CAPM Questions
Grade vs. Quality
"Quality" refers to the degree to which a deliverable fulfills requirements "Grade" is used to categorize deliverables or resources that have a common function but varying technical specifications
What is mind mapping?
A diagram of ideas or notes to help generate, classify or record info. Core word at center with several branches used in Scope and Quality Management.
What is the nominal group technique?
A question is posed, all meeting participants write down and share their ideas; the group discusses and ideas are ranked
A PM is trying to complete a software development project but cannot get enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process-related work, and the PM has little authority to properly assign resources. What form of organization must the PM be working in? A. Functional B. Matrix C. Expediter D. Coordinator
A.
A project team accomplished $3,000 worth of work and has spent $4,000 to date. If they budgeted $5,000 for the work scheduled, what is the cost variance (CV)? A. ($1,000) B. $2,000 C. $1,000 D. ($2,000)
A.
A report that is focused on predicting future project status and performance is called a: A. Forecasting report B. Trend report C. Status report D. Variance report
A.
All the following are tools or techniques of Control Quality except: A. Cost of quality B. Inspection C. Control charts D. Checklists
A.
During project executing, the forecasted remaining hours exceed planned remaining hours. Consequently, the project takes on a negative variance. Which calculation is the PM likely to use as a measurement tool to validate this information? A. EV - PV B. EV/AC C. EV/PV D. EV - AC
A.
If the team is using EVA and variance analysis, they are performing: A. Cost control B. Qualitative risk analysis C. Dependency determination D. Cost budgeting
A.
The ____________ is the logical breakdown of what a PM needs to do to produce the project's deliverables: A. Project life cycle B. Product life cycle C. Organizational structure D. Executing process group
A.
The critical path for your project is very close in length to the near-critical path. What does this tell you? A. Your project has higher risk because these two paths are of similar length B. You don't need to worry about the length of the near critical path; only the critical path is 'critical' C. You should focus on increasing the length of the near-critical path; otherwise, it could threaten the team's ability to complete the critical path on schedule D. Having two paths of similar length makes the project less risky
A.
The documentation of a project's successes and failures that is produced during the Manage Communications process and then saved for the benefit of other projects is called: A. Lessons learned B. Status reports C. Feedback D. Performance appraisals
A.
The project team has just discovered that work critical to the completion of a project deliverable was not done. This situation was most likely caused by a lack of: A. A good WBS B. A matrix organization C. Sponsor direction D. Effective status meetings
A.
The project team is working in an adaptive environment on a complex project that requires a lot of coordination. Under these circumstances, the best strategy is to: A. Colocate the team B. Hire a contractor C. Hold more meetings to get the word out D. Gain extra assistance from management
A.
Two months into a design project, the customer requests a modification to the product. The change is made without notifying the PM. During final testing, the results are different than what was planned for. This scenario can be described as an example of which of the following? A. Poor scope control B. Poor adherence to the communication management plan C. Poor development of the quality management plan C. Constraints and assumptions D. WBS and WBS dictionary
A.
Two team members are having a big disagreement over the type of computer hardware to use on the project. Who should resolve the dispute? A. The team members and their PM B. The PM C. Management D. The sponsor
A.
Using the average labor hours per installation from past projects to predict the future is an example of which of the following? A. Parametric estimating B. Three-point estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Monte Carlo analysis
A.
What are quality checklists used for? A. To verify that a required action has taken place or a required item has been included B. To gather data, such as the number of quality defects found during inspections C. To document variances from the quality standards D. To measure the quality of the project management planning process
A.
When does the Monitor and Control Project Work process take place? A. Throughout the project, from project initiating through project closing B. During the monitoring and controlling process group C. Primarily during the executing and monitoring and controlling processes D. During project planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling
A.
Which document gives the PM the authority to spend money and commit corporate resources? A. Project Charter B. PMP C. Work Authorization Plan D. Business Case
A.
Which of the following activities isn't part of the schedule management knowledge area? A. Identifying the type and quantity of resources that will be required for each activity B. Organizing the activities and milestones in the order in which the work will be performed C. Estimating the amount of time required to complete each activity D. Decomposing the work packages created in the WBS into the activities required to produce the work package deliverables
A.
