c MediaLab Practice Exam Questions

What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the World Health Organization, WHO Laboratory Manual for the Examination and Processing of Human Semen, WHO press, Geneva, Switzerland, 2010? Please select the single best answer 5 x 106 spermatozoa/mL 10 x 106 spermatozoa/mL 15 x 106 spermatozoa/mL 30 x 106 spermatozoa/mL

15 x 106 spermatozoa/mL

How much time must elapse between apheresis red blood cell donations? Please select the single best answer 48 hours7 days8 weeks16 weeks

16 weeks lvl 5

Half-life of IgG? Why is the duration significant?

18-23 days; it binds with neonatal Fc receptor IgG on mast cells have a half life of 90 days

A hepatic function panel A consists of which of the following tests? Please select the single best answer AST, ALT, Alkaline Phosphatase, Total Protein, Albumin, Total Bilirubin, Direct Bilirubin Glucose, BUN, Creatinine, Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, CO2, Calcium Cholesterol, Lipoprotein, HDL, Triglycerides Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, CO2

AST, ALT, Alkaline Phosphatase, Total Protein, Albumin, Total Bilirubin, Direct Bilirubin

Serum proteins can be separated by cellulose acetate electrophoresis into how many basic fractions: Please select the single best answer 4 fractions5 fractions6 fractions7 fractions

5 fractions lvl 4

Which of the following drug examples would be a good candidate for therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)? Please select the single best answer A drug that is readily cleared A drug that has a narrow therapeutic window A drug that has a wide therapeutic window A drug that is used for short-term therapy

A drug that has a narrow therapeutic window

The preparation of a Levey-Jennings quality control chart for any constituent of serum requires: Please select the single best answer A minimum of 20-30 analyses of control serum over a period of 20-30 days. 20-30 analyses of control serum on one day, one batch. Daily analyses for 1 month with the use of aliquots from more than one lot control serum. 20-30 analyses performed by one person.

A minimum of 20-30 analyses of control serum over a period of 20-30 days.

Leading causes for laboratory rejection of a specimen include the following reasons EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Specimen collection tube with liquid anticoagulant not filled properlyA printed label is placed on the tube or container after specimen collectionInappropriate specimen collection tube or containerHemolyzed specimens

A printed label is placed on the tube or container after specimen collection

Which of the following statements regarding the L/S ratio is TRUE? Please select the single best answer A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)A ratio of 1.5:1 indicates fetal lung maturity in pregnancies associated with diabetes mellitus.Sphingomyelin levels increase during the 3rd trimester causing the L/S ratio to fall slightly during the last two weeks of gestation.A phosphatidylglycerol (PG) spot indicates the presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid

A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) 4

What may cause the following mixing studies results? Initial aPTT = 133 seconds 1:1 Mix aPTT pre-incubation = 33 seconds 1:1 Mix aPTT post-incubation = 124 seconds Please select the single best answer Factor IX deficiencyFactor XI deficiencyA slow acting coagulation inhibitorFactor VII deficiency

A slow acting coagulation inhibitor 5

Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue? Please select the single best answer Obesity in metabolic syndrome contributes to the development of cardiovascular disease by increased synthesis and secretion of adiponectinIncreased synthesis and secretion of PAI-1 in metabolic syndrome contributes to cardiovascular disease by increasing blood pressureA state of abnormal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome contribute to the development of cardiovascular diseaseObesity in metabolic syndrome contributes to the development of cardiovascular disease by increased synthesis and secretion of immunoglobulins

A state of abnormal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease

Which of the following best describes a hemoglobinopathy? Please select the single best answer Any problem involving hemoglobin destruction. Any problem associated with hemoglobin production. A deletion of the loci of one or more hemoglobin chains. A substitution of an amino acid in the hemoglobin chain.

A substitution of an amino acid in the hemoglobin chain.

What is the cause of iron overload in hereditary hemochromatosis? Please select the single best answer Absorption of excessive amounts of iron in the small intestine Ingestion of excessive amounts of iron from diet or supplements Inability of the body to excrete normal amounts of dietary iron Failure of developing red blood cells to incorporate iron into protoporphyrin IX

Absorption of excessive amounts of iron in the small intestine

Which of the following fresh frozen plasma ABO types would be suitable for transfusion to an AB negative patient? Please select the single best answer AB negative only.O negative only.AB negative and AB positive only.O negative and O positive only.

AB negative and AB positive only 6

The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is most unreliable when diagnosing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn due to which blood group system? Please select the single best answer ABO Duffy Rh Kidd

ABO

Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation? Please select the single best answer Bicarbonate AST Glucose Ionized Calcium

AST

Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)? Please select the single best answer Patient population: children and young adults Pathogenesis: following viral infection Site of hemolysis: intravascular Autoantibody class: IgM

Autoantibody class: IgM

A patient whose diagnosis is hepatitis may have which of the following test positive on urine test strip? Please select the single best answer Ketone Blood Bilirubin Nitrite

Bilirubin

Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by which of the following? Please select the single best answer Giant gray-green bodies and giant lysosomes in the cytoplasm of neutrophils Bilobed or round nuclei in neutrophils (hyposegmented) Dohle-like-bodies in the cytoplasm of neutrophils Large purplish granules in the cytoplasm of all leukocytes

Bilobed or round nuclei in neutrophils (hyposegmented)

Which of the following choices best describes the primary function of antibodies? Please select the single best answer Protection of B-lymphocytesBinds with antigenFixes complementStimulates the immune response

Binds with antigen 3

Which of the following is considered an engineering control? Please select the single best answer Face shieldBiosafety cabinetGlovesLaboratory coat

Biosafety cabinet

The impedance principle shown in this illustration is best described by the following statement: Please select the single best answer Blood cells and platelets are counted by the number of the times they scatter light as they pass in front of a mirror. Blood cells and platelets are counted utilizing a type of diffraction gradient technique. Blood cells and platelets are counted by measuring the drop in transmitted light as they pass through a series of apertures. Blood cells or other particles are counted and sized based on changes in electrical resistance as they pass between two electrodes.

Blood cells or other particles are counted and sized based on changes in electrical resistance as they pass between two electrodes.

Which of the following characteristics of cerebrospinal fluid is present if blood is due to subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)? Please select the single best answer Sample clots on standing.Blood is evenly distributed in all tubes.The supernatant is clear when centrifuged within one hour.Blood is more visible in the first tube collected and less and less visible in each subsequent tube thereafter.

Blood is evenly distributed in all tubes. 4

To assess drug concentrations during the trough phase:

Blood should be drawn immediately before the next dose is given

"Xanthochromic" CSF means that the color of the CSF can be any of the following EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Pale orange Pale pink Yellow Blue

Blue

Which of the following patients is eligible for RhIG? Please select the single best answer D-positive woman, 28 weeks gestation, no unexpected antibodies D-negative woman, 28 weeks gestation, no unexpected antibodies D-negative woman, 28 weeks gestation, immune anti-D present in serum D-positive woman, 28 weeks gestation, anti-K present in serum

D-negative woman, 28 weeks gestation, no unexpected antibodies

Which of the following conditions is MOST frequently associated with anti-I? Please select the single best answer Cold agglutinin diseaseHemolytic transfusion reactionDelayed transfusion reactionInfectious mononucleosis

Cold agglutinin disease 3

Which of the following is MOST responsible for increasing the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)? Please select the single best answer Fibrinogen Albumin Alpha-2-globulins and beta-globulins Gamma-globulins

Fibrinogen

Identify the urine sediment elements present in this illustration: Please select the single best answer WBC casts Hyaline casts Waxy casts Fine granular casts

Fine granular casts

Which type of kinetic reactions are reactions in which the enzyme is in excess and the substrate concentration is the limiting factor? Please select the single best answer Zero orderFirst orderSecond orderThird order

First order 5

The arrangement of erythrocytes on this peripheral blood smear can be associated with each of the following conditions EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Multiple myelomaCold agglutinin disordersChronic inflammatory disordersLymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

Cold agglutinin disorders 8

Which one of the following tests BEST correlates with the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)? Please select the single best answer Color Doppler ultrasonography An antibody screen of mother's blood Amniotic fluid bilirubin Antibody titer of mother's blood

Color Doppler ultrasonography

All of the following are learning domains that must be considered in a medical laboratory science program, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Cognitive Domain Affective Domain Psychomotor Domain Comprehension Domain

Comprehension Domain

Bruton's agammaglobulinemia is a: Please select the single best answer Congenital T-cell disorder Congenital B-cell disorder Acquired T-cell disorder Acquired B-cell disorder

Congenital B-cell disorder

Which type of control should always be negative in a molecular assay? Please select the single best answer Amplification controlInternal controlExtraction controlContamination control

Contamination control

Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that results in elevated urinary levels of all the following EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Cortisol Free catecholamines Metanephrines Vanillylmandelic acid

Cortisol

Which of the following instruments measures the amount of electricity passing between two electrodes? Please select the single best answer Osmometer Coulometer Nephelometer Spectrophotometer

Coulometer

Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation? Please select the single best answer Creatinine Ionized Calcium Folate Bicarbonate

Creatinine

Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation? Please select the single best answer CreatinineIonized CalciumFolateBicarbonate

Creatinine 9

The measurement of sodium and chloride in the sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease? Please select the single best answer Steatorrhea Direct determination of the exocrine secretory capacity of the pancreas. Cystic fibrosis Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Cystic fibrosis

The measurement of sodium and chloride in the sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease? Please select the single best answer SteatorrheaDirect determination of the exocrine secretory capacity of the pancreas.Cystic fibrosisZollinger-Ellison syndrome

Cystic fibrosis 8

Colorless hexagonal plate crystals seen in a urine specimen are MOST likely to indicate which of the following? Please select the single best answer Gout Renal damage Bilirubinuria Cystinuria

Cystinuria inherited metabolic disorder in which cystine fails to be reabsorbed by the renal tubules

What would be the best way to determine how much RhIg should be given to a postpartum female who received RhIG antenatally and demonstrates the anti-D antibody at delivery? Please select the single best answer Antibody titration Flow cytometry Rosette test Kleihauer-Betke acid elution

Flow cytometry

Which type of toxicology is primarily concerned with medical and legal consequences of exposure to chemicals and drugs? Please select the single best answer Forensic toxicologyClinical toxicologyEnvironmental toxicologyDescriptive toxicology

Forensic toxicology

Regarding hemoglobin synthesis, which of the following constitutes the alpha globin chain coding? Please select the single best answer Two gene loci; one each on chromosome 11. Four gene loci; two each on chromosome 11. Two gene loci; one each on chromosome 16. Four gene loci; two each on chromosome 16.

Four gene loci; two each on chromosome 16.

Which of the following phrases best describes a segmented neutrophil? Please select the single best answer Cytoplasm appears pink-purple due to small specific granules. Cytoplasm contains large red-orange granules. Cytoplasm is a pale blue color with a ground glass appearance. Cytoplasm is clear with no granules.

Cytoplasm appears pink-purple due to small specific granules.

Which nitrogen base would bind with a guanine nucleotide in forming double-stranded DNA? Please select the single best answer CytosineUracilThymineAdenine

Cytosine 4

The bioavailability of an oral drug refers to the: Availability for therapeutic administration Ratio of protein-bound to free drug Amount of drug transformation Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into the systemic circulation

Fraction of the drug that is absorbed into the systemic circulation

Platelets are: Please select the single best answer The smallest nucleated cells seen in normal peripheral blood. The largest nucleated cells seen in normal peripheral blood. Fragments of megakaryocyte cytoplasm and do not contain nuclei Fragments of neutrophils

Fragments of megakaryocyte cytoplasm and do not contain nuclei

All of the following are standard methods for measuring the specific gravity of urine, EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Urine reagent strips Freezing point depression Refractometry Harmonic oscillation densitometry

Freezing point depression Osmolality can be measured by freezing point depression, but not specific gravity as specified in this question. Specific gravity is usually directly related to osmolality and it provides a rough measure of the urine concentrating power of the kidney.

Which of the following methods for long-term diabetic monitoring is recommended for patients with sickle cell anemia? Please select the single best answer FructosamineHemoglobin A1c (HbA1c)Both methods are acceptable.Neither method is acceptable.

Fructosamine 6

When performing an antibody panel, which one of the following antigens will be destroyed by enzyme treatment? Please select the single best answer Fya Jka E Lua

Fya

The following urine test results were obtained from a 6-month-old African American infant who experiences vomiting and diarrhea after milk ingestion and has failed to gain weight: pH: 5.0 Protein: Negative Glucose: Negative Ketones: Negative Blood: Negative Bilirubin: Negative Nitrite: Negative Urobilinogen: 0.1 EU/dL Clinitest: 2+ These results are clinically significant in which of the following disorders? Please select the single best answer Diabetes mellitus Lactose intolerance Galactosemia Cystic fibrosis

Galactosemia an inherited metabolic disorder that affects an individual's ability to metabolize the sugar galactose effectively. Infants affected by galactosemia typically present with symptoms of lethargy, vomiting, diarrhea, failure to thrive, and jaundice.

