chapter 37, 38, 39, 40, EMT Chapter37, Chapter 38 EMT, Chapter 39 Incident Management, EMT Chapter 39 Incident Management, Chapter 39 EMT, EMT Chapter40j

Level _____ hazardous materials would cause irritation on contact but only mild residual injury, even without treatment.

1

How much does one cubic foot of dirt weight?

100 lb

How long is the incubation period for Ebola

21 days

Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category?

22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency.

72-hour

JumpSTART triage is for children of what age or weight?

8; 100 lb

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____.

8; 100 lb

You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category?

A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing\The FIRST step in the START triage system is to:\move all walking patients to a designated area.

Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident?

A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot

A. 100 lb

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph.

A. 15 B. 30 Correct C. 20 D. 10

A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.

A. III B. IV C. II D. I Correct

In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort?

A. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. Correct B. The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress. C. The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. D. The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic.

Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies?

A. Vacuum splint B. Inhaled bronchodilator C. DuoDote Auto-Injector Correct D. Oral glucose

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:

A. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. B. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. Correct C. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. D. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.

General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion. B. regularly using the siren as much as possible. Correct C. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. D. assuming that other drivers will not see you.

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored:

A. based on recommendations of the health department. B. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. C. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. Correct D. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should:

A. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. B. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. Correct C. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors. D. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5¢ to 6¢ from the ground.

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:

A. cleaning. Correct B. sterilization. C. disinfection. D. high-level disinfection.

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to:

A. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. B. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. Correct C. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. D. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes.

The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________.

A. complex access

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should:

A. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety

You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should:

A. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. B. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. C. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards. D. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. Correct

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. hazardous materials gear. Correct B. safety goggles. C. face shields. D. turnout gear

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is:

A. in the driver's compartment. Correct B. on the ambulance stretcher. C. near the side or rear door. D. inside the jump kit.

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the:

A. location of the patient(s). B. caller's phone number. C. nature of the call. D. patient's medical history. Correct

The FIRST step in the START triage system is to:

A. move all walking patients to a designated area.

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then:

A. observe the scene for safety hazards. Correct B. quickly gain access to the patient. C. determine if additional units are needed. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should:

A. perform a primary assessment.

A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should:

A. place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern. B. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ. Correct C. ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ. D. use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter.

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should:

A. position the ambulance upwind. Correct B. quickly gain access to the patient. C. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. D. park downhill from the scene.

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________

A. remain with the ambulance

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means:

A. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. B. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots. Correct C. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. D. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph.

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should:

A. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. Correct B. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. C. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D. back up and take an alternate route to the scene.

The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at:

A. stop lights. B. railroad crossings. C. stop signs. D. intersections. Correct

Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________.

A. termination phase

At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because:

A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. Correct

The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________.

A. wait at the staging area until the patient is located

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident?

An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources

According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min?

Assess for bilateral radial pulses.

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where:

B. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. Correct

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should:

B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should:

B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.

The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called:

B. dissemination. Correct

The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of:

B. domestic terrorism. Correct

To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been:

B. explosive weapons. Correct

As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to:

B. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. Correct

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should:

B. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT:

B. sarin. Correct

n determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT:

B. weather conditions. Correct .

Which level of PPE do you need to wear when dealing with a level 1 or 2 toxicity level?

C

Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct?

C. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. Correct

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because:

C. a secondary explosive device may detonate. Correct

Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes:

C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. Correct

You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________.

C. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle

A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should:

C. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance

Extrication is defined as:

C. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

The incubation period for Ebola can be up to:

D. 21 days. Correct

The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have:

D. a normal pulse oximetry reading. Correct

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient:

D. after receiving approval from the incident commander.

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should:

D. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should:

D. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. Correct

Most cases of anthrax begin with:

D. flulike symptoms. Correct

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should:

D. immediately request additional resources

A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should:

D. immobilize him with a vest-style device

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________.

D. park at least 500 feet from the incident

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the:

D. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. Correct

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to:

D. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________.

D. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________.

D. remain outside the danger (hot) zone

Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents:

D. respond to antibiotics. Correct

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n):

D. single-issue group. Correct

Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone?

Decontamination

Which of the following is NOT a common role of the EMT at the scene of a HazMat incident?

Decontamination

You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do?

Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team.

What are NOT responsibilities of the medical branch?

Extrication

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system?

Extrication

The two important underlying principles of the NIMS are standardization and what?

Flexibility

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when the EMT is determining whether or not to declare a multiple-casualty incident and activate the incident command system?

How many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care?

Which of the following statements regarding communications at a disaster or multiple-casualty incident is correct?

If possible, use face-to-face communications to minimize radio traffic.

You are at the scene of multiple-casualty incident when your partner slips and falls, injuring his leg. He is alert and responds appropriately to your questions. His respirations are 20 breath/min and his radial pulses are strong. What triage category should you assign your partner?

Immediate

Which of the following statements regarding transport of patients from a multiple-casualty incident or disaster site is correct?

Immediate-priority patients should be transported two at a time.

Which of the following statements regarding storage containers and hazardous materials is correct?

In most cases, there is no correlation between the color of the container and the possible contents.

