Chapter 15 Prenatal Diagnostic Tests

A 40-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool would be appropriate to suggest to her at this time? a. Biophysical profile (BPP) b. Amniocentesis c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening d. Transvaginal ultrasound

d. Transvaginal ultrasound

What does nursing care after amniocentesis include? a. Forcing fluids by mouth b. Monitoring uterine activity c. Placing the client in a supine position for 2 hours d. Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site

ANS: B A risk with amniocentesis is the onset of spontaneous contractions. Hydration is important, but the woman has not been NPO, so this should not be a problem. The supine position may decrease uterine blood flow; the side-lying position is preferred. Pressure dressings are not necessary.

Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening indicates an elevated level. MSAFP screening is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal. What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies c. Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being d. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies

b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies

A 40-year-old woman with a high body mass index (BMI) is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool is appropriate to suggest to her at this time? H. Biophysical profile I. Amniocentesis J. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) K. Transvaginal ultrasound

K. Transvaginal ultrasound Rationale: A biophysical profile is a method of biophysical assessment of fetal well-being in the third trimester. An amniocentesis is performed after the fourteenth week of pregnancy. A MSAFP test is performed from week 15 to week 22 of the gestation (weeks 16 to 18 are ideal). An ultrasound is the method of biophysical assessment of the infant that is performed at this gestational age. Transvaginal ultrasound is especially useful for obese women whose thick abdominal layers cannot be penetrated adequately with the abdominal approach.

Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that: T. chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. U. screening for maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) levels is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects. V. percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the quad-screen tests for Down syndrome. W. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.

W. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures. Rationale: CVS does provide a rapid result, but it is declining in popularity because of advances in noninvasive screening techniques. MSAFP screening is recommended for all pregnant women. MSAFP, not PUBS, is part of the quad-screen tests for Down syndrome. This is correct. MSAFP is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool. Further diagnostic testing is indicated after an abnormal MSAFP.

A pregnant woman's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse's best response is: a. "The test results are within normal limits." b. "Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered." c. "Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score." d. "An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery."

a. "The test results are within normal limits."

Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. While preparing your 6-week gestation patient for this procedure, she expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be indicated for a number of situations (Select all that apply). a. Multifetal gestation b. Obesity c. Fetal abnormalities d. Amniotic fluid volume e. Ectopic pregnancy

a. Multifetal gestation b. Obesity c. Fetal abnormalities e. Ectopic pregnancy

A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be: a. Negative. b. Positive. c. Satisfactory. d. Unsatisfactory.

a. Negative.

A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time? a. Ultrasound examination b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening c. Amniocentesis d. Nonstress test (NST)

a. Ultrasound examination

A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus? a. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies b. Biophysical profile (BPP) c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening d. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)

b. Biophysical profile (BPP)

The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress test (CST): a. Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. b. Is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. d. Is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.

c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions.

In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, nurses should explain to their clients that: a. Both require the woman to have a full bladder. b. The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester. c. Initially the transvaginal examination can be painful. d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.

d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.

What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)? a. Increase placental blood flow. b. Identify fetal acceleration patterns. c. Determine the degree of fetal activity. d. Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.

ANS: D The CST involves recording the response of the fetal heart rate to stress induced by uterine contractions. The CST records the fetal response to stress. It does not increase placental blood flow. The NST looks at fetal heart accelerations with fetal movements. The NST and biophysical profiles look at fetal movements.

Which nursing intervention is necessary prior to a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound? a. Perform an abdominal prep. b. Administer a soap suds enema. c. Ensure the client is NPO for 12 hours. d. Instruct the client to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water.

ANS: D When the uterus is still in the pelvis, visualization may be difficult. It is necessary to perform the test when the woman has a full bladder, which provides a window through which the uterus and its contents can be viewed. An abdominal prep is not necessary for this procedure. A soap suds enema is not necessary for this procedure. The client needs a full bladder to elevate the uterus; therefore, being NPO would not be appropriate.

1. A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant reports to the labor and delivery triage area expressing concerns that her baby "is not moving." Along with a non-stress test (NST) the nurse might also use _____________ to determine fetal well-being.

