Blood Banking- ALL Quizzes

The following is not an environmental factor in the Antibody-Antigen reaction a. time b. immunomodulation c. pH d. Ionic Strength

b. immunomodulation

The antigens of the ______ system are located on one of both of the 2 glycoproteins: GYPA and GYPB? a. MNBs b. Kk c. FY^aFY^b d. JK^aJK^b

a. MNSs

What percentage of the white population has type-O blood? a. 45% b. 10% c. 4% d. 32%

a. 45%

What percentage of A2 individuals produce anti-A1? a. 5% b. 20% c. 50% d. 80%

a. 5%

A patient who was recently diagnosed with an obstructed bowel became septic from Proteus vulgaris. Prior to surgery, a routine type and screen was performed. Though this person typed as an A two years ago, his forward type is consistent with an AB individual, albeit weaker in strength with anti-B. What is the reason for this discrepancy? a. Acquired "B" b. technical error c. incorrect patient history d. contaminated anti-A

a. Acquired "B"

If a group O mother gives birth to a group A baby, which of the following antibodies is usually responsible for crossing the placenta and causing hemolytic diseases of the newborn (HDN)? a. Anti-AB b. Anti-B c. Anti-A d. Anti-H

a. Anti-AB

Which of the following statements is false? a. Anti-D usually stimulates complement b. Anti-D is mostly IgG c. Anti-D can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn d. none of the above

a. Anti-D usually stimulates complement

What immunodominant sugar is responsible for B specificity? a. D-galactose b. L-fucose c. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine d. D-glucose

a. D-galactose

The lectin used in transfusion medicine for the distinguishing of A1 cells from A2 cells is? a. Dolichous biflorus b. Sambucus nigra c. Arachis hypogaeus d. Ulex europaeus

a. Dolichous biflorus

Why is the 37C reading omitted when using PEG additive? a. PEG may cause aggregation of RBCs at 37C b. antibodies detected by PEG do not react at 37C c. warm-reacting antibodies are not clinically significant d. unwanted reactions due to C3b will be detected at 37C

a. PEG may cause aggregation of RBCs at 37C

All of the following are true regarding Rh antibodies except: a. Rh antibodies can bind complement on the red blood cell membrane b. an individual with a low titer Rh antibody may experience a secondary immune response on antigen exposure c. Rh antibodies may cause a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction d. red blood cell destruction is usually extravascular

a. Rh antibodies can bind complement on the red blood cell membrane

The Rh testing on a blood donor was negative at immediate spin. The tube was incubated at 37C for 15 minutes. The tube was centrifuged and read macroscopically. The test was negative at 37C. The tube was washed 3 times with saline and 2 drops of AHG were added. After centrifugation, the tube yielded a 2+ reaction. How is this Rh type reported on the donor unit? a. Rh-positive b. Rh-negative c. Du-positive d. Rh-variable

a. Rh-positive

All of the following may be used as potentiators in the antiglobulin crossmatch except: a. papain b. albumin c. LISS d. PEG

a. papain

In which scenario can an antibody be ruled out? a. patient serum does not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen b. patient serum does not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen c. patient cells do not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody d. patient cells do react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody

a. patient serum does not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen

A male patient was seen in the ER with an acute bleed. The recommendation from the blood supplier is to give O-positive RBCs as uncrossmatched blood. This patient has already been exposed to Rh-positive blood after a previous accident. What is a possible outcome? a. the patient may have a hemolytic transfusion reaction from an allo immunized anti-D b. Anti-D is not immunogenic, and the patient probably would not have formed an anti-D c. Anti-D is not hemolytic, and even with the circulating antibody there would be no danger to the patient d. the anti-D would activate complement, and a strong intravascular transfusion reaction would occur

a. the patient may have a hemolytic transfusion reaction from an allo immunized anti-D

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally? a. 22C b. 37C c. 56C d. 4C

b. 37C

A patient is in need of a 2 unit transfusion. Upon workup you discover that the patient has 3 acquired antibodies- K, Jka, and c. with the negative phenotypes of 91%, 23%, and 20% respectfully. How many units of blood must be screened to find 2 units negative for the phenotypes K, Jka, and c. a. 100 b. 50 c. 150 d. 75

b. 50

The Rd (D) antibody agglutinates what percentage of RBCs? a. 15% b. 85% c. 50% d. 35%

b. 85%

What does hemolysis represent in an antigen-antibody reaction? a. A negative results b. A positive result c. an inconclusive result d. none of the above

b. A positive result

What regularoty agency oversees compliance and mandates testing of the blood supply in the United States? a. Health and Human Services b. Food and Drug Administration c. Center for Disease Control d. World Health Organization

