Chapter 7- a&p1
106) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the A) manubrium. B) body. C) xiphoid process. D) angle. E) tubercle.
A
118) The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the A) acromial end. B) superior border. C) sternal end. D) scapular spine. E) medial border.
A
124) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) glenoid cavity B) acetabulum C) scapular cavity D) scapular notch E) rotator cup
A
129) The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements, called A) girdles. B) arches. C) scapulae. D) anchors. E) insertions.
A
13) The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the ________ suture. A) coronal B) lambdoid C) squamous D) sagittal E) frontal
A
132) The coracoid process is a part of which bone? A) scapula B) clavicle C) ischium D) ulna E) sternum
A
134) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the A) olecranon fossa. B) coronoid fossa. C) radial fossa. D) intertubercular groove. E) radial groove.
A
139) Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial ________ accommodates the head of the radius in the radioulnar joint. A) notch B) tendon C) ligament D) groove E) muscle
A
149) The bones that give the wrist a wide range of motion are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges.
A
15) Which of these is not one of the bones of the face? A) frontal B) maxilla C) vomer D) mandible E) zygomatic
A
162) The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the A) ilium. B) ischium. C) pubis. D) femur. E) patella.
A
163) The sacrum articulates with the A) ilium. B) ischium. C) pubis. D) ilium and ischium. E) ischium and pubis.
A
167) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the A) ischial tuberosities. B) posterior inferior iliac spines. C) iliac crests. D) obturator foramen. E) inferior rami of the pubis.
A
17) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) articular tubercle. D) coronoid process. E) middle nasal conchae.
A
179) The lateral bulge at your ankle is a projection from the A) fibula. B) femur. C) tibia. D) calcaneus. E) talus.
A
19) Of the following bones, which is unpaired? A) vomer B) maxillary C) palatine D) nasal E) None of the answers is correct.
A
193) Another name for the great toe is A) hallux. B) pollex. C) hyoid. D) lateral cuneiform. E) phalanx.
A
195) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the A) talus. B) fibula. C) patella. D) calcaneus. E) coxal bone.
A
20) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured? A) ethmoid bone B) sphenoid bone C) temporal bone D) mandible E) parietal bone
A
200) Identify the bones of the cranium. (Module 7.2A) A) occipital bone, frontal bone, sphenoid, ethmoid, and the paired parietal and temporal bones B) frontal bone, occipital bone, and the paired parietal and temporal bones C) mandible, vomer, and the paired lacrimal, zygomatic, and nasal bones D) mandible, maxillae, nasal bones, and vomer E) sphenoid, ethmoid, vomer, zygomatic, and the lacrimal bones
A
205) Identify the following bones as either a facial bone or a cranial bone: vomer, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, and inferior nasal conchae. (Module 7.3B) A) The vomer and inferior nasal conchae are facial bones; the ethmoid, sphenoid, and temporal bones are cranial bones. B) The vomer, ethmoid, sphenoid, and inferior nasal conchae are facial bones; the temporal bones are cranial bones. C) The inferior nasal conchae are facial bones; the vomer, ethmoid, sphenoid, and temporal bones are cranial bones. D) The vomer, inferior nasal conchae, and the sphenoid are facial bones; the ethmoid and temporal bones are cranial bones. E) The sphenoid, ethmoid, and temporal bones are facial bones; the vomer and inferior nasal conchae are cranial bones.
A
21) The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) vomer. B) mandible. C) maxilla. D) lacrimal bone. E) frontal bone.
A
211) What is the function of the internal acoustic meatus? (Module 7.4D) A) It serves as a passageway for blood vessels and the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves. B) It serves as a passageway for the hypoglossal nerve. C) It serves as a hollow space that lightens the weight of the cranium. D) It serves the hollow space of the external ear canal ending at the tympanic membrane. E) It contains the tooth sockets for the upper teeth.
A
215) Identify the bone containing the optic canals, and cite the structures using this passageway. (Module 7.6A) A) sphenoid; optic nerve and the ophthalmic artery B) sphenoid; optic nerve and the facial artery C) ethmoid; optic nerve and the ophthalmic artery D) ethmoid; optic nerve and the facial artery E) palatine; optic nerve and the facial artery
A
219) Identify the bones of the orbital complex. (Module 7.7A) A) frontal, sphenoid, zygomatic, palatine, maxilla, lacrimal, and ethmoid B) frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital C) frontal, zygomatic, and maxilla D) frontal, lacrimal, zygomatic, and nasal E) frontal, sphenoid, parietal, temporal, nasal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic
A
222) Identify the major fontanelles. (Module 7.9A) A) anterior, posterior, sphenoidal, and mastoid fontanelles B) anterior, posterior, superior, and inferior fontanelles C) anterior, posterior, medial, and lateral fontanelles D) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital fontanelles E) coronal, sagittal, squamous, and lambdoidal fontanelles
A
224) What is the importance of the secondary curves of the spine? (Module 7.10A) A) The secondary curves allow us to balance our body weight to permit an upright posture. B) The secondary curves surround the lungs and expand allowing us to breathe. C) The secondary curves accommodate the thoracic organs. D) The secondary curves accommodates the abdominopelvic organs. E) The secondary curves enclose the spinal cord.
