Combo with Female Reproductive System Ch 28 and 10 others

Lakukan tugas rumah & ujian kamu dengan baik sekarang menggunakan Quizwiz!

14. leukocytes NLMEB relative numbers more common versus more rare

"never let monkeys eat bananas" acronym for the different types of leukocytes. Neutrophils 60-70% of all WBC's, Lymphocytes- 20-25%, Monocytes- 3-8%, Eosinophils- 2-4%, Basophils- 0.5-1%

56. components of blood

- These blood cells (which are also called corpuscles or "formed elements") consist of erythrocytes (red blood cells, RBCs), leukocytes (white blood cells), and thrombocytes (platelets). By volume, the red blood cells constitute about 45% of whole blood, the plasma about 54.3%, and white cells about 0.7%. ferritin blood component that is a protein albumin protein blood component antibodies protein blood component prothrombin protein component of blood

11. Neutrophils, eosinophil, basophils, and monocytes are all derived from

- granulocyte-macrophage colony-forming units

31. Suppose the atmospheric pressure at a given time is 765 mmHg, the intrapleural pressure during inspiration is 759 mmHg, and the intrapulmonary pressure is 763 mmHg. Under these conditions the transpulmonary pressure would be.

-4 mmHg

IgM

-It is the first immunoglobulin to appear on the surface of B cells and the first antibody secreted during an immune response. It is secreted in pentameric form. -produced in B cells, anti-A, anti-B blood agglutinins

64. Proteins can buffer a drop in pH by their _____ side groups and can buffer an increase in pH by their _____ side groups.

-NH2; -COOH

Three Main Regions of the Kidney

-Renal cortex-a smooth area/most superficial region -Renal pyramids-located in the medulla and has cone shaped pyramids that have extensions of the cortex (the base of each pyramid faces the cortex) -Renal papilla-is the apex that is pointed towards the renal sinus

41. Red blood cells have two peripheral proteins, spectrin and actin that

-permit RBCs to squeeze through capillaries

IgG

-the most common antibodies. passable through the placenta. provides passive immunity. aka gamma globulin -produced by B cells, 80% of plasma antibodies crosses placenta, confers immunity to fetus

29. The blood plasma is about ___ of the total body water

. 8%

* The ovarian artery and ovarian vein travel through the __ ligament suspensory

...

*The _ area of the uterus communicates with the uterine tube, and the _ area of the uterus communicates with the vagina. Fundus; cervix

...

10. What anchors the ovary to the broad ligament? Mesovarium

...

11. Blood is supplied to the endometrium by the _ arteries between the endometrial glands Spiral

...

12. In the last day or two of the pre-ovulatory phase, estrogen levels are high and these two hormones surge dramatically FSH and LH

...

13. After climacteric, some females experience hot flashes, which are caused by vasodilation of cutaneous arteries

...

13. HCl and intrinsic factor / pepsinogen

...

14. Estrogen causes all of the following effects in adolescent girls except growth of the pubic and axillary hair

...

15. The majority of breast cancers have no identifiable risk factor.

...

16. Which of these occurs in first-stage labor? Effacement

...

17. The developing individual is called a(n) ____ during the first two weeks, a(n) ____ from two through eight weeks, and a(n) _____ from the beginning of week nine until birth. Blastocyte; embryo; fetus

...

17. sinusoids

...

18. The female reproductive tract develops from the paramesonephric duct because of absence of testosterone and mullerian-inhibiting factor

...

19. Pregnancy tests are based on the detection of _ in the urine HCG

...

20. Blood produces and functions

...

20. The layer of uterine mucosa that is shed in menstruation is called the myometrium

...

21. The layer of uterine mucosa that is shed in menstruation is called the stratum functionalis

...

22. The second half of the menstrual cycle is regulated largely by the corpus luteum

...

22. tunica mucosa, tunica submucosa, tunica muscularis, externa tunica, serosa tunica adventitia

...

23. What is one advantage of breast-feeding to the mother? It promotes involution of the uterus

...

