Anatomy Online Exam Review Questions

Typical inflammatory response

-tissue injury -injured cell stimulates the release of mast cell -mast cell release histamines, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins -Histamines initiate vasodilation and capillary permeability -increased blood flow causes heat and redness to appear - increased vascular permeability leads to swelling and inflammation -Phagocytes are recruited to help clean up left over debris at the site

A patient's hematocrit is 42 percent. Approximately what percentage of the patient's blood is plasma?

58%

One of the more common adverse effects of cancer chemotherapy is the destruction of leukocytes. Before his next scheduled chemotherapy treatment, a patient undergoes a blood test called an absolute neutrophil count (ANC), which reveals that his neutrophil count is 1900 cells per microliter. Would his healthcare team be likely to proceed with his chemotherapy treatment? Why?

A neutrophil count below 1800 cells per microliter is considered abnormal. Thus, this patient's ANC is at the low end of the normal range and there would be no reason to delay chemotherapy. In clinical practice, most patients are given chemotherapy if their ANC is above 1000.

Which of the following formed elements arise from myeloid stem cells? -B cells - natural killer cells - platelets - all of the above

B cells

explain why administration of a thrombolytic agent is a first intervention for someone who has suffered a thrombotic stroke.

In a thrombotic stroke, a blood vessel to the brain has been blocked by a thrombus, an aggregation of platelets and erythrocytes within a blood vessel. A thrombolytic agent is a medication that promotes the breakup of thrombi.

Following a motor vehicle accident, a patient is rushed to the emergency department with multiple traumatic injuries, causing severe bleeding. The patient's condition is critical, and there is no time for determining his blood type. What type of blood is transfused, and why?

In emergency situations, blood type O− will be infused until cross matching can be done. Blood type O− is called the universal donor blood because the erythrocytes have neither A nor B antigens on their surface, and the Rh factor is negative.

In a healthy young adult, what happens to cardiac output when heart rate increases above 160 bpm? a. It increases. b. It decreases. c. It remains constant. d. There is no way to predict.

It decreases

How does the delay of the impulse at the atrioventricular node contribute to cardiac function?

It ensures sufficient time for the atrial muscle to contract and pump blood into the ventricles prior to the impulse being conducted into the lower chambers.

Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is true? a. It facilitates the proliferation and differentiation of the erythrocyte lineage. b. It is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. c. It is a hemopoietic growth factor that prompts lymphoid stem cells to leave the bone marrow. d. Both a and b are true.

It facilitates the proliferation and differentiation of the erythrocyte lineage

Which of the following statements about albumin is true? -It draws water out of the blood vessels and into the body's tissues. - It is the most abundant plasma protein. - It is produced by specialized leukocytes called plasma cells. -All of the above are true.

It is the most abundant plasma protein

Why is the plateau phase so critical to cardiac muscle function?

It prevents additional impulses from spreading through the heart prematurely, thereby allowing the muscle sufficient time to contract and pump blood effectively.

The hepatic portal system delivers blood from the digestive organs to the ________. a. liver b. hypothalamus c. spleen d. left atrium

Liver

Thrombocytes are more accurately called ________. a. clotting factors b. megakaryoblasts c. megakaryocytes d. platelets

Platelets

Why would it be incorrect to refer to the formed elements as cells?

Platelets are not true cells, they are just cell fragments

A patient has been suffering for 2 months with a chronic, watery diarrhea. A blood test is likely to reveal ________. a. a hematocrit below 30 percent b. hypoxemia c. anemia d. polycythemia

Polycythemia

A young woman has been experiencing unusually heavy menstrual bleeding for several years. She follows a strict vegan diet (no animal foods). She is at risk for what disorder, and why?

She is at risk for anemia, because her unusually heavy menstrual bleeding results in excessive loss of erythrocytes each month. At the same time, her vegan diet means that she does not have dietary sources of heme iron. The non-heme iron she consumes in plant foods is not as well absorbed as heme iron.

T cells that secrete cytokines that help antibody responses are called ________. a. Th1 b. Th2 c. regulatory T cells d. thymocytes

Th2

Describe one cardiac cycle, beginning with both atria and ventricles relaxed.

The cardiac cycle comprises a complete relaxation and contraction of both the atria and ventricles, and lasts approximately 0.8 seconds. Beginning with all chambers in diastole, blood flows passively from the veins into the atria and past the atrioventricular valves into the ventricles. The atria begin to contract following depolarization of the atria and pump blood into the ventricles. The ventricles begin to contract, raising pressure within the ventricles. When ventricular pressure rises above the pressure in the two major arteries, blood pushes open the two semilunar valves and moves into the pulmonary trunk and aorta in the ventricular ejection phase. Following ventricular repolarization, the ventricles begin to relax, and pressure within the ventricles drops. When the pressure falls below that of the atria, blood moves from the atria into the ventricles, opening the atrioventricular valves and marking one complete heart cycle.