Which of the following enzymes is the most sensitive indicator of long term liver damage associated with alcohol ingestion: Please select the single best answer Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) Alanine transaminase (ALT) Aspartate transaminase (AST) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by a large (usually 20-fold) elevation of: Please select the single best answer Cholecystokinin Pepsin Glucagon Gastrin

Gastrin

All of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Measles (rubeola) vaccine German measles (rubella) vaccine Mumps vaccine Polio vaccine

German measles (rubella) vaccine

All of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Measles (rubeola) vaccineGerman measles (rubella) vaccineMumps vaccinePolio vaccine

German measles (rubella) vaccine 9

Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood is usually determined by means of which of the following electrodes? Please select the single best answer Silver Glass Platinum Gold

Glass

Nitrates in urine are reduced to nitrites by: Please select the single best answer Gram-positive bacteria Acid-fast bacteria Gram-negative bacteria Yeasts

Gram-negative bacteria

Which of the following terms is used to identify an individual who has enough Six Sigma training to participate on a performance improvement team or lead small-scale projects within his/her work unit, but does not work on Six Sigma projects full-time? Please select the single best answer Green belt Black belt Master black belt Sponsor

Green belt

Which type of antibodies are known to cause transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) reactions? Please select the single best answer Red cell antibodies Platelet antibodies HLA antibodies Both red cell antibodies and platelet antibodies

HLA antibodies

In serum protein electrophoresis all of the following proteins reside in the band closest to the anodal end EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Retinol-binding protein (RBP) Transthyretin Albumin Haptoglobin

Haptoglobin

Which of these blood levels will decrease during intravascular hemolysis? Please select the single best answer Serum (plasma) LDH Serum (plasma) bilirubin Reticulocytes Haptoglobin

Haptoglobin

Also known as the "Right to Know" law, which of these OSHA regulations first dealt with specific information related to the contents of chemicals used in the workplace? Please select the single best answer Blood Borne Pathogens 1910.1030Formaldehyde 1910.1048Occupational Exposure 1910.1450Hazard Communication 1910.1200

Hazard Communication 1910.1200

If a patient has three inactive alpha-globin genes, which of the four alpha (a) thalassemia classifications would they have? Please select the single best answer Alpha thalassemia trait Hydrops fetalis Hb H disease Silent carrier

Hb H disease

Six months ago, a 55-year-old female had a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) greater than 200 mg/dL on two occasions. She was diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes and treatment was started. Along with routine FPG's which of the following tests would most likely be used to monitor glycemic control? Please select the single best answer HbA1C Insulin C-peptide Urine glucose

HbA1C

When quantifying glucose using an amperometric glucose electrode system, all of the following are components of the system, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Product oxidation produces a current Hydrogen peroxide is formed Hexokinase reacts with glucose Platinum electrode

Hexokinase reacts with glucose

Pluripotential stem cells are capable of producing which of the following? Please select the single best answer Only T-lymphocyte and B-lymphocyte subsets Erythropoietin, thrombopoietin, and leukopoietin Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells Daughter cells from only a single cell line

Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells

What are the two polypeptide chains that comprise the LD molecule? Please select the single best answer M and BL and DH and BM and H

M and H

Which of the following is NOT classified as a Myelodysplastic Syndrome? Please select the single best answer MDS with Philadelphia Chromosome (MDS-PC)MDS with Ring Sideroblasts (MDS-RS)MDS with Single Lineage Dysplasia (MDS-SLD)MDS with Excess Blasts (MDS-EB)

MDS with Philadelphia Chromosome (MDS-PC) 5

Antigen processing is primarily accomplished by what type of cells? Please select the single best answer BasophilsEosinophilsPolymorphonuclear neutrophilsMacrophages

Macrophages 5

Which of the following may be seen in a CSF sample of a patient that has a subarachnoid (intracranial) hemorrhage (SAH)? Please select the single best answer Macrophages containing hemosiderinUneven distribution of blood in CSF tubes collectedClot is present in the CSF sampleSupernatant of CSF sample does not have xanthochromia

Macrophages containing hemosiderin 7

A technologist decides to make a 1:20 dilution of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) after briefly evaluating a portion of the sample microscopically. After making the dilution and charging the chambers, the number of observed cells in each of the large squares of the hemocytometer is >100. What should the technologist do to obtain the most accurate count? Please select the single best answer Count all four corner squares. Make a smaller dilution. Make a larger dilution. No dilution is necessary.

Make a larger dilution.

Albumin levels are can be a good gauge for chronic protein deficiency. Which of the following terms describes inadequate protein and caloric intake? Please select the single best answer Kwashiorkor Marasmus Albuminemia Hypoproteinism

Marasmus nutritional disease as a result of calorie deprivation and insufficient protein kwashiorkor results from protein deprivation which caloric intake is adequate or excessive

Which of the marrow cells from the list below has highly granular basophilic cytoplasm but does not show nuclear lobules? Please select the single best answer Macrophage Mast cell Lipocyte Osteoblast

Mast cell

CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte populations? Please select the single best answer Mature T cells Normal B cells Both mature T cells and normal B cells None of the above, CD5 is not a lymphoid marker

Mature T cells

Which of the following conditions may produce the findings indicated by the arrows in the image on the right? Please select the single best answer SepsisMay-Hegglin anomalyChediak-Higashi syndromeAlder-Reilly anomaly

May-Hegglin anomaly 4

Serum calcitonin is typically elevated in which of the following conditions? Please select the single best answer Medullary carcinoma of the thyroidHyperthyroidismGlioblastomaAdrenal adenoma

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid 5

The presence of an increased number of hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood, as shown in this image, is an indication of which of the following conditions? Please select the single best answer Preleukemia Megaloblastic anemia Aplastic anemia Myeloproliferative disorder

Megaloblastic anemia

A solution of gamma globulins containing anti-Rh(D) is given to an Rh(D) negative mother to: Please select the single best answer Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother Neutralize any of the child's antibody that may have passed the placental barrier Neutralize any natural maternal antibodies present Prevent greater antibody response in a previously sensitized mother

Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother

Which type of electrophoresis is used to separate larger DNA fragments (>50 kb)? Please select the single best answer Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis Capillary electrophoresis Isoelectric focusing Pulsed field electrophoresis

Pulsed field electrophoresis

Which of the following tests require a 72-hour stool (fecal) collection? Please select the single best answer Occult blood Quantitative fecal fat Ova and Parasite (O&P) Stool culture

Quantitative fecal fat

Which adsorption technique removes cold (IgM) antibodies, particularly anti-I specificities? Please select the single best answer Cold autoadsorption Warm autoadsorption Differential (allogeneic) Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)

Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)

Which of the following statements is true regarding primary hemostatic process resulting from vascular damage? Please select the single best answer Inhibition of platelet function by interaction with collagen.Platelet adhesion through Weibel-Palade bodies.Platelet aggregation through interaction of von Willebrand factor and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.Rapid and immediate vasoconstriction by contraction of smooth muscles.

Rapid and immediate vasoconstriction by contraction of smooth muscles. 6

All of the following are primary functions of the kidney, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Acid-base balance Retention of essential nutrients and water Reabsorption of waste products Blood filtration

Reabsorption of waste products

The kidneys perform all of the following functions EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Acid-base balance Hormone production Reabsorption of waste products Water and electrolyte balance

Reabsorption of waste products

Which characteristic best describes IgG antibodies produced against red blood cells? Please select the single best answer Are naturally occurring Cannot be identified using the AHG test React best at room temperature React best at 37o Celsius

React best at 37o Celsius

what characteristic is usually associated with IgM antibodies directed against red cells?

React best at room temperature

Which of the following is true of the nuclear appendage seen in this image? Please select the single best answer Seen only in women Seen only in men Seen in both sexes Seen in dwarfs only

Seen only in women Barr body - chromatin mass

All of the following are types of quality and process improvement tools, EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Six SigmaLeanSentinel eventsRoot-cause analysis

Sentinel events

All of the following are types of quality and process improvement tools, EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Six Sigma Lean Sentinel events Root-cause analysis

Sentinel events

To determine if xanthochromia is present in a cerebrospinal fluid sample, the sample must be centrifuged within: Please select the single best answer One hour Two hours Three hours Four hours

One hour If tubes are left to sit too long, the red cells can lyse causing hemolysis in the tube which can appear similar to xanthochromia

Which of the following types of lymphocytes express CD4? Please select the single best answer Only T-helper cells Only T-suppressor (cytotoxic) cells All T cells B cells

Only T-helper cells

Which of the following instruments measures changes in vapor pressure? Please select the single best answer Osmometer Coulometer Nephelometer Spectrophotometer

Osmometer

What is the nucleated cell present in the following image? Please select the single best answer OsteoblastMegakaryocyteOsteoclastMacrophage

Osteoblast 4

How does the laboratory immunologic assessment of Waldenstrom's Primary Macroglobulinemia differ from other monoclonal gammopathies? Please select the single best answer Frequently an increase in IgG, possibly an M spike on serum protein electrophoresis. Overproduction of IgM antibodies. Only kappa or lambda monoclonal light chains or Bence-Jones protein seen on serum protein electrophoresis. Characterized by the presence of monoclonal proteins composed of the heavy chain portion of the immunoglobulin molecule.

Overproduction of IgM antibodies.

Warfarin-based (coumarin derivative) oral anti-coagulant therapy is commonly monitored with : Please select the single best answer APTT PT/INR APTT and PT Thrombin time

PT/INR 3

Which of the following is considered a cause of hypomagnesemia (decreased levels of magnesium in the blood)? Please select the single best answer Hypothyroidism Hypoaldosteronism Pancreatitis Bone carcinoma

Pancreatitis

Which of the following red cell inclusions are often found in peripheral blood smears of patients with sideroblastic anemia? The correct answer is highlighted below Howell-Jolly bodies Pappenheimer bodies Heinz bodies Cabot rings

Pappenheimer bodies

Which of the following types of automated chemistry analyzers allows for all specimens to be analyzed at the same time? Please select the single best answer Discrete analyzer Random access analyzer Multi-channel analyzer Parallel analyzer

Parallel analyzer

What procedure utilizes leukapheresis to collect the buffy coat from whole blood? Please select the single best answer Photopheresis Plasmapheresis Therapeutic apheresis Erythrocytapheresis

Photopheresis

All of the following are directly involved in the production of semen EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Prostate Pituitary gland Seminal vesicles Bulbourethral gland

Pitutary gland

A white blood cell stained with Wright's stain has the following characteristics: Round eccentric nucleus with clumped chromatin pattern 1:1 nucleus to cytoplasm ratio Basophilic cytoplasm Crescent-shaped clear area next to nucleus What is the MOST likely identification of this cell? Please select the single best answer Myeloblast Plasma cell Reactive lymphocyte Polychromatic normoblast

Plasma cell

A cloudy, yellow-green synovial fluid with 122,000 WBCs which are predominantly neutrophils, and a decreased glucose, would be classified as: Please select the single best answer NoninflammatoryInflammatorySepticCrystal-induced

Septic 4

Patients with Cushing's disease typically exhibit: Please select the single best answer Decreased plasma 17-hydroxysteroid concentration Decreased urinary 17-hydroxysteroid excretion Serum cortisol overproduction Decreased cortisol secretion rate

Serum cortisol overproduction

Which one of the following statements about lead poisoning is false? Please select the single best answer While lead distributes to all tissues, the central nervous system, kidney, and bone marrow are particularly susceptible to lead toxicityWhole blood lead measurement is the best test for detecting lead toxicitySerum lead level is a good inexpensive screening test for lead toxicityLead levels below 5 µg/dL in children do not prompt ongoing monitoring

Serum lead level is a good inexpensive screening test for lead toxicity 6

Considering the red cell distribution width (RDW) in alpha thalassemia, how would you expect the red blood cell histogram to look? Please select the single best answer Shifted to the right Shifted to the left Bimodal Normal

Shifted to the left

What is the characteristic RBC that is uniquely associated with HbSS? Please select the single best answer Target cell (codocyte) Sickle cell (drepanocyte) Polychromatophilic cell Spherocyte

Sickle cell (drepanocyte)

Which of the following alpha thalassemia syndromes has the genotype -a/aa ? Please select the single best answer Silent carrier Alpha thalassemia minor Hemoglobin H disease Alpha thalassemia major

Silent carrier only 1 of the 4 genes are missing

All of the following statements about blood cultures are correct, EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer The volume of blood collected is important. Short draws will reduce the likelihood of successfully growing out bacteria. If two separate sets of blood cultures are requested, do not draw them both from the same site at the same time. Be sure to allow the iodine prep to dry on the patient's skin prior to performing the blood culture. Since all gloves are sterile, you may use your gloved finger without further preparation to feel the vein on a prepped arm before making the stick.

Since all gloves are sterile, you may use your gloved finger without further preparation to feel the vein on a prepped arm before making the stick.

Why are small dense LDL molecules more atherogenic? Please select the single best answer Small dense LDL molecules contain less cholesterol and phospholipid.Small dense LDL molecules increase the concentration of HDL-C in the blood.Small dense LDL molecules increase the concentration of adiponectin and inflammatory cytokines.Small dense LDL molecules have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall.

Small dense LDL molecules have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall.

The risk of exposure of a person to an infection of tuberculosis (TB) disease may be related to which of the following: Born in the United States High social status Socially disadvantaged Person in non-high-risk groups

Socially disadvantaged

Which of the following contributes most to serum osmolality: Please select the single best answer Magnesium Albumin Potassium Sodium

Sodium

A variety of additives are used in blood collection tubes. Which of the following additives inhibits glycolysis? Please select the single best answer EDTA Gel Sodium fluoride Lithium or sodium heparin

Sodium fluoride

An electrolyte panel is composed of which of the following tests? Please select the single best answer Sodium, potassium, glucose, chloride Potassium , glucose, chloride, albumin Sodium, potassium, chloride, CO2 Chloride, cholesterol, chloride, glucose

Sodium, potassium, chloride, CO2

C-reactive protein (CRP) is often used as a marker of inflammation. However, it has a low _________. Please select the single best answer SensitivitySpecificityAccuracyPrecision

Specificity

Identify the urine sediment element shown by the arrow: Please select the single best answer Budding yeast Cylindroids Trichomonas Spermatozoa

Spermatozoa

What is the term used to describe the erythrocyte at the tip of the arrow in the image? Please select the single best answer Crenated erythrocyte Spur cell (acanthocyte) Burr cell (echinocyte) Teardrop cell (dacryocyte)

Spur cell (acanthocyte)

Laboratory Operations Manual/Automated Methodology and Instrumentation Molecular Methods What type of graph is needed in a real-time PCR in order to perform absolute quantification? Please select the single best answer Standard curveAmplification curveMelt CurveQuantification curve

Standard

Which of the following must be included as part of a PCR in order to quantify unknown samples? Please select the single best answer Positive control Negative Control Internal Control Standards

Standards

All of the following carbohydrates are considered reducing sugars EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Lactose Sucrose Glucose Ribose

Sucrose

Which of the following analytes will be falsely increased due to hemolysis? Please select the single best answer Hemoglobin, Hematocrit, Red Blood Cell CountHematocrit, Red Blood Cell Count, PotassiumPotassium, Magnesium, Iron, Total ProteinHemoglobin, Hematocrit, Magnesium, Iron, Total Protein

Potassium, Magnesium, Iron, Total Protein

The greatest source of error in point of care testing is: Please select the single best answer Selection of POCT analyzer or methodology Preanalytical error Analytical Error Postanalytical Error

Preanalytical error

What accelerates the rate of lipase activity in the body? Please select the single best answer Presence of water Presence of bile salt Absence of bile salt Presence of alcohol

Presence of bile salt

Which acid is most frequently used to precipitate protein for confirmatory urinalysis tests? Please select the single best answer Trichloroacetic Nitric Sulfosalicylic Acetic

Sulfosalicylic (acid)/SSA principle is based on the acidification of proteins which causes turbidity and can be measured based on protein concentration.

A comprehensive, final exam in a hematology lecture course is considered a: Please select the single best answer Formative testPlacement testCertification testSummative test

Summative test

commercial lyophilize regent is diluted using slightly more distilled water than indicated, what type of error will occur?