Which of the following activities takes place during project planning? A. Creating the WBS dictionary B. Determining high-level requirements C. Refining control limits D. Validating scope
A.
Which of the following activities takes place in the initiating process group? A. Ensuring high-level product scope is as detailed as is practical B. Ensuring continued understanding of the work C. Removing roadblocks D. Reviewing bids and selecting sellers
A.
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Control Schedule process? A. Project management software B. Alternatives analysis C. Dependency determination D. Parametric estimating
A.
Which of the following is an example of push communication? A. A blog post B. A sales meeting C. Videoconferencing D. An interview
A.
Which of the following is an output of the Collect Requirements process? A. Requirements traceability matrix B. Project scope statement C. WBS D. Change requests
A.
Which of the following is included in the performance measurement baseline? A. The agreed-upon schedule, including the start and stop times for each activity B. An analysis of the requirements and assumptions of each stakeholder C. The performance requirements that will be provided to sellers D. The metrics that will be used in the quality control system
A.
Which of the following is not included in a project charter? A. A detailed schedule and full risk analysis B. A description of overall project risks C. The high-level requirements for the project D. An explanation of how the project relates to the organization's strategic goals
A.
Which of the following is not included in the risk register as an output of Identify Risks? A. List of risk owners B. List of potential risk responses C. The root causes of the risks D. List of risks
A.
Which of the following is not required to create the scope management plan? A. A finalized requirements management plan B. Any historical records and lessons learned from previous projects C. Any existing templates, forms, or standards for scope management D. A good understanding of the project scope
A.
Which of the following is not typically part of the Control Quality process? A. Checking to see whether the defined quality standards and procedures are being followed B. Using statistical sampling and inspections to confirm that quality standards are being met C. Evaluating a quality problem to see how it can be addressed D. Obtaining confirmation that the agreed upon requirements have been met
A.
Which of the following is the most appropriate thing to do in the executing process group? A. Evaluate individual TM performance B. Evaluate customer satisfaction regarding the project C. Determine acceptance criteria D. Decide what level of accuracy is required for estimates
A.
Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually accomplished? A. EV B. PV C. AC D. CV
A.
Which of the following statements about the PMO is true? A. The PMO standardizes the management of projects B. A supportive PMO directly manages most projects within an organization C. A directive PMO allows the PM to control most aspects of the project D. A directive PMO provides PM but is not responsible for the results of the project
A.
Which of the following takes place during project monitoring and controlling? A. Performing procurement inspections B. Facilitating the resolution of conflicting objectives C. Expanding and managing project funds D. Creating a recognition and rewards system
A.
Which of the following tools or techniques would be the most useful for organizing the results of a root cause analysis in Manage Quality? A. Affinity diagram B. Audit C. Design for X D. Flowchart
A.
Which section of the risk management plan defines how risk management will be performed for the project? A. Methodology B. Definitions C. Timing D. Roles and responsibilities
A.
While performing quantitative risk analysis, which tool would the PM use to simulate the cost or schedule results of the project? A. Monte Carlo analysis B. Network diagram C. Qualitative risk analysis D. Precision testing
A.
Who has the most power in a project-oriented organization? A. The PM B. The FM C. The team D. They all share power equally
A.
You have a project with 4 activities as follows. Activity 1 can start immediately and has an estimated duration of 1. Activity 2 can start after Activity 1 is completed and has an estimated duration of 4. Activity 3 can start after Activity 2 is completed and has an estimated duration of 5. Activity 4 has an estimated duration of 8. It can start after Activity 1 is completed. Both Activity 3 and Activity 4 must be completed before the project is complete. What is the critical path of the project? A. Start, 1, 2, 3, End B. Start, 1, 4, 3, End C. Start, 1, 4, End D. Start, 1, 2, 3, 4, End
A.
What is the earned value term for the actual cost incurred for the work accomplished?
Actual cost
Analogous testing vs. Parametric testing
Analogous: Uses expert judgment and historical information to predict the future Parametric: Making a mathematical equation using data from historical record/other sources
What are the 3 responses to risk?