A
228) In which region of the vertebral column would you find a vertebra with a large foramen and two smaller foramina within the transverse processes? (Module 7.11B) A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal
A
238) Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity? (Module 7.16C) A) humerus B) sternum C) clavicle D) radius E) ulna
A
24) The alveolar process of the maxilla A) supports the upper teeth. B) supports the lower teeth. C) anchors the tongue. D) is the attachment site for several facial muscles E) None of the answers is correct.
A
242) Name four different bone markings associated with the proximal portion of the ulna. (Module 7.17C) A) olecranon, trochlear notch, coronoid process, and radial notch B) trochlea, medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle, coronoid fossa C) olecranon fossa, trochlea, greater tubercle, lesser tubercle D) ulnar notch, head of the ulna, olecranon, ulnar styloid process E) distal radio-ulnar notch, ulnar notch, interosseous membrane, radial notch
A
246) Which three bones fuse to make up the hip bone? (Module 7.19A) A) ischium, ilium, and pubis B) ilium, sacrum, and coccyx C) sacrum, coccyx, and pubis D) ischium, ilium, and acetabulum E) ilium, pelvis, and acetabulum
A
25) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the A) mastoid process. B) styloid process. C) occipital condyle. D) condyloid process. E) temporal process.
A
257) Ten-year-old Joey jumps off the back porch, lands on his right heel, and breaks his foot. Which foot bone is most likely broken? (Module 7.23C) A) calcaneus B) navicular C) cuboid D) talus E) medial cuneiform
A
32) The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the A) mandibular fossa. B) mastoid process. C) coronoid process. D) lateral palatine process. E) cribriform plate.
A
46) A membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain is attached to the A) crista galli. B) pterygoid processes. C) styloid process. D) perpendicular plate. E) cribriform plate.
A
49) The "Turkish saddle" is a feature of which bone? A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) palatine D) mandible E) hyoid
A
50) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the ________ bone. A) zygomatic B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) frontal E) maxillary
A
60) The hyoid bone A) attaches to tongue muscles. B) contains greater and lesser condyles. C) is inferior to the larynx. D) is one of the auditory ossicles. E) directly articulate with the mandible.
A
65) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true, except that A) the bones of the skull develop from a single ossification focus. B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue. C) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain. D) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements. E) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5.
A
69) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea lasting three days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she A) checks the anterior fontanel for depression. B) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper. C) checks the infant's reflexes. D) questions the mother about normal feeding habits. E) None of the answers is correct.
A
71) ________ curves of the spine develop late in fetal development. A) Primary B) Secondary C) Compensation D) Accommodation E) All of the answers are correct.
A
73) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, those that do not appear until several months later? A) cervical and lumbar B) thoracic and lumbar C) sacral and lumbar D) thoracic and sacral E) cervical and sacral
A
75) The vertebral arch A) supports the articular, spinous, and transverse processes. B) is formed by the two pedicles. C) is formed by the two laminae. D) is separated by the vertebral disks. E) is also called the vertebral foramina.
A
8) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull, except between A) the mandible and the temporal bone. B) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone. C) the occipital bone and the parietal bone. D) the vomer and the zygomatic bone. E) None of these; they are all sutures.
A
95) The second cervical vertebra is usually called the A) axis. B) atlas. C) axiom. D) vertebra prominens. E) odontoid process.
A
Figure 7-5 184) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) greater trochanter B) linea aspera C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lateral condyle
A
10) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the superior medial portion of her left zygomatic bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have? A) a broken jaw B) a black eye C) a headache at the back of the head D) a sore chest E) a sore back
B
103) The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae. A) spinous processes B) transverse processes C) laminae D) pedicles E) auric arches
B
108) The shallow indentation on the superior surface of the manubrium is called the A) xiphoid process. B) jugular notch. C) tubercle. D) costal facet. E) capitulum.
B
119) Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch? A) medial end of scapula B) medial end of clavicle C) lateral end of scapula D) lateral end of clavicle E) None of these are close to the jugular notch.
B
12) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture. A) coronal B) lambdoid C) squamous D) sagittal E) frontal
B
126) Which of these constitutes the pectoral girdle? A) clavicles only B) clavicles and scapulae C) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus D) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna E) clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones
B
127) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the A) clavicle articulates with the humerus. B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum. C) coxal bones articulate with the femur. D) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum. E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.
B
14) The small bones that form the medial wall of the eye socket are the A) ethmoid bones. B) lacrimal bones. C) lacerum bones. D) nasal bones. E) zygomatic bones.
B
156) The bumpy bone on the medial side of your wrist is actually the ________ bone. A) capitate B) pisiform C) trapezium D) hamate E) proximal
B
158) Which bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum? A) sacrum B) femur C) humerus D) tibia E) fibula
B
159) Each one of the coxal bones is formed by the fusion of ________ bones. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6
B
165) Each coxal bone consists of which three fused bones? A) ulna, radius, and humerus B) ilium, ischium, and pubis C) femur, tibia, and fibula D) hamate, capitate, and trapezium E) femur, patella, and tibia
B
170) The pelvic organs are mostly found within the A) ischial spine. B) true pelvis. C) ischial fossa. D) obturator foramen. E) pubic symphysis.
B
172) The space enclosed by the true pelvis is called the A) greater pelvis. B) pelvic inlet. C) pelvic brim. D) pelvic meatus. E) sacroiliac.
B
174) Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis? A) broad pelvis (low pelvis) B) coccyx points anteriorly C) enlarged pelvic outline D) bone markings not very prominent E) a more circular pelvic inlet
B
176) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the A) skull. B) pelvis. C) sacrum. D) teeth. E) thoracic cage.