Systematic error

Contact dermatitis is mediated by: Please select the single best answer B lymphocytes Mast cells Polymorphonuclear cells T lymphocytes

T lymphocytes

Which of the following immunosuppressive drugs below has been associated with thrombus formation in patients with toxic levels? Please select the single best answer Tacrolimus Cyclosporine Sirolimus Mycophenolic acid

Tacrolimus

Identify the urine sediment elements indicated by the arrow in the illustration: Please select the single best answer Cholesterol crystals Triple phosphate crystals Amorphous urate crystals Ammonium biurate crystals

Triple phosphate crystals

Which troponin protein binds the troponin complex to tropomyosin? Please select the single best answer Troponin I (TnI) Troponin C (TnC) Troponin T (TnT) Troponin P (TnP)

Troponin T (TnT)

Regarding therapeutic drug monitoring, which of the following statements is correct when collecting a specimen for a trough level? Please select the single best answer Trough level is tested on a blood sample that is collected after a dose of the drug is given (at a specified time). Trough level is the point at which the drug is highest in the patient's body. Trough level is tested on a blood sample that is collected immediately prior to when the next dose of the drug is given. Trough level is collected randomly, there is no specific time for it.

Trough level is tested on a blood sample that is collected immediately prior to when the next dose of the drug is given.

Which of the following cells when found upon microscopic examination of the urine would be most indicative of kidney disease: Please select the single best answer WBCs and bacteriaTubular epithelial cellsSquamous epithelial cellsRBCs

Tubular epithelial cells 2

A cerebrospinal fluid sample was taken from an inpatient with severe neurological symptoms. The image shows a field from a cytospin preparation from this patient's fluid. What findings are present in this field? Please select the single best answer Blast cells Mesothelial cells Choroid plexus clump Tumor cells

Tumor cells

What is the maximum recommended amount of time a specimen without additive or anticoagulant should be allowed to clot before centrifugation? Please select the single best answer Two hours 30 minutes Three hours 10 minutes

Two hours

The type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with macrophage activation, cytokine-mediated inflammation is: Please select the single best answer Type I Anaphylactic (Immediate hypersensitivity) Type II Cytotoxic (Antibody mediated and antibody dependent, complement mediated hypersensitivity) Type III Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity Type IV Cell mediated hypersensitivity (T-cell dependent)

Type IV Cell mediated hypersensitivity (T-cell dependent)

Which two of the following crystalline elements are found in acid urine: Please select the single best answer Cystine and calcium carbonate Triple phosphate and calcium carbonate Calcium phosphate and uric acid Tyrosine and cystine

Tyrosine and cystine acidic urine => cystine, leucine, calcium oxalate, sodium urate, sulfonamide, tyrosine, uric acid, and amorphous urates.

Which of the following signs and symptoms may be associated with immediate transfusion reaction, but is NOT usually associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction? Please select the single best answer Fever and chills Unexplained bleeding from surgical site Unexplained drop in hemoglobin Transient jaundice

Unexplained bleeding from surgical site

Which analyte should be increased in the presence of gout? Please select the single best answer Uric acid Aldolase Amylase Troponin

Uric acid

Which of the following tests included on a urine chemical reagent strip would never be reported as negative? Please select the single best answer Urobilinogen Bilirubin Leukocyte esterase Blood

Urobilinogen

What is the name of the colorless end product of bilirubin catabolism? Please select the single best answer Urobilin Urobilinogen Mesobilirubin Mesobilirubinogen

Urobilinogen urobilin is the next step and has the orange-brown pigment found in feces the others are intermediates in bili catabolism; created before urobilinogen

Compared to plasma frozen within 8 hours of collection, plasma frozen within 24 hours of collection will likely have reduced levels of Factor: Please select the single best answer II VIII X XI

VIII 5

Which of the following methods may be used by a laboratory to document and analyze all of the steps that bring a laboratory test result to the customer (eg, physician, nurse, and/or patient)? Please select the single best answer Root cause analysis Value stream mapping 5S Kaizen workshop

Value stream mapping

All of the following decrease medical errors in the clinical laboratory, EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer AccuracyPrecisionVarianceReduced coefficient of variation

Variance

A patient presents to the emergency room with severe headaches, nausea, and vomiting. CSF chemistry results are as follows: Protein - 74 mg/dL (15-45 mg/dL) Glucose - 53 mg/dL (40-85 mg/dL) Based on the patient's complaints and the above laboratory results what is the most probable condition? Please select the single best answer Fungal Meningitis Bacterial Meningitis Traumatic Tap Viral Meningitis

Viral Meningitis

A deficiency in which of the folowing vitamins is associated with "scurvy"? Please select the single best answer Thiamine Vitamin C Vitamin A Vitamin D

Vitamin C

Which one of the following statements concerning Vitamin D is correct? Please select the single best answer Vitamin D deficiency is a cause of scurvy. Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation. Vitamin D functions in part to aid in optic nerve transmission. One form of Vitamin D is referred to as pyridoxal phosphate.

Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation.

Which porphyria has a defect in the ferrochetalase enzyme within the RBC, causing redness, edema and burning when exposed to light?

erythropoeitic protoporphyria

all otf are types of epi cells that line the genitourinary system except: squamous cuboidal transitional flattened

flattened

conditions that produce elevated CSF protein levels include all of the following except? meningitis multiple sclerosis hemorrhage fluid leak

fluid leak

Which marker is most useful for the detection of gestational trophoblastic disease? Please select the single best answer CEA (Carcinoembryonic antigen) AFP (a-fetoprotein) hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) CA-125 (cancer antigen 125)

hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)

What is the formula for calculating transferrin saturation (TS)? (Serum iron/TIBC) X 100 (Serum ferritin/TIBC) X 100 TIBC/serum iron Serum iron/serum ferritin

(Serum iron/TIBC) X 100

Which of the following is the proper storage temperature for fresh frozen plasma (FFP)? Please select the single best answer 37 degrees Celsius 4 degrees Celsius - 20 degrees Celsius - 10 degrees Celsius

- 20 degrees Celsius

The recommended storage temperature for the preservation of activity for MOST enzymes is: Please select the single best answer 0ºC4ºC25ºC37ºC

4ºC Repeated freezing and thawing should be avoided as this may denature the enzyme and inactivate its functions.

Serum proteins can be separated by cellulose acetate electrophoresis into how many basic fractions: Please select the single best answer 4 fractions 5 fractions 6 fractions 7 fractions

5 fractions

What is the normality (N) of a 700 mL solution that contains 5 g of H2SO4 (gmw=98 g/mol, valence=2)? Please select the single best answer 0.146 N 0.00014 N 0.023 N 0.841 N

0.146 N

Convert 0.9% NaCl to molarity. Please select the single best answer 0.15M 0.25M 0.39M 1.50M

0.15M

A manual white blood cell count was performed by the hematology technologist. The cell counts for each of two sides was 38 and 42 respectively. All nine large squares were counted on each side. The dilution for this kit was pre-measured at 1:10. What should the technologist report as the white cell count? Please select the single best answer 4.8 x 109/L 4.4 x 109/L 0.48 x 109/L 0.44 x 109/L

0.44 x 109/L

Convert 800 microliters to milliliters. Please select the single best answer 0.08 mL 0.80 mL 8.0 mL 80 mL

0.80 mL

How would you CORRECTLY prepare 100 mL of 0.9% isotonic saline (NaCl: GMW = 58.45)? Please select the single best answer 0.9 grams in 100 mL distilled water 9.0 grams in 100 mL distilled water 0.526 grams in 100 mL distilled water 5.84 grams in 100 mL distilled water

0.9 grams in 100 mL distilled water

After experiencing extreme fatigue and polyuria, a patient's basic metabolic panel is analyzed in the laboratory. The result of the glucose is too high for the instrument to read. The laboratorian performs a dilution using 0.25 mL of patient sample to 750 µL of diluent. The result now reads 325 mg/dL. How should the technologist report this patient's glucose result? Please select the single best answer 325 mg/dL1,300 mg/dL975 mg/dL1,625 mg/dL

1,300 mg/dL 5

The laboratory workplace includes many hours of computer use. The suggested time for a break after 30 minutes of computer use is: Please select the single best answer 1-2 minute break 3-5 minute break 5-10 minute break 20 minute break

1-2 minute break

Toxic levels of lithium can cause lethargy, apathy, muscle weakness up to and including seizures and coma. What is the toxic level of lithium? Please select the single best answer 0.5-1.2 mmol/L 1.2-1.5 mmol/L 1.5-2 mmol/L >2 mmol/L

1.5-2 mmol/L

What is the half-life of immunosuppressive drugs cyclosporine and tacrolimus? Please select the single best answer 2-4 hours4-6 hours8-10 hours10-12 hours

10-12 hours 5

What minimum level of specific resistance (megohms@25o C) is required for a Clinical Laboratory Reagent Water (CLRW) system: Please select the single best answer 10.0 5.0 2.0 0.1

10.0

In the steps involved in performing a bone marrow differential what objective is used and how many cells must be counted? Please select the single best answer 100x (oil), 100 cells 40x (oil), 100 cells 10x, 200 cells 100x (oil), 200 cells

100x (oil), 200 cells

How many grams are needed to make 1 L of a 3 M solution of HCl (gmw=36.46 g/mol)? Please select the single best answer 94.9 g HCl/ L 104.9 g HCl/L 109.4 g HCl/L 118.9 g HCl/L

109.4 g HCl/L

How many doses of RhIG should be administered if the calculated amount of fetal whole blood volume in maternal circulation was 28 mL? Please select the single best answer 1 dose 2 doses 3 doses 4 doses

2 doses

D-neg mother has a D-pos baby and the FMH test is postive. The Kleihauer-Betke test indicates the mother has been exposed to 20 mL of fetal blood. How many 300 microgram vials of RhIG should the mother receive? 1, 2, 3, or mother doesn't need it

2 vials 300 ug = 30mL fetal blood 20mL/30mL = 0.67 vials, round up to 1 vial --> add the extra vial = 2 vials

What is the approximate time that should be allowed for samples to completely clot before centrifugation for serum samples? Please select the single best answer 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes 20 minutes

20 minutes

Red blood cell units that contain CPD (citrate-phosphate-dextrose) can be stored for up to how many days? Please select the single best answer 21 days 28 days 35 days 42 days

21 days

Once the seal on a unit of packed red blood cells is opened, how long can the unit be stored in the refrigerator prior to administration? Please select the single best answer 4 hours12 hours24 hours48 hours

24 hours 4

56-y.o. woman w hx of high BP and CV disease plasma creatinine = 2.4 mg/dL urine creatiine = 65 mg/dL urine vol (24hr) = 1400 mL what is the eGFR for this pt?

26.32 ml/min (U crea/Pl crea) x (vol/min) = GFR (mL/min)

A patient has the following serum results: Na = 130 mEq/L K = 4.9 mEq/L Cl = 107 mEq/L Glucose = 300 mg/dL BUN = 18 mg/dL Creatinine = 1.1 mg/dL Which osmolality result is consistent with these results?. Note: There are various published versions of this particular equation that will produce slightly different results (choose the value closest to your calculated result). Please select the single best answer 240 mosmol/kg 251 mosmol/kg 281 mosmol/kg 293 mosmol/kg

281 mosmol/kg Osm = 2*Na + (Glu/2) + BUN/3

The normal Myeloid-to-erythroid ratio (M:E ratio) ranges from: Please select the single best answer 2:1 to 7:1 1.2:1 to 5:1 2:1 to 4:1 0.5:1 to 1:1

2:1 to 4:1 ^ if seg neuts are included w/o segs, the range is 1.5:1 to 3:1

How many standard deviations (SD) above and below the mean is accepted as being an appropriate control limit range on a control chart utilizing the Westgard rules: Please select the single best answer 1 SD 2 SD 3 SD 4 SD

3 SD

What is the minimum amount of time a specimen without additive or anticoagulant should be allowed to clot before centrifugation? Please select the single best answer 5 minutes 30 minutes 2 hours 3 hours

30 minutes

What is the optimal time to begin initial microscopic examination of a semen specimen, assuming liquefaction is complete? Please select the single best answer 30 minutes 2 hours 4 hours 8 hours

30 minutes analysis should begin no longer than one hour after ejaculation

What is the increase in the risk for developing antibodies against red cell antigens (RBC alloimmunization) for patients who are characterized as chronically transfused patients? Please select the single best answer 1% - 4% 2% - 8% 5% - 10% 30% or greater

30% or greater

Approximately how many out of 1,000,000 Caucasians will have the following phenotype?Group 0, K+, Jk(a+) Please select the single best answer 10,000 30,000 100,000 600,000

30,000 6

How many milliliters of 3N solution can be made from 50g of CaCl2? Please select the single best answer 150 mL 300 mL 3333 mL 6666 mL

300 mL

According to the lower normal reference limit stated by WHO, which of the following sperm concentrations would be considered abnormally low? Please select the single best answer 25 x 10^6 spermatozoa/mL 5 x 10^6 spermatozoa/mL 15 x 10^6 spermatozoa/mL 35 x 10^6 spermatozoa/mL

5 x 10^6 spermatozoa/mL

Which of the following would be considered a normal value for a glucose level in cerebrospinal fluid? Please select the single best answer 30 mg/dL60 mg/dL120mg/dL150 mg/dL

60 mg/dL

Given the following information, calculate the results in mg/24 hrs for a 24-hour urine protein. Total volume for 24 hours = 2,400 mL Urine protein = 2.7 mg/dL Please select the single best answer 64.8 mg/24 hrs 10.87 mg/24 hrs 57.5 mg/24 hrs 5.89 mg/24 hrs

64.8 mg/24 hrs (2.7x2400)/100

Blood is diluted at 1:100 and charged on the hemocytometer counting chambers on both sides. If the average platelet count from a counting chamber in one mm2 (one large square) is 68, what is the calculated platelet count? Please select the single best answer 680,000/mm3 6,800/mm3 68,000/mm3 34,000/mm3

68,000/mm3 5

Using the formula for creatinine clearance, calculate the clearance based on the values given below: Urine creatinine: 100 mg/dLPlasma creatinine: 1.9 mg/dLUrine volume: 1375 mL/24hrsSurface Area: 1.2 m2 Round to 1 decimal place. Please select the single best answer 1.04 x 105 mL/min/m2 1.04 x 105 mL/min 72 mL/min/m2 72 mL/min

72 mL/min/m2 UV/P x 1.73/SA

What weight of H2SO4 is contained in 200 mL of a 4 molar H2SO4 solution? (Atomic weight: H= 1; S = 32; 0 = 16) Please select the single best answer 78.4 g156.8 g39.2 g15.68 g

78.4 g

which of the following changes in titers would be considered significant when monitoring maternal antibodies using a doubling dilution? 16 - 32 4 - 8 8 - 32 8 - 16

8 to 32

What is the normality of 32.1% HCl? (HCl has a positive valence of 1) Please select the single best answer 3.2N 8.8N 11.2N 15.7N

8.8N

Calculate the specificity for the following medical research project completed by a manufacturer: Test Results Positive Negative Disease 984 7 No Disease 16 873 Please select the single best answer 98.2% 98.4% 99.1% 99.99%

98.2% true neg/(true neg + false pos)

From the IgG molecule illustration, which region is the heavy chain? Please select the single best answer A B C D

A A = Heavy chain B = Light chain C = Antigen binding site D = Variable region

Identify the body/frame and illuminator/diaphragm in the image to the right. Please select the single best answer B & DJ & KA & JL & F

A & J

Which of the following best defines "specificity": Please select the single best answer A test's ability to correctly identify individuals who have a given disease or disorder. A test's ability to correctly exclude individuals who do not have the given disease or disorder. Ability of a test to detect small amounts of a substance or to measure a reaction. The measurement or detection of a select substance provides important information about an illness or about health status that assists in the diagnosis, treatment, or monitoring of a patient.