23. secretin, trypsin, pepsin, glucoamylase, enterokinase

...

24. Autolysis is a process that results in postpartum shrinkage of the uterus

...

24. Excessive ADH secretion is most likely to produce hypotonic hydration

...

25. The constricted part of the uterus that protrudes into the vagina is called the cervix

...

25. enterokinase is not a component of the pancreatic juice

...

26. In the first 2 to 3 days postpartum, the mammary glands secrete _ rather than milk colostrum

...

26. chief cells, goblet cells, parietal cells, mucous neck cells, enteroendocrine cells

...

27. Milk ejection or letdown reflex is stimulated by which of the following hormones associated with pregnancy? Oxytocin

...

27. Tissue macrophages develop from monocytes

...

28. After ovulation, an egg has about _ to be fertilized, or else it dies. 24 hours

...

29. The theca folliculi secrete _ and the granulosa cells secrete _ androgen; estrogen

...

29. lesser omentum; mesentery, greater omentum; mesocolon, mesentery; greater omentum, mesocolon; lesser omentum, mesentery; lesser omentum

...

30. During the plateau phase, the glans and clitoris swell as the _________ arteries dilate and the corpus or corpora ____________swell. Deep; cavernosa

...

30. mucosa, submucosa, serosa, adventitia

...

31. Lymph nodes in the cervical region that are temporarily swollen and painful to the touch most likely indicate inflammation or infection in that area

...

31. The primary follicle gives rise to the secondary follicle when the follicular fluid forms the antrum

...

32. When an antigen triggers the multiplication of B lymphocytes some daughter cells transform into antibody producing cells and mount an attack while others become memory cells

...

32. Which of the following is commonly classified as a female secondary sex characteristic? The distribution of body fat

...

33. In an area of injury leukocytes adhere to the endothelium which is called _____ and then squeeze through spaces between endothelial cells into the interstitial fluid which is called _____. margination; diapedesis

...

33. In female sexual response, the __ may secrete a fluid similar to the prostatic secretion of the male. Paraurethral glands

...

34. Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in lymph nodes.

...

34. The vaginal secretion has a pH of about 3.5 to 4.0, this pH _____ and is primarily caused by the production of ______ inhibits pathogens; lactic acid

...

34. the falciform ligament, the mesentery, the greater omentum, the lesser omentum, the epiploic appendages

...

35. Macrophages secrete a lymphokine called _______, which stimulates the multiplication of T cells. Interleukin 1

...

35. When the follicle expels the secondary oocyte, it becomes the _____ and secretes _____

...

36. In inflammation, basophils produce all of the following chemicals except Perforin

...

36. Most people with AIDs become infected through sexual contact. A female can become infected by a male who has HIV but may not be showing any symptoms of AIDs. HIV from infected males can invade the female through dendritic cells.

...

37 A patient with a snakebite is given an anti-venom in horse serum. His blood pressure quickly drops drastically. What do you suspect is wrong? Anaphylactic shock

...

37. Milk is not secreted until after birth because the mammary gland cells do not respond to prolactin until then

...

37. sucrose, lactase, maltase

...

38. Humoral immunity is generated through the process of: producing antibodies.

...

38. Size of blood cells relative large and small

...

38. The ischemic phase of the uterine cycle is brought on by vascular spasms, which in turn are a response to falling progesterone level

...

39. At the time of the sexual cycle when the uterus is building up endometrial tissue by mitosis, several follicles are developing antra.

...

39. Bacterial infection is especially likely to elevate the ___ count. Neutrophil

...

4. After ovulation an egg has about 24 hours

...

40. An egg, or ovum, is defined as any stage from the primary oocyte to the fertilized egg.

...

40. RHoGam is an antibody given to Rh- women who give birth to a Rh+ child. Rh0GAM is what type of plasma protein? Gamma-globulin

...

40. Tapeworms, hookworms, and other parasites too large to phagocytize are attacked mainly by eosinophils

...

