Cellular Regulation

A 70-yr-old patient who has had a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being discharged from the hospital today. Which patient statement indicates a need for the nurse to provide additional instruction? a. "I should call the doctor if I have incontinence at home." b. "I will avoid driving until I get approval from my doctor." c. "I should schedule yearly appointments for prostate examinations." d. "I will increase fiber and fluids in my diet to prevent constipation."

a. "I should call the doctor if I have incontinence at home." Because incontinence is common for several weeks after a TURP, the patient does not need to call the health care provider if this occurs. The other patient statements indicate that the patient has a good understanding of post-TURP instructions.

A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to support the patient's self-esteem? a. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat to wear when hair loss begins. b. Suggest that the patient limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. c. Teach the patient to wash hair gently with mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once chemotherapy is complete.

a. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat to wear when hair loss begins. The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicles and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem.

Which information about prevention of lung disease should the nurse include for a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking? a. Resources for support in smoking cessation b. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing c. Erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk d. Computed tomography (CT) screening for cancer

a. Resources for support in smoking cessation Because smoking is the major cause of lung cancer, the most important role for the nurse is teaching patients about the benefits of and means of smoking cessation. CT scanning is currently being investigated as a screening test for high-risk patients. However, if there is a positive finding, the person already has lung cancer. Sputum cytology is a diagnostic test, but does not prevent cancer or disease. Erlotinib may be used in patients who have lung cancer, but it is not used to reduce the risk of developing cancer.

The nurse will inform a patient with cancer of the prostate that side effects of leuprolide (Lupron) may include: a. flushing. c. infection. b. dizziness. d. incontinence.

a. flushing. Hot flashes may occur with decreased testosterone production. Dizziness may occur with the -blockers used for benign prostatic hyperplasia. Urinary incontinence may occur after prostate surgery, but it is not an expected side effect of medication. Risk for infection is increased in patients receiving chemotherapy.

A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) asks the nurse whether the planned chemotherapy will be worth undergoing. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "If you do not want to have chemotherapy, other treatment options include stem cell transplantation." b. "The side effects of chemotherapy are difficult, but AML frequently goes into remission with chemotherapy." c. "The decision about treatment is one that you and the doctor need to make rather than asking what I would do." d. "You don't need to make a decision about treatment right now because leukemias in adults tend to progress slowly."

b. "The side effects of chemotherapy are difficult, but AML frequently goes into remission with chemotherapy." This response uses therapeutic communication by addressing the patient's question and giving accurate information. The other responses either give inaccurate information or fail to address the patient's question, which will discourage the patient from asking the nurse for information.

A 36-yr-old patient who has a diagnosis of fibrocystic breast changes calls the nurse in the clinic reporting symptoms. Which information is likely to change the treatment plan? a. There is yellow discharge from the patient's right nipple. b. An area on the breast is hot, pink, and tender to the touch. c. Firm, moveable lumps are in the upper outer breast quadrants. d. The lumps get more painful before the patient's menstrual period.

b. An area on the breast is hot, pink, and tender to the touch. An area that is hot or pink suggests an infectious process such as mastitis, which would require further assessment and treatment. Manifestations of fibrocystic breast changes include one or more palpable lumps that are often round, well delineated, and freely movable within the breast. Discomfort ranging from tenderness to pain may also occur. The lump is usually observed to increase in size and perhaps in tenderness before menstruation. Nipple discharge associated with fibrocystic breasts is often milky, watery-milky, yellow, or green.

Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a patient who has neutropenia? a. Avoid intramuscular injections. b. Check temperature every 4 hours. c. Omit fruits or vegetables from the diet. d. Place a "No Visitors" sign on the door.

b. Check temperature every 4 hours. The earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is an elevation in temperature. Although unpeeled fresh fruits and vegetables should be avoided, fruits and vegetables that are peeled or cooked are acceptable. Injections may be required for administration of medications such as filgrastim (Neupogen). The number of visitors may be limited and visitors with communicable diseases should be avoided, but a "no visitors" policy is not needed.

When caring for a patient with continuous bladder irrigation after having transurethral resection of the prostate, which action could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Teach the patient how to perform Kegel exercises. b. Report any complaints of pain or spasms to the nurse. c. Monitor for increases in bleeding or presence of clots. d. Increase the flow rate of the irrigation if clots are noted.

b. Report any complaints of pain or spasms to the nurse. UAP education and role includes reporting patient concerns to supervising nurses. Patient teaching, assessments for complications, and actions such as bladder irrigation require more education and should be done by licensed nursing staff.

The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. c. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter. d. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication generally should be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapy drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices are preferred.

The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching? a. The patient has a history of dental caries. b. The patient swims several days each week. c. The patient snacks frequently during the day. d. The patient showers each day with mild soap.

b. The patient swims several days each week. The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation.

The health care provider prescribes finasteride (Proscar) for a patient who has benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). When teaching the patient about the drug, the nurse informs him that: a. he should change position from lying to standing slowly to avoid dizziness. b. his interest in sexual activity may decrease while he is taking the medication. c. improvement in the obstructive symptoms should occur within about 2 weeks. d. he will need to monitor his blood pressure frequently to assess for hypertension.

b. his interest in sexual activity may decrease while he is taking the medication. A decrease in libido is a side effect of finasteride because of the androgen suppression that occurs with the drug. Although orthostatic hypotension may occur if the patient is also taking a medication for erectile dysfunction, it should not occur with finasteride alone. Improvement in symptoms of obstruction takes about 6 months. The medication does not cause hypertension.

A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, "I don't think I'm going to live to see my next birthday." Which is the best initial response by the nurse? a. "Are you ready to talk with your family members about dying now?" b. "Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings?" c. "Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon?" d. "Do you think that taking an antidepressant medication would be helpful?"

c. "Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon?" The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning "Can you tell me what it is" is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The remaining answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate.

The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "The biopsy will remove the cancer in my prostate gland." b. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." c. "The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate." d. "The biopsy will indicate whether the cancer has spread to other organs."

c. "The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate." A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. A biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life.

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action would address the cause of the patient problem? a. Add protein powder to foods such as casseroles. b. Tell the patient to eat foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add spices to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.

c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding protein powder does not address the issue of taste. The patient's poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition.

The nurse should suggest which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external-beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fruit salad b. Creamed broccoli c. Baked chicken d. Toasted wheat bread

c. Baked chicken Protein is needed for wound healing. To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided.

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Lime sherbet b. Fresh strawberries c. Blueberry yogurt d. Cream cheese bagel

c. Blueberry yogurt Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Lime sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. Cream cheese is low in protein.