ANS: Vibroacoustic stimulation Also referred to as VAS or acoustic stimulation, the vibroacoustic stimulator (similar to an electronic larynx) is applied to the maternal abdomen over the area of the fetal head. Vibration and sound are emitted for up to 3 seconds and may be repeated. A fetus near term responds by increasing the number of gross body movements, which can be easily seen and felt. The procedure can confirm reassuring NST findings and shorten the length of time necessary to obtain NST data.

What does a score of 9 on a biophysical profile signify? a. Normal b. Abnormal c. Equivocal d. Nonreactive

ANS: A Five parameters of fetal activity—fetal heart rate, fetal breathing movements, gross fetal movements, fetal tone, and amniotic fluid volume—are used to determine the biophysical profile. The maximum score is 2 points for each parameter. A score falling between 8 and 10 is considered normal. A score of 4 or less is considered abnormal. Equivocal and nonreactive are not terms used to describe the results of a biophysical profile.

The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what would be another tool useful in confirming the diagnosis? P. Doppler blood flow analysis Q. Contraction stress test (CST) R. Amniocentesis S. Daily fetal movement counts

P. Doppler blood flow analysis Rationale: Doppler blood flow analysis allows the examiner to study the blood flow noninvasively in the fetus and the placenta. It is a helpful tool in the management of high-risk pregnancies because of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), diabetes mellitus, multiple fetuses, or preterm labor. Because of the potential risk of inducing labor and causing fetal distress, a CST is not performed on a woman whose fetus is preterm. Indications for an amniocentesis include diagnosis of genetic disorders or congenital anomalies, assessment of pulmonary maturity, and the diagnosis of fetal hemolytic disease, not IUGR. Fetal kick count monitoring is performed to monitor the fetus in pregnancies complicated by conditions that may affect fetal oxygenation. Although this may be a useful tool at some point later in this woman's pregnancy, it is not used to diagnose IUGR.

When is the earliest that chorionic villus sampling can be performed during pregnancy? a. 4 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 12 weeks

ANS: C Fetal villus tissue can be obtained as early as 10 weeks of gestation and can be analyzed directly for chromosomal or genetic abnormalities. It is too early to be performed at 4 weeks. It is too early to be performed at 8 weeks. The test should be performed at 12 weeks, but it can be done as early as 10 weeks.

On which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing do parents usually place the most importance? a. Safety of the fetus b. Duration of the test c. Cost of the procedure d. Physical discomfort caused by the procedure

ANS: A Although all these are considerations, parents are usually most concerned about the safety of the fetus. Parents are concerned about the duration, but it is not the greatest concern. The cost of the procedure is important to parents, especially those without third-party payers, but is not the greatest concern. Discomfort of the procedure is important, especially for the mother, but is not the greatest concern.

A newly pregnant patient tells the nurse that she has irregular periods and is unsure of when she got pregnant. Scheduling an ultrasound is a standing prescription for the patient's health care provider. When is the best time for the nurse to schedule the patient's ultrasound? a. Immediately b. In 2 weeks c. In 4 weeks d. In 6 weeks

ANS: A An embryo can be seen about 5 to 6 weeks after the last menstrual period. At this time the crown-rump length (CRL) of the embryo is the most reliable measure of gestational age. Fetal viability is confirmed by observation of fetal heartbeat, which is visible when the CRL of the embryo is 5 mm.

The clinic nurse is obtaining a health history on a newly pregnant client. Which is an indication for fetal diagnostic procedures if present in the health history? a. Maternal diabetes b. Weight gain of 25 lb c. Maternal age older than 30 d. Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth

ANS: A Diabetes is a risk factor in pregnancy because of possible impairment of placental perfusion. Excessive weight gain is an indication for testing. Normal weight gain is 25 to 35 lb. A maternal age older than 35 years is an indication for testing. Having had another infant weighing more than 4000 g is an indication for testing.

When is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound? a. First trimester b. Second trimester c. Third trimester d. No difference in accuracy among the trimesters

ANS: A Gestational age determination by ultrasonography is increasingly less accurate after the first trimester. Gestational age determination is best done in the first trimester. There is a difference in trimesters when doing a gestational age ultrasonography.