Avoid: Avoid by eliminating the cause Mitigate: Reduce the impact of the threat Transfer: Make a 3rd party owner of that threat
A PM has just completed subjectively evaluating risks on the project. Which of the following is the most important output of this process? A. An assessment of overall project risk exposure B. A determination of which risks to process further and which to simply document C. The identification of risk triggers D. The identification of residual risks
B.
A collection of programs and projects managed as a group to achieve a specific strategic business goal is called: A. Operational work B. A portfolio C. A baseline D. A life cycle
B.
A company is making an effort to improve its project performance and create historical records of past projects. What is the best way to accomplish this? A. Create PMP B. Create lessons learned C. Create network diagrams. D. Create status reports
B.
A project team member is concerned because many people are asking him to do things. If he work in a functional organization, who has the power to give him direction? A. The PM B. The FM C. The team D. The PMO
B.
A team of seven people adds two more people to the team. How many communication channels are there now? A. 9 B. 36 C. 18 D. 81
B.
An estimate that is -25%/+75% of actual is an example of a ____________ estimate: A. Budget B. Rough order of magnitude C. Definitive D. Parametric
B.
During Monitor Communications, the PM will need to rely on metrics established in the communications management plan, as well as _____________, to determine if communication is breaking down on the project. A. Parametric estimating B. Soft skills C. Decision tree analysis D. Affinity diagrams
B.
During _________________, the PM regularly evaluates project performance to ensure that quality standards are being followed. A. Plan Quality Management B. Manage Quality C. Control Quality D. Perform Quality Management
B.
During project planning in a balanced matrix organization, the PM determines that additional human resources are needed. From whom would she request these resources? A. PMO Manager B. FM C. Team D. Project Sponsor
B.
During which process group is the project work as defined in the PMP completed? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Monitoring & Controlling D. Closing
B.
During which process group should a procurement strategy be selected for each project contract? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Closing
B.
If planned value (PV) is $29,000, actual cost (AC) is $32,000, and earned value (EV) is $30,000, what is the schedule variance (SV)? A. 0.938 B. $1,000 C. 1.034 D. ($2,000)
B.
If the team is analyzing communication requirements and assessing communication models, technology, and methods, which process are they engaged in? A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement B. Plan Communications Management C. Monitor Communications D. Manage Communication
B.
In response to an identified risk, the PM meets with the team and management to develop a strategy. After discussions, they decide that it would be best to ensure that the risk happens. This is an example of which risk response strategy? A. Share B. Exploit C. Escalate D. Enhance
B.
In which schedule management processes are project schedule network diagrams created and analyzed? A. Develop Schedule; Control Schedule B. Sequence Activities: Develop Schedule C. Define Activities; Sequence Activities D. Estimate Activity Durations; Control Schedule
B.
Inputs to the Control Quality process include quality metrics, approved change requests, and: A. Control charts B. Work performance data C. Verified deliverables D. Work performance information
B.
Inputs to the Plan Communications Management process include: A. Project communications B. The stakeholder register C. Work performance reports D. Forecasts
B.
One purpose of a fishbone diagram is to: A. Show how a process or system flows from beginning to end B. Confirm that quality policies and procedures are being followed C. Determine the organization of the project D. Show functional responsibilities and how they are related to one another and to the objectives of the project
B.
Pre-assignment and negotiation are important tools and techniques in which resource management process: A. Develop Team B. Acquire Resources C. Plan Resource Management D. Manage Team
B.
The PM is assessing the data used to identify the project risks to determine its accuracy and reliability. What tool or technique are they using? A. Trigger data analysis B. Data quality assessment C. A risk rating matrix D. Analysis of trends in qualitative risk analysis
B.
The PM is communicating risk status, ensuring that proper risk management procedures are being followed, and closing out risks. What process are they working in? A. Identify Risks B. Monitor Risks C. Plan Risk Management D. Implement Risk Responses
B.
The team is assessing how communications are going throughout the project to see if the right information is getting to the right people, at the right time, and in the right way. Which process are they engaged in? A. Manage Communications B. Monitor Communications C. Plan Communications Management D. Monitor and Control Project Work
B.
What are the key outputs of the Plan Scope Management process? A. Accepted deliverables and change requests B. The scope management plan and the requirements management plan C. Constraints and assumptions D. WBS and WBS dictionary
B.