After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has a platelet count of 82,000/µL after chemotherapy b. Patient who has xerostomia after receiving head and neck radiation c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C) d. Patient who is worried about getting the prescribed long-acting opioid on time

c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5F (38.1C) Temperature elevation is an emergency in neutropenic patients because of the risk for rapid progression to severe infections and sepsis. The other patients also require assessments or interventions but do not need to be assessed as urgently. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not have spontaneous bleeding until the platelets are 20,000/µL. Xerostomia does not require immediate intervention. Although breakthrough pain needs to be addressed rapidly, the patient does not appear to have breakthrough pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient with breast cancer who is receiving chemotherapy with doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide. Which assessment finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of fatigue. b. The patient eats only 25% of meals. c. The patient's apical pulse is irregular. d. The patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 5000/µL.

c. The patient's apical pulse is irregular. Doxorubicin can cause cardiac toxicity. The dysrhythmia should be reported because it may indicate a need for a change in therapy. Anorexia, fatigue, and a low-normal WBC count are expected effects of chemotherapy.

Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy? a. Platelet count b. Reticulocyte count c. Total lymphocyte count d. Absolute neutrophil count

d. Absolute neutrophil count Filgrastim increases the neutrophil count and function in neutropenic patients. Although total lymphocyte, platelet, and reticulocyte counts are also important to monitor in this patient, the absolute neutrophil count is used to evaluate the effects of filgrastim.

The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in cancer therapy with the health care provider? a. Frequent loose stools b. Nausea and vomiting c. Elevated white blood count (WBC) d. Increased carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

d. Increased carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) An increase in CEA indicates that the chemotherapy is not effective for the patient's cancer and may need to be modified. Gastrointestinal adverse effects are common with chemotherapy. The nurse may need to address these, but they would not necessarily indicate a need for a change in therapy. An elevated WBC may indicate infection but does not reflect the effectiveness of the colorectal cancer therapy.

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hr in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient voids every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has crackles up to the midline posterior chest.

d. Patient has crackles up to the midline posterior chest. Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer or are receiving chemotherapy.

The nurse teaching a young women's community service group about breast self-examination (BSE) will include that: a. BSE will reduce the risk of dying from breast cancer. b. BSE should be done daily while taking a bath or shower. c. annual mammograms should be scheduled in addition to BSE. d. performing BSE after the menstrual period is more comfortable.

d. performing BSE after the menstrual period is more comfortable. Performing BSE at the end of the menstrual period will reduce the breast tenderness associated with the procedure. The evidence is not clear that BSE reduces mortality from breast cancer. BSE should be done monthly. Annual mammograms are not routinely scheduled for women younger than age 40 years, and newer guidelines suggest delaying them until age 50.

A patient who has been diagnosed with stage 2 prostate cancer chooses the option of active surveillance. The nurse will plan to a. vaccinate the patient with sipuleucel-T (Provenge). b. provide the patient with information about cryotherapy. c. teach the patient about placement of intraurethral stents. d. schedule the patient for annual prostate-specific antigen testing.

d. schedule the patient for annual prostate-specific antigen testing. Patients who opt for active surveillance need to have annual digital rectal examinations and prostate-specific antigen testing. Vaccination with sipuleucel-T, cryotherapy, and stent placement are options for patients who choose to have active treatment for prostate cancer.

A patient with urinary obstruction from benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) tells the nurse, "My symptoms are much worse this week." Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Have you taken any over-the-counter (OTC) medications recently?" b. "I will talk to the doctor about a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test." c. "Have you talked to the doctor about surgery such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)?" d. "The prostate gland changes in size from day to day, and this may be making your symptoms worse."

a. "Have you taken any OTC medications recently?" Because the patient's increase in symptoms has occurred abruptly, the nurse should ask about OTC medications that might cause contraction of the smooth muscle in the prostate and worsen obstruction. The prostate gland does not vary in size from day to day. A TURP may be needed, but more assessment about possible reasons for the sudden symptom change is a more appropriate first response by the nurse. PSA testing is done to differentiate BPH from prostatic cancer.

A patient who is scheduled for a lumpectomy and axillary lymph node dissection tells the nurse, "I would rather not know much about the surgery." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Tell me what you think is important to know about the surgery." b. "It is essential that you know enough to provide informed consent." c. "Many patients do better after surgery if they have more information." d. "You can wait until after surgery for teaching about pain management."

a. "Tell me what you think is important to know about the surgery." This response shows sensitivity to the individual patient's need for information about the surgery. The other responses are also accurate, but the nurse should tailor patient teaching to individual patient preferences.

A female patient complains of a "scab that just won't heal" under her left breast. During your conversation, she also mentions chronic fatigue, loss of appetite, and slight cough, attributed to allergies. What are the nurse's next steps? a. Continue to conduct a symptom analysis to better understand the patient's symptoms and concerns. b. End the appointment and tell the patient to use skin protection during sun exposure. c. Suggest further testing with a cancer specialist and provide the appropriate literature. d. Tell her to put a bandage on the scab and set a follow-up appointment in one week.

a. Continue to conduct a symptom analysis to better understand the patient's symptoms and concerns. A comprehensive health history is vital to treating and caring for the patient. Often times, symptoms are vague. The nurse should conduct a symptom analysis to gather as much information as possible. Questions should address the duration of the symptoms and include the location, characteristics, aggravating and relief factors, and any treatments taken thus far.

A 51-yr-old patient with a small immobile breast lump is considering having a fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy. The nurse explains that an advantage to this procedure is that: a. FNA is done in the outpatient clinic, and results are available in 1 to 2 days. b. only a small incision is needed, resulting in minimal breast pain and scarring. c. if the biopsy results are negative, no further diagnostic testing will be needed. d. FNA is guided by a mammogram, ensuring that cells are taken from the lesion.

a. FNA is done in the outpatient clinic, and results are available in 1 to 2 days. FNA is done in outpatient settings, and results are available in 24 to 48 hours. No incision is needed. FNA may be guided by ultrasound but not by mammogram. Because the immobility of the breast lump suggests cancer, further testing will be done if the FNA results are negative.

While planning care for a patient experiencing fatigue due to chemotherapy, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Prioritization and administration of nursing care throughout the day b. Completing all nursing care in the morning so the patient can rest the remainder of the day c. Completing all nursing care in the evening when the patient is more rested d. Limiting visitors, thus promoting the maximal amount of hours for sleep

a. Prioritization and administration of nursing care throughout the day Pacing activities throughout the day conserves energy, and nursing care should be paced as well. Fatigue is a common side effect of cancer and treatment; and while adequate sleep is important, an increase in the number of hours slept will not resolve the fatigue. Restriction of visitors does not promote healthy coping and can result in feelings of isolation.

The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient who is diagnosed with lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) about: a. tamoxifen c. lymphatic mapping. b. lumpectomy. d. MammaPrint testing.

a. tamoxifen Tamoxifen is used as a chemopreventive therapy in some patients with LCIS. The other diagnostic tests and therapies are not needed because LCIS does not usually require treatment.

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-yr-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 lb (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine two or three times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening

a., c., d., e. The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use tobacco or excessive alcohol, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy.

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work.

a., c., e. Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics.

The home health nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment? a. "I have frequent muscle aches and pains." b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." c. "I experience chills after I inject the interferon." d. "I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours."

b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of immunotherapy. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use acetaminophen every 4 hours.