A pregnant client's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. What is the nurse's best response? a. "The test results are within normal limits." b. "Immediate birth by cesarean birth is being considered." c. "Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score." d. "An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding birth."

ANS: A The normal biophysical score ranges from 8 to 10 points if the amniotic fluid volume is adequate. A normal score allows conservative treatment of high-risk patients. Birth can be delayed if fetal well-being is an issue. Scores less than 4 would be investigated, and birth could be initiated sooner than planned. This score is within normal range, and no further testing is required at this time. The results of the biophysical profile are usually available immediately after the procedure is performed.

The nurse is reviewing maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) results. Which conditions are associated with elevated levels of MSAFP? (Select all that apply.) a. Fetal demise b. Neural tube defects c. Abdominal wall defects d. Chromosomal trisomies e. Gestational trophoblastic disease

ANS: A, B, C Elevated levels of AFP may indicate open neural tube defects (e.g., anencephaly, spina bifida), abdominal wall defects (e.g., omphalocele, gastroschisis), or fetal demise. Low levels of AFP may indicate chromosomal trisomies (e.g., Down syndrome, trisomy 21) or gestational trophoblastic disease.

Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. A 6-week-gestation client expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be necessary to determine which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Multifetal gestation b. Bicornuate uterus c. Presence and location of pregnancy d. Amniotic fluid volume e. Presence of ovarian cysts

ANS: A, B, C, E A bicornuate uterus, multifetal gestation, presence of ovarian cysts, and presence and location of pregnancy can be determined by transvaginal ultrasound in the first trimester of pregnancy. This procedure is also used for estimating gestational age, confirming fetal viability, identifying fetal abnormalities or chromosomal defects, and identifying the maternal abnormalities mentioned, as well as fibroids. Amniotic fluid volume is assessed during the second and third trimesters. Conventional ultrasound would be used.

The nurse is instructing a client on how to perform kick counts. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Use a clock or timer when performing kick counts. b. Your bladder should be full before performing kick counts. c. Notify your health care provider if you have not felt movement in 24 hours. d. Protocols can provide a structured timetable for concentrating on fetal movements. e. You should lie on your side, place your hands on the largest part of the abdomen, and concentrate on the number of movements felt.

ANS: A, D, E The nurse should instruct the client to lie on her side, place her hands on the largest part of her abdomen, and concentrate on fetal movements. She should use a clock or timer and record the number of movements felt during that time. Protocols are not essential but may give the client a more structured timetable for when to concentrate on fetal movements. The bladder does not need to be full for kick counts; it is better to have the client empty her bladder before beginning the assessment of fetal movements. Further evaluation is recommended if the client feels no movements in 12 hours; 24 hours is too long before notifying the health care provider.

The results of a contraction stress test (CST) are positive. Which intervention is necessary based on this test result? a. Repeat the test in 1 week so that results can be trended based on this baseline result. b. Contact the health care provider to discuss birth options for the client. c. Send the client out for a meal and repeat the test to confirm that the results are valid. d. Ask the client to perform a fetal kick count assessment for the next 30 minutes and then reassess the client.

ANS: B A positive CST test is an abnormal finding, and the physician should be notified so that birth options can be initiated. A positive CST indicates possible fetal compromise. Intervention should not be delayed by 1 week and results do not have to be trended. Because this is an abnormal result, there is no need to repeat the test. Sending the client out for a meal will delay treatment options and may interfere with possible birth interventions if anesthesia is needed. Fetal kick count assessment is not needed at this time and will further delay treatment interventions for this abnormal result, which indicates fetal compromise.

A pregnant client has received the results of her triple-screen testing and it is positive. She provides you with a copy of the test results that she obtained from the lab. What would the nurse anticipate as being implemented in the client's plan of care? a. No further testing is indicated at this time because results are normal. b. Refer to the physician for additional testing. c. Validate the results with the lab facility. d. Repeat the test in 2 weeks and have the client return for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit.

ANS: B Additional genetic testing is indicated to provide the client with treatment options. A positive result on a triple-screen test is considered to be an abnormal finding so the client should be referred to the physician for additional genetic testing. Validation of the test with a lab facility is not necessary because the client provided you with a copy of the test results. There is no need to repeat the clinical test because the findings have already been determined.