What is a program? A. The same thing as a project B. A group of related projects C. A group of small projects and related operation work D. Ongoing operations rather than project work
B.
What is multi-criteria decision analysis? A. An analytical tool for making decisions about team-building and training activities B. A technique used to evaluate potential team members C. A quantitative approach to developing recognition and rewards systems D. A technique used for designing personnel assessment tools
B.
What is shown on a project schedule network diagram? A. The external dependencies that affect the schedule B. The logical relationships among project activities C. The resource assignment for the project D. The schedule constraints and project milestones
B.
What is the best method to use when estimating how long it will take to complete an activity that has not previously been done by your company? A. Analogous estimating B. Three-point estimating C. Monte Carlo analysis D. Parametric estimating
B.
What is the best project management tools to use to determine the longest time the project will take? A. WBS B. Network diagram C. Bar chart D. Project charter
B.
What is the most commonly used logical relationship represented using the precedence diagramming method? A. SS B. FS C. FF D. SF
B.
What is the most correct statement about conflict? A. The primary source of conflict is personality B. Conflict can be beneficial C. Conflict is best resolved by smoothing D. Conflict is caused by a failure of leadership
B.
What tool or technique in Plan Quality Management involves reviewing the quality practices used on other similar projects to establish quality metrics? A. Cost-benefit analysis B. Benchmarking C. Matrix diagrams D. Flowcharts
B.
Which of the following are all reporting tools used in Manage Communications? A. Status reports, quality reports, and lessons learned documentation B. Trend reports, forecasting reports, and lessons learned documentation C. Payroll reports, status reports, and trend reports D. Forecasting reports, payroll reports, and quality reports
B.
Which of the following are components of cost management? A. Float calculations, estimate at completion, and dependency determination B. Analogous estimating, basis of estimates, and EVA C. EVA, dependency determination, and basis of estimates D. Dependency determination, float calculations, and EVA
B.
Which of the following best describes what is included in the resource management plan? A. The results of team performance assessments B. The established roles and responsibilities for the project C. Project team assignments D. Change requests related to the project's physical resources
B.
Which of the following best describes when a project baseline should be changed? A. A project baseline should be changed when a major delay occurs. B. A project baseline should be changed when a change to cost, schedule, or scope is approved. C. A project baseline should be changed when a cost increase occurs. D. Changes should never be made to a project baseline.
B.
Which of the following is a responsibility of the PM? A. Providing funding for the project B. Helping to write the project charter C. Protecting the project from outside influences and changes D. Setting priorities among different projects
B.
Which of the following is an input to Develop Team? A. Team performance assessment B. Project team assignments C. Interpersonal skills D. Personnel assessment tools
B.
Which of the following is an input to the Estimate Costs process? A. Reserve analysis B. Quality management plan C. Basis of estimates D. Cost forecasts
B.
Which of the following is not included in the PMP? A. Change Management Plan B. Integration Management Plan C. Configuration Management Plan D. Requirements Management Plan
B.
Which of the following is not something you need in order to perform Monitor Communications? A. Project management plan B. Work performance reports C. Your firm's procedures, reporting formats, and standards for communication D. Issue log
B.
Which of the following statements about scope is correct? A. Project scope is defined as the project deliverables, with their associated features and function B. Product scope refers to the requirements that relate to the product, service, or result of the project C. Product scope encompasses project scope D. Product scope is the work the project will do to deliver a product, service, or feature
B.
Which of the following statements is correct? A. Crashing always shortens the timeline but rarely increases risk B. Fast tracking often results in rework, and crashing often results in increased costs C. Crashing is only a viable alternative if EVA indicates that the project is ahead of schedule and under budget D. Fast tracking will result in fewer parallel activities than crashing the project
B.
Which of the following statements is true? A. Management approval is needed to use contingency reserves B. Management reserves are for items that the project team was not able to identify in risk management C. The PM can approve the use of management reserves D. Management reserves are calculated and become part of the cost baseline
B.
Which of the following would not be part of a cost management plan? A. Approved estimating techniques B. How the project resources will be allocated C. Rules for measuring cost performance D. Change control procedures
B.