A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Don't you have any friends that will raise the children for you?" b. "Would you like to talk about options for the care of your children?" c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well and not worrying about your children." d. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is time to plan for your children."

b. "Would you like to talk about options for the care of your children?" This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's friends will raise the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans.

The nurse in the clinic notes elevated prostate specific antigen (PSA) levels in the laboratory results of these patients. Which patient's PSA result is not expected to be elevated? a. A 38-yr-old patient who is being treated for acute prostatitis b. A 48-yr-old patient whose father died of metastatic prostate cancer c. A 52-yr-old patient who goes on long bicycle rides every weekend d. A 75-yr-old patient who uses saw palmetto to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

b. A 48-yr-old patient whose father died of metastatic prostate cancer The family history of prostate cancer and elevation of PSA indicate that further evaluation of the patient for prostate cancer is needed. Elevations in PSA for the other patients are not unusual.

A 27-yr-old patient who has testicular cancer is being admitted for a unilateral orchiectomy. The patient does not talk to his wife and speaks to the nurse only to answer the admission questions. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to take? a. Teach the patient and the wife that impotence is unlikely after unilateral orchiectomy. b. Ask the patient if he has any questions or concerns about the diagnosis and treatment. c. Inform the patient's wife that concerns about sexual function are common with this diagnosis. d. Document the patient's lack of communication on the health record and continue preoperative care.

b. Ask the patient if he has any questions or concerns about the diagnosis and treatment. The initial action by the nurse should be assessment for any anxiety or questions about the surgery or postoperative care. The nurse should address the patient, not the spouse, when discussing the diagnosis and any possible concerns. Without further assessment of patient concerns, the nurse should not offer teaching about complications after orchiectomy. Documentation of the patient's lack of interaction is not an adequate nursing action in this situation.

Which intervention will be included in the nursing care plan for a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura? a. Assign the patient to a private room. b. Avoid intramuscular (IM) injections. c. Use rinses rather than a soft toothbrush for oral care. d. Restrict activity to passive and active range of motion.

b. Avoid IM injections IM or subcutaneous injections should be avoided because of the risk for bleeding. A soft toothbrush can be used for oral care. There is no need to restrict activity or place the patient in a private room.

A routine complete blood count for an active older man indicates possible myelodysplastic syndrome. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. blood transfusion. b. bone marrow biopsy. c. filgrastim (Neupogen) administration. d. erythropoietin (Epogen) administration.

b. Bone marrow biopsy Bone marrow biopsy is needed to make the diagnosis and determine the specific type of myelodysplastic syndrome. The other treatments may be necessary if there is progression of the myelodysplastic syndrome, but the initial action for this asymptomatic patient will be a bone marrow biopsy.

Which information should the nurse include in teaching a patient who is scheduled for external beam radiation to the breast? a. The radiation therapy will take a week to complete. b. Careful skin care in the radiated area will be necessary. c. Visitors are restricted until the radiation therapy is completed. d. Wigs may be used until the hair regrows after radiation therapy.

b. Careful skin care in the radiated area will be necessary. Skin care will be needed because of the damage caused to the skin by the radiation. External beam radiation is done over a 5- to 6-week period. Scalp hair loss does not occur with breast radiation therapy. Because the patient does not have radioactive implants, no visitor restrictions are necessary.

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Minimize activity until the treatment is completed. b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. c. Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. d. Arrange for delivery of a hospital bed to the patient's home.

b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Having a hospital bed does not necessarily address the fatigue. The better option is to stay as active as possible while combating fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Minimizing activity may lead to weakness and other complications of immobility.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea b. Hematuria c. Alopecia d. Xerostomia

b. Hematuria The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy.

To determine the severity of the symptoms for a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), the nurse will ask the patient about: a. blood in the urine. b. force of urinary stream. c. lower back or hip pain. d. erectile dysfunction (ED).

b. force of urinary stream. The American Urological Association Symptom Index for a patient with BPH asks questions about the force and frequency of urination, nocturia, and so on. Blood in the urine, ED, and back or hip pain are not typical symptoms of BPH.

A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patient's teaching plan? a. Donor bone marrow is transplanted through a sternal or hip incision. b. Hospitalization is required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant. c. The transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection. d. Transplant of the donated cells can be very painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone.

b. Hospitalization is required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant. The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room or incision required.

A patient who has benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) with urinary retention is admitted to the hospital with elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Which prescribed therapy should the nurse implement first? a. Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hr. b. Insert a urinary retention catheter. c. Draw blood for a complete blood count. d. Schedule pelvic magnetic resonance imaging

b. Insert a urinary retention catheter. The patient data indicate that the patient may have acute kidney injury caused by the BPH. The initial therapy will be to insert a catheter. The other actions are also appropriate, but they can be implemented after the acute urinary retention is resolved.

A patient preparing to undergo a colon resection for cancer of the colon asks about the elevated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test result. The nurse explains that the test is used to: a. identify any metastasis of the cancer. b. monitor the tumor status after surgery. c. confirm the diagnosis of a specific type of cancer. d. determine the need for postoperative chemotherapy.

b. Monitor the tumor status after surgery. CEA is used to monitor for cancer recurrence after surgery. CEA levels do not help to determine whether there is metastasis of the cancer. Confirmation of the diagnosis is made on the basis of biopsy. Chemotherapy use is based on factors other than CEA.

Which information will the nurse plan to include when teaching a young adult who has a family history of testicular cancer about testicular self-examination? a. Testicular self-examination should be done at least weekly. b. Testicular self-examination should be done in a warm room. c. The only structure normally felt in the scrotal sac is the testis. d. Call the health care provider if one testis is larger than the other.

b. Testicular self-examination should be done in a warm room. The testes will hang lower in the scrotum when the temperature is warm (e.g., during a shower), and it will be easier to palpate. The epididymis is also normally palpable in the scrotum. One testis is normally larger. Men at high risk should perform testicular self-examination monthly.

The nurse will plan to teach the patient scheduled for photovaporization of the prostate (PVP): a. that urine will appear bloody for several days. b. how to care for an indwelling urinary catheter. c. that symptom improvement takes 2 to 3 weeks. d. about complications associated with urethral stenting.

b. how to care for an indwelling urinary catheter. The patient will have an indwelling catheter for 24 to 48 hours and will need teaching about catheter care. There is minimal bleeding with this procedure. Symptom improvement is almost immediate after PVP. Stent placement is not included in the procedure.

The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention? a. The UAP flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. b. The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. c. The UAP places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. d. The UAP gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash to use for oral care.

b. The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine and feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated.

Which assessment finding should the nurse caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia communicate immediately to the health care provider? a. The platelet count is 52,000/µL. b. The patient is difficult to arouse. c. There are purpura on the oral mucosa. d. There are large bruises on the patient's back.

b. The patient is difficult to arouse. Difficulty in arousing the patient may indicate a cerebral hemorrhage, which is life threatening and requires immediate action. The other information should be documented and reported but would not be unusual in a patient with thrombocytopenia.