B
177) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the A) humerus. B) femur. C) tibia. D) fibula. E) coxal bone.
B
18) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) articular tubercle. D) coronoid process. E) middle nasal conchae.
B
180) The medial malleolus is found on the A) femur. B) tibia. C) fibula. D) patella. E) calcaneus.
B
181) The medial border of the fibula is bound to the ________ by the interosseous membrane. A) femur B) tibia C) patella D) navicular E) femur and tibia
B
182) The largest bone of the lower limb is the A) tibia. B) femur. C) fibula. D) humerus. E) calcaneus.
B
187) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) greater trochanter B) linea aspera C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lateral condyle
B
189) Your ________ is your shinbone. A) fibula B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus E) talus
B
194) The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure? A) cuboid bone B) calcaneus C) talus D) lesser trochanter E) None of the answers is correct.
B
196) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured? A) his hand B) his foot C) his ankle D) his knee E) his hip
B
209) What bone processes from the zygomatic arch? (Module 7.4B) A) The alveolar part of the zygomatic bone and the alveolar process of the temporal bone. B) The temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone. C) The alveolar part of the zygomatic bone and the petrous part of the temporal bone. D) The zygomatic process of the zygomatic bone and the petrous part of the temporal bone. E) The lateral process of the zygomatic bone and the medial process of the temporal bone.
B
213) Which foramen provides a passageway for nerves innervating the jaw? (Module 7.5B) A) foramen lacerum B) foramen ovale C) stylomastoid foramen D) jugular foramen E) foramen magnum
B
216) Which bone contains the sella turcica? What structure is found within the sella turcica depression? (Module 7.6B) A) sphenoid; hypothalamus B) sphenoid; pituitary gland C) ethmoid; hypothalamus D) ethmoid; pituitary gland E) palatine; epithalamus
B
225) Name the major components of a typical vertebra. (Module 7.10B) A) intervertebral discs, intervertebral foramina, and vertebral canal B) articular processes, vertebral arch, and vertebral body C) vertebral head, vertebral body, vertebral discs D) vertebral body, vertebral curves, intervertebral foramina E) intervertebral discs, intervertebral foramina, vertebral arch
B
230) How many vertebrae are in the lumbar region of the vertebral column? (Module 7.12A) A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 19
B
234) Why are ribs 11 and 12 called floating ribs? (Module 7.14B) A) They do not connect with the body of the sternum but they do attach to the xiphoid process. B) They do not connect with the sternum at all. C) They connect to the sternum by shared costal cartilages. D) They connect to the sternum by individual costal cartilages. E) They are the only ribs that articulate with the thoracic vertebrae.
B
235) Along with the ribs and sternum, what other bones make up the thoracic cage? (Module 7.14C) A) 7 cervical vertebrae B) 12 thoracic vertebrae C) 5 lumbar vertebrae D) 7 cervical and 12 thoracic vertebrae E) 12 thoracic and 5 lumbar vertebrae
B
240) Identify the two rounded projections on either side of the elbow, and state to which bone they belong. (Module 7.17A) A) humerus; lateral malleolus and medial malleolus B) humerus; lateral and medial epicondyles C) ulna; lateral malleolus and medial malleolus D) ulna; lateral and medial epicondyles E) radius; lateral malleolus and medial malleolus
B
248) When you are seated, which part of the hip bone bears your body's weight? (Module 7.19C) A) ischial spine B) ischial tuberosity C) acetabulum D) iliac tuberosity E) iliac fossa
B
250) Name the bones of the pelvis. (Module 7.20A) A) sacrum and coccyx B) sacrum, coccyx, and the hip bones C) sacrum, coccyx, femur, and the hip bones D) coccyx and the hip bones E) lumbar vertebrae, coccyx, and the hip bones
B
254) Identify the sesamoid bone of the lower limb. (Module 7.22C) A) femur B) patella C) calcaneus D) fibula E) tibia
B
255) Identify the tarsal bones. (Module 7.23A) A) scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, calcaneus, talus, navicular B) calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, and three cuneiform bones C) scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate D) trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate, phalanx, pollex E) hamate, phalanx, pollex, and three cuneiform bones
B
34) Identify the opening surrounded by the occipital bone. A) foramen rotundum B) foramen magnum C) foramen ovale D) foramen spinosum E) foramen lacerum
B
40) What is the name of the structure labeled "8"? A) sella turcica B) foramen ovale C) foramen rotundum D) carotid canal E) foramen spinosum
B
43) The occipital ________ are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra. A) processes B) condyles C) foramina D) nuchal lines E) canals
B
44) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland. A) lacrimal B) pituitary C) olfactory D) nasal E) sellar
B
51) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex except the ________ bone. A) lacrimal B) nasal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) frontal
B
68) While visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is the A) sphenoidal fontanel. B) anterior fontanel. C) occipital fontanel. D) mastoid fontanel. E) cushion spot.
B
7) The skull contains ________ bones. A) 32 B) 22 C) 42 D) 12 E) None of the answers is correct.
B
72) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the A) vertebral arch. B) vertebral body. C) articular processes. D) intervertebral space. E) None of the answers is correct.
B
76) The primary spinal curves A) include the cervical and lumbar curves. B) include the thoracic and sacral curves. C) include all four spinal curves. D) include the cervical and thoracic curves. E) None of the answers is correct.