Which of the following is considered a priority when determining what needs to be done during the scene size-up?

Incident stabilization

Which toxicity level includes materials that are extremely hazardous to health?

Level 4

Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection?

Level D protection

From which of the following sources could you find out the physical and health hazards of a chemical as well as signs and symptoms of exposure to the chemical?

MSDS

Difference between natural disaster and MCI

Natural disaster often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing?

Open the airway and reassess breathing status.

which of the following is not part of the general staff defined in the ICS?

Organization

A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert, but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients?

Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black)

You are triaging victims of a train derailment. Patient A has significant bleeding from an abdominal injury. Patient B has several simple fractures of the femur and ulna. Patient C is conscious and complaining of head and neck pain. Patient D is in cardiac arrest. How would you prioritize these patients?

Patient A has significant bleeding from an abdominal injury and should be tagged as red. Patient B has relatively minor fractures and should be tagged as green. Patient C likely has a neck injury and should be tagged as yellow. Patient D will likely not survive and should be tagged as black.

Which type of drum is used for the storage of corrosives such as acids, bases, or oxidizers?

Polyethylene

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the treatment supervisor?

Primary assessment

Which of the following is a member of the command staff?

Public information officer

Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident?

Sight and sound

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct?

Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical.

Which of the following is a requirement when labeling pesticide bags?

The EPA establishment number

Define dissemination

The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent

Cleaning versus disinfection versus sterilization

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called cleaning

What is freelancing?

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident

Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct?

Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.

According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)?

Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min

Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs?

Water-reactive solids

What SPO2 finding should the EMT expect of a patient exposed to cyanide

a normal pulse oximetry reading

At an MVC for a complex extrication, when should you provide care and enter the vehicle?

after receiving approval from the incident commander.

Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of:

agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

What are points of distribution (PODs) used for?

antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should:

assess for a distal pulse.

When a rehabilitation area is established at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, it should:

be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself.

Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should:

begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

What should you do upon arriving at a Hazmat scene?

carefully assess the situation

Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should:

carefully assess the situation.

Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been:

communications.

A carboy is a container that would MOST likely be used to store and transport:

corrosives

A 49-year-old man has been removed from his overturned tanker, which was carrying a hazardous material. The tank ruptured and he was exposed to the material. When rescue personnel bring him to the decontamination area, they note that he is unconscious and has slow, shallow breathing. They should:

cut away all of the patient's clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can.

You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. As you approach the scene, you can see multiple patients, some walking and others who are still in their vehicles. You should:

declare a multiple-casualty incident and request additional resources.

The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazardous material is called:

decontamination.

During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the incident commander would MOST likely:

designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions.

What is the bombing of Centennial Park in 1996 an example of?

domestic terrorism

The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to:

ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.

The primary duty of the triage division is to:

ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment.

As the first-arriving senior EMT at the scene of an incident, you should perform a scene size-up and then:

establish command.

Injuries or conditions that would be classified as first priority (red tag; immediate) include all of the following, EXCEPT:

fractures of multiple long bones.

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called:

freelancing.

Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to:

give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.

In the incident command system, organizational divisions may include sections, branches, divisions, and:

groups.

A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her:

has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.

A pediatric patient who is breathing 12 breaths/min would be categorized as:

immediate.

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should:

immediately check for a pulse.

Upon arrival of an MVC you identify three patients, you should do what next? Request law enforcement, request additional units, begin triage, or call medical control

immediately request additional resources

Where is the least practical place to store a portable O2 cylinder?

in the driver's compartment.

Most ambulance crashes occur where?

intersections.

In order to accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to:

keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.

What does it mean to maintain a cushion of safety?

keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.

General principles for approaching a potential HazMat incident include:

maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars.

Which of the following tasks should be done during triage?

moving patients to treatment area, and establishing a morgue ( if needed)

As a triage supervisor, you:

must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.

Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster:

often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

At a very large incident, the __________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls.

operations

How far away do you park at a trench op?

park at least 500 feet from the incident

You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eight people. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient that you triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury and her pulse is weak and thready. You should:

place a red tag on her and continue triaging.

The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the:

planning section.

Upon arrival at a search and rescue scene, the EMS crew should do what?

prepare the equipment to carry to the patient

If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the incident commander should consider:

relinquishing command to someone with more experience.

You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should:

remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.

During a HazMat incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patients are removed from the danger zone, you should:

remain where you are and have the patients brought to you.

A Level 4 hazardous material:

requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard.

When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area:

secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered.

According to the JumpSTART triage system, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands, including children with special needs:

should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage.

What does the use of lights & sirens mean?

signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.

The __________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident.

staging

A critical function of the safety officer is to:

stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.

After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazardous materials team and then:

take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others.

The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is:

the Emergency Response Guidebook.

After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT:

the recommended transport destination for each patient.

A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless:

there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.

The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities.

transportation

Command functions under the incident command system include all of the following, EXCEPT:

triage officer.

The MOST appropriate location to park your ambulance at a HazMat incident is:

upwind at least 100 feet from the incident.

In which control zone would you find the decontamination area?

warm zone

A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident.

yellow

Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a __________ triage tag at a mass-casualty incident.

yellow