The nurse will plan to teach the patient who is incontinent of urine following a radical retropubic prostatectomy to a. restrict oral fluid intake. b. do pelvic muscle exercises. c. perform intermittent self-catheterization. d. use belladonna and opium suppositories.

b. do pelvic muscle exercies. Pelvic floor muscle training (Kegel) exercises are recommended to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles and improve urinary control. Belladonna and opium suppositories are used to reduce bladder spasms after surgery. Intermittent self-catheterization may be taught before surgery if the patient has urinary retention, but it will not be useful in reducing incontinence after surgery. The patient should have a daily oral intake of 2 to 3 L.

During a well-woman physical examination, a 43-yr-old patient asks about her risk for breast cancer. Which question is most pertinent for the nurse to ask? a. "Do you currently smoke tobacco?" b. "Have you ever had a breast injury?" c. "At what age did you start having menstrual periods?" d. "Is there a family history of fibrocystic breast changes?"

c. "At what age did you start having menstrual periods?" Early menarche and late menopause are risk factors for breast cancer because of the prolonged exposure to estrogen that occurs. Cigarette smoking, breast trauma, and fibrocystic breast changes are not associated with increased breast cancer risk.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with stage I colon cancer. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" b. "Do you have any concerns about body image changes?" c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" d. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?"

c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time.

A patient who is scheduled for a breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." b. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." d. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells."

c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors do not metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur.

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 35-yr-old patient who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation b. A 42-yr-old patient who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer c. A 24-yr-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck d. A 56-yr-old patient who developed a new pericardial friction rub after chest radiation

c. A 24-yr-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck Because neck bleeding may indicate possible carotid artery rupture in a patient who is receiving radiation to the neck, this patient should be seen first. The diagnoses and clinical manifestations for the other patients are not immediately life threatening.

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting after each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is appropriate? a. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. b. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy. c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. Give the patient a glass of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments.

c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help prevent nausea. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea. The acidity of citrus fruits may be further irritating to the stomach.

Which action for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection b. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection d. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. Patient teaching, assessment, and developing the plan of care require RN level education and scope of practice.

A patient who has been recently diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) tells the nurse that he does not want to have a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) because it might affect his ability to have sexual intercourse. Which action should the nurse take? a. Discuss alternative methods of sexual expression. b. Teach about medication for erectile dysfunction (ED). c. Clarify that TURP does not commonly affect erection. d. Offer reassurance that fertility is not affected by TURP.

c. Clairfy that TURP does not commonly affect erection. ED is not a concern with TURP, although retrograde ejaculation is likely, and the nurse should discuss this with the patient. Erectile function is not usually affected by a TURP, so the patient will not need information about penile implants or reassurance that other forms of sexual expression may be used. Because the patient has not asked about fertility, reassurance about sperm production does not address his concerns.

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation? a. Test all stools for the presence of blood. b. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet. c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. d. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.

c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Careful cleaning of this area will help decrease the risk for skin breakdown and infection. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.

A patient with a large stomach tumor attached to the liver is scheduled for a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure? a. Pain will be relieved by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. b. Relief of pressure in the stomach will promote better nutrition. c. Decreasing the tumor size will improve the effects of other therapy. d. Tumor growth will be controlled by the removal of malignant tissue.

c. Decreasing the tumor size will improve the effects of other therapy. A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs.

Which information will the nurse teach a patient who has chronic prostatitis? a. Ibuprofen (Motrin) should provide good pain control. b. Prescribed antibiotics should be taken for 7 to 10 days. c. Intercourse or masturbation will help relieve symptoms. d. Cold packs used every 4 hours will decrease inflammation.

c. Intercourse or masturbation will help relieve symptoms. Ejaculation helps drain the prostate and relieve pain. Warm baths are recommended to reduce pain. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are frequently prescribed but usually do not offer adequate pain relief. Antibiotics for chronic prostatitis are taken for 4 to 12 weeks.

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit of 32% b. Pain with deep inspiration c. Serum sodium of 126 mEq/L d. Decreased breath sounds on left side

c. Serum sodium of 126 mEq/L The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (and the resulting hyponatremia) is an oncologic metabolic emergency and requires rapid treatment to prevent complications such as seizures and coma. The other findings also require intervention but are common in patients with lung cancer and not immediately life threatening.

A 53-yr-old woman who is experiencing menopause is discussing the use of hormone therapy (HT) with the nurse. Which information about the risk of breast cancer will the nurse provide? a. HT is a safe therapy for menopausal symptoms if there is no family history of BRCA genes. b. HT does not appear to increase the risk for breast cancer unless there are other risk factors. c. The patient and her health care provider must weigh the benefits of HT against the risks of breast cancer. d. Natural herbs are as effective as estrogen in relieving symptoms without increasing the risk of breast cancer.

c. The patient and her health care provider must weight the benefits of HT against the risks of breast cancer. Because HT has been linked to increased risk for breast cancer, the patient and health care provider must determine whether or not to use HT. Breast cancer incidence is increased in women using HT, independent of other risk factors. HT increases the risk for both non-BRCA-associated cancer and BRCA-related cancers. Alternative therapies can be used but are not consistent in relieving menopausal symptoms.

The plan of care for a patient immediately after a perineal radical prostatectomy will include decreasing the risk for infection related to: a. urinary incontinence. c. fecal wound contamination. b. prolonged urinary stasis. d. suprapubic catheter placement.

c. fecal wound contamination. The perineal approach increases the risk for infection because the incision is located close to the anus, and contamination with feces is possible. Urinary stasis and incontinence do not occur because the patient has a retention catheter in place for 1 to 2 weeks. A urethral catheter is used after the surgery.

A 53-yr-old patient is scheduled for an annual physical examination. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of: a. urinalysis collection. b. uroflowmetry studies. c. prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. d. transrectal ultrasound scanning (TRUS).

c. prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. An annual digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA are usually recommended starting at age 50 years for men who have an average risk for prostate cancer. Urinalysis and uroflowmetry studies are done if patients have symptoms of urinary tract infection or changes in the urinary stream. TRUS may be ordered if the DRE or PSA results are abnormal.

The nurse taking a focused health history for a patient with possible testicular cancer will ask the patient about a history of: a. testicular torsion. b. testicular trauma. c. undescended testicles. d. sexually transmitted infection (STI).

c. undescended testicles. Cryptorchidism is a risk factor for testicular cancer if it is not corrected before puberty. STI, testicular torsion, and testicular trauma are risk factors for other testicular conditions but not for testicular cancer.

The outpatient clinic receives telephone calls from four patients. Which patient should the nurse call back first? a. A 57-yr-old patient with ductal ectasia who has sticky multicolored nipple discharge and severe nipple itching b. A 21-yr-old patient with a family history of breast cancer who wants to discuss genetic testing for the BRCA gene c. A 40-yr-old patient who still has left side chest and arm pain 2 months after a left modified radical mastectomy d. A 50-yr-old patient with stage 2 breast cancer who is receiving doxorubicin and has ankle swelling and fatigue

d. A 50-yr-old patient with stage 2 breast cancer who is receiving doxorubicin and has ankle swelling and fatigue Although all the patients have needs that the nurse should address, the patient who is receiving a cardiotoxic medication and has symptoms of heart failure should be assessed by the nurse first. BRCA testing may be appropriate for the 21-yr-old patient, but it does not need to be done immediately. Chest and arm pain are normal up to 3 months after mastectomy. Nipple discharge and itching is a common finding with ductal ectasia.