B
85) The odontoid process, also called the dens, is found on the A) atlas. B) axis. C) sacrum. D) coccyx. E) ribs.
B
87) The ribs articulate with the A) cervical vertebrae. B) thoracic vertebrae. C) lumbar vertebrae. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct.
B
93) The ligamentum nuchae A) attaches the ribs to the thoracic vertebrae. B) helps to hold the head in an upright position. C) attaches the atlas to the occipital bone of the skull. D) attaches the sternum to the ribs. E) stabilizes the lumbar vertebrae.
B
94) The first cervical vertebra is better known as the A) axis. B) atlas. C) axiom. D) vertebra prominens. E) odontoid process.
B
96) The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31
B
Figure 7-1 38) Identify the sphenoid bone. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
B
Figure 7-4 140) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) olecranon process B) medial epicondyle C) lateral epicondyle D) greater tubercle E) trochlea
B
109) Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium? A) scapula B) clavicle C) sternum D) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2 E) all the vertebrae
C
114) Ribs 8 to 10 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum. A) hemi-attaching ribs B) vertebrosternal ribs C) vertebrochondral ribs D) vertebral ribs E) floating ribs
C
115) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) scapula B) tibia C) sacrum D) clavicle E) metacarpals
C
117) The clavicle articulates with the scapula A) distally with the coracoid process. B) distally with the glenoid cavity. C) distally with the acromion. D) distally with the manubrium. E) proximally with the coracoid cavity.
C
125) What bone articulates on the structure labeled "2"? A) femur B) clavicle C) humerus D) manubrium E) radius
C
128) Which of the following is most commonly fractured in a fall? A) manubrium B) hyoid C) clavicle D) navicular E) glenoid cavity
C
133) Which of the following features is located near the proximal end of the humerus? A) medial epicondyle B) lateral epicondyle C) greater tubercle D) olecranon fossa E) capitulum
C
138) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius. A) distal B) proximal C) medial D) superior E) None of the answers is correct.
C
141) Around which structure does the radius rotate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
C
144) Which structure articulates with the glenoid cavity? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7
C
146) The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint. A) olecranon process B) coronoid process C) styloid process D) radial tuberosity E) capitulum
C
148) The bones that form the palm are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges.
C
154) Each hand has ________ phalangeal bones. A) 15 B) 20 C) 14 D) 18 E) 10
C
155) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured? A) foot B) forearm C) wrist D) hand E) ankle
C
16) The inferior nasal conchae A) attach muscles that move the eye. B) contain the nerves for olfaction. C) create turbulence in the nasal passageways. D) protect the pituitary gland. E) attach muscles that move the eyelids.
C
160) The largest component coxal bone is the A) pubis. B) ischium. C) ilium. D) femur. E) tibia.
C
166) Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles? A) lunate surfaces B) greater sciatic notch C) gluteal lines D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct.
C
171) Which of these is not one of the boundaries of the pelvic outlet? A) coccyx B) ischial spines C) iliac crest D) inferior border of the pubic symphysis E) ischial tuberosities
C
173) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis? A) heavy, rough textured bone B) heart-shaped pelvic inlet C) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees D) relatively deep iliac fossa E) ilia extend far above sacrum
C
175) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet. A) larger B) longer C) narrower D) wider E) deeper
C
178) Powerful hip muscles attach posteriorly to the femur along the A) greater trochanter. B) lesser trochanter. C) linea aspera. D) medial epicondyle. E) fovea capitis.
C
191) Which of the following is the heel bone? A) talus B) navicular C) calcaneus D) cuboid E) patella
C
197) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition? A) a loose Achilles tendon B) weak tarsometatarsal joints C) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals D) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia E) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals
C
198) Compared to the hand, the foot A) has more phalanges. B) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals. C) has a more restricted range of movement. D) contains arches that help distribute body weight. E) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones.
C
201) Describe the functions of the facial bones. (Module 7.2B) A) The facial bones protect the anterior portion of the brain. B) The facial bones protect the posterior portion of the brain and provide a site of attachment for neck muscles. C) The facial bones protect and support the entrances to the digestive and respiratory tracts and provide a site of attachment for muscles of facial expression. D) The facial bones provide a site of attachment for the muscles that move the eyes, jaw, and head. E) The facial bones form the lower jaw and provide a site of attachment for muscles that allow speaking and chewing.