Which schedule management output is used to measure the project team's progress throughout the project? A. Scope baseline B. Schedule baseline C. Cost baseline D. Performance baseline
B.
What does colocation mean?
Bringing the team together in one area instead of being in separate locales
What is facilitation?
Bringing together stakeholders with different perspectives to talk about the product and define requirements
A cost baseline is an output of which cost management process? A. Estimate Activity Resources B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs
C.
All the following are included in the key outputs of the Plan Resource Management process except: A. Training goals B. Project organizational charts C. Work performance information D. Process for acquiring physical resources
C.
All the following statements describe a schedule management plan except: A. It details the scheduling methodology that will be used on the project B. It identifies schedule change control procedures C. It must be issued as a formal and detailed document D. It establishes a plan for managing schedule variances
C.
Change requests are an output of which communications management process? A. Manage Communications B. Define Communications C. Monitor Communications D. Plan Communications Management
C.
Identifying and documenting the specific activities that must be performed to produce work packages is called: A. Define Scope B. Estimate Activities C. Define Activities D. Sequence Activities
C.
Identifying ways to eliminate the causes of quality problems would most likely lead to: A. Quality audits B. Work performance information C. Recommended corrective actions D. Statistical sampling
C.
In which process group does the PM focus on managing the project, engaging stakeholders, and communicating according to plan, while the team is completing the project activities? A. Monitoring & Controlling B. Managing C. Executing D. Planning
C.
Operational work is different from project work in that operational work is A. Unique B. Temporary C. Ongoing and repetitive D. A part of every project activity
C.
PM responsibility includes managing two kinds of knowledge on a project; tacit and explicit. Which of the following statements about tacit knowledge is correct? A. Tacit knowledge is fact-based and can be easily communicated through words and symbols B. Tacit knowledge may need explanation or context to provide value C. Tacit knowledge includes emotions, experience, and abilities D. Lessons learned are an example of tacit knowledge
C.
Project closing includes all of the following except: A. Determining performance measures B. Handling off the product of the project to the customer C. Making final payments on contracts D. Updating the company's organizational process assets
C.
Project requirements should be elicited from? A. The sponsor B. The project team C. All stakeholders D. The PM
C.
The PM is allocating overall cost estimates to individual activities to establish a baseline for measuring project performance. What process is this? A. Plan Cost Management B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs
C.
The PM is performing decision tree analysis to choose between several alternative courses of action. If one risk even has a 90% chance of occurring, and its consequences will be $10K, what does $9K represent? A. Risk value B. Present value C. Expected monetary value (EMV) D. Contingency budget
C.
The PM is reviewing the organization's hiring procedures and policies related to assigning resources to the project. In which process are they working? A. Plan Resource Management B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Acquire Resources D. Control Resources
C.
The PM wants to let the team know that the weekly project status report is now officially due by 4PM on Thursdays. Which form of communication would be most appropriate in this situation? A. Formal written communication B. Formal verbal communication C. Informal written communication D. Informal verbal communication
C.
The organization's management has decided all orders will be treated as "projects" and that PM will be used to update orders daily, resolve issues, and ensure customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. The PM will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other than daily status updates. Which of the following statements about this situation is true? A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor" each order is a project B. This is an example of program management since there are multiple projects involved C. This is an example of a recurring process, not a project D. The orders described here are both temporary and complex enough that they require proper project management
C.
The purpose of a quality audit is to: A. Check if the customer is following their quality process B. Have the customer formally accept the quality of a particular deliverable C. Identify inefficient and ineffective policies D. Determine the quality processes that will be used on the project
C.
The team is conducting a risk audit. What process are they working in? A. Plan Risk Responses B. Manage Risks C. Monitor Risks D. Plan Risk Management
C.
Three additional people have been added to the project team. What does the PM need to keep in mind in terms of project communications? A. The number of communication channels on the project will increase by six B. The number of communication channels on the project will triple C. The communication needs of a project grow rapidly with each additional stakeholder D. A formal written introduction should be sent to the existing members of the project team
C.