A patient has had left-sided lumpectomy (breast-conservation surgery) and an axillary lymph node dissection. Which nursing intervention is appropriate to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Teaching the patient how to avoid injury to the left arm b. Assessing the patient's range of motion for the left arm c. Evaluating the patient's understanding of instructions about drain care d. Administering an analgesic 30 minutes before scheduled arm exercises

d. Administering an analgesic 30 minutes before scheduled arm exercises LPN/LVN education and scope of practice include administration and evaluation of the effects of analgesics. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation of a patient's understanding of instructions are more complex tasks that are more appropriate to RN level education and scope of practice.

A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply prescribed anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.

d. Apply prescribed anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals. Because the etiology of the patient's poor nutrition is the painful oral ulcers, the best intervention is to apply anesthetic gel to the lesions before the patient eats. The other actions might be helpful for other patients with impaired nutrition but would not be as helpful for this patient.

Which information about continuous bladder irrigation will the nurse teach to a patient who is being admitted for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)? a. Bladder irrigation decreases the risk of postoperative bleeding. b. Hydration and urine output are maintained by bladder irrigation. c. Antibiotics are infused continuously through the bladder irrigation. d. Bladder irrigation prevents obstruction of the catheter after surgery.

d. Bladder irrigation prevents obstruction of the catheter after surgery. The purpose of bladder irrigation is to remove clots from the bladder and prevent obstruction of the catheter by clots. The irrigation does not decrease bleeding or improve hydration. Antibiotics are given by the IV route, not through the bladder irrigation.

A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, "My husband rarely visits. He just doesn't care." The husband indicates to the nurse that he does not know what to say to his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care? a. Compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle b. Impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes c. Risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members

d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest a change in lifestyle or its role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities.

In caring for a patient following lobectomy for lung cancer, which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Position the patient on the operative side only. b. Avoid administering narcotic pain medications. c. Keep the patient on strict bed rest. d. Instruct the patient to cough and deep breathe.

d. Instruct the patient to cough and deep breath. Postoperative deep breathing and coughing is important to promote oxygenation and clearing of secretions. Pain medications will be given to lessen pain and allow for deep breathing and coughing. Strict bed rest is not instituted, because early ambulation will help lessen postoperative complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Prolonged lying on the operative side is avoided.

After a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), a 64-yr-old patient with continuous bladder irrigation complains of painful bladder spasms. The nurse observes clots in the urine. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Increase the flow rate of the bladder irrigation. b. Administer the prescribed IV morphine sulfate. c. Give the patient the prescribed belladonna and opium suppository. d. Manually instill and then withdraw 50 mL of saline into the catheter.

d. Manually instill and then withdraw 50 mL of saline into the catheter. The assessment suggests that obstruction by a clot is causing the bladder spasms, and the nurse's first action should be to irrigate the catheter manually and to try to remove the clots. IV morphine will not decrease the spasm, although pain may be reduced. Increasing the flow rate of the irrigation will further distend the bladder and may increase spasms. The belladonna and opium suppository will decrease bladder spasms but will not remove the obstructing blood clot.

During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia, the patient is restless and looks away without making eye contact. The patient asks the nurse to repeat the information about the complications associated with chemotherapy. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient? a. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy b. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system c. Deficient knowledge: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment d. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to possible anxiety about leukemia diagnosis

d. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to possible anxiety about leukemia diagnosis The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient's history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors.

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration? a. Teach the patient to rest the brain by avoiding new activities. b. Teach that "chemo-brain" is a short-term effect of chemotherapy. c. Report patient symptoms immediately to the health care provider. d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.

d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep. Use of tools to enhance memory and concentration such as a daily planner and adequate rest are helpful for patients who develop "chemo-brain" while receiving chemotherapy. Patients should be encouraged to exercise the brain through new activities. Chemo-brain may be short or long term. There is no urgent need to report common chemotherapy side effects to the provider.

The nurse will anticipate that a 61-yr-old patient who has an enlarged prostate detected by digital rectal examination (DRE) and an elevated prostate specific antigen (PSA) level will need teaching about a. cystourethroscopy. b. uroflowmetry studies. c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS).

d. transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS). In a patient with an abnormal DRE and elevated PSA, transrectal ultrasound is used to visualize the prostate for biopsy. Uroflowmetry studies help determine the extent of urine blockage and treatment, but there is no indication that this is a problem for this patient. Cystoscopy may be used before prostatectomy but will not be done until after the TRUS and biopsy. MRI is used to determine whether prostatic cancer has metastasized but would not be ordered at this stage of the diagnostic process.

While collecting a health history on a patient admitted for colon cancer, which of the following questions would be a priority to ask this patient? a. "Have you noticed any blood in your stool?" b. "Have you been experiencing nausea?" c. "Do you have back pain?" d. "Have you noticed any swelling in your abdomen?"

a. "Have you noticed any blood in your stool?" Early colon cancer is often asymptomatic, with occult or frank blood in the stool being an assessment finding in a patient diagnosed with colon cancer. If pain is present, it is usually lower abdominal cramping. Constipation and diarrhea are more frequent findings than nausea or ascites.

A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." b. "The cancer cells look like normal cells." c. "Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer." d. "It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer."

a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread.

Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching for a 36-yr-old patient who is scheduled for stereotactic core biopsy of the breast? a. A local anesthetic will be given before the biopsy specimen is obtained. b. You will need to lie flat on your back and lie very still during the biopsy. c. A thin needle will be inserted into the lump and aspirated to remove tissue. d. You should not have anything to eat or drink for 6 hours before the procedure.

a. A local anesthetic will be given before the biopsy specimen is obtained. A local anesthetic is given before stereotactic biopsy. NPO status is not needed because no sedative drugs are given. The patient is placed in the prone position. A biopsy gun is used to obtain the specimens.

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the purpose of this therapy to the patient? a. IL-2 enhances the body's immunologic response to tumor cells. b. IL-2 prevents bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy. c. IL-2 protects normal cells from harmful effects of chemotherapy. d. IL-2 stimulates malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis.

a. IL-2 enhances the body's immunologic response to tumor cells. IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient's own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient admitted with multiple myeloma? a. Monitor fluid intake and output. b. Administer calcium supplements. c. Assess lymph nodes for enlargement. d. Limit weight bearing and ambulation.

a. Monitor fluid intake and output. A high fluid intake and urine output helps prevent the complications of kidney stones caused by hypercalcemia and renal failure caused by deposition of Bence-Jones protein in the renal tubules. Weight bearing and ambulation are encouraged to help bone retain calcium. Lymph nodes are not enlarged with multiple myeloma. Calcium supplements will further increase the patient's calcium level and are not used.

