood for a client who is bleeding. Which nursing interventions are necessary before the blood transfusion is administered? (SATA) A. Obtaining the client's vital signs B. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels C. Allowing the blood to reach room temperature D. Determining typing and cross matching of blood E. Using a Y-type infusion set to initiate 0.9% normal saline

A. Obtaining the client's vital signs D. Determining typing and cross matching of blood E. Using a Y-type infusion set to initiate 0.9% normal saline

A client with a partial occlusion of the left common carotid artery is to be discharged while still receiving warfarin. Which clinical adverse effect should the nurse identify as a reason for the client to seek medical consultation? (SATA) A. Presence of blood in urine B. Bruising noted at various stages of healing. C. Delayed clotting from minor cuts and scrapes. D. Bleeding from gums when brushing teeth. E. Vomiting coffee-ground emesis Coffee

A. Presence of blood in urine

The nurse prepares to give a prescribed capsule of hydroxyzine to a client. The client begins to vomit, so the nurse holds the oral medication. The nurse has not opened the medication package. What does proper and safe disposal of the capsule of hydroxyzine require the nurse to do? A. Return the capsule to the pharmacy. B. Drop the capsule into the sharps container. C. Place the capsule into a red biohazard bag and tie it shut. D. Have another nurse witness the disposal of the medication.

A. Return the capsule to the pharmacy.

What should the nurse keep in mind when administering a benzodiazepine to a client? A. The medication can cause rebound insomnia if it is discontinued abruptly. B. The medication should be administered cautiously for infants less than 6 months old. C. The medication should be administered in higher dosage if the client becomes incontinent. D. The medication can cause fewer problems with dependence and abuse than does a nonbenzodiazepine.

A. The medication can cause rebound insomnia if it is discontinued abruptly.

A client is prescribed albuterol to relieve severe asthma. What adverse effect will the nurse instruct the client to anticipate? (SATA) A. Tremors B. Lethargy C. Palpitations D. Visual disturbances E. Decreased pulse rate

A. Tremors C. Palpitations

When reviewing a drug to be administered, the nurse identifies that the package insert indicates that the Z-track injection technique should be used. Under what circumstance does the nurse expect that this technique will be necessary? A. Volume of medication to be administered is large. B. Medication is irritating to subcutaneous tissue and skin. C. Injection site must be massaged after it is administered. D. Procedure requires an air bubble to be drawn into the syringe.

B. Medication is irritating to subcutaneous tissue and skin.

What should the nurse include in a teaching plan for a client taking calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine? (SATA) A. Reduce calcium intake. B. Report peripheral edema. C. Expect temporary hair loss. D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice. E. Change to a standing position slowly.

B. Report peripheral edema. D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice. E. Change to a standing position slowly.

An older client develops hypokalemia, and an intravenous infusion containing 40 mEq of potassium is instituted. The client tells the nurse that the IV stings a little. What is the nurse's best reply? A. "I'll restart the IV in a different vein. This may help to relieve the pain." B. "Try to imagine a sunny beach with gentle waves, and soon you won't notice the discomfort." C. "You are receiving a large dose of potassium, and unfortunately it often causes a stinging sensation." D. "Some people are more sensitive to pain than others. I'll get a prescription for pain medication for you."

C. "You are receiving a large dose of potassium, and unfortunately it often causes a stinging sensation."

After thoracic surgery for removal of a cancerous lesion in the lung, the client is drowsy, complains of pain when awakened, and then falls asleep. The client has a prescription for morphine sulfate via IV every 3 hours as needed for pain. The client's preoperative blood pressure was 128/76 mm Hg. Postoperative assessments reveal that the client's blood pressure ranges between 90/60 and 100/70 mm Hg. What is the nurse's best initial action? A. Administer morphine as prescribed. B. Obtain a prescription for a vasoconstrictor. C. Give half the prescribed amount of morphine. D. Withhold morphine until the blood pressure stabilizes.

D. Withhold morphine until the blood pressure stabilizes.