What is done during the Validate Scope process? A. The PM measures and assesses work performance data against the scope baseline B. The team confirms the validity and appropriateness of the project scope with key stakeholders C. The PM gains formal acceptance of deliverables from the customer or sponsor D. The quality control department checks to see if the requirements specified for the deliverables have been met, and makes sure the work is correct
C.
What is least likely to be included in the key output of Plan Cost Management? A. Control thresholds B. Roles and responsibilities for cost activities C. EVA D. Funding decisions
C.
What is the difference between risk appetite and risk threshold? A. Risk threshold refers to the acceptable level of risk in general, and risk appetite refers to the specific point at which the risk becomes unacceptable B. Risk threshold refers to the acceptable level of risk related to the schedule, and risk appetite refers to a specific amount of acceptable risk related to scope C. Risk appetite refers to the acceptable level of risk in general, and risk threshold refers to the specific point at which risk becomes unacceptable D. There is little difference between the two terms, they can be used interchangeably
C.
What is the main difference between a matrix organization and a functional organization? A. In a FO, PM have more authority than they do in a MO B. More people work full-time on projects in a FO than in a MO C. Project team members usually report to 2 managers in a MO - the FM and the PM D. Most companies have found that a FO structure provides the most flexibility for managing projects
C.
Which of the following are all outputs of Monitor and Control Project Work? A. Change requests, change log, and issue log B. Work performance data, information, and reports C. Corrective action, preventive action, and defect repair D. Deliverables, change requests, and work authorization system
C.
Which of the following best describes product analysis? A. Working with the customer or sponsor to determine the product description during project initiating B. Mathematically analyzing the quality desired for the project as part of the Plan Quality Management C. Analyzing the objectives and description of the product, as stated by the customer or sponsor, to define tangible deliverables D. Analyzing inspection data to determine whether the quality standards on the project can be met
C.
Which of the following best summarizes what happens during the Perform Integrated Change Control process? A. All requested changes are implemented, and any impacts on quality, risk, schedule, cost, resources, and customer satisfaction are documented B. Change requests to the charter and project plan are implemented by the PM, without the need for further approvals C. Change requests are evaluated and accepted, rejected, or deferred to produce a list of approved change requests D. The change control board reviews the impact of change requests on the project scope
C.
Which of the following is correct in regard to the Control Scope process? A. Effective scope definition can lead to a more complete project scope statement B. The Control Scope process must be done before scope planning C. The Control Scope process must be integrated with other control processes D. Controlling the schedule is the most effective way of controlling scope
C.
Which of the following is not an input to the Direct and Manage Project Work process? A. Approved corrective actions B. PMP C. Deliverables D. Defect repair orders
C.
Which of the following is the most appropriate thing to do in project closing? A. Work with the customer to determine acceptance criteria B. Collect historical info from previous projects C. Confirm that all the requirements in the project have been met D. Gain formal approval of the management plans
C.
Which of the following should the PM be doing as part of Manage Communications? A. Preparing and distributing work performance reports B. Updating the issue log C. Providing opportunities for stakeholders to request additional information D. Analyzing communication requirements
C.
Which of the following statements about change-driven development life cycles is true? A. With an adaptive development life cycle, work is planned in long increments B. Change-driven projects use waterfall life cycles C. Adaptive development life cycles involve fixed costs as well as a fixed schedule D. Scope, schedule, and cost are all well-defined early in a project using an adaptive development life cycle
C.
Which of the following statements about the PM is true? A.The PM provides subject matter expertise B. The PM ensure buy-in and gathers support for the project throughout the organization C. The PM is responsible for managing the project to meet project objectives and deliver value D. The PM determines the priorities between project constraints
C.
Which quality management process involves determining the definition of quality for the project and planning how to ensure that the project achieves that level of quality? A. Manage Quality B. Control Quality C. Plan Quality Management D. Plan Quality Assurance
C.
Which statement about quality and grade is true? A. "Grade" refers to the degree to which a deliverable fulfills requirements B. "Quality" is used to categorize deliverables or resources that have a common function but varying technical specifications C. A low-grade resource could be of acceptable quality if it meets the established quality requirements D. A resource is only of acceptable quality if it is high grade
C.
Which type of hierarchal chart categorizes project work by type of resource? A. Organization breakdown structure B. WBS C. Resource breakdown structure D. RACI Chart
C.