During a routine health examination, a 40-yr-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Obtain more information about the family history. b. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data. c. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. d. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood.

a. Obtain more information about the family history. The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning.

A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before obtaining and administering platelets? a. Platelet count is 42,000/L. b. Petechiae are present on the chest. c. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg. d. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site.

a. Platelet count is 42,000/uL Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/L unless the patient is actively bleeding. Therefore the nurse should clarify the order with the health care provider before giving the transfusion. The other data all indicate that bleeding caused by ITP may be occurring and that the platelet transfusion is appropriate.

Which information obtained by the nurse assessing a patient admitted with multiple myeloma is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Serum calcium level is 15 mg/dL. b. Patient reports no stool for 5 days. c. Urine sample has Bence-Jones protein. d. Patient is complaining of severe back pain.

a. Serum calcium level is 15 mg/dL. Hypercalcemia may lead to complications such as dysrhythmias or seizures, and should be addressed quickly. The other patient findings will also be discussed with the health care provider but are not life threatening.

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Shivering and chills c. Muscle aches and pains d. Temperature of 100.2° F (37.9° C)

a. Shortness of breath Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications.

When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The UAP adds baking soda to the patient's saline oral rinses. c. The UAP puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient's toothbrush. d. The UAP has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.

a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient.

An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to: a. check all stools for occult blood. b. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day. c. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours. d. check the temperature every 4 hours.

a. check all stools for occult blood. Because the patient is at risk for spontaneous bleeding, the nurse should check stools for occult blood. A low platelet count does not require an increased fluid intake. Oral hygiene is important, but it is not necessary to provide oral care every 2 hours. The low platelet count does not increase risk for infection, so frequent temperature monitoring is not indicated.

After a 48-yr-old patient has had a modified radical mastectomy, the pathology report identifies the tumor as an estrogen-receptor positive adenocarcinoma. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. tamoxifen c. raloxifene (Evista). b. estradiol (Estrace). d. trastuzumab (Herceptin).

a. tamoxifen Tamoxifen is used for estrogen-dependent breast tumors in premenopausal women. Raloxifene is used to prevent breast cancer, but it is not used postmastectomy to treat breast cancer. Estradiol will increase the growth of estrogen-dependent tumors. Trastuzumab is used to treat tumors that have the HER-2 receptor.

A patient diagnosed with breast cancer asks the nurse what "triple negative" means. An accurate response from the nurse about triple-negative breast cancer should include that: a. the tumor is not likely to be responsive to hormone therapy. b. HER-2 receptor testing was repeated for a total of three samples. c. treatment with chemotherapy is not likely to be recommended. d. estrogen receptor testing identified the three hormones causing the cancer.

a. the tumor is not likely to be responsive to hormone therapy. A patient whose breast cancer tests negative for all three receptors (estrogen, progesterone, and HER-2) has triple-negative breast cancer. These cancers do not usually respond to hormone therapy or therapy for the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER-2). Chemotherapy appears to have the most success in treating triple-negative breast cancer.

The nurse provides discharge teaching for a 61-yr-old patient who has had a left modified radical mastectomy and lymph node dissection. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been successful? a. "I will need to use my right arm and to rest the left one." b. "I will avoid reaching over the stove with my left hand." c. "I will keep my left arm in a sling until the incision is healed." d. "I will stop the left arm exercises if moving the arm is painful."

b. "I will avoid reaching over the stove with my left hand." The patient should avoid any activity that might injure the left arm, such as reaching over a burner. If the left arm exercises are painful, analgesics should be used and the exercises continued in order to restore strength and range of motion. The left arm should be elevated at or above heart level and should be used to improve range of motion and function.

Which patient statement indicates that the nurse's teaching about tamoxifen has been effective? a. "I can expect to have leg cramps." b. "I will call if I have any eye problems." c. "I should contact you if I have hot flashes." d. "I will be taking the medication for 6 to 12 months."

b. "I will call if I have any eye problems." Retinopathy, cataracts, and decreased visual acuity should be immediately reported because it is likely that the tamoxifen will be discontinued or decreased. Tamoxifen treatment generally lasts 5 years. Hot flashes are an expected side effect of tamoxifen. Leg cramps may be a sign of deep vein thrombosis, and the patient should immediately notify the health care provider if pain occurs.

A 58-yr-old woman tells the nurse, "I understand that I have stage II breast cancer and I need to decide on a surgery, but I feel overwhelmed. What do you think I should do?" Which response by the nurse is best? a. "I would have a lumpectomy, but you need to decide what is best for you." b. "Tell me what you understand about the surgical options that are available." c. "It would not be appropriate for me to make a decision about your health." d. "There is no need to make a decision rapidly; you have time to think about this."

b. "Tell me what you understand about the surgical options that are available." Inquiring about the patient's understanding shows the nurse's willingness to assist the patient with the decision-making process without imposing the nurse's values or opinions. Treatment decisions for breast cancer do need to be made relatively quickly. Imposing the nurse's opinions or showing an unwillingness to discuss the topic could cut off communication.

After receiving change-of-shift report for several patients with neutropenia, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 56-yr-old with frequent explosive diarrhea b. A 33-yr-old with a fever of 100.8° F (38.2° C) c. A 66-yr-old who has white pharyngeal lesions d. A 23-yr-old who is complaining of severe fatigue

b. A 33-yr-old with a fever of 100.8F (38.2C) Any fever in a neutropenic patient indicates infection and can quickly lead to sepsis and septic shock. Rapid assessment and (if prescribed) initiation of antibiotic therapy within 1 hour are needed. The other patients also need to be assessed but do not exhibit symptoms of potentially life-threatening problems.

Which assessment finding in a 36-yr-old patient is most indicative of a need for further evaluation? a. Bilateral breast nodules that are tender with palpation b. A breast nodule that is 1 cm in size, nontender, and fixed c. A breast lump that increases in size before the menstrual period d. A breast lump that is small, mobile, with a rubbery consistency

b. A breast nodule that is 1cm in size, nontender, and fixed Painless and fixed lumps suggest breast cancer. The other findings are more suggestive of benign processes such as fibrocystic breasts and fibroadenoma.

An hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 (based on 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action should the nurse take? a. Clamp the chest tube in two places. b. Administer the prescribed morphine. c. Milk the chest tube to remove any clots. d. Assist the patient with incentive spirometry.

b. Administer the prescribed morphine. Treat the pain. The patient is unlikely to take deep breaths or cough until the pain level is lower. A chest tube output of 100 mL is not unusual in the first hour after thoracotomy. Milking or stripping chest tubes is no longer recommended because these practices can dangerously increase intrapleural pressures and damage lung tissues. Position tubing so that drainage flows freely to negate need for milking or stripping. An air leak is expected in the initial postoperative period after thoracotomy. Clamping the chest tube is not indicated and may lead to dangerous development of a tension pneumothorax.