C
204) Identify the facial bones. (Module 7.3A) A) occipital bone, frontal bone, sphenoid, ethmoid, and the paired parietal and temporal bones B) frontal bone, occipital bone, and the paired parietal and temporal bones C) the paired nasal, lacrimal, palatine, zygomatic, maxillae, and inferior nasal conchae, and the unpaired vomer and mandible D) the paired nasal, lacrimal, zygomatic, and the unpaired vomer E) sphenoid, ethmoid, vomer, mandible, and the maxillae
C
207) Quincy suffers a hit to the skull that fractures the right superior lateral surface of his cranium. Which bone is fractured? (Module 7.3D) A) right temporal bone B) occipital bone C) right parietal bone D) right sphenoid bone E) frontal bone
C
210) Name each meatus found in the temporal bone. (Module 7.4C) A) internal acoustic meatus B) external acoustic meatus C) internal acoustic meatus and external acoustic meatus D) hypoglossal meatus and internal acoustic meatus E) hypoglossal meatus and glossopharyngeal meatus
C
212) Identify the bone containing the carotid canal, and name the structure that runs through this passageway. (Module 7.5A) A) sphenoid bone; internal carotid artery B) sphenoid bone; external carotid vein C) temporal bone; internal carotid artery D) temporal bone; external carotid artery E) occipital bone; internal carotid vein
C
217) Identify the bone containing the cribriform plate. What is significant about this structure? (Module 7.6C) A) sphenoid; it forms the floor of the cranium and the roof of the nasal cavity and olfactory foramina run through it B) sphenoid; it forms the posterior part of the hard palate C) ethmoid; it forms the floor of the cranium and the roof of the nasal cavity and olfactory foramina run through it D) ethmoid; it forms the posterior part of the hard palate E) palatine; it forms the posterior part of the hard palate
C
221) Name the foramina of the mandible. (Module 7.8A) A) mylohyoid foramina and the coronoid foramina B) coronoid foramina and condylar foramina C) mental foramina and mandibular foramina D) mylohyoid foramina and the mental foramina E) coronoid foramina and the mental foramina
C
226) To which part of the vertebra do the intervertebral discs attach? (Module 7.10C) A) spinous process B) transverse process C) vertebral body D) pedicle E) superior articular processes
C
23) The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone? A) zygomatic B) vomer C) temporal D) parietal E) occipital
C
233) How are vertebrosternal ribs distinguished from vertebrochondral ribs? (Module 7.14A) A) Vertebrosternal ribs connect to the sternum by shared costal cartilages, whereas vertebrochondral ribs do not connect to the sternum. B) Vertebrosternal ribs do not connect to the sternum, whereas vertebrochondral ribs connect to the sternum by shared costal cartilages. C) Vertebrosternal ribs are connected to the sternum by individual costal cartilages, whereas vertebrochondral ribs are connected to the sternum by shared costal cartilages. D) Vertebrosternal ribs are connected to the sternum by shared costal cartilages, whereas vertebrochondral ribs are connected to the sternum by individual costal cartilages. E) Vertebrosternal ribs are connected to the sternum at the manubrium, whereas vertebrochondral ribs are connected to the sternum at the body.
C
237) Name the bones of the pectoral girdles. (Module 7.16A) A) scapula and humerus B) clavicle and humerus C) scapula and clavicle D) hip and femur E) hip and humerus
C
243) Name the carpal bones. (Module 7.18A) A) scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, calcaneus, talus, navicular B) calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, and three cuneiform bones C) scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate D) trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate, phalanx, pollex E) hamate, phalanx, pollex, and three cuneiform bones
C
249) Which bones articulate at the sacro-iliac joint? (Module 7.19D) A) sacrum and ischium B) sacrum and pubis C) sacrum and ilium D) ilium and ischium E) ilium and coccyx
C
252) Identify the bones of the lower limb. (Module 7.22A) A) humerus, radius, and ulna B) femur, radius, and ulna C) femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsal bones, metatarsal bones, and phalanges D) femur, tibia, fibula, patella, carpal bones, metacarpal bones, and phalanges E) humerus, tibia, fibula, radius, ulna, patella
C
26) The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment for A) muscles that stabilize the skull at the vertebral column. B) muscles that open and close the eye. C) muscles that close the mouth. D) muscles that turn the head. E) both muscles that stabilize the skull at the vertebral column and muscles that turn the head.
C
33) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone, except the A) mastoid process. B) petrous portion. C) sella turcica. D) internal acoustic meatus. E) mandibular fossa.
C
35) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the A) anterior and posterior nuchal lines. B) anterior and superior nuchal lines. C) inferior and superior nuchal lines. D) medial and lateral nuchal lines. E) cranial and caudal nuchal lines.
C
39) Identify the internal occipital crest. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
C
4) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) calvarial C) coronal D) squamous E) sagittal
C
42) Which structure encloses the pituitary gland? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8
C
47) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the A) maxilla. B) crista galli. C) sphenoid. D) ethmoid. E) cribriform.
C
52) What organ is located in the lacrimal fossa? A) the pituitary gland B) the inner ear C) tear gland D) the lacrimal ramus E) the frontal sinus
C
55) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) nasal bones. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone and the palatine bones C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the vomer bone. D) vomer and sphenoid bone. E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the sphenoid bone.
C
56) Which of the following is true of the orbital complex? A) Nasolacrimal canal is formed by maxillae and ethmoid bone. B) Lacrimal fossa carry mucus from one sinus to another sinus. C) Infra-orbital foramen are formed by maxillae. D) Lacrimal sulcus allows passage of the optic nerve out of the orbit. E) Supra-orbital notch carries tears from the nasal cavity to the orbit.
C
57) The nasal complex includes the bones that enclose the nasal cavity and the ________ sinuses. A) frontal B) sphenoid C) paranasal D) palatine E) maxillary
C
58) What process is the insertion site for the temporalis muscle? A) ramus of the mandible B) condylar process C) coronoid process D) mastoid process E) styloid process
C
62) You witness your friend Greg in a fist-fight. He is hit in the jaw and when you look at him, his face appears misaligned. You drive him to the emergency department and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken A) temporal bone. B) zygomatic bone. C) mandible. D) external auditory meatus. E) clavicle.
C
63) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the A) stylohyoid ligaments. B) hyoid bone. C) condylar process of the mandible. D) alveolar process of the mandible. E) greater cornu of the hyoid bone.