41. Antibodies are proteins

...

41. Fertilization occurs in the ___, and implantation occurs in the ___. Uterine tube; body of uterus

...

42. All of the following are macrophages except Eosinophils

...

42. The most abundant hormone of pregnancy is human chorionic somatomammotropin.

...

42. pseudostratified columnar; nonkeratinized stratified squamous, simple columnar; nonkeratinized stratified squamous, simple cuboidal; keratinized stratified squamous, simple squamous; transitional, simple columnar; simple squamous

...

43. In early pregnancy, _ stimulates growth of the corpus luteum human chorionic gonadotropin

...

43. Lymphocytes are ___ once they have developed surface receptors for a particular antigen. Immunocompetent

...

44. Human milk has all of the following advantages over cow's milk for infant nutrition except it has more protein

...

44. The human immunodeficiency virus contains the enzyme __that stimulates host cells that produce DNA from viral __.reverse transcriptive; RNA

...

45. Lymph most closely resembles Plasma

...

45. adrenocorticotropic hormone, human placental lactogen, human chorionic somatomammotropin, human chorionic gonadotropin, progesterone

...

45. pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, ribonuclease

...

46. Complement fixation can lead to any of the following effects except endogenous pyrexia

...

46. Which of these is a consequence of the ischemic phase of the uterine cycle? Endometrial necrosis

...

46. components of the pancreatic juice enterokinase, insulin

...

47. When neutrophils and macrophages phagocytize bacteria they secrete interleukin-1, which acts as a pyrogen

...

47. Which of these is not included in the female vestibule? Mons pubis

...

47. chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, enterokinase, sucrose, lingual lipase

...

48. At the time a woman begins her next ovarian cycle, the former graafian follicle of the previous cycle is now a corpus albicans.

...

48. Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by ___________ in a process called _____________. Neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization

...

49. This lymphatic organ is very large in the fetus. It begins to shrink after the age of 14 and is replaced almost entirely by fibrous and fatty tissue in the elderly. Thymus

...

49. This placental hormone suppresses FSH and LH secretions, suppresses uterine contractions, and prevents menstruation. Progesterone

...

5. In women, the cessation of menstruation is called _ and the decrease in estrogen and progesterone production is called __ menopause; climacteric

...

50. Ovulation is triggered by LH

...

50. T cells become immunocompetent during their stay in the thymus

...

50. vitamin D

...

51. Hyperenemia can be stimulated by: Histamine, bradykinin, and leukotrienes

...

51. Which of the following would sustain a pregnancy in the beginning? Corpus Luteum

...

51. circular folds, teniae coli, haustra, epiploic appendages

...

52. Cells recognize AG-MHCP complex secrete interleukins, attracts helper T cells

...

52. The stratum functionalis and The stratum basalis

...

52. swallowing center is located in the brainstem/medulla oblongata

...

53. The most abundant form of estrogen in females is estradiol.

...

54. The _ glands of the female are homologous to the bulbourethral glands of the male greater vestibular

...

54. The largest of the following cartilages is the thyroid cartilage.

...

55. Development of a girl's breasts at puberty is called larche

...

55. The lymphatic system returns _______to the circulatory system each day. 2-4 L of tissue fluids

...

55. nasopharynx

...

56. It is allergy season, and you have tremendous nasal congestion, watery eyes, and a runny nose. These symptoms are caused when allergens bind to IgE on the membranes of ______ and stimulate them to release __________? Mast cells and basophils; histamine

...

56. Mammary gland development and lactation depend on all of the following hormones except

...

56. insulin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucagon, gastrin

...

57. All of the following procsses are important in follicular development. Which one occurs first? GnRH secretion

...

57. In order for a helper T cell to recognize an antigen, the antigen must be bound to an MHC protein

...

58. Menarche is often delayed in girls who seriously train for athletic events, such as long distance runners and dancers. This is delayed because they maintain low body fat

...