A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the patient the prescribed PRN opioid. b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Teach the patient how to use relaxation to reduce pain.

b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. Spinal cord compression, an oncologic emergency, can occur with invasion of tumor into the epidural space. The nurse will need to assess the patient further for symptoms such as decreased leg sensation and strength and then notify the health care provider. Administration of opioids or the use of relaxation may be appropriate but only after the nurse has assessed for possible spinal cord compression.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with right arm lymphedema? a. Avoid isometric exercise on the right arm. b. Assist with application of a compression sleeve. c. Keep the right arm at or below the level of the heart. d. Check blood pressure (BP) on both right and left arms.

b. Assist with application of a compression sleeve. Compression of the arm assists in improving lymphatic flow toward the heart. Isometric exercises may be prescribed for lymphedema. BPs should only be done on the patient's left arm. The arm should not be placed in a dependent position.

The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches b. Crackles heard at the lung bases c. Complaints of nausea and anorexia d. Oral temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C)

b. Crackles heard at the lung bases Capillary leak syndrome and acute pulmonary edema are possible toxic effects of interleukin-2. The patient may need oxygen and the nurse should rapidly notify the health care provider. The other findings are common side effects of interleukin-2.

A patient who has been receiving IV heparin infusion and oral warfarin (Coumadin) for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) when the platelet level drops to 110,000/µL. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Prepare for platelet transfusion. b. Discontinue the heparin infusion. c. Administer prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). d. Use low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).

b. Discontinue the heparin infusion All heparin is discontinued when HIT is diagnosed. The patient should be instructed to never receive heparin or LMWH. Warfarin is usually not given until the platelet count has returned to 150,000/µL. The platelet count does not drop low enough in HIT for a platelet transfusion, and platelet transfusions increase the risk for thrombosis.

The nurse notes bilateral enlargement of the breasts during examination of a 62-yr-old male patient. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Refer the patient for mammography. b. Question the patient about current medications. c. Explain that this is temporary due to hormonal changes. d. Teach the patient how to palpate the breast tissue for lumps.

b. Question the patient about current medications. The first action should be further assessment. Because gynecomastia is a possible side effect of drug therapy, asking about the current drug regimen is appropriate. The other actions may be needed, depending on the data that are obtained with further assessment.

A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate? a. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia. b. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections. c. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves. d. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home.

b. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections. The patient may be taught to self-administer filgrastim injections. Although chemotherapy may be stopped with severe neutropenia (neutrophil count <500/µL), administration of filgrastim usually allows the chemotherapy to continue. Patients with neutropenia are at higher risk for infection when exposed to other patients in the hospital. HEPA filters are expensive and are used in the hospital, where the number of pathogens is much higher than in the patient's home environment.

Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse? a. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain b. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8° F c. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction d. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours

b. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8F A neutropenic patient with a fever is assumed to have an infection and is at risk for rapidly developing sepsis. Rapid assessment, cultures, and initiation of antibiotic therapy are needed. The other patients also require rapid assessment and care but not as urgently as the neutropenic patient.

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates around the room. b. The patient's visitors bring in fresh peaches. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.

b. The patient's visitors bring in fresh peaches. Fresh, thinned-skin fruits are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help prevent skin breakdown and infection.

The nurse would incorporate which of the following into the plan of care as a primary prevention strategy for reduction of the risk for cancer? a. Yearly mammography for women aged 40 years and older b. Using skin protection during sun exposure while at the beach c. Colonoscopy at age 50 and every 10 years as follow-up d. Yearly prostate specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal exam for men aged 50 and over

b. Using skin protection during sun exposure while at the beach Primary prevention of cancer involves avoidance to known causes of cancer, such as sun exposure. Secondary screening involves physical and diagnostic examination.

A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is considering treatment with a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). The best approach for the nurse to assist the patient with a treatment decision is to: a. discuss the need for insurance to cover post-HSCT care. b. ask whether there are questions or concerns about HSCT. c. emphasize the positive outcomes of a bone marrow transplant. d. explain that a cure is not possible with any treatment except HSCT.

b. ask whether there are questions or concerns about HSCT. Offering the patient an opportunity to ask questions or discuss concerns about HSCT will encourage the patient to voice concerns about this treatment and will allow the nurse to assess whether the patient needs more information about the procedure. Treatment of AML using chemotherapy is another option for the patient. It is not appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient to consider insurance needs in making this decision.

The nurse preparing for the annual physical exam of a 50-yr-old man will plan to teach the patient about a. endoscopy. b. colonoscopy. c. computerized tomography screening. d. carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) testing.

b. colonoscopy At age 50 years, individuals with an average risk for colorectal cancer (CRC) should begin screening for CRC. Colonoscopy is the gold standard for CRC screening. The other diagnostic tests are not recommended as part of a routine annual physical exam at age 50 years.

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about the management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective? a. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching." b. "I will scrub the area with warm water." c. "I can buy aloe vera gel to use on my skin." d. "I will expose my skin to a sun lamp each day."

c. "I can buy aloe vera gel to use on my skin." Aloe vera gel and cream may be used on the radiated skin area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury.

The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "The cancer will be cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." c. "I will need follow-up examinations for many years after treatment before I can be considered cured." d. "Cancer is never cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation."

c. "I will need follow-up examinations for many years after treatment before I can be considered cured." The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer. Some cancers are considered cured after a shorter time span or after surgery, but stage III breast cancer will require additional therapies and ongoing follow-up.

A patient newly diagnosed with stage I breast cancer is discussing treatment options with the nurse. Which statement by the patient indicates that additional teaching may be needed? a. "There are several options that I can consider for treating the cancer." b. "I will probably need radiation to the breast after having the surgery." c. "Mastectomy is the best choice to decrease the chance of cancer recurrence." d. "I can probably have reconstructive surgery at the same time as a mastectomy."

c. "Mastectomy is the best choice to decrease the chance of cancer recurrence." The survival rates with lumpectomy and radiation or modified radical mastectomy are comparable. The other patient statements indicate a good understanding of stage I breast cancer treatment.

A lobectomy is scheduled for a patient with stage I non-small cell lung cancer. The patient tells the nurse, "I would rather have chemotherapy than surgery." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Are you afraid that the surgery will be very painful?" b. "Did you have bad experiences with previous surgeries?" c. "Tell me what you know about the treatments available." d. "Surgery is the treatment of choice for stage I lung cancer."

c. "Tell me what you know about the treatments available." More assessment of the patient's concerns about surgery is indicated. An open-ended response will elicit the most information from the patient. The answer beginning, "Surgery is the treatment of choice" is accurate, but it discourages the patient from sharing concerns about surgery. The remaining two answers indicate that the nurse has jumped to conclusions about the patient's reasons for not wanting surgery. Chemotherapy is the primary treatment for small cell lung cancer. In non-small cell lung cancer, chemotherapy may be used in the treatment of nonresectable tumors or as adjuvant therapy to surgery.