A test's ability to correctly exclude individuals who do not have the given disease or disorder.

Which of these units of Red Blood Cells, that has been issued and returned to the blood bank, can be returned to inventory and is acceptable to use? Please select the single best answer A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued 1 hour previously but not transfused and kept at room temperature. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was not transfused but stored in a temperature-controlled remote refrigerator in the operating room for 2 hours. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued 15 minutes previously, but returned unused with one of the sterile ports opened. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued to the ER with other units in a temperature controlled blood bank emergency cooler, returned to the blood bank 5 hours after issue, with internal temperature of the system reading 15o C.

A unit of Red Blood Cells that was not transfused but stored in a temperature-controlled remote refrigerator in the operating room for 2 hours.

What should safety management start with in order to ensure clarity and consistency? Please select the single best answer Laboratory supervisors who reflect the attitudes of management toward safetyProper employee conductEmployee use of personal protective equipment (PPE)A written safety policy

A written safety policy 3

A 47-year old man is hemorrhaging severely. He is group AB, Rh (D) negative. Ten units of packed red blood cells are requested STAT. One group-specific unit is available. Which other units that are available in the blood bank would be most appropriate to choose for crossmatching? Please select the single best answer B, Rh(D) - positive A, Rh(D) - negative A, Rh (D) - positive O, Rh (D) - positive

A, Rh(D) - negative

The plant lectin obtained from the Dolichos biflorus plant will agglutinate which of the following? Please select the single best answer B cellsO cellsA2 cellsA1 cells

A1 cells 3

All of the following factors affect hybridization, EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer G:C content A:T content pH Temperature

A:T content

What ABO phenotype will exist in an individual that inherits an A gene from one parent and a B gene from the other? Please select the single best answer A B AB O

AB

MOST of the carbon dioxide present in the blood is in the form of: Please select the single best answer Bicarbonate Carbonate Carbonic acid Dissolved CO2

Bicarbonate

The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? Please select the single best answer Accurately identifies the presence of diseaseAccurately identifies the absence of diseaseHas many false-positivesHas few false-negatives

Accurately identifies the absence of disease 6

Which of the following medications is known to cause Reye's Syndrome in children? Please select the single best answer AcetaminophenIbuprofenAcetylsalicylic acidMorphine

Acetylsalicylic acid 5

Which group of conditions increases the risk of HbS polymerization? Please select the single best answer Acid pH, dehydration, decreased level of 2,3-DPG Alkaline pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3-DPG Acid pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3-DPG Alkaline pH, dehydration, decreased level of 2,3-DPG

Acid pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3-DPG

When would unexpected positive reactions be encountered during ABO forward typing? Please select the single best answer A or B subgroupsAntigen depression due to leukemiaHypogammaglobulinemiaAcquired B antigen

Acquired B antigen 4

A 76-year-old patient experiences frequent infections and bleeding episodes. She is also complaining of pain in her bones and joints. Upon routine exam, her physician orders a complete blood count and differential. The hematology technologist notices many cells appearing similar to the cell in the image to the right. Which condition is this patient most likely suffering from? Please select the single best answer Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)Acute Lymphoid Leukemia (ALL)Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)Polycythemia Vera (PV)

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) 3

Oliguria is usually correlated with: Acute glomerulonephritis Diabetes mellitus Hepatitis Tubular damage

Acute glomerulonephritis

Which of the following blood tests is used in the evaluation of hepatic disease? Please select the single best answer Amylase Alanine aminotransferase (ALT or SGPT) Creatinine Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT or SGPT)

The Emergency Department has collected blood test tubes for potassium, albumin, plasma hemoglobin, and acid phosphatase. Which of these test results will NOT be negatively affected if the blood tube is sent by the hospital's pneumatic tube system? Please select the single best answer Albumin Plasma hemoglobin Potassium Acid phosphatase

Albumin

Which analyte measurement is used to detect early nephropathy in a diabetic patient? Please select the single best answer Lactic acid Albumin Ketones HbA1C

Albumin

Which of the following proteins has the FASTEST electrophoretic mobility? Please select the single best answer Albumin Alpha globulins Beta globulins Gamma globulins

Albumin

Which of the following proteins has the FASTEST electrophoretic mobility? Please select the single best answer AlbuminAlpha globulinsBeta globulinsGamma globulins

Albumin

Which one of the following usually shows a decrease during an acute phase response? Please select the single best answer Albumin Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Fibrinogen Ceruloplasmin

Albumin

A 51-year-old woman with Type 2 Diabetes and high blood pressure has recently started noticing foaming in the toilet bowl following urination. She typically has her urine checked for abnormalities every 3 months. Recently, urinalysis indicates an abnormally large concentration of protein in her urine. Given the patient's history, which of the following proteins will likely be found in the urine upon analysis in the laboratory? Please select the single best answer Beta amyloids, because of the damage inflicted on the kidneys by renal disease Gamma globulins, because of the body's reaction to renal disease Albumin, which leaks through damaged kidney glomeruli and appears first in the urine IgG heavy chains, indicated by an "M-spike" during a routine urinalysis

Albumin, which leaks through damaged kidney glomeruli and appears first in the urine

Which of the following enzymes is associated with conditions affecting skeletal muscles? Please select the single best answer Aldolase Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) Gamma-glutamyltransferase 5'-nucleotidase

Aldolase

Which of the following blood tests is used to evaluate liver function? Please select the single best answer Amylase Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) Creatinine Uric acid

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Compliance standards, policies and procedures apply to: Please select the single best answer Only employees who work in risk areas of the laboratory. All employees in the company regardless of their position, job description, or title. Only the billing department. Any employee involved in the compliance program or the legal department.

All employees in the company regardless of their position, job description, or title.

How can a phlebotomist help to reduce pre-analytical variability associated with sample collection? Please select the single best answer Avoid keeping the tourniquet applied for a prolonged period of time. Select a needle gauge that is appropriate for the size of the evacuated blood tube used. Avoid collecting blood from an arm that is receiving an intravenous (IV) solution. All of these techniques help to minimize the pre-analytical variability related to sample collection.

All of these techniques help to minimize the pre-analytical variability related to sample collection.

Which of the following substances are detected with Clinitest® tablets? Please select the single best answer Glucose only Glucose and albumin Ketones All reducing substances

All reducing substances reagent tablet that is based on the classic Benedict's copper reduction reaction

Basophils' primary role involves: Please select the single best answer PhagocytosisAllergic reactionsLong term immunityFighting parasitic infections

Allergic reactions 4

Which of the following tests would be employed in order to detect neural tube defects? Please select the single best answer BilirubinL/S ratioAlpha fetoproteinCreatinine

Alpha fetoprotein

All of the following are factors that will affect migration in gel electrophoresis, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Gel concentration (size of gel pores) Size of particle Voltage used Amount of light present

Amount of light present

Which of the following blood tests is used to determine acute pancreatitis? Please select the single best answer Acid phosphatase Uric acid Amylase Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Amylase

Hormonal variation throughout the menstrual cycle typically shows: Please select the single best answer An abrupt rise in luteinizing hormone (LH) 3-36 hours prior to ovulationProgesterone peaking at ovulation then fallingEstrogen peaking at ovulation then fallingAn abrupt decrease of LH 3-36 hours prior to ovulation

An abrupt rise in luteinizing hormone (LH) 3-36 hours prior to ovulation The LH surge is required for ovulation. In fact, 3-36 hours after the LH surge, the follicle releases an ovum, which is called ovulation. After ovulation, the corpus luteum produces large amounts of progesterone while estrogen levels are also increased in order to prepare the uterus for a possible pregnancy.

All of the following methods can be used to transport carbon dioxide to the lungs EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Blood plasma Attached to neutrophils Bound to hemoglobin in the RBC In solution within the RBC

Attached to neutrophils

Substances found in urinary sediment that are more easily distinguished by the use of a polarized microscope are: Please select the single best answer WBC RBC Waxy casts Anisotropic cholesterol droplets

Anisotropic cholesterol droplets (fat globules/droplets) tend to form a "maltese cross" pattern when viewed in polarized light

On a quiet evening shift at a small hospital, you encounter a specimen with a positive antibody screen. As per your current laboratory protocol, you check for agglutination at the immediate spin phase of testing; and then again at the antihuman gloubulin (AHG) phase of 37°C. According to your laboratory guidelines, a single homozygous cell may be used to rule out an antibody. Based on the following 3-cell screen performed by tube, which of the following clinically significant antibodies are you unable to rule out? Anti-Fya, -D Anti-Lua, -Lea, -Fya, -C Anti-Lea, -Fya, -C Anti-Fya, -C, -Lub

Anti-Fya, -C, -Lub

Evaluate the panel shown on the right. Which antibody(ies) is/are most likely causing this reaction? Note: Use the reaction patterns to identify the most likely antibody(ies). There may be additional antibodies present that cannot be ruled out. Please select the single best answer Anti-M Anti-k Anti-D Anti-Fyb & Anti-Lea

Anti-Fyb & Anti-Lea

If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients? Please select the single best answer Anti-M Anti-N Anti-Leb Anti-Fya

Anti-Leb It is not indicated in causing HDFN

The serum from a patient of African-American descent is reactive with all screening and panel cells. Which antibody directed to a high incidence antigen is most likely to be present? Please select the single best answer Anti-Lub Anti-Jk3 Anti-U Anti-Ku

Anti-U anti-U is present in >99% of the population but never in whites

Acquired hemophilia A (not classic hemophilia A) may be the result of which of the following conditions?

Anti-factor VIII inhibitor

Which of the following characteristics of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is NOT different for ABO and Rh HDFN? Please select the single best answer Disease predicted in titers Anemia at birth Antibody is IgG Bilirubin at birth

Antibody is IgG

Heparin interacts with _____________, which subsequently inhibits thrombin. Please select the single best answer Red blood cells White blood cells Antithrombin III Protein C

Antithrombin III

That portion of an enzyme which when separated from its cofactor is called a(n): Please select the single best answer HoloenzymeIsoenzymeCoenzymeApoenzyme

Apoenzyme 6

Which of the following statements is true concerning apolipoproteins? Please select the single best answer All lipoprotein particles contain the same apolipoproteins.Apolipoproteins are essential for lipid metabolism.Apolipoproteins are the reason lipoproteins are atherogenic.Apolipoproteins are a type of cholesterol.

Apolipoproteins are essential for lipid metabolism.

A characteristic that distinguishes adult students from younger students is that adults: Please select the single best answer Are interested in learning from their peersAre less self-motivated since they have already established their careersTend to want to be passive studentsRespond better to individualized instruction

Are interested in learning from their peers

All of the following are likely the causes of an abnormal thrombin time (TT) EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Fibrin split productsHeparinAspirinDysfibrinogenemia

Aspirin 6

The analysis of DNA products using automated molecular testing equipment has the listed advantages EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Automated equipment for molecular testing is less expensive to purchase and maintain. Automated equipment for molecular testing produces products with greater specificity and sensitivity. Automated equipment for molecular DNA amplification products produces more consistent product quality. Automated equipment for molecular testing requires a smaller sample volume.

Automated equipment for molecular testing is less expensive to purchase and maintain.

What is the MOST common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidity and mortality? Please select the single best answer BacteriaHuman immunodeficiency virus (HIV)Hepatitis A virus (HAV)Malarial parasites

Bacteria 4

Glycine-HCL/EDTA treatment of red cells can destroy which of the following antigens, allowing for confirmation of a suspected antibody and detecting additional antibodies?

Bg and Kell

In a case involving actual lead poisoning, what would a technologist expect to find on a Wright-stained blood smear? Please select the single best answer Reticulocytes Spherocytes Basophilic stippling Cabot rings

Basophilic stippling

All of the following are components of a basic single beam spectrophotometer, except: Please select the single best answer Beam splitterCuvettePrismLight source

Beam splitter 4

What is the proper lifting procedure that should be used to lift items from the floor? Please select the single best answer Kick it along with your feet.Keep your legs as straight as possible and use your back muscles.Bend your legs and lift with your leg muscles.Bend you legs, but lift with your arms as much as possible.

Bend your legs and lift with your leg muscles.

A patient has an increased RBC count with a decreased Hb and normal Hct. The MCV is microcytic, and the RDW is within normal limits. Many codocytes are present on the peripheral smear. Serum iron is 165 µg/dL (normal = 60 -150 µg/dL), and the TIBC is 230 µg/dL (normal = 250 - 400 µg/dL). Consider the findings on alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis, which show an increased level of hemoglobin A2 of 5% (normal values are less than 3.5%). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? Please select the single best answer Beta thalassemia silent carrierBeta thalassemia minorBeta thalassemia intermediaBeta thalassemia major

Beta thalassemia minor 5

Which of the following tests is used to quantify a coagulation inhibitor? Please select the single best answer Prothrombin timeThrombin timeMixing studyBethesda assay

Bethesda assay 6

Error rates in the laboratory are estimated at what rate? Please select the single best answer Between 1:10 and 1:100 results. Between 1:32 and 1:1260 results. Between 1:164 to 1:8300 results. Between 1:250 to 1:11500 results.

Between 1:164 to 1:8300 results.