Step 5 Hemostasis

The platelets become activated making them spiked and sticky

Why is the pressure in the pulmonary circulation lower than in the systemic circulation?

The pulmonary circuit consists of blood flowing to and from the lungs, whereas the systemic circuit carries blood to and from the entire body. The systemic circuit is far more extensive, consisting of far more vessels and offers much greater resistance to the flow of blood, so the heart must generate a higher pressure to overcome this resistance. This can be seen in the thickness of the myocardium in the ventricles.

What ventricle of the heart that pumps oxygen-depleted blood and the arteries of the body that carry oxygen-depleted blood?

The right ventricle of the heart pumps oxygen-depleted blood to the pulmonary arteries

What are the three main components of the lymphatic system?

The three main components are the lymph vessels, the lymph nodes, and the lymph.

Which of the following statements about mature, circulating erythrocytes is true? a. They have no nucleus. b. They are packed with mitochondria. c. They survive for an average of 4 days. d. All of the above

They have no nucleus

Plasma

Water, proteins, nutrients, hormones, ect. most abundant in blood top layer

Myelofibrosis is a disorder in which inflammation and scar tissue formation in the bone marrow impair hematopoiesis. One sign is an enlarged spleen. Why?

When disease impairs the ability of the bone marrow to participate in hematopoiesis, extramedullary hematopoiesis begins in the patient's liver and spleen. This causes the spleen to enlarge.

Buffy Coat

White Blood Cells, platelets in between hematocrit and plasma very little of it

Why do the cardiac muscles cells demonstrate autorhythmicity?

Without a true resting potential, there is a slow influx of sodium ions through slow channels that produces a prepotential that gradually reaches threshold.

Step 1 Hemostasis

a blood vessel is severed

Which of the following describes a neutrophil? a. abundant, agranular, especially effective against cancer cells b. abundant, granular, especially effective against bacteria c. rare, agranular, releases antimicrobial defensins d. rare, granular, contains multiple granules packed with histamine

abundant, granular, especially effective against bacteria

The force the heart must overcome to pump blood is known as ________. a. preload b. afterload c. cardiac output d. stroke volume

afterload

The process in which antibodies attach to antigens, causing the formation of masses of linked cells, is called ________. a. sensitization b. coagulation c. agglutination d. hemolysis

agglutination

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a risk during a subsequent pregnancy in which ________. a. a type AB mother is carrying a type O fetus b. a type O mother is carrying a type AB fetus c. an Rh+ mother is carrying an Rh− fetus d. an Rh− mother is carrying a second Rh+ fetus

an Rh- mother is carrying a second Rh+ fetus

The taking in of antigen and digesting it for later presentation is called ________. a. antigen presentation b. antigen processing c. endocytosis d. exocytosis

antigen processing

T and B lymphocytes ________. a. are polymorphonuclear b. are involved with specific immune function c. proliferate excessively in leukopenia d. are most active against parasitic worms

are involved with specific immune function

The coronary arteries branch off of the ________. a. aortic valve b. ascending aorta c. aortic arch d. thoracic aorta

ascending aorta

Most blood enters the ventricle during ________. a. atrial systole b. atrial diastole c. ventricular systole d. isovolumic contraction

atrial diastole

In which septum is it normal to find openings in the adult? [mark all correct answers] a. interatrial septum b. interventricular septum c. atrioventricular septum d. all of the above

atrioventricular septum

Step 2 Hemostasis

blood and blood components leak out the breaks

The influx of which ion accounts for the plateau phase? a. sodium b. potassium c. chloride d. calcium

calcium

Step 4 Hemostasis

chemicals are released from the injury site and from underlying collegen

The first heart sound represents which portion of the cardiac cycle? a. atrial systole b. ventricular systole c. closing of the atrioventricular valves d. closing of the semilunar valves

closing of the atrioventricular valves

Which of the following signs is not characteristic of inflammation? a. redness b. pain c. cold d. swelling

cold

Removing functionality from a B cell without killing it is called ________. a. clonal selection b. clonal expansion c. clonal deletion d. clonal anergy

colonel anergy

A molecule of hemoglobin ________. a. is shaped like a biconcave disk packed almost entirely with iron b. contains four glycoprotein units studded with oxygen c. consists of four globin proteins, each bound to a molecule of heme d. can carry up to 120 molecules of oxygen

consists of four globin proteins, each bound to a molecule of heme

The production of healthy erythrocytes depends upon the availability of ________. a. copper b. zinc c. vitamin B12 d. copper, zinc, and vitamin B12

copper, zinc, and vitamin B12

Which type of T cell is most effective against viruses? a. Th1 b. Th2 c. cytotoxic T cells d. regulatory T cells

cytotoxic T cells

Which of the following cells is phagocytic? a. plasma cell b. macrophage c. B cell d. NK cell

macrophage

Interleukins are associated primarily with which of the following? a. production of various lymphocytes b. immune responses c. inflammation d. all of the above

production of various lymphocytes immune responses inflammation

Which chamber initially receives blood from the systemic circuit? [mark all correct answers] a. left atrium b. left ventricle c. right atrium d. right ventricle

right atrium

Step 3 Hemostasis

the smooth muscle in the vessel wall contracts near the injury point reducing blood loss