C
67) The brain stops enlarging and the cranial sutures ossify by age A) 3. B) 2. C) 5. D) 1. E) 4.
C
77) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal
C
82) The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and A) dorsal. B) ventral. C) coccygeal. D) axial. E) None of the answers is correct.
C
86) The vertebra prominens is another name for the ________ vertebra. A) first cervical B) second cervical C) seventh cervical D) first thoracic E) fifth lumbar
C
89) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of A) transverse processes. B) transverse foramina. C) facets for the articulation of ribs. D) notched spinous processes. E) costal cartilages.
C
91) Gesturing "no" with the head does not depends on which of the following? A) atlas B) axis C) vertebra prominens D) transverse ligament E) odontoid process
C
92) Normal human skeletons contain ________ cervical vertebrae. A) 11 B) 6 C) 7 D) 19 E) 10
C
Figure 7-2 78) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) transverse process B) lamina C) pedicle D) vertebral body E) spinous process
C
Figure 7-2 84) Where is the spinal cord located? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7
C
Figure 7-3 121) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) acromion B) scapular process C) spine D) coracoid process E) scapular notch
C
1) Which of the following is not part of the axial division of the skeletal system? A) skull B) auditory ossicles C) hyoid bone D) pectoral girdle E) vertebral column
D
100) All of the following are true of the sacrum except that it A) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs. B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles. C) articulates with the pelvic girdle. D) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae. E) articulates with the coccyx.
D
104) Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs. A) 2 B) 6 C) 10 D) 12 E) 24
D
107) The floating ribs are A) ribs 11-12. B) also called vertebrosternal ribs. C) ribs 1-7. D) ribs 11-12 and also called vertebral ribs. E) also called vertebrosternal ribs and ribs 1-7.
D
11) The bony compartment that houses the brain is called the A) suture. B) skull. C) frontal bone. D) cranium. E) occiput.
D
112) Vertebrosternal ribs are directly connected to the sternum by A) tubercles. B) costal facets. C) xiphoid processes. D) costal cartilages. E) the manubrium.
D
122) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) spine B) scapular process C) acromion D) coracoid process E) scapular notch
D
130) Two prominent features of the clavicle are the medial sternal end and the lateral ________ end. A) humeral B) glenoid C) coracoid D) acromial E) subscapular
D
136) Which of the following surface features does the ulna not possess? A) olecranon B) styloid process C) trochlear notch D) capitulum E) head
D
137) The surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the A) radial groove. B) medial epicondyle. C) lateral epicondyle. D) deltoid tuberosity. E) coronoid process.
D
142) When the arm is extended at the elbow, which structure accepts the olecranon? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9
D
143) Identify the place where the humerus often fractures. A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7
D
145) Which of the following is not associated with the radius? A) head B) tuberosity C) styloid process D) coronoid process E) neck
D
147) The distal radius articulates with the head of the ulna at the A) styloid process. B) radial tuberosity. C) olecranon. D) ulnar notch. E) coracoid process.
D
152) Which of the following is not an upper limb bone? A) ulna B) radius C) humerus D) metatarsals E) carpals
D
153) There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones in the wrist. A) 2; 8 B) 10; 3 C) 4; 2 D) 8; 2 E) 6; 2
D
157) The anatomical term for the thumb is A) talus. B) triquetrum. C) hallux. D) pollex. E) patella.
D
161) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the A) anterior iliac spine. B) acetabulum. C) posterior superior iliac spine. D) iliac crest. E) iliac notch.
D
164) The pubic and ischial rami encircle the A) pubic symphysis. B) lesser sciatic notch. C) greater sciatic notch. D) obturator foramen. E) acetabulum.
D
168) The two pubic bones join medially at the A) pectineal line. B) coronoid process. C) pubic tubercle. D) pubic symphysis. E) auricular surface.
D
169) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis? A) sacrum B) coccyx C) coxal bone D) lumbar vertebrae E) both coccyx and lumbar vertebrae
D
183) Which of these bones was not formed by the fusion of several bones? A) coccyx B) coxal bones C) sacrum D) femur E) None of the answers is correct.
D
185) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) greater trochanter B) lesser trochanter C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lateral condyle
D
188) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 9
D
190) The tarsus contains ________ bones. A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8
D
199) How many bones comprise the skull and its associated bones? (Module 7.1A) A) 8 B) 14 C) 22 D) 29 E) 54
D
2) Which of the following is not a function of the axial skeleton? A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the axial skeleton B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration D) provides an attachment for calf muscles E) None of the answers is correct.
D
203) Name the sutures that mark the boundaries of each parietal bone. (Module 7.2D) A) coronal and squamous sutures B) coronal and sagittal sutures C) squamous, sagittal, and lambdoid sutures D) squamous, coronal, and lambdoid sutures E) squamous, coronal, and sagittal sutures
D
206) The mandible articulates with what other cranial bones? (Module 7.3C) A) left and right parietal bones B) sphenoid and ethmoid bones C) left and right zygomatic bones D) left and right temporal bones E) maxillae
D
220) Name the complex � nasal, orbital, or both � where you find each of the following bones: frontal, maxilla, palatine, and nasal bones. (Module 7.7C) A) frontal: orbital; maxilla: both; palatine: orbital; nasal: nasal B) frontal: orbital; maxilla: both; palatine: both; nasal: both C) frontal: both; maxilla: orbital; palatine: nasal; nasal: nasal D) frontal: both; maxilla: both; palatine: both; nasal: nasal E) frontal: nasal; maxilla: nasal; palatine: orbital; nasal: both
D
223) What purposes do fontanelles serve? (Module 7.9B) A) Fontanelles form the developing cranial meninges. B) Fontanelles form the bones of the cranium during development. C) Fontanelles develop into foramen as bones fuse during childhood. D) Fontanelles permit flexibility of the skull during childbirth and allow room for the brain to enlarge during infancy and early childhood. E) Fontanelles are important sites of attachment for muscles of the face, head, and neck.