What does the hh genotype gives rise to? Please select the single best answer H substanceH secretorsBombay phenotypeh antibodies

Bombay phenotype 2

Homogentisic acid in urine will cause urine to be which of the following colors? Please select the single best answer Green Pink Port-wine Brown/black

Brown/black

Which of the following conditions is associated with the Epstein-Barr Virus? Please select the single best answer MeaslesBurkitt's lymphomaMumpsChicken pox

Burkitt's lymphoma 3

Which of the following D variants has the best likelihood to receive D-positive RBCs without any adverse effects? Please select the single best answer Del Partial D Partial weak D C in Trans to RHD

C in Trans to RHD

While serum elevations are NOT generally seen in early stages, which of the following tumor markers are elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer? Please select the single best answer CEA and AFPAFP and CA 125PSA and CA 15-3CA 15-3 and CA 549

CA 15-3 and CA 549

Which two of the following biomarkers are not specific to cardiac muscle and may be elevated in patients with injury to muscle other than cardiac muscle? Please select the single best answer cTnI and cTnT CK-MB and myoglobin cTnT and CK-MBMyoglobin and cTnI

CK-MB and myoglobin

Which of the following is true of C-reactive protein (CRP) when being used to assess the risk of cardiovascular disease? Please select the single best answer CRP levels are high in cardiovascular disease. CRP levels are not affected by cardiovascular disease. CRP levels are low in cardiovascular disease. CRP has little clinical utility for assessing cardiovascular disease.

CRP levels are high in cardiovascular disease.

which three genetic variations in enzymes are most often linked to differences in drug metabolism?

CYP2D6, CYP2C9, & CYP3A4

Identify the inclusion indicated by the arrow: Please select the single best answer Auer rod Döhle bodies Heinz bodies Cabot ring

Cabot ring

EDTA and Sodium citrate combine with _________ to inhibit coagulation in blood samples. Please select the single best answer Potassium Calcium Magnesium Sodium

Calcium

Ionized calcium is currently most commonly measured using which of the following method? Please select the single best answer Flame photometry Color complex formation between calcium and o-cresolphthalein Atomic absorption Calcium ion selective electrodes

Calcium ion selective electrodes

All of the following are therapeutic drugs used to treat cardiac disease, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Carbamazepine Digoxin Procainamide Quinidine

Carbamazepine

Which of the procedures listed below will increase the platelet concentration in the preparation of platelets? Please select the single best answer Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a low speed. Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed. Centrifuge the blood at a high speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed. Decrease the duration of rotation of the initial spin.

Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed.

The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and: Please select the single best answer SodiumPotassiumCalciumChloride

Chloride

In blood, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with: Please select the single best answer SodiumPotassiumChloridePhosphorus

Chloride 4

A patient is seen in the ER for abdominal pain and jaundice (yellowing of the skin and sclera). A quick urinalysis is performed, and it is noted there is an increase in urine urobilinogen. All of the following are likely causes EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Hepatitis Hemolytic episode Cholelithiasis Chronic liver disease

Cholelithiasis

When flammable chemicals or grease are involved, what is the appropriate fire designation? Please select the single best answer Class A Class B Class C Class D

Class B

Which of the following clinical laboratory departments performs the most tests? Please select the single best answer Urinalysis Microbiology Clinical Chemistry Hematology

Clinical Chemistry

Central Tolerance in the human immune defense system operates by: Please select the single best answer Clonal deletion of T cells and clonal editing of B cells Cellular inactivation by weak signaling without a co-stimulus Clearance of apototic bodies Antigen segregation

Clonal deletion of T cells and clonal editing of B cells

This image is from a patient with beta thalassemia. Though not diagnostic for this condition, what abnormal RBC morphology is present that would lead you to consider thalassemia? Please select the single best answer Codocytes (target cells) Spherocytes Macrocytes Acanthocytes (spur cells)

Codocytes (target cells)

At what frequency must the temperature of a chart recorder be compared to a thermometer? Please select the single best answer Daily Monthly Quarterly Annually

Daily

Which of the following microscopic techniques is best suited for direct examination of the infectious agent of syphilis? Please select the single best answer Light microscopy Phase-contrast microscopy Dark-field microscopy Electron microscopy

Dark-field microscopy

A patient with renal failure is seen for blood work. What would you expect the serum calcium and phosphorus levels to be in this patient? Please select the single best answer Increased calcium and phosphorus levels Decreased calcium and phosphorus levels Increased calcium but decreased phosphorus levels Decreased calcium but increased phosphorus levels

Decreased calcium but increased phosphorus levels

A patient with renal failure is seen for blood work. What would you expect the serum calcium and phosphorus levels to be in this patient? Please select the single best answer Increased calcium and phosphorus levelsDecreased calcium and phosphorus levelsIncreased calcium but decreased phosphorus levelsDecreased calcium but increased phosphorus levels

Decreased calcium but increased phosphorus levels 5

Which one of the following sets of laboratory results is consistent with hemolytic anemia? Please select the single best answer Increased concentration of haptoglobin; negative hemoglobinuria Decreased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme; decreased haptoglobin levels Decreased serum LDH activity; normal catabolism of heme Normal concentration of haptoglobin; marked hemoglobinuria

Decreased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme; decreased haptoglobin levels

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) copies DNA through repeated cycles of three basic steps. What is the correct order of these steps? Please select the single best answer Extraction, annealing, denaturation Denaturation, annealing, extraction Denaturation, extension, annealing Denaturation, annealing, extension

Denaturation, annealing, extension

What is the fundamental purpose of the full, pre-transfusion crossmatch? Please select the single best answer Detect antibodies in recipient serum/plasma that react with donor red blood cells. Discover HLA antibodies in graft-versus-host situations. Verify that the donor and recipient are the same blood type. Prevent hemolytic destruction of the recipient red blood cells.

Detect antibodies in recipient serum/plasma that react with donor red blood cells.

Increases in blood ammonia levels would be expected in which of the following conditions: Please select the single best answer Diabetes Obstructive jaundice End-stage cirrhosis Myocardial infarction

End-stage cirrhosis

In which of the following condition(s) would an increased serum osmolality be an expected finding? Please select the single best answer Increased arginine vasopressin hormone (AVP formerly ADH) secretion Diabetes insipidus Hyponatremia Acute myocardial infarction

Diabetes insipidus

At a medical examination, a 50-year-old Caucasian male expressed concern regarding diabetes. There is a history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease in his family. He has gained a few pounds each year, and his physician notes abdominal obesity. His physician orders laboratory tests to evaluate his risk of cardiovascular disease. Vital Signs and Pertinent Laboratory Results: Blood Pressure: 128/82 mm Hg Weight: 230 lbs Height: 5' 11'' Calculated BMI: 32.1 Waist Circumference: 45 inches Fasting Blood Glucose: 120 mg/dL Triglycerides: 170 mg/dL HDL-C: 42 mg/dL Which one of the following statements regarding this patient is true if the physician uses the American Heart Association (AHA) and National Heart, Lung, Blood Institute (NHLBI) guidelines for metabolic syndrome evaluation? Diagnosis of metabolic syndrome; waist circumference, HDL-C, and fasting blood glucose meet the criteria Diagnosis of metabolic syndrome; waist circumference, triglyceride level, and fasting blood glucose meet the criteria It does not meet the criteria for diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome because the HDL-C is not <40 mg/dL Cannot make a conclusion regarding metabolic syndrome because the LDL-C was not assayed

Diagnosis of metabolic syndrome; waist circumference, triglyceride level, and fasting blood glucose meet the criteria

Which of the following drugs is used to treat congestive heart failure? Please select the single best answer Disopyramide Quinidine Procainamide Digoxin

Digoxin

Essential components of compatibility testing include all of the following EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Antibody screen on recipient's serum Major crossmatch or computer crossmatch ABO and Rh typing of recipient Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

Which of the prospective donors below would be an acceptable blood donor? Please select the single best answer Donor number 1: Blood pressure: 90/55 Pulse: 105 Temperature: 36.4ºC (97.6 ºF) Donor number 2: Blood pressure: 200/90 Pulse: 72 Temperature: 37ºC (98.6 ºF) Donor number 3: Blood pressure: 110/72 Pulse:66 Temperature: 37.2ºC (99.0 ºF) Donor number 4: Blood pressure: 100/70 Pulse: 98 Temperature: 38.3 (101.0 ºF)

Donor number 3: Blood pressure: 110/72 Pulse:66 Temperature: 37.2ºC (99.0 ºF)

What is the BEST technique for monitoring the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)? Please select the single best answer Amniocentesis Doppler ultrasound Antibody titration Cordocentesis

Doppler ultrasound

To properly use a volumetric pipette calibrated "to deliver" (TD), one should: Please select the single best answer Let the pipette drain in a vertical position and blow out the last drop. Drain the contents in the vertical position but do not blow out. Drain the pipette after rinsing out the contents several times and blow out the last drop. Contain a specified amount of liquid but are not necessarily calibrated to deliver that exact amount.

Drain the contents in the vertical position but do not blow out.

A patient experiences a mild allergic reaction to a transfusion, including urticaria, erythema (skin redness), and itching. What is the most likely source of the allergen? Please select the single best answer IgA on mast cellsDrugs or food consumed by the blood donorInsoluble allergensDonor red blood cells

Drugs or food consumed by the blood donor 6

When are data collected in a real-time PCR procedure?

During the nucleic acid amplification

All of the following are true concerning the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer ESR can be used to follow the course of a disease ESR is decreased during inflammatory conditions Highest ESR values are usually seen in Multiple Myeloma ESR values are increased in rheumatoid conditions

ESR is decreased during inflammatory conditions

The function of the very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) is to transport: Please select the single best answer Cholesterol from peripheral cells to the liver Cholesterol and phospholipids to the peripheral cells Exogenous triglycerides Endogenous triglycerides

Endogenous triglycerides (hepatic-derived lipids) chylomicrons transport exogenous (dietary) lipids to hepatic and peripheral cells. cholesterol is transported by HDL and LDL

Which porphyria has a defect in the ferrochetalase enzyme within the RBC, causing redness, edema and burning when exposed to light? Please select the single best answer Erythropoietic protoporphyria Congenital erythropoietic porphyria X-linked protoporphyria Variegate porphyria

Erythropoietic protoporphyria

Which of the following is a hormone produced in the kidney that is responsible for triggering the production of red blood cells? Please select the single best answer ThrombopoietinErythropoietinThyroxineEstrogen

Erythropoietin 5

Which organisms are the appropriate stock cultures for quality control testing of oxidase production? Please select the single best answer Escherichia coli / Klebsiella pneumoniae Salmonella typhimurium / Escherichia coli Escherichia coli / Pseudomonas aeruginosa Proteus mirabilis / Escherichia coli

Escherichia coli / Pseudomonas aeruginosa

In which of the following situations would a bone marrow aspirate and biopsy be MOST LIKELY recommended to aid in diagnosis? Please select the single best answer Primary evaluation of a hypochromic/microcytic anemiaRoutine screening for hematologic complicationsPart of bone density screeningEvaluation of unexplained cytopenias

Evaluation of unexplained cytopenias 3

Which agency enforces the regulations of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act? Please select the single best answer FDACMSAABBISBT

FDA

Which of these factors may be deficient if both the PT and aPTT are prolonged? Please select the single best answer Factor II Factor VII Factor VIII Factor XI

Factor II

which otf factors is Vitamin K-dependent?

Factor IX and factors II, VII, and X

Which classification encompasses a group of organisms that may contain multiple genera and consists of organisms with a common attribute? Please select the single best answer Family Genus Species Subspecies

Family

The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) and American Heart Association (AHA) have created a set of parameters to define the presence of metabolic syndrome. Select the set of laboratory assays that are utilized in the NHLBI and AHA criteria for metabolic syndrome diagnosis. Please select the single best answer LDL-C, triglycerides, HDL-C, and fasting blood glucose Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, insulin, and VLDL Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C, and VLDL

Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C

All of the following veins are used for routine phlebotomy collection procedures, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Antecubital veinCephalic veinBasilic veinFemoral vein

Femoral vein 3

The alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis pattern shown on the right includes controls for A, S, and C; and A and F above and below the patient results. (NOTE: ASC and AF are labeled for the controls and do not indicate the migration order.) The patient was tested in duplicate, and the results are in lanes 3 and 4. The patient lanes (3 and 4) displayed in these hemoglobin electrophoresis patterns are consistent with what diagnosis? Please select the single best answer HbSA HbSC HbSD HbS/HPFH

HbS/HPFH

What section of the SDS would provide information about whether a chemical is carcinogenic? Please select the single best answer Physical and chemical data Health hazard data Reactivity data Handling and storage data

Health hazard data

Which of the following parts of the body synthesizes and secretes BNP? Please select the single best answer Kidney Liver Heart Adrenal gland

Heart

A 55-year-old white male had the following lab data: RBC 3.7 X 1012/L Serum iron 220 µg/dL (N: 60-80 µg/dL) TIBC 300 µg/dL (N: 260-400 µg/dL) Hct 32% Serum Ferritin 2,800 ng/mL (N: 10-200 ng/mL) WBC 5.8 x 109/L MCV 86 fL MCH 26 pg MCHC 32% Prussian Blue stain of bone marrow aspirate indicates markedly elevated iron stores. These laboratory results are MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Please select the single best answer Sideroblastic anemia Anemia of chronic disease Hemochromatosis Megaloblastic anemia

Hemochromatosis

Any health care worker who is expected to have contact with patient blood potentially infectious body fluids must be offered a vaccination for: Please select the single best answer Hepatitis BTyphoidTetanusHepatitis C

Hepatitis B

Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are MOST characteristically associated with: Please select the single best answer Hepatocellular carcinoma Alcoholic cirrhosis Chronic active hepatitis Multiple myeloma

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Which of the following electrolytes is most likely to be spuriously elevated in a hemolyzed specimen? Please select the single best answer Sodium Potassium Chloride BUN

Potassium

A known sickle cell trait patient has a hemoglobin electrophoresis test performed. Which of the following hemoglobin percentage sets would most closely match this patient's diagnostic state? Please select the single best answer Hgb A = 90%, Hgb S = 8%, Hgb A2 = 2%, Hgb F = 0% Hgb A = 60%, Hgb S = 38%, Hgb A2 = 2%, Hgb F = 0% Hgb A = 40%, Hgb S = 58%, Hgb A2 = 2%, Hgb F = 0% Hgb A = 25%, Hgb S = 70%, Hgb A2 = 2%, Hgb F = 3%

Hgb A = 60%, Hgb S = 38%, Hgb A2 = 2%, Hgb F = 0%

In examining a Wright's stained blood smear of a patient who has had a splenectomy, one would most likely also find: Please select the single best answer Heinz bodies Howell-Jolly bodies Auer rods Dohle bodies

Howell-Jolly bodies

Which of the following inclusions are composed of DNA? Please select the single best answer Howell-Jolly bodies Heinz bodies Pappenheimer bodies Döhle bodies

Howell-Jolly bodies

The primary mechanism responsible for glomerular filtration is: Please select the single best answer Osmotic gradient Concentration of blood components Rate of blood flow through the kidneys Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts

Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts

The most frequently encountered immunoglobulin demonstrated in patients with Multiple Myeloma is: Please select the single best answer IgM Ig G Ig A IgE

Ig G

Which class of antibody can agglutinate erythrocytes (RBCs) after anti-human globulin (AHG) is added to the test tube? Please select the single best answer IgAIgEIgGIgM

IgG 2

To assess drug concentrations during the trough phase, blood should be drawn: Please select the single best answer About one 15 minutes after the administration of an oral dose of the drug. Immediately before the next dose is given. About three hours after the administration of an oral dose of the drug. About an hour before the administration of an oral dose of the drug.