b. Food and Drug Administration

Most Rh antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class? a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgE

b. IgG

All of the following antigens are found on reagent screening cells except: a. D b. Js^a c. C d. Fy^b

b. Js^a

Serum from a group B individual contains anti-A. When A2 cells are added to serum and centrifuged, the cells with attached anti-A are removed from serum. What is the name of this technique? a. elution b. absorption c. glycerolization d. deglycerolization

b. absorption

Why is reverse grouping not performed on cord blood specimens? a. antigens are not present at birth b. antibodies are generally not present at birth c. antibody titer is too high d. antigens are too weak

b. antibodies are generally not present at birth

All of the following are technical errors that could result in ABO discrepancies except: a. a misidentified sample b. failure to warm reagents c. failure to add reagents d. clerical errors

b. failure to warm reagents

Why are antibodies to high-frequency antigens, such as cellano (k), rarely seen in patient sample? a. most persons are not antigenically stimulated to produce the antibody, because their red blood cells are negative for the antigen b. most persons are not antigenically stimulated to produce the antibody, because their red blood cells are positive for the antigen c. Anti-k has low avidity d. most reagent cells are heterozygous for cellano

b. most persons are not antigenically stimulated to produce the antibody, because their red blood cells are positive for the antigen

Tests with which AHG reagents can determine if IgG, complement, or both are coating red blood cells? a. monospecific b. polyspecific c. standardized d. irradiated

b. polyspecific

What does the "R" represent in Rh-Hr terminology? a. absence of D antigen b. presence of D antigen c. presence of C antigen d. presence of e antigen

b. presence of D antigen

Two drops of serum are added to one drop of A1 cells, and two drops are added to one drop of B cells; the two tubes are centrifuged. The tubes show reactivity when read macroscopically. This is an example of: a. forward grouping b. reverse grouping c. antibody screen d. crossmatch

b. reverse grouping

Reverse grouping was performed on an AB person. The technologist observed a very weak agglutination macroscopically. The cells appeared as "stacked coins" under a microscope. Which reagent should be added to the tube before recentrifugation in an attempt to resolve the discrepancy? a. serum b. saline c. water d. LISS

b. saline

If an individual with a partial D expression is transfused with a normal Rh-positive unit o blood, a likely result will be: a. the patient will develop an anti-D antibody b. the patient will form an antibody to the portion of Rh(D) protein that they are missing c. the patient will have an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction d. the patient will experience no consequence of receiving Rh-positive blood

b. the patient will form an antibody to the portion of Rh(D) protein that they are missing

What ABO group contains the least amount of H substance? a. A1 b. A2 c. A1B d. A2B

c. A1B

Reverse grouping showed negative reactions with A1 and B cells. Forward grouping showed positive reactions with A, B and AB antisera. What blood type is consistent with these results? a. A b. B c. AB d. O

c. AB

Which of the following is not characteristic of antibodies within the ABO system? a. antibodies are of IgM class b. antibodies are naturally occurring c. ABO antibodies do not activate complement d. ABO antibodies may cause immediate intravascular hemolysis

c. ABO antibodies do not activate complement

When a patient has Rh-null syndrome, what kind of packed RBCs need to be transfused? a. ABO compatible Rh-positive blood b. ABO compatible Rh-negative blood c. ABO compatible Rh-null blood d. O-negative PRBCs

c. ABO compatible Rh-null blood

If donor cells were coated with antibody resulting in a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT), what phase of the major corssmatch would generally react? a. IS b. 37 c. AHG d. none of the above

c. AHG

Why is determination of Rh status crucial for obstetric patients? a. An Rh- positive mother can form anti-D, which will destroy D-positive red blood cells of the fetus b. All Rh-positive mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin c. All Rh-negative mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin d. An Rh-negative mother can form anti-D if she gives birth to an Rh-negative baby

c. All Rh-negative mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin

Rh-immune globulin is effective in preventing which type of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? a. Anti-c b. Anti-E c. Anti-D d. Anti-C

c. Anti-D

Red cells with the _______ phenotype are resistanct to invasion by P.vivax merozoites. a. Fy (a+b+) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. Jk(A+B+)

c. Fy(a-b-)