D
231) Which bone of the axial skeleton joins with the hip bones of the appendicular skeleton? (Module 7.13A) A) coccyx B) 5th lumbar vertebra C) axis D) sacrum E) 12th thoracic vertebra
D
239) How are the pectoral girdles of the appendicular skeleton attached to the axial skeleton? (Module 7.16D) A) at the acromioclavicular joint B) at the glenohumoral joint C) at the glenosternal joint D) at the sternoclavicular joint E) at the glenoclavicular joint
D
241) Which bone of the forearm is positioned laterally when in the anatomical position? (Module 7.17B) A) humerus B) sternum C) clavicle D) radius E) ulna
D
244) Define phalanges. (Module 7.18B) A) Bones of the wrist. B) Bones that make up the shoulder. C) Bones of the hand. D) Bones that make up the fingers or toes. E) Bones that make up the ankle.
D
247) Describe the acetabulum. (Module 7.19B) A) The acetabulum bears the body's weight when you are seated. B) The acetabulum is the smooth, cup-shaped articular surface. C) The acetabulum is a roughened area superior to the auricular surface where ligaments originate that stabilize the sacro-iliac joint. D) The acetabulum is the concave socket on that lateral aspect of the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur. E) The acetabulum is a shallow depression that helps support the abdominal organs and provides additional area for muscle attachment.
D
251) The pubic bones are joined anteriorly by what structure? (Module 7.20B) A) iliac symphysis B) pelvic brim C) ischial symphysis D) pubic symphysis E) pubic tubercle
D
256) Which foot bone transmits the weight of the body from the tibia toward the toes? (Module 7.23B) A) calcaneus B) navicular C) cuboid D) talus E) medial cuneiform
D
27) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the A) parietal bone. B) occipital bone. C) sphenoid. D) temporal bone. E) ulna.
D
29) The zygomatic bone articulates with the ________ bone to form the zygomatic arch. A) frontal B) occipital C) nasal D) temporal E) parietal
D
3) How many bones make up the axial skeleton? A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80 E) 90
D
31) Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone, except the A) superior nuchal lines. B) lambdoid suture. C) hypoglossal canals. D) crista galli. E) external occipital crest.
D
36) The ________ passes through the ________. A) vagus nerve; foramen magnum B) trigeminal nerve; foramen lacerum C) acoustic nerve; external acoustic meatus D) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen E) internal carotid artery; jugular foramen
D
37) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone. A) frontal B) parietal C) sphenoid D) occipital E) temporal
D
48) The stabilizing falx cerebri membrane attaches to which structure? A) pterygoid plates B) sella turcica C) orbital process D) crista galli E) middle nasal conchae
D
5) The cranium (or braincase) is formed by the ________ bones. A) frontal, temporal, and maxillary B) frontal, parietal, and zygomatic C) temporal, parietal, and mandible D) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital
D
59) A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth and gums of the lower jaw passes through the A) ramus of the mandible. B) condylar process. C) mental foramen. D) mandibular foramen. E) maxillary foramen.
D
61) The hyoid bone is suspended by A) other bones. B) adipose tissue. C) tendons. D) ligaments. E) muscles.
D
64) Which of these is one of the auditory ossicles? A) malleus B) incus C) stapes D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct.
D
66) The anterior fontanel is A) posterior to the parietal bones. B) anterior to the frontal bone. C) connected to the posterior fontanel by the coronal suture. D) posterior to the frontal bone and anterior to the parietal bones. E) anterior and inferior to the frontal bone.
D
70) ________ are non-ossified fibrous attachments between cranial bones. A) Cribriform plates B) Sella turcicae C) Zygomatic processes D) Fontanelles E) Sutures
D
74) The four spinal curves include all but which of the following? A) thoracic B) cervical C) lumbar D) axial E) sacral
D
80) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) pedicle B) transverse process C) lamina D) spinous process E) transverse articular facet
D
83) As you proceed from the head down the vertebral column, A) the vertebrae become smaller and lighter. B) vertebral bodies become absent. C) the transverse foramina become more evident. D) the vertebrae become larger and heavier. E) more odontoid processes become evident.
D
88) The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31
D
9) At a suture, bones are tied firmly together with A) neural tissue. B) muscle tissue. C) loose fibrous connective tissue. D) dense fibrous connective tissue. E) epithelial tissue.
D
99) The sacrum is a single bone consisting of the fused components of ________ sacral vertebrae. A) 1-3; it can vary B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 4-6; it can vary
D
101) Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true? A) It is the most caudal vertebral region. B) It articulates with the sacrum. C) It consists of 3-5 vertebrae. D) Fusion is delayed until mid-20s. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
102) The sacrum does not protect organs in the ________ system. A) reproductive B) digestive C) urinary D) nervous E) respiratory
E
105) The costal groove A) is located on the exterior surface. B) is located on the interior surface. C) marks the path of blood vessels. D) is located on the exterior surface and marks the path of blood vessels. E) is located on the interior surface and marks the path of blood vessels.
