BIO 111 Final Study Guide- 3

14. Which protein domain/s would a membrane bound receptor not have? A. An intracellular ligand binding domain B. A transmembrane domain C. An intracellular signaling domain D. A membrane bound receptor would have all of the above domains E. A membrane bound receptor would have none of the above domains

A. An intracellular ligand binding domain

5. What effect does DNA demethylation have on gene transcription? A. DNA demethylation promotes gene transcription. B. DNA demethylation inhibits gene transcription. C. DNA demethylation has no effect on gene transcription D. DNA is not methylated E. None of the above

A. DNA demethylation promotes gene transcription.

30. In prokaryotes, what part of the mRNA does the small ribosomal subunit initially bind to? A. The 5' ribosome binding site B. The 5' cap C. The 3' poly A tail D. The start codon E. None of the above

A. The 5' ribosome binding site

33. After transfer RNAs have lost their amino acid during translation, they are released from which tRNA binding site on the ribosome? A. The E site B. The P site C. The A site D. It could be any of the three sites E. None of the above

A. The E site

16. Which statement best describes unipotent cells? A. They are fully differentiated B. They can become only certain cell types. C. They can become any cell type D. They can become any cell type except placenta E. None of the above

A. They are fully differentiated

12. A cell signaling to itself is an example of A. autocrine signaling B. direct cell to cell contact signaling C. paracrine signaling D. endocrine signaling E. synaptic signaling

A. autocrine signaling

17. Which subprocess of development involves multiple cell divisions? A. cleavage B. cellular differentiation C. pattern formation D. morphogenesis E. None of the above

A. cleavage

2. What best describes the acetylation and methylation state of heterochromatin? A. heavily methylated and hypo-acetylated B. heavily methylated and hyper-acetylated C. little to no methylation and hyper-acetylated D. little to no methylation and hypo-acetylated E. None of the above.

A. heavily methylated and hypo-acetylated

25. In the 1-16 cell stage, human embryonic cells are A. totipotent B. pluripotent C. multipotent D. unipotent E. None of the above

A. totipotent

15. Which protein domain/s would an intracellular receptor not have? A. An intracellular ligand binding domain B. A transmembrane domain C. An intracellular signaling domain D. An intracellular receptor would have all of the above domains E. An intracellular receptor would have none of the above domains.

B. A transmembrane domain

28. Which type of bond plays a role in stabilizing both secondary and tertiary structure? A. Van der Waals interactions B. Hydrogen bonding C. Hydrophobic interactions D. Disulfide bridges E. None of the above

B. Hydrogen bonding

29. In eukaryotes, what part of the mRNA does the small ribosomal subunit initially bind to? A. The 5' ribosome binding site B. The 5' cap C. The 3' poly A tail D. The start codon E. None of the above

B. The 5' cap

27. When the initiation of translation is complete, which tRNA binding site does the initiator tRNA occupy on the ribosome? A. The E site B. The P site C. The A site D. It could be any of the three sites E. None of the above

B. The P site

34. Certain cells within the pancreas express the gene for insulin. In those cells, which statement best describes what the chromatin structure would likely be in the area of the chromosome where the insulin gene is located? A. The insulin gene would be in an area of heterochromatin B. The insulin gene would be in an area of euchromatin C. The gene could be in either an area of euchromatin or heterochromatin D. None of the above

B. The insulin gene would be in an area of euchromatin

18. Which subprocess of development involves cells committing to particular cell types? A. cleavage B. cellular differentiation C. pattern formation D. morphogenesis E. None of the above

B. cellular differentiation

13. A cell signaling through gap junctions is an example of A. autocrine signaling B. direct cell to cell contact signaling C. paracrine signaling D. endocrine signaling E. synaptic signaling

B. direct cell to cell contact signaling

1. A relaxed/open chromatin structure that promotes gene expression is called A. a nucleosome. B. euchromatin. C. heterochromatin. D. a supercoil. E. None of the above.

B. euchromatin.

9. What enzymes deacetylate histones? A. HATs B. DNMTs C. HDACs D. Chaperone enzymes E. DNA Demethylase enzymes

C. HDACs

31. Amino acids are attached to which part of a transfer RNA? A. The anticodon loop B. The 5' cap C. The acceptor stem D. The anticodon E. None of the above

C. The acceptor stem

32. A transfer RNA that has an amino acid covalently bound to it is said to be A. primed B. loaded C. charged D. prepped E. None of the above

C. charged

3. The DNA nucleotide that is a target for methylation is A. guanine. B. Adenine. C. cytosine. D. thymine. E. All of the above.

C. cytosine.

23. Cells of the three primary germ layers endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm are examples of cells that are A. totipotent B. pluripotent C. multipotent D. unipotent E. None of the above

C. multipotent

11. Cells signaling to nearby cells is an example of A. autocrine signaling B. direct cell to cell contact signaling C. paracrine signaling

C. paracrine signaling

24. An embryo develops polarity during A. cleavage B. cellular differentiation C. pattern formation D. morphogenesis E. None of the above

C. pattern formation

8. In protein structure, motifs are examples of A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. super secondary structure D. tertiary structure E. quaternary structure

C. super secondary structure

6. The level of protein structure that is stabilized by interactions between R groups is called A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure E. None of the above

C. tertiary structure

20. Which statement best describes the genetic code? A. It is universal, redundant, and has 1 stop and 3 start codons B. It is different in every organism, redundant, and has 1 start and 3 stop codons C. It is universal, not redundant, and has 1 stop and 3 start codons D. It is universal, redundant, and has 1 start and 3 stop codons E. None of the above

D. It is universal, redundant, and has 1 start and 3 stop codons

4. Which statement best describes histone acetylation? A. Leucines located in the carboxy terminal tail of the histone proteins are targets for acetylation. B. Leucines located in the amino terminal tail of the histone proteins are targets for acetylation. C. Lysines located in the carboxy terminal tail of the histone proteins are targets for acetylation. D. Lysines located in the amino terminal tail of the histone proteins are targets for acetylation. E. None of the above.

D. Lysines located in the amino terminal tail of the histone proteins are targets for acetylation.

21. Which statement is true concerning codons? A. All codons specify an amino acid B. All codons specify a different amino acid C. Codons can be a sequence of 3 or 4 nucleotide bases D. More than one codon can specify the same amino acid E. None of the above

D. More than one codon can specify the same amino acid

26. In protein translation what binds to the stop codon? A. The stop tRNA B. The small ribosomal subunit C. The sigma factor D. Release factor E. None of the above

D. Release factor

10. What is a type of covalent bond that can form between the R groups of amino acids? A. van der Waals interactions B. hydrogen bonding C. hydrophobic interactions D. disulphide bridges E. None of the above

D. disulphide bridges

22. The cellular process of apoptosis specifically refers to A. cell division B. cell differentiation C. changes in cell shape D. programed cell death E. None of the above

D. programed cell death

7. Which level of protein structure requires two or more proteins interacting to form a multiprotein complex? A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure E. None of the above

D. quaternary structure