58. Neutrophils produce a respiratory burst, which destroys more bacteria that can be destroyed by phagocytosis. A respiratory burst results from the formation of a ____ that reacts with H+ to form _____ Superoxide anion; hydrogen peroxide

...

59. Activated macrophages and T cells in inflamed tissue release______ that promote the production of more leukocytes. Colony-stimulating factors

...

59. The vestibular bulbs serve to constrict the vagina during intercourse

...

59. gluconeogenesis, lipogenesis, glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, glyconeogenesis

...

6. The mother is Rh- has Rh antibodies and is carrying an Rh+ fetus. The movement of Rh antibodies across the placenta causes ____ immunity. Rh- mothers should be given RhoGAM after every fetal event where the fetus is Rh+. Injecting the mother with RhoGAM causes ____ immunity. Natural passive; artificial passive

...

6. The pathway of an ovulated egg from the ovary to the uterus is pelvic cavity->fimbriae->infundibulum->ampulla->isthmus

...

6. lists some of the tissue layers of the digestive tract. (order from lumen to external surface)

...

60. Lutein cells, a source of ovarian androgens, develop from the theca interna

...

60. Neutrophils are the chief enemies of bacteria. They exhibit the following steps in fighting bacteria: margination → diapedesis → chemotaxis → phagocytosis

...

61. Just before it is withdrawn by a nursing infant, milk enters a dilated sac behind the lactiferous sinus

...

61. The lymphatic cell when activated forms colonies of helper cells, cytotoxic cells, suppressor cells, and memory cells T lymphocytes

...

62. Antibodies belong to a class of plasma proteins called. Globulins

...

62. Thinning of the cervical tissue during first-stage labor is called effacement.

...

63. A fetus is nourished by way of a disc-shaped organ, the _, attached to the uterine wall. Placenta

...

63. Which of the following is not a form of nonspecific resistance? Vaccination

...

64 MALT is lymphatic tissue found in such places as the digestive mucosa

...

64. Blood osmolarity plasma proteins

...

64. During pregnancy, _ elevates the mother's metabolic rate Human chorionic thyrotropin

...

65. Plasma cells arise from B cells

...

65. What differs the primordial follicle from the primary? The primordial a lady has from birth

...

66. In the milk ejection, reflex, sensitive nerve fibers in the _ stimulate the hypothalamus to release _ areola; oxytocin

...

67. The myometrium contains _ whose function is to _ smooth muscle; produce labor contractions

...

68. In the luteal phase, all of the following things happen except the endometrial cells exhibit rapid mitosis

...

69. The sudden vasodilation of skin arteris due to hormone shifts (low estrogen) causes hot flashes

...

7. The most abundant estrogen of pregnancy is _ and the estrogen that has the greatest effects during pregnancy is by estriol; estrodial

...

70. To stimulate ovulation, LH stimulates increased blood flow to the maturing follicle and release of collagenase

...

8 In a transfusion reaction the hemolysis of mismatched erythrocytes results from

...

8. The eggs are moved along the uterine tube by cilia and peristaltic waves

...

9. The superior curvature of the uterus is called the fundus

...

9. enterogastric reflex

...

Corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone

...

HCG

...

Major histocompatibility complex proteins

...

54. An autoimmune disease (AID) in which antibodies damage the capillaries of the kidneys Acute

...Glomerulonephritis

53. The main antigen presenting cells in the body are _ because they display fragments of phagocytized material to alert the T-cell of the immune system.