Which structure allows lymph from the lower right limb to enter the bloodstream? a. thoracic duct b. right lymphatic duct c. right lymphatic trunk d. left lymphatic trunk

thoracic duct

Why is clonal expansion so important? a. to select for specific cells b. to secrete cytokines c. to kill target cells d. to increase the numbers of specific cells

to increase the numbers of specific cells

Which of the lymphoid nodules is most likely to see food antigens first? a. tonsils b. Peyer's patches c. bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue d. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

tonsils

Which of the following lists the valves in the order through which the blood flows from the vena cava through the heart? [mark all correct answers] a. tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar mitral, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar b. aortic semilunar, pulmonary semilunar, tricuspid, bicuspid bicuspid, aortic semilunar, tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar

tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar

A patient was admitted to the burn unit the previous evening suffering from a severe burn involving his left upper extremity and shoulder. A blood test reveals that he is experiencing leukocytosis. Why is this an expected finding?

Any severe stress can increase the leukocyte count, resulting in leukocytosis. A burn is especially likely to increase the proliferation of leukocytes in order to ward off infection, a significant risk when the barrier function of the skin is destroyed.

Describe how secondary B cell responses are developed.

B cells activated during a primary response differentiate either into terminally differentiated plasma cells or into memory B cells. These memory B cells are what respond during a secondary or memory antibody response.

A patient has been experiencing severe, persistent allergy symptoms that are reduced when she takes an antihistamine. Before the treatment, this patient was likely to have had increased activity of which leukocyte? a. basophils b. neutrophils c. monocytes d. natural killer cells

Basophils

Which of the following statements about blood is true? -Blood is about 92 percent water. Blood is slightly more acidic than water. -Blood is slightly more viscous than water - Blood is slightly more salty than seawater.

Blood is slightly more viscous(thick consistency) than water

Immunity can be acquired in an active or passive way, and it can be natural or artificial. What is an example of natural immunity acquired passively?

Breastfeeding is an example of natural immunity acquired passively.

The buffy coat is the proteins of the blood sample that is made up of proteins true or false?

False, made up of white blood cells and platelets

Step 7 Hemostasis

Fibrin forms a mesh that traps more platelets and erythrocytes producing a clot

Describe the role of IgM in immunity.

IgM is an antigen receptor on naïve B cells. Upon activation, naïve B cells make IgM first. IgM is good at binding complement and thus has good antibacterial effects. IgM is replaced with other classes of antibodies later on in the primary response due to class switching.

Which component of the heart conduction system would have the slowest rate of firing? a. atrioventricular node b. atrioventricular bundle c. bundle branches d. Purkinje fibers

Purkinje fibers

Hematocrit

Red blood cells last layer in the test tube 2nd most abundant

Would you expect a patient with a form of cancer called acute myelogenous leukemia to experience impaired production of erythrocytes, or impaired production of lymphocytes?

The adjective myelogenous suggests a condition originating from (generated by) myeloid cells. Acute myelogenous leukemia impairs the production of erythrocytes and other mature formed elements of the myeloid stem cell lineage. Lymphocytes arise from the lymphoid stem cell line.

Describe how the valves keep the blood moving in one direction.

When the ventricles contract and pressure begins to rise in the ventricles, there is an initial tendency for blood to flow back (regurgitate) to the atria. However, the papillary muscles also contract, placing tension on the chordae tendineae and holding the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral) in place to prevent the valves from prolapsing and being forced back into the atria. The semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic) lack chordae tendineae and papillary muscles, but do not face the same pressure gradients as do the atrioventricular valves. As the ventricles relax and pressure drops within the ventricles, there is a tendency for the blood to flow backward. However, the valves, consisting of reinforced endothelium and connective tissue, fill with blood and seal off the opening preventing the return of blood.