E
110) The sternum contains A) the manubrium. B) the jugular notch. C) the body. D) the xiphoid process. E) All of the answers are correct.
E
111) While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the A) ribs. B) scapula. C) xiphoid process. D) sacrum. E) ribs and xiphoid process.
E
113) Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called A) pectoral ribs. B) true ribs. C) orphan ribs. D) non-articulators. E) floating ribs.
E
116) Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton? A) scapula B) metatarsals C) femur D) humerus E) None of these; all are appendicular bones.
E
120) The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle. A) radius B) clavicle C) vertebra D) sternum E) scapula
E
123) Which structure is the acromion? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
E
131) The scapula articulates with the humerus at its ________ cavity. A) infraspinous B) scapular C) olecranon D) supraspinous E) glenoid
E
135) Which of the following is a forearm bone? A) humerus B) femur C) tibia D) fibula E) radius
E
150) The bones that form the fingers are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges.
E
151) The carpus contains ________ bones. A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8
E
186) Identify the diaphysis of the femur. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7
E
192) The weight of the body is supported by the A) distal metacarpals. B) proximal metatarsals. C) distal metatarsals. D) calcaneus. E) distal metatarsals and calcaneus.
E
202) Define suture. (Module 7.2C) A) A suture is a moveable bone in the cranium. B) A suture is an expanded proximal end of a bone that forms part of a joint. C) A suture is a deep, narrow groove. D) A suture is an elongated cleft or gap. E) A suture is a fibrous connective tissue immovable joint between the flat bones of the skull.
E
208) Describe the alveolar process. (Module 7.4A) A) The convex, irregular surface that borders the squamous suture. B) The curved ridge that mark the attachment sites of the temporalis muscle. C) The posterior, inferior corner of the lower jaw. D) The passageway for the vestibulocochlear nerve. E) The projecting ridge that contains the tooth sockets for the upper teeth.
E
214) In which bone is the foramen magnum located, and what is significant about this opening? (Module 7.5C) A) sphenoid; surrounds the connection between the brain and the spinal cord B) sphenoid; permits the passage of a branch of the trigeminal nerve C) temporal; permits the passage of a branch of the trigeminal nerve D) occipital; permits the passage of the hypoglossal nerve E) occipital; surrounds the connection between the brain and the spinal cord
E
218) Which bone acts as a uniting bridge between the cranial and facial portions of the skull? (Module 7.6D) A) temporal B) lacrimal C) ethmoid D) palatine E) sphenoid
E
22) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones? A) temporal and maxilla B) frontal and temporal C) sphenoid and temporal D) zygomatic and maxilla E) temporal and zygomatic
E
227) Joe suffered a hairline fracture at the base of the dens. Identify the bone and fracture site. (Module 7.11A) A) atlas; cervical B) atlas; lumbar C) axis; lumbar D) axis; thoracic E) axis; cervical
E
229) When you run your finger down the middle of a person's spine, what part of each vertebra are you feeling just beneath the skin? (Module 7.11C) A) vertebral body B) transverse processes C) superior articular facet D) odontoid processes E) spinous processes
E
232) Which regions of the vertebral column do not consist of individual vertebrae? (Module 7.13B) A) cervical and thoracic B) cervical and lumbar C) thoracic and coccygeal D) lumbar and sacral E) sacral and coccygeal
E
236) How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton? (Module 7.15A) A) 60 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120 E) 126
E
245) Bill accidentally fractures his first distal phalanx with a hammer. Which finger is broken? (Module 7.18C) A) the tip of his pinky B) the tip of his ring finger C) the tip of his index finger D) the tip of his middle finger E) the tip of his thumb
E
253) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum? (Module 7.22B) A) tibial tuberosity B) intercondylar eminence C) gluteal tuberosity D) greater trochanter E) head of the femur
E
28) The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the ________ bone(s). A) palatine B) vomer C) maxillary D) sphenoid E) palatine and maxillary
E
30) An alternative term for the forehead is A) cornu. B) calvaria. C) braincase. D) temporal squama. E) frons.
E
41) Which structure has foramina for the olfactory nerves? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
E
45) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone except the A) foramen ovale. B) optic canals. C) pterygoid processes. D) sella turcica. E) cribriform plate.
E
53) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the A) frontal bone. B) ethmoid bone. C) sphenoid bone. D) maxillae. E) vomer.
E
54) Which of the following statements about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is false? A) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium. B) They make skull bones lighter. C) The mucus they secrete enters the nasal cavities. D) They support cilia that move the mucus. E) They create a protected space for blood vessels and nerves.
E
6) The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) calvarial C) coronal D) squamous E) sagittal
E
79) Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6
E
81) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) transverse process B) superior articular process C) pedicle D) inferior articular process E) lamina
E
90) Which of the following is not a distinctive feature of thoracic vertebrae? A) heart-shaped bodies B) long spinous processes C) contain costals facets D) have transverse processes E) form vertebra prominens
E
97) Lumbar vertebrae are ________ massive and ________ mobile. A) least; most B) most; most C) least; least D) not; excessively E) most; least
E
98) All of the following are true of lumbar vertebrae except that A) the superior articular processes face medially. B) they lack costal facets. C) the transverse process is slender and projects dorsolaterally. D) the vertebral foramen is triangular. E) the vertebral bodies are delicate.
E