Immediately before the next dose is given.

Which of the following tests confirms the presence of Bence-Jones proteinuria: Please select the single best answer Protein electrophoresis Sulfosalicylic acid precipitation Cryoprecipitation Immunoelectrophoresis

Immunoelectrophoresis

Which occurrence is a medical error? Choose the correct answer and click OK. Technologist drops and breaks a bottle of chemistry reagentPatient is tested and diagnosed with acute leukemiaAnalyzer malfunctions and test results are rejected as invalidIncompatible blood is transfused into a patient during surgery

Incompatible blood is transfused into a patient during surgery

Which of the following errors could most likely occur in the preanalytical phase? Incorrectly collected sample Wrong test method used Incorrectly performed instrument calibration Inaccurately handled critical test value

Incorrectly collected sample

High levels of lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A2 (Lp-PLA2) are associated with: Please select the single best answer Decreased cardiovascular riskIncreased cardiovascular riskIncreased renal failure riskIncreased liver failure risk

Increased cardiovascular risk 4

What is the correct method employers must notify employees regarding the results of formaldehyde monitoring? Please select the single best answer Individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees. Employers are not required to report to employees. During the annual performance review meeting. Posting information on the Employer's Facebook page.

Individually in writing or by posting the results in an appropriate location that is accessible to employees.

How does hydroxyurea aid in the treatment of sickle cell disease? Please select the single best answer Acts as an analgesic in pain management. Prevents sickle cells from clumping together. Induces increased production of HbF. Reduces the number of sickle cells that form

Induces increased production of HbF.

Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue? Please select the single best answer Inflammatory cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue, contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Increased synthesis and secretion of PAI-1 in metabolic syndrome contributes to cardiovascular disease by increasing blood pressure. Obesity in metabolic syndrome contributes to the development of cardiovascular disease by increased synthesis and secretion of adiponectin. There is no correlation between the amount of adipose tissue and cardiovascular disease.

Inflammatory cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue, contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease.

The risk of laboratory-acquired infections with viruses, such as HIV-1, is a critical consideration. All of the following routes are considered modes of transmission with infected blood or other body fluids, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Contact of the hand (non-intact skin) Contact with eyes Contact with mouth Inhalation (airborne transmission)

Inhalation (airborne transmission)

Pernicious anemia refers to cobalamin deficiency that results from a lack of which of the following? Please select the single best answer Vitamin B12 Intrinsic Factor Folate Vitamin C

Intrinsic Factor cobalmin = Vit B12

The migration rate of proteins on cellulose acetate is primarily the result of: Please select the single best answer Molecular content of the protein Ionic charge on the proteins Concentration of the proteins Type of proteins

Ionic charge on the proteins

Which of the following methods would be employed to collect sweat for chloride analysis: Please select the single best answer Electrophoresis Counter electrophoresis Iontophoresis Isoelectric focusing

Iontophoresis

The complete blood count was obtained from a patient recently admitted to the emergency room. The red blood cell indices obtained revealed an MCV of 115 femtoliters (fL) (normal range 80 - 90 fL). The patient met the criteria for a peripheral blood smear examination. A representative field is shown on the right. All of the following conditions would be indicated by the results seen on this peripheral blood smear EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Hemolytic anemia Myelodysplasia Iron deficiency Liver disease

Iron deficiency

The abnormal RBCs seen in this illustration are indicative of: Please select the single best answer Folic acid deficiency Vitamin B12 deficiency Chronic liver disease Iron deficiency anemia

Iron deficiency anemia

Which of the following is correct regarding C-reactive protein (CRP)? Please select the single best answer Is a highly specific test Corresponds to serum complement levels Is usually elevated in pediatric bacterial infections Does not react with pneumococcal C-polysaccharide

Is usually elevated in pediatric bacterial infections

A characteristic of a good cardiac biomarker is that: Please select the single best answer It can be detected only if it is present in a HIGH concentration in the peripheral blood. It can be detected even if it is present in a LOW concentration in the peripheral blood. It can be detected only if it is present in a HIGH concentration in urine. It can be detected even if it is present in a LOW concentration in urine.

It can be detected even if it is present in a LOW concentration in the peripheral blood.

Glucose is considered an aldose because: Please select the single best answer It contains a terminal carbonyl group, called an aldehyde group. It contains a carbonyl group in the middle linked to two other carbon atoms, called a ketone group. It contains a terminal carbonyl group, called a ketone group. It contains a carbonyl group in the middle linked to two other carbon atoms, called an aldehyde group.

It contains a terminal carbonyl group, called an aldehyde group.

Lewis Blood Group System is a human blood group unlike most others. The antigen is produced and secreted by exocrine glands, eventually adsorbing to the surface of red blood cells. Its expression is based on the genetic expression of the Lewis and Secretor genes. Based on the following genotype (Le) (sese), what would you predict the Lewis antigen phenotypic expression to be? Please select the single best answer Le(a- b-)Le(a+ b+)Le(a+ b-)Le(a- b+)

Le(a+ b-) 6

You are working to validate a new method for detecting C-reactive protein (CRP) in serum. To assess precision, you run a medium-level control 30 times and determine the mean to be 4.0 mg/dL with a standard deviation of 0.04 mg/dL. What could be said about the precision of this run, assuming a CV less than 3% is acceptable? Please select the single best answer It is not acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 100%. It is not acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 10%. It is acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 0.1%. It is acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 1%.

It is acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 1%.

Which one of the following statements about thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is true? Please select the single best answer It is decreased in hyperthyroidism. It is decreased in hypothyroidism. A sensitive TSH assay is not a good screening test for thyroid function. Diffuse toxic goiter is associated with elevated TSH levels.

It is decreased in hyperthyroidism.

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding troponin as a marker of myocardial infarction (MI)? Please select the single best answer It rises much sooner after a myocardial infarction than CK-MB. It stays elevated much longer than CK-MB. It is potentially more specific as a cardiac marker than CK-MB. Troponin T is often elevated in renal failure patients.

It rises much sooner after a myocardial infarction than CK-MB. Troponin and CK-MB both rise apprx 3 hours after a MI Trop can stay elevated up to 2 weeks, CK-MB returns to baseline in 36 hours

If a drug is given at intervals that are the same as its half-life, approximately how long will it take the drug to reach steady state? Please select the single best answer It will be at steady state from the first dose.It will take about two half-lives to reach steady state.It will take about 5-7 half-lives to reach steady state.It will never reach a steady state.

It will take about 5-7 half-lives to reach steady state. about 5 to 7 half-lives to reach steady state (the equilibrium between drug dosing and elimination). By 5-7 doses, the amount of single dose administered is equal to the amount of drug eliminated by the patient during the dosage period.

Which symptom of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase? Please select the single best answer Anemia Increased reticulocyte count Jaundice Cardiac failure

Jaundice

Which of the following characteristics is consistent with the Kidd blood group system? Please select the single best answer Jk(a-b-) red cells are resistant to lysis in 2 M ureaKidd antigens are destroyed by ficinAntibodies to Kidd antigens react best at immediate spinAnti-Jka activity may not react well in a LISS test system

Jk(a-b-) red cells are resistant to lysis in 2 M urea 6

When is a trough blood sample for therapeutic drug monitoring usually obtained? Please select the single best answer Just after the dose is administered Just before the next scheduled dose At the peak time calculated after a dose After one half-life of the drug

Just before the next scheduled dose

Which of the following antigens are well developed on fetal cells? Please select the single best answer Lewis ABO Kell I

Kell 7

Nitric oxide is associated with the prevention of vaso-occlusion by decreasing cellular adherence to endothelium. Which amino acid is decreased in patients with sickle cell disease and is needed as a substrate to produce nitric oxide? Please select the single best answer L-arginineL-glutamineL-lysineL-tyrosine

L-arginine 8

Which of the following tests on amniotic fluid would be included when assessing fetal lung maturity: Please select the single best answer Alpha Fetoprotein Bilirubin L/S Ratio Fetal hemoglobin

L/S Ratio

Which term describes the dose of the drug in which 50% of the individuals will result in mortality? Please select the single best answer ED50 LD50 TD50 MD50

LD50

Which one of these Lewis blood group system phenotypes usually produces anti-Lea? Please select the single best answer Le(a+b+) Le(a+b-) Le(a-b+) Le(a-b-)

Le(a-b-)

Which one of the following blood group antigens is not expressed, or only weakly expressed on cord blood cells? Please select the single best answer K ABO M Leb

Leb

With the development of fetal lung maturity, which of the following phospholipid concentrations in amniotic fluid increases? Please select the single best answer Sphingomyelin Phosphatidyl ethanolamine Phosphatidylinositol Lecithin

Lecithin

In a normal CSF the protein concentration as compared to that in the plasma is generally: Please select the single best answer Less than 50% Less than 30% Less than 10% Less than 1%

Less than 1%

What part of an immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule exists as kappa or lambda chains? Please select the single best answer Fc Fab Heavy chains Light chains

Light chains

Nephelometry and turbidimetry measure different properties of: Please select the single best answer Fluorescence in turbid solutions Free ions in solution UV light at 360 nm Light transmission and scatter by particles in suspension

Light transmission and scatter by particles in suspension

Which of the following is most likely to interfere with the measurement of hemoglobin? Please select the single best answer Leukocytopenia EDTA Heparin Lipemia

Lipemia

A variety of additives are used in blood collection tubes. Which of the following additives prevents clotting by inhibiting thrombin and thromboplastin? Please select the single best answer EDTA Gel Lithium or sodium heparin Sodium fluoride

Lithium or sodium heparin

All of the following are sites of active hematopoiesis in the adult EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Skull Ribs Liver Pelvis

Liver

GGT (gamma-glutamyltransferase) is an enzyme found in many body tissues including the kidney, prostate, brain, pancreas, and liver, however, its clinical applications is confined to the evaluation of what system? Please select the single best answer Pancreas Liver Kidney Brain

Liver

Which of these processes would be characteristic of "Lean" laboratory production? Please select the single best answer Hold routine specimens in the specimen processing area until all phlebotomists have completed their morning rounds. Process and deliver patient samples to the testing areas in batches. Load patient samples onto automated analyzers as the samples arrive to the work area. Techs constantly leaving their workstation to locate regularly used supplies for their bench.

Load patient samples onto automated analyzers as the samples arrive to the work area.

Which of the following thyroid function assay results would you expect with hyperthyroidism? Please select the single best answer High TSH, low free T4 Normal TSH, normal free T4 Low TSH, high free T4 High TSH, normal free T4

Low TSH, high free T4

All of the following are causes of hypernatremia EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Excess water loss Low aldosterone production Decreased water intake Increased sodium intake or retention

Low aldosterone production

Which of the following sources of error will give a false negative result in antihuman globulin testing? Please select the single best answer Low pH of salineDirty glasswareSamples collected in gel separator tubesRefrigerated specimen

Low pH of saline 6

All of the following statements describe a method by which platelets aid coagulation EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Lower blood pressure by releasing heparin Catalyze coagulation by releasing Platelet Factor 3 Cause blood vessels to constrict by releasing serotonin Form a plug to stop the flow of blood

Lower blood pressure by releasing heparin the other 3 options are ways that plts aid in coag

When measuring enzyme activity, if the instrument is operating 5ºC lower than the temperature prescribed for the method, how will the results be affected? Please select the single best answer Lower than actual Higher than actual Varied, showing no particular pattern No effect

Lower than actual

Which of the following cells have pale blue cytoplasm with a few azurophilic granules and an oval or indented nucleus? Please select the single best answer Monocyte Segmented neutrophil Eosinophil Lymphocyte

Lymphocyte

The following image is from a cytocentrifuged preparation of serous fluid. The arrow is pointing to which of the following: Please select the single best answer Neutrophil Lymphocyte Mesothelial cell Malignant cell

Mesothelial cell tissue cells that line the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities. They are normally sloughed from these membranes. Mesothelial cells appear as large, evenly stained cells with moderate to abundant light or dark blue cytoplasm. They may have one or more than one nucleus. The nucleus is smooth, round, and contains homogeneous chromatin. Large, uniform nucleoli may also be seen.

A 46-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital through the emergency room after having a bout of severe diarrhea for 3 days along with headaches, muscle aches, shortness of breath, and an increased heart rate. Blood gas measurements were ordered by her concerned physician. The results showed the following: pH = 7.30 pCO2 = 32 mm Hg HCO3- = 15 mmol/L pO2 = 93 mmol/L What acid-base disorder is most consistent with this patient's results and symptoms? Please select the single best answer Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Metabolic alkalosis

Metabolic acidosis

Precision is a measure of: Please select the single best answer Method accuracy Random variability Method reliability Biological variability

Method reliability

An 18-year-old female has a CBC performed as part of a routine physical exam. The following results were obtained, and the physician determines she is anemic. After reviewing her CBC results shown below, which of the following would be an appropriate description of the anemia? Parameter Value Reference Interval White blood cells (WBC) 5.6 x 109/L 4.0-10.0 x 109/L Red blood cells (RBC) 3.7 x 1012/L 4.2-5.9 x 1012/L Hemoglobin 9.9 g/dL 12-16 g/dL Hematocrit 28% 37-48% MCV 75 fL 80-100 fL RDW-CV 14% 11.0-15.0% The correct answer is highlighted below Macrocytic, heterogenous cell population Macrocytic, homogenous cell population Microcytic, heterogenous cell population Microcytic, homogenous cell population

Microcytic, homogenous cell population

In which age group is Type I Hereditary Hemochromatosis (HH - the most common form) most likely to be initially detected based on clinical symptoms? Please select the single best answer Middle aged adults Young adults School age children Infants

Middle aged adults caused by autosomal gene defect which is detectable at infancy, but becomes symptomatic during middle age

All of the terms below are a measure of central tendency, EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Mean Molarity Median Mode

Molarity

Which of the following situations suggest a traumatic tap occurred? Please select the single best answer More blood is in tube 1 than tubes 2, 3, or 4. Immediate centrifugation reveals pink supernatant. All collected specimens have an oily appearance. 3+ turbidity is present.