For which client would an L/S ratio of 2:1 potentially be considered to be abnormal? a. A 38-year-old gravida 2, para 1, who is 38 weeks' gestation b. A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes c. A 44-year-old gravida 6, para 5, who is at term d. An 18-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who is in early labor at term

ANS: B Even though an L/S ratio of 2:1 is typically considered to be a normal finding to validate fetal lung maturity prior to 38 weeks' gestation, the result may not be accurate in determining fetal lung maturity if a client is diabetic.

The nurse is reviewing the procedure for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening with a patient at 16 weeks' gestation. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she mentions that which fluid will be collected for the initial screening process? a. Urine b. Blood c. Saliva d. Amniotic

ANS: B Initial screening is completed with blood. AFP can be detected in amniotic fluid; however, that procedure is more costly and invasive. Procedures progress from least invasive to most invasive.

Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus? a. Biophysical profile b. Multiple-marker screening c. Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio d. Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum

ANS: B Maternal serum can be analyzed for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), inhibin A, and estriol. The multiple-marker screening may predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. The biophysical profile is used to evaluate fetal status during the antepartum period. Five variables are used, but none are concerned with chromosomal problems. The lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio is used to determine fetal lung maturity. The blood type and crossmatch will not predict chromosomal defects in the fetus.

Which complication could occur as a result of percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)? a. Postdates pregnancy b. Fetal bradycardia c. Placenta previa d. Uterine rupture

ANS: B PUBS is an invasive test whereby a needle is inserted into the umbilical cord to obtain blood as the basis for diagnostic testing with the guidance of ultrasound technology. The most common complication is fetal bradycardia, which is temporary. PUBS has no effect on extending the gestation of pregnancy, the development of placenta previa, or uterine rupture.

Which factor serves as a clinical indicator for a third trimester amniocentesis? a. Sex of the fetus b. Rh isoimmunization c. Placenta previa d. Placental abruption

ANS: B Rh isoimmunization is a clinical indicator for a third-trimester amniocentesis. Although an amniocentesis can determine the sex of the fetus, this is not a primary indication for a third-trimester amniocentesis. Ultrasound imaging would be indicated for evaluation of placenta previa. Ultrasound imaging would be indicated for evaluation of placental abruption.

A biophysical profile is performed on a pregnant client. The following assessments are noted: nonreactive stress test (NST), three episodes of fetal breathing movements (FBMs), limited gross movements, opening and closing of hang indicating the presence of fetal tone, and adequate amniotic fluid index (AFI) meeting criteria. What would be the correct interpretation of this test result? a. A score of 10 would indicate that the results are equivocal. b. A score of 8 would indicate normal results. c. A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be considered as a possible treatment option. d. A score of 9 would indicate reassurance.

ANS: B The biophysical profile is used to assess fetal well-being. Five categories of assessment are used in this combination test: fetal monitoring NST, evaluation of FBMs, gross movements, fetal tone, and calculation of the amniotic fluid index (AFI). A maximum of 2 points is used if criteria are met successfully in each category; thus a score in the range of 8 to 10 indicates a normal or reassuring finding. A score of 6 provides equivocal results and further testing or observation is necessary. A score of 4 or less requires immediate intervention, and birth may be warranted. The provided assessments indicate a score of 8 as the only area that has not met the stated criteria in the NST.

The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide which of the following? a. Advice to the couple b. Information about the tests c. Reassurance about fetal safety d. Assistance with decision making

ANS: B The nurse should provide the couple with all necessary information about a procedure so that the couple can make an informed decision. The nurse's role is to inform, not to advise. Ensuring fetal safety is not possible with all the diagnostic tests. To offer this is to give false reassurance to the parents. The nurse can inform the couple about potential problems so they can make an informed decision. Decision making should always lie with the couple involved. The nurse should provide information so that the couple can make an informed decision.

A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant asks the nurse to explain the vibroacoustic stimulator (VAS) test. Which should the nurse include in the response? (Select all that apply.) a. The test is invasive. b. The test uses sound to elicit fetal movements. c. The test may confirm nonreactive non-stress test results. d. The test can only be performed if contractions are present. e. Vibroacoustic stimulation can be repeated at 1-minute intervals up to three times.