The cardiac cycle consists of a distinct relaxation and contraction phase. Which term is typically used to refer ventricular contraction while no blood is being ejected? a. systole b. diastole c. quiescent d. isovolumic contraction

isovolumic contraction

Aging and damaged erythrocytes are removed from the circulation by ________. a. myeoblasts b. monocytes c. macrophages d. mast cells

macrophages

Which of the following cells is important in the innate immune response? a. B cells b. T cells c. macrophages d. plasma cells

macrophages

The cardiovascular centers are located in which area of the brain? a. medulla oblongata b. pons c. mesencephalon (midbrain) d. cerebrum

medulla oblongata

Which of the following is not important in the antiviral innate immune response? a. interferons b. natural killer cells c. complement d. microphages

microphages

Which valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle? [mark all correct answers] a. mitral b. tricuspid c. pulmonary d. aortic

mitral

Which of the following cells would be most active in early, antiviral immune responses the first time one is exposed to pathogen? a. macrophage b. T cell c. neutrophil d. natural killer cell

natural killer cell

Which portion of the ECG corresponds to repolarization of the atria? a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T wave d. none of the above: atrial repolarization is masked by ventricular depolarization

none of the above; atrial repolarization is masked by ventricular depolarization

Which of the following is unique to cardiac muscle cells? a. Only cardiac muscle contains a sarcoplasmic reticulum. b. Only cardiac muscle has gap junctions. c. Only cardiac muscle is capable of autorhythmicity d. Only cardiac muscle has a high concentration of mitochondria.

only cardiac muscle is capable of autorhythmicity

Enhanced phagocytosis of a cell by the binding of a specific protein is called ________. a. endocytosis b. opsonization c. anaphylaxis d. complement activation

opsonization

Step 6 Hemostasis

Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin

Which class of antibody has no known function other than as an antigen receptor? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgE d. IgD

IgD

Which class of antibody crosses the placenta in pregnant women? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgE d. IgG

IgG

What is the role of the dendritic cell in infection by HIV?

The dendritic cell transports the virus to a lymph node.

The process by which leukocytes squeeze through adjacent cells in a blood vessel wall is called ________. a. leukocytosis b. positive chemotaxis c. emigration d. cytoplasmic extending

emigration

The first step in hemostasis is ________. a. vascular spasm b. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin c. activation of the intrinsic pathway d. activation of the common pathway

vascular spasm

Ventricular relaxation immediately follows ________. a. atrial depolarization b. ventricular repolarization c. ventricular depolarization d. atrial repolarization

ventricular repolarization

Which of the following plasma proteins is not produced by the liver? -fibrinogen - alpha globulin - gamma globulin - immunoglobulin

Gamma globulin/ immunoglobulin

How do gap junctions and intercalated disks aid contraction of the heart?

Gap junctions within the intercalated disks allow impulses to spread from one cardiac muscle cell to another, allowing sodium, potassium, and calcium ions to flow between adjacent cells, propagating the action potential, and ensuring coordinated contractions.

Which class of antibody is found in mucus? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgE d. IgD

IgA

Describe the process of inflammation in an area that has been traumatized, but not infected.

The cell debris and damaged cells induce macrophages to begin to clean them up. Macrophages release cytokines that attract neutrophils, followed by more macrophages. Other mediators released by mast cells increase blood flow to the area and also vascular permeability, allowing the recruited cells to get from the blood to the site of infection, where they can phagocytose the dead cells and debris, preparing the site for wound repair.

The ________ layer secretes chemicals that help to regulate ionic environments and strength of contraction and serve as powerful vasoconstrictors. [mark all correct answers] a. pericardial sac b. endocardium c. myocardium d. epicardium

endocardium

Which of the following is not important in preventing backflow of blood? [mark all correct answers] a. chordae tendineae b. papillary muscles c. AV valves d. endocardium

endocardium

In preparation for a scheduled surgery, a patient visits the hospital lab for a blood draw. The technician collects a blood sample and performs a test to determine its type. She places a sample of the patient's blood in two wells. To the first well she adds anti-A antibody. To the second she adds anti-B antibody. Both samples visibly agglutinate. Has the technician made an error, or is this a normal response? If normal, what blood type does this indicate?

he lab technician has not made an error. Blood type AB has both A and B surface antigens, and neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies circulating in the plasma. When anti-A antibodies (added to the first well) contact A antigens on AB erythrocytes, they will cause agglutination. Similarly, when anti-B antibodies contact B antigens on AB erythrocytes, they will cause agglutination.

Hemophilia is characterized by ________. a. inadequate production of heparin b. inadequate production of clotting factors c. excessive production of fibrinogen d. excessive production of platelets

inadequate production of clotting factors

Which of the following leads to the redness of inflammation? a. increased vascular permeability b. anaphylactic shock c. increased blood flow d. complement activation

increased blood flow

People with ABO blood type O ________. a. have both antigens A and B on their erythrocytes b. lack both antigens A and B on their erythrocytes c. have neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies circulating in their blood plasma d. are considered universal recipients

lack both antigens A and B on their erythrocytes

The myocardium would be the thickest in the ________. [mark all correct answers] a. left atrium b. left ventricle c. right atrium d. right ventricle

left ventricle

Which enzymes in macrophages are important for clearing intracellular bacteria? a. metabolic b. mitochondrial c. nuclear d. lysosomal

lysosomal