You are beginning a new project that has been attempted unsuccessfully several times in the past few years. The previous projects were cancelled because of "politics" - differing views and direction by key stakeholders on the project. This is an example of: A. Stakeholder analysis B. Scope management C. Historical information D. Risk identification
C.
What are the 5 types of conflict resolution?
Collaborating Compromising Withdrawal Smoothing Forcing
What are direct costs?
Costs incurred directly by the project
All of the following are characteristics of a project except: A. It is temporary B. It has a definite beginning and end C. It creates a unique product D. It repeats itself every month
D.
An effective change management plan addresses all the following topics except: A. Procedures B. Approval levels C. Meetings D. Lessons learned
D.
As a rule, which of the following is a true statement about estimates that are made early in a project? A. They cost more to create than estimates that are made later B. They are more likely to accurately predict the final results than estimates that are made later C. They take more time to put together than estimates that are made later D. They should be expressed as a wider range than estimates that are made later
D.
During which process group does the Direct and Manage Project Work process take place? A. Planning B. Closing C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Executing
D.
For which risk management process is the project charter a required input? A. Monitor Risks B. Plan Risk Responses C. Identify Risks D. Plan Risk Management
D.
If the team is performing variance analysis on the project, which process are they in? A. Collect Requirements B. Validate Scope C. Define Scope D. Control Scope
D.
In a project-oriented organization, the project team: A. Reports to many managers B. Has no loyalty to the project C. Reports to the FM D. Will not always have a "home"
D.
In which cost management process are cost forecasts developed? A. Estimate Costs B. Plan Cost Management C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs
D.
In which process group does the PM establish and manage communication channels? A. Planning B. Closing C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Executing
D.
Resource requirements documentation and updates to the resource breakdown structure are outputs of which process? A. Plan Resource Management B. Control Resources C. Plan Procurement Management D. Estimate Activity Resources
D.
The risk owner was notified that a risk trigger has occurred, and they are leading the risk response plan to react to the risk event. What process are they working in? A. Monitor Risks B. Identify Risks C. Plan Risk Responses D. Implement Risk Responses
D.
What does a resource histogram show that a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) does not? A. The person in charge of each activity B. Activities C. Interrelationships D. Time
D.
What does the "work" in a WBS refer to? A. The tasks that are being broken down from the required activities B. The processes involved in completing the work packages C. The activities or actions needed to complete the deliverables of the work packages D. The products or deliverables that will result from the activities
D.
What is one of the most important things for a PM to keep in mind when developing a plan for project communications activities? A. Communication skills are most important during project executing B. The receiver is responsible for making sure communications are clear C. Only the team members need to be concerned about communicating with each other D. The plan should be based on the information needs of stakeholders and on the needs of the project
D.
When you first assigned to the project, the sponsor informed you that a schedule delay of 30 days would be unacceptable. What is the term for this kind of constraint? A. Risk tolerance B. Risk appetite C. Risk averse D. Risk threshold
D.
Which of the following best describes a PMP? A. The schedule and cost baselines for the project B. A description of the project's life cycle and the development cycle that will be used on the project C. The project charter, WBS, and project scope statement D. A formal document showing a plan that is approved, realistic, and bought into
D.
Which of the following best describes a risk owner? A. The person who identified a risk B. The department that is the source of the risk and is most knowledgeable about it C. The department that will be most affected by the risk D. The person who will be responsible for implementing the risk response strategy
D.
Which of the following formulas would be used during Control Costs to estimate how much more the remainder of the project will cost to complete? A. EV - PV B. EV - AC C. EV/PV D. EAC - AC
D.
Which of the following is included in a project charter? A. A risk management strategy B. Work package estimates C. Detailed resource estimates D. Risk identification
D.
Which of the following is least likely to be included in the key outputs of Plan Quality Management? A. Which metrics will be used to control quality B. Which parts of the deliverables will be checked, and when C. Which practices and standards will be used to measure quality D. The schedule for the quality audits, including who will do them
D.
Which of the following is not one of the rules for creating a WBS? A. Each level of the WBS shows a smaller piece of the level above it B. If a deliverable isn't in the WBS, it isn't part of the project C. The project team helps to create the WBS D. All levels of the WBS are broken down to the same level of detail
D.