More blood is in tube 1 than tubes 2, 3, or 4.

The following diagram demonstrates two Serum Protein Electrophoresis (SPEP) patterns from different patients. The pattern on the left appears to be from a normal, healthy patient. The pattern on the right is from a patient with a particular disorder. What disorder is suggested by the pattern on the right? Please select the single best answer Nephrotic SyndromeAcute inflammationMalnutritionMultiple Myeloma

Multiple Myeloma

This serum protein electrophoresis (SPE) scan most likely represents which of the following disease states: Please select the single best answer Chronic inflammationMyocardial infarctionLiver diseaseMultiple myeloma

Multiple myeloma There is a tall narrow peak in the beta region, with decreased normal immunoglobulins in the gamma region. This pattern is most likely due to multiple myeloma, with a relatively fast migrating monoclonal protein present.

The upper image of a peripheral blood smear reveals RBC rouleaux formation. Several blood cells that are similar to the one indicated by the arrow in the bottom image are also seen on the smear. Which of the following conditions is associated with both of these findings? Please select the single best answer Multiple myelomaInfectious mononucleosisChronic lymphocytic leukemiaNormal peripheral blood smear findings

Multiple myeloma 4

You are collecting a blood specimen to be used for forensic (legal) alcohol testing. Which of the following must be done before you can start the specimen collection process? Please select the single best answer Label the tubes in the presence of the patient. Must inform the patient that the blood about to be collected is for alcohol testing. Seal the collection tubes in front of the patient. Collect the specimen, the patient does not need to be informed what the blood is collected for.

Must inform the patient that the blood about to be collected is for alcohol testing.

A CLIA waived test requires that operators: Please select the single best answer Must perform QC dailyDemonstrate competency annuallyMust attend training seminarMust follow manufacturer's instructions

Must perform QC daily

What does the M:E ratio in a bone marrow evaluation represent? Please select the single best answer Monocytes to erythrocytes Myeloid cells to erythroid cells Myelocytes to erythrocytes Megakaryocytes to erythrocytes

Myeloid cells to erythroid cells

Observe the bone marrow sample in the image to the right. All of the descriptors below apply EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Myeloid precursors predominant Inverted M:E ratio - around 1:3 Megakaryocyte present Erythroid hyperplasia is present

Myeloid precursors predominant

The mutational status of Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) is most commonly used for the diagnosis of which of the following? Please select the single best answer Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) Myeloproliferative neoplasms Anemias due to nutritional deficiencies Hypoproliferative conditions

Myeloproliferative neoplasms

Which of the following BEST describes the relation of nephelometry to turbidimetry? Please select the single best answer Nephelometry measures the amount of light absorbed by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the amount of light transmitted through a solution Nephelometry directly measures the amount of light scattered by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the decrease in incident-light intensity Nephelometry measures the amount of light emitted by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the amount of light reflected by particles in solution Nephelometry measures the amount of light absorbed, and Turbidimetry measures the amount of light scattered

Nephelometry directly measures the amount of light scattered by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the decrease in incident-light intensity

What measures the concentration of solute particles in a solution? Please select the single best answer Osmometer Fluorometer Nephelometer Spectrophotometer

Nephlometer

Bence-Jones proteinuria can be seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Amyloidosis Nephrotic syndrome Multiple myeloma Macroglobulinemia

Nephrotic syndrome

The property MOST responsible for the migration of proteins in an electrical field is: Please select the single best answer Molecular weightNet surface chargeEndosmotic flowVoltage

Net surface charge 4

A 21-year-old visited her doctor. She mentioned dysuria, frequency and urgency of urination to her doctor. Which of the following urinalysis reagent strips tests would you expect to be positive for this patient based on her symptoms? Please select the single best answer KetonesBloodBilirubinNitrites

Nitrites 3

Safety regulations in the clinical laboratory fall under which government agency? Please select the single best answer Centers for Disease Control College of American Pathologists Food and Drug Administration Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Which of these United States' federal agencies has the responsibility of enforcing the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard? Please select the single best answer Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Which of the following tests would be most affected by microclots in an EDTA tube drawn for a CBC? Please select the single best answer RBC Hematocrit Hemoglobin Platelet count

Platelet count

A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal thrombin time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear. Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant? Please select the single best answer Factor VIII assay Mixing studies with factor-deficient plasmas Antinuclear antibody test Platelet neutralization test

Platelet neutralization test

The cells which release von Willebrand's Factor (vWF) are: Please select the single best answer Platelets and endothelial cells Endothelial cells Liver cells It is not known which cells produce vWF

Platelets and endothelial cells 15% plts, 85% cells

Effusion fluids are classified as transudates or exudates. According to Light's criteria, all of the following applies to an exudate EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Pleural fluid/serum protein ratio >0.5 Pleural fluid/serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) ratio >0.6 Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) <2/3 the normal upper limit for serum Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAGG) <1.1 g/dL

Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) <2/3 the normal upper limit for serum To be classified as an exudate, the pleural effusion must meet one of the following criteria: Pleural fluid/serum LDH > 2/3 the upper limit for serum Pleural fluid/serum protein ratio >0.5 Pleural fluid/serum LDH ratio >0.6 Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAGG) <1.1 g/dL

There are several different types of media that can be used in electrophoresis. Most methods today use a gel - cellulose acetate, agarose, or polyacrylamide gel. Which one of the following statements is true regarding these gels? Please select the single best answer The compounds used to make cellulose acetate gels are carcinogenic Polyacrylamide gels are composed of polysaccharides and acrylamides Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes Cellulose acetate and agarose gels are the more commonly used gels

Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes

In 1983, Kary Mullis visualized the idea of amplifying DNA while working on a new mutation detection method. What is this process that he later discovered utilizing this idea? Please select the single best answer KaryotypingWestern blotPolymerase chain reactionHigh-performance liquid chromatography

Polymerase chain reaction 5

Which of the following reagents is often used to perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) to determine if either IgG or complement (or both) is attached to a patient's red cells? Please select the single best answer Low-ionic strength solution (LISS) Polyethylene glycol (PEG) Anti-C3d Polyspecific AHG

Polyspecific AHG

Which finding best distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other hemolytic anemias? Please select the single best answer Rouleaux Positive DAT Splenomegaly Increased erythrocyte count

Positive DAT

Which of the following is an example of a macroscopic urinalysis abnormality? Please select the single best answer Glitter cellsPositive proteinWaxy castsRed blood cell casts

Positive protein 5

Which of the following conditions would be suggested by a jaundiced patient experiencing a marked rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP), conjugated bilirubin, and a slight rise in alanine aminotransferase (ALT)? Please select the single best answer Cardiovascular disease Hepatitis Post-hepatic cholestasis Renal failure

Post-hepatic cholestasis

Why is Rh immune globulin (RhIg) administered within 72 hours of delivery to an Rh negative mother if the newborn is found to be D-positive or weak-D positive? Please select the single best answer Prevent future children from producing antibodies Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother Prevent antibody response in a previously sensitized mother Neutralize any natural maternal antibodies present

Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother

Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the excitation light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. What is the purpose of this design? Please select the single best answer Prevent the loss of emitted lightPrevent the loss of the excitation lightFocus emitted and excitation light upon the detectorPrevent incident light from striking the detector

Prevent incident light from striking the detector

All of the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Prevent recipient alloimmunization Verify ABO and Rh Select proper blood products Detect antibodies against donor cells

Prevent recipient alloimmunization

Which of the following is the prodrug of phenobarbital? Please select the single best answer Fosphenytoin Ethosuximide Primidone Gabapentin

Primidone

All of the following conditions would be associated with an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Prostate Cancer Hepatocellular Carcinoma Viral Hepatitis Testicular Tumors

Prostate Cancer

Which of the following contributes to specific gravity but does NOT contribute to osmolality? Please select the single best answer ProteinNaClUreaGlucose

Protein

When performing a chemical examination of urine, a routine reagent strip test for protein is based on the principle of: Please select the single best answer Precipitation by acid Protein-error-of-indicators Copper reduction Ictotest tablets

Protein-error-of-indicators The reagent strip test for protein is based on the protein-error-of-indicators principle to produce a visible colorimetric reaction. Precipitation by acid, copper reduction and ictotest tablets are the confirmatory methods for positive protein, glucose, and bilirubin.

What are apolipoproteins? Please select the single best answer Small spheres that carry lipids through the blood that aid in lipid transport to their sites of metabolism.Proteins that are found on only high-density lipoproteins.Pseudo-proteins, since lipid particles are not alive and thus cannot make proteins.Proteins that are on the surface of lipoprotein molecules and bind enzymes or transport specific proteins and direct lipoproteins to their sites of metabolism.

Proteins that are on the surface of lipoprotein molecules and bind enzymes or transport specific proteins and direct lipoproteins to their sites of metabolism.

Which of the following laboratory tests is commonly used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy? Please select the single best answer Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)Thrombin time (TT)Prothrombin time (PT)/INRFibrinogen assay

Prothrombin time (PT)/INR 3

All of the following are included in a quality control program, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Protocol to identify problems in equipmentProtocol to correct problems in equipmentProtocol to monitor problems in equipmentProtocol to prove patient results are correct

Protocol to prove patient results are correct

All of the following statements are true for the urinalysis reagent strip procedure, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Prolonged immersion may wash out reagents. Some tests require specified reading times. The edge of the strip should be run along the lip of the specimen container or touched to absorbent toweling to remove excess urine from the strip. Reagent strip should be immersed in centrifuged urine specimens only.

Reagent strip should be immersed in centrifuged urine specimens only. these should be used on room-temperature urines that have not been spun down yet

Vaccines can be divided into the following non-experimental types with the exception of: Please select the single best answer Live, attenuated Inactivated Toxoid Recombinant vector

Recombinant vector

Which of the following suggestions will help to avoid glare? Please select the single best answer Use fluorescent lightingUse the brightest light possiblePlace the light as close to the work area as possibleReflect the light away from the eyes

Reflect the light away from the eyes

All of the following factors offer a protective effect, delaying symptoms in persons with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Regular blood donation Pregnancy Regular use of multivitamins with iron Menstruation

Regular use of multivitamins with iron

Which of the following statements are true regarding the storage and handling of urinalysis chemical reagent strips? Please select the single best answer Variations in temperature during storage will not affect the effectiveness of the chemicals on the reagent pads. Touching the reagent areas of the strip will not interfere with test results. Remove only enough strips for immediate use. The bottle of reagent strips can remain uncovered once it has been opened.

Remove only enough strips for immediate use. storage at various temperatures, touching the reagent areas, and prolonged exposure to light can lead to inaccurate/faulty strips.

Identify the urine sediment element shown by the arrow: Please select the single best answer Waxy cast Hyaline cast Renal tubular epithelial cast Granular cast

Renal tubular epithelial cast

All of the following are characteristics of type 2 diabetes mellitus EXCEPT: Insulin levels may or may NOT be abnormal. More common than type 1 diabetes. Requires insulin therapy to control hyperglycemia. It commonly occurs in adults.

Requires insulin therapy to control hyperglycemia.

The prozone effect can be described by all of the following EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Results in a false negative reactionThe result of antibody excessDilution of antibody can help prevent its occurrenceResults in a false positive reaction

Results in a false positive reaction 4

A smear that is prepared from equal parts of new methylene blue and whole blood is used for which of the following? Please select the single best answer WBC differential Platelet estimate Reticulocyte count Manual RBC count

Reticulocyte count

Which of the following is considered the major transport protein for vitamin A? Please select the single best answer Transthyretin Retinol-binding protein Transferrin Haptoglobin

Retinol-binding protein

Which of the following antibodies are enhanced using enzyme panels during antibody identification in the blood bank? Please select the single best answer Rh Duffy Lutheran Kell

Rh

All of the following are present in normal bone marrow EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Siderocyte Sideroblast Ringed sideroblast Hemosiderin

Ringed sideroblast

A medical event occurs that results in serious injury to a patient. All systems, processes, and common causes that were involved in the adverse event should be evaluated. A method that can be implemented to effectively study the underlying causes is known as: Please select the single best answer Failure mode and effect analysis Monitoring of quality indicators Medical record audit Root cause analysis

Root cause analysis

Which of the following procedures would you employ to monitor the precision of an assay? Please select the single best answer Run assayed controls Run blinded samples Run samples by an alternative method Run samples in duplicate

Run samples in duplicate

Mercury covered by a layer of mercurous chloride in contact with saturated potassium chloride solution describes which of the following types of electrodes? Please select the single best answer Standard hydrogenSaturated CalomelRedoxSilver/Silver chloride

Saturated Calomel

A mother's serologic results are shown above. Her newborn types as group A Rh positive with a (1+) positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). Which of the following investigative tests would be most useful to resolve the cause of the positive DAT and should be done FIRST? Please select the single best answer Test an eluate prepared from newborn's red cells against an antibody identification panel by IAT. Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT. Test newborn's plasma against mother's red cells by IAT. Test newborn's plasma against father's red cells by IAT.

Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT.

The term, analytical specificity, refers to: Please select the single best answer The ability to measure only that substance being assayed. The ability to measure the range of concentration in a sample without modification. The ability to detect low concentrations of analytes. The ability of the measuring system to change in response to a change in concentration of analyte.

The ability to measure only that substance being assayed.

Using the following data from a patient in the Emergency Room, what is the most likely explanation for the difference in the calculated and measured osmolality? Analyte Value Na+ 135 mmol/L K+ 3.0 mEq/L Creat 1.5 mg/dL BUN 10 mg/dL CO2 280mEq/L Glucose 75 mg/dL Calculated Osmolality 278 mOsm/kg Measured Osmolality 312 mOsm/kg Ethanol 90 mg/dL Salicylate <1.0 mg/dL Acetaminophen <1.0 mg/dL Please select the single best answer The presence of salicylate and acetaminophen would make the calculated osmolality lower than the measured osmolality. The elevated ethanol level would make the measured osmolality greater than the calculated osmolality. The electrolyte concentrations in the same would make the measured osmolality greater than the calculated osmolality. There is no significant difference between the calculated and measured osmolality.

The elevated ethanol level would make the measured osmolality greater than the calculated osmolality.

What is the threshold limit value? The maximum level of a chemical to which a worker can be exposed without causing adverse health effects. The temperature at which a chemical will ignite. The amount of water needed to dilute a chemical for laboratory use. The amount of a chemical that can legally be stored in a laboratory.

The maximum level of a chemical to which a worker can be exposed without causing adverse health effects.