A 71-yr-old patient had an abdominal-perineal resection for colon cancer. Which nursing action is most important to include in the plan of care for the day after surgery? a. Teach about a low-residue diet. b. Monitor output from the stoma. c. Assess the perineal drainage and incision. d. Encourage acceptance of the colostomy stoma.

c. Assess the perineal drainage and incision. Because the perineal wound is at high risk for infection, the initial care is focused on assessment and care of this wound. Teaching about diet is best done closer to discharge from the hospital. There will be very little drainage into the colostomy until peristalsis returns. The patient will be encouraged to assist with the colostomy, but this is not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period.

Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care for a patient returning to the surgical unit after a left modified radical mastectomy with dissection of axillary lymph nodes? a. Obtain a permanent breast prosthesis before the patient is discharged from the hospital. b. Teach the patient to use the ordered patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) every 10 minutes. c. Post a sign at the bedside warning against venipunctures or blood pressures in the left arm. d. Insist that the patient examine the surgical incision when the initial dressings are removed.

c. Post a sign at the bedside warning against venipunctures or blood pressure in the left arm. The patient is at risk for lymphedema and infection if blood pressures or venipuncture are done on the right arm. The patient is taught to use the PCA as needed for pain control rather than at a set time. The nurse allows the patient to examine the incision and participate in care when the patient feels ready. Permanent breast prostheses are usually obtained about 6 weeks after surgery.

An occupational health nurse works at a manufacturing plant where there is potential exposure to inhaled dust. Which action recommended by the nurse is intended to prevent lung disease? a. Treat workers with pulmonary fibrosis. b. Teach about symptoms of lung disease. c. Require the use of protective equipment. d. Monitor workers for coughing and wheezing.

c. Require the use of protective equipment. Prevention of lung disease requires the use of appropriate protective equipment such as masks. The other actions will help in recognition or early treatment of lung disease but will not be effective in prevention of lung damage. Repeated exposure eventually results in diffuse pulmonary fibrosis. Fibrosis is the result of tissue repair after inflammation.

A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective? a. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale). b. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness. c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. d. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.

c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics may also be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route, and usually the oral route is preferred.

Which laboratory result will the nurse expect to show a decreased value if a patient develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? a. Prothrombin time b. Erythrocyte count c. Fibrinogen degradation products d. Activated partial thromboplastin time

d. Activated partial thromboplastin time Platelet aggregation in HIT causes neutralization of heparin, so the activated partial thromboplastin time will be shorter, and more heparin will be needed to maintain therapeutic levels. The other data will not be affected by HIT.

While the nurse is obtaining the health history of a 75-year-old female patient, which of the following has the greatest implication for the development of cancer? a. Being a 75-year-old woman b. Family history of hypertension c. Cigarette smoking as a teenager d. Advancing age

d. Advancing age According to the American Cancer Society, 2007, the most important risk factor for cancer development is advancing age.

The nurse is admitting a patient scheduled this morning for lumpectomy and axillary lymph node dissection. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Teach the patient how to deep breathe and cough. b. Discuss options for postoperative pain management. c. Explain the postdischarge care of the axillary drains. d. Ask the patient to describe what she knows about the surgery.

d. Ask the patient to describe what she knows about the surgery. Before teaching, the nurse should assess the patient's current knowledge level. The other teaching also may be appropriate, depending on the assessment findings.

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes two packs/day. Which action by the nurse could help reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Teach the patient about annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening. d. Discuss risks associated with cigarette smoking during each patient encounter.

d. Discuss risks associated with cigarette smoking during each patient encounter. Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. The other options may detect lung cancer that is already present but do not reduce the risk.

A patient who has non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving combination treatment with rituximab (Rituxan) and chemotherapy. Which patient assessment finding requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Anorexia b. Vomiting c. Oral ulcers d. Lip swelling

d. Lip swelling Lip swelling in angioedema may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction to the rituximab. The nurse should stop the infusion and further assess for anaphylaxis. The other findings may occur with chemotherapy but are not immediately life threatening.

The nurse is caring for a patient who received a bone marrow transplant 10 days ago. The nurse would monitor for which of the following clinical manifestations that could indicate a potentially life-threatening situation? a. Mucositis b. Confusion c. Depression d. Mild temperature elevation

d. Mild temperature elevation During the first 100 days after a bone marrow transplant, patients are at high risk for life-threatening infections. The earliest sign of infection in an immunosuppressed patient can be a mild fever. Mucositis, confusion, and depression are possible clinical manifestations but are representative of less life-threatening complications.

An expected action by the nurse caring for a patient who has an acute exacerbation of polycythemia vera is to a. place the patient on bed rest. b. administer iron supplements. c. avoid use of aspirin products. d. monitor fluid intake and output.

d. Monitor fluid intake and output. Monitoring hydration status is important during an acute exacerbation because the patient is at risk for fluid overload or underhydration. Aspirin therapy is used to decrease risk for thrombosis. The patient should be encouraged to ambulate to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Iron is contraindicated in patients with polycythemia vera.

Following successful treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma for a 55-yr-old woman, which topic will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Potential impact of chemotherapy treatment on fertility b. Application of soothing lotions to treat residual pruritus c. Use of maintenance chemotherapy to maintain remission d. Need for follow-up appointments to screen for malignancy

d. Need for follow-up appointments to screen for malignancy The chemotherapy used in treating Hodgkin's lymphoma results in a high incidence of secondary malignancies; follow-up screening is needed. The fertility of a 55-yr-old woman will not be impacted by chemotherapy. Maintenance chemotherapy is not used for Hodgkin's lymphoma. Pruritus is a clinical manifestation of lymphoma but should not be a concern after treatment.

A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. Remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. Use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. Gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution. The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended.

When the nurse is working in the women's health care clinic, which action is appropriate to take? a. Teach a healthy 30-yr-old patient about the need for an annual mammogram. b. Discuss scheduling an annual clinical breast examination with a 22-year-old patient. c. Explain to a 60-yr-old patient that mammography frequency can be reduced to every 3 years. d. Teach a 28-yr-old patient with a BRCA-1 mutation about magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

d. Teach a 28-yr-old patient with a BRCA-1 mutation about magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). MRI (in addition to mammography) is recommended for women who are at high risk for breast cancer. A woman should have a clinical breast examination about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 years and older. Annual mammograms are recommended for women older than 40 years of age.

The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 30% b. Platelets 95,000/µL c. Hemoglobin 10 g/L d. White blood cells (WBC) 2700/µL

d. White blood cells (WBC) 2700/uL The low WBC count places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that WBC growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. Although the other laboratory data indicate decreased levels, they do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy.

The nurse will teach a patient with metastatic breast cancer who has a new prescription for trastuzumab (Herceptin) that a. hot flashes may occur with the medication. b. serum electrolyte levels will be drawn monthly. c. the patient will need frequent eye examinations. d. the patient should call if she notices ankle swelling.

d. the patient should call if she notices ankle swelling. Trastuzumab can lead to ventricular dysfunction, so the patient is taught to self-monitor for symptoms of heart failure. There is no need to monitor serum electrolyte levels. Hot flashes or changes in visual acuity may occur with tamoxifen, but not with trastuzumab.