Which of the following is not part of the Define Scope process? A. Facilitation B. Alternatives analysis C. Product analysis D. Inspection
D.
Which of the following is not shown on a WBS? A. Control accounts B. Work packages C. Deliverables D. Workarounds
D.
Which of the following is one of the seven project constraints? A. Change Requests B. Sellers C. Organizational structure D. Customer satisfaction
D.
Which of the following presents measurement results in order of frequency and helps the project team identify the root causes resulting in the most problems? A. Flowchart B. Fishbone diagram C. Control chart D. Pareto chart
D.
Which of the following tools and techniques is not used in Plan Quality Management? A. Matrix diagrams B. Mind mapping C. Benchmarking D. Process analysis
D.
Which resource management process deals strictly with physical resources? A. Plan Resource Management B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Acquire Resources D. Control Resources
D.
While working in the Control Resources process, the PM needs to compare actual versus planned resource usage. Which document would provide the necessary information regarding how physical resources should be utilized? A. Lessons learned register B. Resource breakdown structure C. Work performance information D. Resource management plan
D.
Your team is calculating triangular distributions. Which of the following processes are they engaged in? A. Control Schedule B. Estimate Schedule C. Sequence Activities D. Estimate Activity Durations
D.
What is the cost variance formula?
EV - AC
What is the formula for cost performance index?
EV / AC
How do you calculate Expected Monetary Value?
EVM = P * I Probability * Impact
What are the 2 responses to both threats and opportunities?
Escalate: If threat/opportunity is outside the scope of the project or outside PM authority Accept: Do nothing
When should a PM estimate how long each activity will take?
Estimate Activity Duration
What are the 3 responses to opportunities?
Exploit: Add work to make sure opportunity occurs Enhance: Increase the probability/positive impact of the opportunity Share: Allocate ownership to a 3rd party
What are the 5 types of risk?
External Internal Technical Commercial Unforeseeable
What is value analysis?
Finding a less costly way to complete the work without affecting quality
What is the difference between FS, SS, FF, and SF?
Finish to Start: Finish digging a hole to plant a tree Start to Start: You have to start a design to get enough design done to start coding Finish to Finish: You must finish testing to finish documentation Start to Finish: Rarely used
Finish Formula
Float = LF - EF
Start Formula
Float = LS - ES
What are the 5 stages of team building?
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
Difference between a histogram and a Pareto Chart?
Histogram presents data in no particular order and without reference to time. Pareto Chart arranges the results from most frequent to least frequent to help identify root causes
What are the 3 communication methods?
Interactive: Conversation Push: One way stream of info (e.g. status reports, blog) Pull: Info is placed in a central location
What formulas are used to calculate float?
LS - ES LF - EF
Lead vs. Lag
Lead: An activity can start before its predecessor activity is completed Lag: Waiting time inserted between activities
What's the difference between resource leveling and resource smoothing
Leveling: Lengthens the schedule and increases cost Smoothing: Like leveling both only leveled within the limits of the float of their activity (doesn't delay any time)
What is Precedence Diagramming Method?
Nodes are used to represent activities, and arrows are added to show activity dependencies
"The estimated value of the work that will be done" has what earned value name?
Planned value
What's the difference between ROM, budget estimate, and definitive estimate?
ROM = -25%/+75% estimate Budget = -10%/+25% estimate Definitive = +/- 10% estimate
What is an affinity diagram?
Requirements are group by similarities and these categories are given a title.
What does RACI stand for?
Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
List the 7 Project Constraints
Schedule Cost Scope Quality Customer Satisfaction Risk Resources
What scheduling technique involves crashing?
Schedule compression
What does the RACI model do?
Shows how a process actually does work end-to-end across several functional groups by defining roles and responsibilities, as well as organizational structure.
What is a context diagram?
Shows the boundaries of the product scope by highlighting the product and its interfaces with people, processes, or systems
What is another name for analogous estimating?
Top-down estimating
What are the 3 types of float?
Total float Free float Project float
Total float vs. Free float
Total float: amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project end date or intermediary milestone Free float: amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of it successor