According to the American Diabetes Association recommendations, which of the following statements is TRUE with regards to the following findings? Fasting glucose = 130 mg/dL 2-hour post prandial glucose = 210 mg/dL Please select the single best answer The patient may be diagnosed as having diabetes mellitus The patient is diagnosed as having impaired glucose tolerance The patient is diagnosed as having diabetes insipidus The patient is normal

The patient may be diagnosed as having diabetes mellitus

gel ABO/Rh on 94 yo. Most likely reason for the discrepancy?

The pt is O pos with a depressed ABO antibody production

The following BEST describes serum hCG levels during pregnancy: Please select the single best answer Rise in levels throughout pregnancy Highest levels found at end of pregnancy The rapid rise in levels during the first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout the remainder of the pregnancy The slow rise in levels during the first trimester; rapid rise during the second trimester; slow decline during the third trimester

The rapid rise in levels during the first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout the remainder of the pregnancy

A chemical reaction that is utilized by many different analytical methods involves: Please select the single best answer Fluorometry Glucose oxidase The reduction of NAD to NADH UV spectrophotometry

The reduction of NAD to NADH

Which of the following conditions should be suspected if a healthy patient presents with an elevated potassium level while all other chemistry results are normal? Please select the single best answer The sample is turbid. The sample is hemolyzed. The sample is clotted. The sample is lipemic.

The sample is hemolyzed.

What is a typical finding for determining the endpoint for the initial or iron-depletion phase of treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)? Please select the single best answer The serum ferritin decreases to between 20 and 50 ng/mLThe hepatic iron index returns to normalThe transferrin saturation drops below 20%The serum iron falls to below 35 µg/dL.

The serum ferritin decreases to between 20 and 50 ng/mL 6

A serum specimen for potassium testing is collected in a red top tube without a gel separator barrier. If testing is delayed by a few hours, how should the specimen be handled? The correct answer is highlighted below Discard the specimen and recollect right before testing is available again. Discard the specimen and recollect in a gel separator tube. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as it clotted and serum should be transferred to another tube. There is no special handling procedure for this specimen.

The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as it clotted and serum should be transferred to another tube.

A jaundiced newborn's bilirubin values are as follows: DayTimeBilirubin value12/28/20157:45 am14 mg/dL12/29/20157:15 am13 mg/dL12/30/20158:00 am4 mg/dL What is the explanation for these test results? Please select the single best answer This is a case of diurnal variation, the specimens should have been collected at the exactly the same time for all three days.The ultraviolet light placed on the newborn broke down the bilirubin and dramatically decreased the value.The specimen was not protected from light and bilirubin broke down resulting in a false decreased value.These are normal test results, there should be no concern.

The specimen was not protected from light and bilirubin broke down resulting in a false decreased value.

An MCV is reported by the instrument as 82 fL. The MCV is flagged with a delta check alert as the previous MCV reported on this patient 12 hours earlier was 97 fL. What is a possible cause for this discrepancy? Please select the single best answer Transfusion The specimens are not from the same patient Acute hemorrhage The second specimen was hemolyzed

The specimens are not from the same patient

Serum TSH levels five times the upper limit of normal in the presence of a low T4 and low T3 uptake could mean which of the following? Please select the single best answer The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism.The thyroid is ruled out as the cause of hypothyroidism.The pituitary has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism.The diagnosis is consistent with secondary hyperthyroidism.

The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism

Which of the following statements is TRUE for specific gravity measured by the urine chemical reagent strip method? Please select the single best answer High concentrations of protein in urine do not increase the readings when using the urine chemical reagent strip. An alkaline pH would not affect the specific gravity result using a reagent strip method. The urine chemical reagent strip method is not affected by the presence of x-ray contrast media in the urine specimen. The urine chemical reagent strip method is based on the fact that light is refracted in proportion to the amount of total solids dissolved in the urine.

The urine chemical reagent strip method is not affected by the presence of x-ray contrast media in the urine specimen.

Which of the following drugs is used to treat asthma and COPD in patients with nocturnal symptoms or problems with inhalers? Please select the single best answer Theophylline Methotrexate Tacrolimus Mycophenolic acid

Theophylline

A patient suffering from Celiac disease and Crohn's disease (both inflammatory conditions of the GI tract) is given a new oral medication that has a narrow therapeutic window. Which of the following would be true? Please select the single best answer Oral medication is never effective for a patient that has these diseases. The drug must be given through IV. Toxicity in this patient is not likely since most of the drug won't be absorbed. Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed. Serum drug levels obtained 15 minutes after the oral dose should confirm the drug was absorbed.

Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed.

When operating a centrifuge, what happens if the centrifugation time is reduced and the speed increased? Please select the single best answer The potential breakage of collection tube is highly increased. There is increased chance of exposure to biohazardous agents. There will be incomplete separation of red blood cells and serum in the tube. Mechanical damage to the centrifuge may occur.

There will be incomplete separation of red blood cells and serum in the tube.

When operating a centrifuge, what happens if the centrifugation time is reduced and the speed increased? Please select the single best answer The potential breakage of collection tube is highly increased.There is increased chance of exposure to biohazardous agents.There will be incomplete separation of red blood cells and serum in the tube.Mechanical damage to the centrifuge may occur.

There will be incomplete separation of red blood cells and serum in the tube.

suspected primary hypothyroidism associated with hashimoto's t4 ____? TSH____? TRH stimulation____?

decr, incr, incr

A physician discusses weight with an overweight 60-year-old female at her yearly physical appointment. The female exercises regularly and eats healthy most of the time. The physician suggests she decrease carbohydrate intake and decrease portion size at meals. Review patient vital signs and laboratory assay results to decide if a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome is appropriate using the NCEP: ATP III Diagnostic Criteria shown on the right. Height: 5' 7' Weight: 192 lbs BMI: 30.1 Waist Circumference: 37 inches Blood Pressure: 108/70 Fasting Blood Glucose: 92 mg/dL Total Cholesterol: 172 mg/dL LDL-C: 112 mg/dL HDL-C: 46 mg/dL Triglycerides: 70 mg/dL hs-CRP: <1.0 mg/L Which of these statements regarding this patient is true? Please select the single best answer This patient meets the criteria for diagnosis of metabolic syndrome. This patient does not meet the criteria for diagnosis of metabolic syndrome. There is not enough information provided in order to assess such a diagnosis. The patient does not meet the age requirements for assessing the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.

This patient does not meet the criteria for diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.

The pH of a protein is 9.2. This protein is placed in an electrical field where a buffer sets the pH at 10.0. Select the correct statement regarding the electrophoretic migration of this protein. Please select the single best answer This protein will have a net positive charge and will migrate to the anode, the positively charged electrodeThis protein will have a net positive charge and will migrated toward the cathode, the negatively charged electrodeThis protein will have a net negative charge and will migrate toward the anode, the positively charged electrodeThis protein will have a net negative charge and will migrate to the cathode, the negatively charged electrode

This protein will have a net negative charge and will migrate toward the anode, the positively charged electrode. If the pH for electrophoresis is above the pI of a protein, the protein will have a net negative charge. Negative ions, anions, will migrate to the positively charged electrode, the anode.

Aspirin ingestion prevents the synthesis of this signaling molecule in the platelet? Please select the single best answer Thromboxane A2 Calcium Collagen ADP

Thromboxane A2

In healthy individuals, calcitonin is synthesized by which cells in the body? Please select the single best answer Hepatocytes Leukocytes Thyroid C cells Red blood cells

Thyroid C cells

All of the following affect the relative centrifugal force of a centrifuge, EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer Revolutions per minute (RPM)TimeRadius of centrifugeA constant of 1.12 x10-5

Time The Relative Centrifugal Force (RCF) is equal to (1.12 x 10-5 )(radius of centrifuge)(revolutions per minute).

Which of the following use target amplification methodologies? Please select the single best answer Transcription mediated amplification (TMA)Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)Northern BlotBranched chain DNA (bDNA)

Transcription mediated amplification (TMA)

TIBC (total iron-binding capacity) is an indirect measurement of which of the following: Please select the single best answer Ferritin Hemoglobin Ceruloplasmin Transferrin

Transferrin

Which one of the following analytes usually shows a decrease during an acute phase response? Please select the single best answer Transferrin Ceruloplasmin Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Fibrinogen

Transferrin

What is considered the cause of urticarial transfusion reactions? Please select the single best answer IgA deficient individuals receiving plasma products containing IgA IgG or IgM antibody along with complement Tissue damage from the formation of immune complexes Transfusion of certain food allergens or drugs in plasma products

Transfusion of certain food allergens or drugs in plasma products

Chylomicrons are primarily composed of: Please select the single best answer Cholesterol Triglycerides Phospholipids Proteins

Triglycerides

When performing an anti-human globulin (AHG) test, it is important to completely wash the red cells because: Please select the single best answer Washing eliminates concentrations of unbound antigens.Washing prevents elution of cell-bound antibody.Washing promotes false positive effects of rouleaux.Washing prevents neutralization of the anti-human globulin (AHG) serum.

Washing prevents neutralization of the anti-human globulin (AHG) serum. 6

Good Manufacturing Practices applies to all of the following, EXCEPT: Please select the single best answer Blood Progenitor cells Tissue Waste

Waste

A test that can be used as a confirmatory test for urobilinogen is: Please select the single best answer Acetest® Ictotest® Clinitest Watson-Schwartz Test

Watson-Schwartz Test

If Jka is showing dosage, how might reactions on an antibody panel appear? Please select the single best answer Weaker if homozygous for Jka Stronger if heterozygous for Jka and Jkb Weaker if heterozygous for Jka and Jkb Both heterozygous and homozygous reactions would always be of equal strength

Weaker if heterozygous for Jka and Jkb

Which of the following common laboratory analytes is most often increased in newborns due to the newborn crying violently? Please select the single best answer White blood cell count (WBC)PotassiumRed blood cell count (RBC)Sodium

White blood cell count (WBC)

In reference to semen analysis microscopic examination, differentiation, and enumeration of "round cells" which are often present in semen count are referred as: Please select the single best answer Sperm vitalitySeminal fluid fructoseWhite blood cells (WBCs)Bacteria

White blood cells (WBCs) 5

Transfusion of which blood product is most likely to cause circulatory overload in patients? Please select the single best answer Platelets Fresh frozen plasma Red blood cells Whole blood

Whole blood

A hospitalized patient has a decreased serum copper level and increased urine copper level. This is MOST consistent with: Please select the single best answer Wilson's disease Addison's disease Parathyroid disease Not clinically significant

Wilson's disease

A hospitalized patient has a decreased serum copper level and increased urine copper level. This is MOST consistent with: Please select the single best answer Wilson's diseaseAddison's diseaseParathyroid diseaseNot clinically significant

Wilson's disease 3

A yellow coloration found in fresh cerebrospinal fluid supernatant is termed: Please select the single best answer Xanthochromia Hemolysis Jaundice Hyperlipidemia

Xanthochromia

What term is used to describe the color in these tubes of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? Please select the single best answer Jaundice Xanthochromia Icterus Normal

Xanthochromia

The constituents that are indicated by the arrows in this image of stained urine sediment are: Please select the single best answer Red blood cells Yeast Renal epithelial cells Leukocytes

Yeast (budding) acetic acid can be added to urine samples to lyse red blood cells and leave the remaining sediment intact to differentiate between red cells and yeast.

Cells seen in the microscopic examination of the urine of a 30-year-old female, which are smaller than RBC's but much the same shape, are probably: Please select the single best answer Yeast cells Small lymphocytes Squamous epithelial cells Trichomonas vaginalis

Yeast cells

Does the Levey-Jennings chart to the right show acceptable quality control results? Please select the single best answer No, because of Westgard Rule 13s No, because of Westgard Rule 22s No, because of Westgard Rule 41s Yes

Yes

20 yo overweight male. Waist circumference 41 in, BP 105/70 fasting bld glucose 130 trig 190 HDL 50 Does this patient meet the criteria for metabolic syndrome diagnosis?

Yes, he meets the NHLBI and AHA criteria for metabolic syndrome 3/5 parameters met: waist circumference, fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C, and blood pressure

A reaction is in ____________ kinetics when the reaction rate depends only on enzyme concentration. Please select the single best answer Zero-order First-order Second-order Mixed-order

Zero-order

the lab test used to detect the presence of neural tube defects is:

alpha-fetoprotein

aotf are applications of real-time PCR, except?

amplificatio of DNA for northern blot

ionized calcium is currently most commonly measured using which of the following metod?

calcium ion selective electrodes

the purpose of C3a and C5a, the split-products of the complement cascade, is to:

cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils produced by the activation of the classical pathway and/or the alternative pathway

urine crystals of radiographic contrast media appears similar to?

cholesterol crystals

Select the statement that best describes high sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) testing? Please select the single best answer. hs-CRP is a measurement of acute inflammation and is used to monitor these types of conditions hs-CRP is an anti-inflammatory adipokine synthesized by adipocytes hs-CRP is a marker of chronic inflammation and measured to predict the risk of cardiovascular disease hs-CRP is decreased in inflammatory conditions and measured to predict a return of inflammation

hs-CRP is a marker of chronic inflammation and measured to predict the risk of cardiovascular disease 4

nephrotic sysndrome is associated with all of the following clinical findings, except: incr preoteinuria decr serum albumin hyperproteinemia edema

hyperproteinemia

a patient with a documented history of febrile nonhemolytic tx rxn (FNHTRs) should receive ______ blood components

leukoreduced specifically, pre-storage leukocyte reduction

the wbc that can vary most in shape and size on a wright-stained smear is:

lymoh

TLDR coag mixing study procedure steps

mix sample plasma and pooled normal plasma add reagent water bath to incubate for 90 min run the sample (mybe)

for blood gas analyzers, all of the followin technologies are utilized for the measurement of pH except: ion-selective electrodes macroelectrochemical sensors optical sensors microelectrodes

optical sensors

A2B is suspected when a patient's ABO typing has the following results:

patient's red cells forward type as AB with anti-A1 present in the patient's serum

all of the following conitions woud be associated with an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein, except? prostate canver hepatocellular carcinoma viral hep testicular tumors

prostate cancer

primary purpose of neutrophil granules:

provide microbicidal action

characteristics usually associated with IgG antibodies?

react best at 37C appear after heated incubation are identified using the AHG test

In order to avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts one should:

select an aliquot from the last tube collected

molecular methods offer improvements in sensitivity, but they are dependent upon which factor?

the availability of specific instrumentation

if a plasma glucose specimen is not centrifuges, how will the test results be affected?

the glucose test result may be decreased cells will consume glucose

a substance secreted by the vascular endothelial cells that can help to initiate fibrinolysis is:

tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

in all of tfe following conditions, the RBC morphology marked by blue arrows (teardrops) is a typical finding, except? myelofibrosis uremia myelopathic anemia thalassemia

uremia