ANS: B, C, E Also referred to as VAS or acoustic stimulation, the vibroacoustic stimulator (similar to an electronic larynx) is applied to the maternal abdomen over the area of the fetal head. Vibration and sound are emitted for up to 3 seconds and may be repeated. A fetus near term responds by increasing the number of gross body movements, which can be easily seen and felt. The procedure can confirm reassuring NST findings and shorten the length of time necessary to obtain NST data. The test is noninvasive and contractions do not need to be present to perform the test.

The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine whether the fetus has which? a. Hemophilia b. Sickle cell anemia c. A neural tube defect d. A normal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio

ANS: C An open neural tube allows a high level of AFP to seep into the amniotic fluid and enter the maternal serum. Hemophilia is a genetic defect and is best detected with chromosomal studies, such as chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic defect and is best detected with chromosomal studies such as chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. L/S ratios are determined with an amniocentesis and are usually done in the third trimester.

A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) based on genetic family history. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered? a. Magnesium sulfate b. Prostaglandin suppository c. RhoGAM if the client is Rh-negative d. Betamethasone

ANS: C CVS can increase the likelihood of Rh sensitization if a woman in Rh-negative. There is no indication for magnesium sulfate because it is used to stop preterm labor. There is no indication for administration of a prostaglandin suppository. Betamethasone is given to pregnant women in preterm labor to improve fetal lung maturity.

Which is the major advantage of chorionic villus sampling over amniocentesis? a. It is not an invasive procedure. b. It does not require a hospital setting. c. It requires less time to obtain results. d. It has less risk of spontaneous abortion.

ANS: C Results from chorionic villus sampling can be known within 24 to 48 hours, whereas results from amniocentesis require 2 to 4 weeks. It is an invasive procedure. The woman has to be in a hospital setting for her and the fetus to be properly assessed during and after the procedure. The risk of an abortion is at the same level for both procedures.

What is the term for a non-stress test in which there are two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 or more bpm with fetal movement in a 20-minute period? a. Positive b. Negative c. Reactive d. Nonreactive

ANS: C The non-stress test (NST) is reactive (normal) when there are two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 bpm (each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) in a 20-minute period. A positive result is not used with an NST. The contraction stress test (CST) uses positive as a result term. A negative result is not used with an NST. The CST uses negative as a result term. A nonreactive result means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal movement.

In preparing a pregnant client for a non-stress test (NST), which of the following should be included in the plan of care? a. Have the client void prior to being placed on the fetal monitor because a full bladder will interfere with results. b. Maintain NPO status prior to testing. c. Position the client for comfort, adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal heart rate. d. Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per protocol for evaluation.

ANS: C The nurse must adjust the tocotransducer to find the best location to pick up and record the fetal heart rate. Positioning the client for comfort during testing is a prime concern. Although a full bladder may affect client comfort, it will not interfere with testing results. NPO status is not required for an NST. Instead, a pregnant client should maintain her normal nutritional intake to provide energy to herself and the fetus. An infusion pump with oxytocin is required for a contraction stress test (CST).

A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a non-stress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings? a. NST positive, nonreassuring b. NST negative, reassuring c. NST reactive, reassuring d. NST nonreactive, nonreassuring

ANS: C The presence of at least three accelerations of at least 15 beats, over at least 15 seconds, over a duration of at least 20 minutes, is considered reactive and reassuring. Nonreactive testing reveals no or fewer accelerations over the same or longer period. The NST test is not recorded as positive or negative.

Which clinical conditions are associated with increased levels of alpha fetoprotein (AFP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Down syndrome b. Molar pregnancy c. Twin gestation d. Incorrect gestational age assessment of a normal fetus—estimation is earlier in the pregnancy e. Threatened abortion

ANS: C, D, E Elevated APF levels are seen in multiple gestations, underestimation of fetal age, and threatened abortion. Decreased levels are seen in Down syndrome and a molar pregnancy.