In the MN blood group system, a person who inherits an "M" allele and an "N" allele expresses both M and N antigens on the RBCs. Which of the following is true? a. M is dominant to N b. N is dominant to M c. M and N are codominant alleles d. M and N are located on the same chromosome

c. M and N are codominant alleles

What blood type should be transfused when crisis does not permit time to collect and test a patient sample? a. AB-positive b. O-positive c. O-negative d. A-negative

c. O-negative

What does Rh genotype refer to? a. antigens detected on a red blood cell by serologic methods b. antibodies detected in serum by serologic methods c. Rh genes inherited from both parents d. Rh genes inherited from the mother

c. Rh genes inherited from both parents

In what circumstance would it be feasible to transfuse Rh-positive blood to an Rh-negative individual? a. in a teenager with anti-D in his serum b. during an emergency cesarean section c. in an elderly woman d. none of the above

c. in an elderly woman

In interpreting an antibody screen, which of the following questions might be asked to decipher the class of antibody? a. is the autologous control positive or negative? b. is hemolysis present? c. in what phase did the reaction occur? d. is rouleaux present?

c. in what phase did the reaction occur?

One drop of Coombs' control cells (check cells) was added to a negative antibody screen in the tube. No agglutination was observed after centrifugation. What course of action is taken? a. report negative result b. report inconclusive result c. repeat the test d. add one more drop of check cells and re-centrifuge

c. repeat the test

All of the following may cause a false-negative reaction in Rh typing except: a. omission of reagent b. immunoglobulin coating cells c. rouleaux d. cell suspension that is too heavy

c. rouleaux

What is the frequency of E antigen in the general population? a. 85% b. 15% c. 98% d. 30%

d. 30%

What percentage of the people infected with Zika Virus never develop symptoms? a. 80& b. 20% c. 10% d. 50%

d. 50%

The Zika Virus is transmitted primarily by? a. Asia Tiger Mosquito b. Psorophoria Zikata Mosquito c. Mansonia Mosquito d. Aedes Mosquito

d. Aedes Mosquito

Of the antibodies listed below, which does NOT fit with the others in terms of the optimal temperature of reactivity? a. Anti-P1 b. Anti-I c. Anti-A1 d. Anti-E

d. Anti-E

Which of the following Rh antigens is the most immunogenic? a. D b. C c. e d. E

d. E

A patient is discovered to have anti-Fy^a in their serum. The medical technologist needs to phenotype the patient's cells for the corresponding antigen. What test is appropriate for phenotyping? a. absorption b. elution d. DAT d. IAT

d. IAT

The ABO system was initially described in 1900 by? a. Oscar Maken b. Peter Issit c. Charles Duffy d. Karl Lansteiner

d. Karl Landsteiner

What is the only possible phenotype of an offspring produced from two group O parents? a. A b. B c. AB d. O

d. O

An AB Negative Father and an AB Negative mother can have children of the following blood types except a. B Negative b. A negative c. AB Negative d. O Negative

d. O Negative

A 2-unit crossmatch was ordered on a patient in the ER. The patient's antibody screen was negative. One unit was compatible and the other was incompatible at AHG. If the patient's antibody screen was negative and the donor had no history of antibodies, what could be the reason for this reaction? a. the patient's serum has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen not present on screening cells b. the donor has a positive DAT c. the patient's serum has an HTLA antibody d. Options A and B

d. Options A and B

An AB male mates with an AB female. What could be the genotype of the offspring? a. AB b. AA c. BB d. all of the above

d. all of the above

The electrical force that exists between red blood cells is: a. called the zeta potential b. due to the net negative charge of the red blood cell membrane c. related to the voltage or potential that exists or at the surface of the RBC and the outer layer of the ionic cloud d. all of the above

d. all of the above

What class of antibody can be present in AHG? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. all of the above

d. all of the above

What is not characteristic of the IgM immunoglobulin? a. room temperature reactive b. large pentameter c. demonstratable at immediate spin phase d. can cross the placenta

d. can cross the placenta

What can be concluded in a patient who has anti-K identified in his serum but phenotypes positive for K antigen? a. kell antiserum was omitted b. patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood c. Anti-K was misidentified d. patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood and Anti-K was misidentified

d. patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood and Anti-K was misidentified

What is the action of PEG? a. reduces ionic strength to allow for faster antibody uptake b. its macromolecules allow for closer contact of antibody-coated RBCs c. increases the serum-t-cell ratio d. removes water molecules, thereby concentrating antibody

d. removes water molecules, thereby concentrating antibody

The oberservable expression of the genes inherited by a person is referred to as the a. phenotype b. allele c. frequency d. genotype

a. phenotype

In the invitro antibody-antigen reaction the condition of antibody excess is referred to as a. prozone b. equilibrium c. van der waals force d. zeta potential

a. prozone

The observable difference in strength of reaction, based on homozygosity or heterozygosity for an allele is termed the a. Van der waals forces b. prozone c. zone of equivalence d. the dosage effect

d. the dosage effect