The nurse is preparing a client for a non-stress test (NST). Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Ensure that the client has a full bladder. b. Plan approximately 15 minutes for the test. c. Have the client sit in a recliner with the head elevated 45 degrees. d. Apply electronic monitoring equipment to the client's abdomen. e. Instruct the client to press an event marker every time she feels fetal movement.

ANS: C, D, E The client may be seated in a reclining chair or have her head elevated at least 45 degrees. The nurse applies external electronic monitoring equipment to the client's abdomen to detect the fetal heart rate and any contractions. The woman may be given an event marker to press each time she senses movement. Before the NST, the client should void and her baseline vital signs should be taken. The NST takes about 40 minutes, allowing for most fetal sleep-wake cycles, although the fetus may show a reassuring pattern more quickly or need more time to awaken and become active. Fifteen minutes would not allow enough time to complete the test.

What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a client hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension? a. Determine if a metabolic disorder is genetic. b. Identify the sex of the fetus. c. Identify abnormal fetal cells. d. Determine fetal lung maturity.

ANS: D During the third trimester, amniocentesis is most often performed to determine fetal lung maturity. In cases of pregnancy-induced hypertension, preterm birth may be necessary because of changes in placental perfusion. The test is done in the early portion of the pregnancy if the metabolic disorder is genetic. Amniocentesis is done early in the pregnancy to do genetic studies and determine the sex. Identification of abnormal cells is done during the early portion of the pregnancy.

Which should be considered a contraindication for transcervical chorionic villus sampling? a. Rh-negative mother b. Gestation less than 15 weeks c. Maternal age younger than 35 years d. Positive for group B Streptococcus

ANS: D Maternal infection is a risk with this procedure, and it is contraindicated if the client has an active infection in the cervix, vagina, or pelvic area. This procedure is done between 10 and 12 weeks. This procedure is usually done for women older than 35; however, if the woman is at high risk for fetal anomalies, her age is not a contraindication. The procedure can still be performed; however, Rh sensitization may occur if the mother is Rh-negative. Rho(D) immune globulin can be administered following the procedure.

Which response by the nurse is most appropriate to the statement, "This test isn't my idea, but my husband insists?" a. "It's your decision." b. "Don't worry. Everything will be fine." c. "Why don't you want to have this test?" d. "You're concerned about having this test?"

ANS: D The nurse should clarify the statement and assist the client in exploring her feelings about the test. "It's your decision" is a closed statement and does not encourage the woman to express her feelings. "Don't worry" is false reassurance and does not deal with the concerns expressed by the woman. The woman may not be able to answer "why" questions. It may also make her defensive.

A woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation is having a nonstress test. Which statement by the woman would indicate a correct understanding of the test? A. "I will need to have a full bladder for the test to be done accurately." B. "I should have my husband drive me home after the test because I may be nauseous." C. "This test will help to determine if the baby has Down syndrome or a neural tube defect." D. None of the above

D. None of the above Rationale: An ultrasound is the test that requires a full bladder. An amniocentesis would be the test that a pregnant woman should be driven home afterward. A maternal alpha-fetoprotein test is used in conjunction with unconjugated estriol levels, and human chorionic gonadotropin helps to determine Down syndrome. The nonstress test is one of the most widely used techniques to determine fetal well-being and is accomplished by monitoring fetal heart rate in conjunction with fetal activity and movements.

What is an indicator for performing a contraction stress test? D. Increased fetal movement and small for gestational age E. Maternal diabetes mellitus and postmaturity F. Adolescent pregnancy and poor prenatal care G. History of preterm labor and intrauterine growth restriction

E. Maternal diabetes mellitus and postmaturity Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is an indicator for performing a contraction stress test; the size (small for gestational age) is not an indicator. Maternal diabetes mellitus and postmaturity are two indications for performing a contraction stress test. Although adolescent pregnancy and poor prenatal care are risk factors of poor fetal outcomes, they are not indicators for performing a contraction stress test. Intrauterine growth restriction is an indicator; but history of a previous stillbirth, not preterm labor, is the other indicator.

A nonstress test (NST) is ordered on a pregnant women at 37 weeks gestation. What are the most appropriate teaching points to include when explaining the procedure to the patient? (Select all that apply) KK. After 20 minutes, a nonreactive reading indicates the test is complete. LL. Vibroacoustic stimulation may be used during the test. MM. Drinking orange juice before the test is appropriate. NN. A needle biopsy may be needed to stimulate contractions. OO. Two sensors are placed on the abdomen to measure contractions and fetal heart tones. LL. Vibroacoustic stimulation may be used during the test.

MM. Drinking orange juice before the test is appropriate. OO. Two sensors are placed on the abdomen to measure contractions and fetal heart tones. Rationale: A nonreactive test requires further evaluation. The testing period is often extended, usually for an additional 20 minutes, with the expectation that the fetal sleep state will change and the test will become reactive. During this time vibroacoustic stimulation (see later discussion) may be used to stimulate fetal activity. Vibroacoustic stimulation is often used to stimulate fetal activity if the initial NST result is nonreactive and thus hopefully shortens the time required to complete the test. Care providers sometimes suggest that the woman drink orange juice or be given glucose to increase her blood sugar level and thereby stimulate fetal movements. Although this practice is common, there is no evidence that it increases fetal activity. A needle biopsy is not part of a NST. The FHR is recorded with a Doppler transducer, and a tocodynamometer is applied to detect uterine contractions or fetal movements. The tracing is observed for signs of fetal activity and a concurrent acceleration of FHR.

A nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that the contraction stress test (CST): L. sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. M. is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. N. is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. O. is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.

N. is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. Rationale: Vibroacoustic stimulation is sometimes used with NST. CST is invasive if stimulation is by IV oxytocin but not if by nipple stimulation. No late decelerations indicate a positive CST. CST is contraindicated if the membranes have ruptured.

Prior to the patient undergoing amniocentesis, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to: X. administer RhoD immunoglobulin. Y. administer anticoagulant. Z. send the patient for a computed tomography (CT) scan before the procedure. AA. assure the mother that short-term radiation exposure is not harmful to the fetus.

X. administer RhoD immunoglobulin. Rationale: Because of the possibility of fetomaternal hemorrhage, administering RhoD immunoglobulin to the woman who is Rh negative is standard practice after an amniocentesis. Anticoagulants are not administered before amniocentesis as this would increase the risk of bleeding when the needle is inserted transabdominally. A CT is not required before amniocentesis, because the procedure is ultrasound guided. The mother is not exposed to radiation during amniocentesis.

The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what other tool would be useful in confirming the diagnosis? a. Doppler blood flow analysis b. Contraction stress test (CST) c. Amniocentesis d. Daily fetal movement counts

a. Doppler blood flow analysis

Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment: a. Has no known contraindications. b. Has fewer false-positive results. c. Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise. d. Is slightly more expensive.

a. Has no known contraindications

Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP): a. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death. b. Is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy. c. Consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index. d. Involves an invasive form of ultrasound examination.

a. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death.

In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on: a. Amniotic fluid volume. b. Location of Gestational sacs c. Placental location and maturity. d. Cervical length.

b. Location of Gestational sacs

Risk factors tend to be interrelated and cumulative in their effect. While planning the care for a laboring client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse is aware that she is at a greater risk for: a. Oligohydramnios. b. Polyhydramnios. c. Postterm pregnancy. d. Chromosomal abnormalities.

b. Polyhydramnios.

At 35 weeks of pregnancy a woman experiences preterm labor. Tocolytics are administered and she is placed on bed rest, but she continues to experience regular uterine contractions, and her cervix is beginning to dilate and efface. What would be an important test for fetal well-being at this time? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal size c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity d. Nonstress test (NST)

c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity

When nurses help their expectant mothers assess the daily fetal movement counts, they should be aware that: a. Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity. b. "Kick counts" should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hour stretch off. c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours. d. Obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as average-size women.

c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours.

A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She admits to having used cocaine "several times" during the past year and drinks alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure (BP) is 108/70 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 72 beats/min, and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics place the woman in a high risk category? a. Blood pressure, age, BMI b. Drug/alcohol use, age, family history c. Family history, blood pressure, BMI d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse

d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse

Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that: a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis. b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects. c. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome. d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.

d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.