...Macrophages

Most people have been to the hospital have seen people hooked up by an IV to a plastic bag containing various solutions. One of the most common solutions used in an IV is normal saline. If you looked at the bag of normal saline, you would expect its salinity to be about _____%

0.9

Duct cells secrete bicarbonate, which neutralizes HCl in the acidic chyme coming from the stomach, in the following process:

1. Acidic chyme enters duodenum 2. Intestinal mucosa releases secretin into bloodstream 3. Secretin stimulates pancreas (duct cells) 4. Pancreas (or duct cells) secretes pancreatic juice in bicarbonate ions 5. Bicarbonate ions neutralize acidic chyme

Saliva functions:

1. Begin digestion of starch and fats 2. Cleanse teeth 3. Inhibit bacteria 4. Aid in swallowing

The Process of Producing Stomach Acid:

1. CO2 from blood binds with H2O to form H2CO3 2. H+ dissociates into HCO3 and H+ in the parietal cell 3. H/K pump will pump H+ out in lumen of gastric gland, K in parietal cell 4. HCO3 goes into blood 5. CL- goes from blood to the lumen of gastric gland. Cl bonds with H+ and forms HCl (stomach acid)

Chemica Digestion and Abosorption of Lipids

1. Emulsification of Fats 2. Fat hydrolysis 3. Lipid uptake by micelles 4. Chylomicron Formation 5. Chylomicron exocytosis and lymphatic uptake circulation

Gastric Phase:

1. Food stretches the stomach and activates myenteric and vagovogol reflexes 2. These reflexes stimulate gastric secretion 3. Histamine and gastrin also stimulate acid and enzyme production

Chylomicron exocytosis and lymphatic uptake

1. Golgi apparatus repackages chylomicrons into secretory vesicles 2. Chylomicrons are released from basal cell membrane by exocytosis and enter the lacteal (lymphatic capillary) of the villus 3. Enters lymphatic system 4. Enters subclavian vein the general circulation

Large Intestine Motility

1. Haustral Contractions: similar to segmentation 2. Mass Movement: big contractions of ascending and transverse colon 3. Internal anal sphincter: smooth muscle; involuntary; responds to pressure in rectum 4. External anal sphincter: skeletal muscle; under voluntary control

Starting from the digestion of food, how is pepsin made?

1. Ingested food buffers stomach acid 2. Elevated pH stimulates G cell 3. G cells (enteroendecrine) secrete gastrin 4. Gastrin stimulates chief cells and parietal cells 5. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen 6. Parietal cells secrete HCl 7. HCl helps convert pepsinogen to pepsin 8. Pepsin digests dietary proteins 9. Oligopeptides directly stimulate G cells 10. Oligopeptides and amino acids buffer stomach acid

Chemical Digestion and Absorption of Carbohydrates

1. Initial digestion. Chemical and mechanical digestion begins in the mouth; Salivary amylase preps the carbs for the duodenum. 2. The carb is not broken down in the stomach 3. Secondary digestion. Pancreatic amylase begins the digestion in the lumen of SI (duodenum); Breaks down starch into oligosaccharides; 4. Contact digestion: Enzymes on the brush border will break carbs down further into monosaccharides 5. Glucose and galactose are co-transported with Na+. 6. Fructose slips in the thru facilitated diffusion. This is a passive process; Fructose is going down its pressure gradient but needs a protein channel to help it. 7. All 3 pass to the basal side thru facilitated diffusion 8. Passive pass thru blood capillary a. Chemical gradient set up by NA/K pump and the drive for Na to come in is coupled with glucose and galactose in co-transport.

Intestinal Phase:

1. Intestinal gastrin briefly stimulates the stomach but... 2. Secretin and CCK and enterogastric reflex inhibit gastric secretion and motility while the duodenum processes chime already in it 3. Sympathetic never fibers suppress gastric activity while vagal stimulation of the stomach is now inhibited

Emulsification of Fats

1. Large gat gloue not able to be digested bc the lipase enymes will not have access to theinterior portion of fat globule; So breaks down into smaller parts 2. Fat globules broken up and coated by lecithin (lipid) and bile acids i. Produced in liver and stored in gall bladder ii. EX: How soap breaks up grease

Structure of the Small Intestine:

1. Lined with villi 2. Plicae circularis

A sample of liver functions:

1. Makes bile 2. Makes bile 3. Makes plasma proteins (clotting) 4. Makes plasma proteins (clotting) 5. Makes nonessential amino acids 6. Makes nonessential amino acids 7. Makes vitamin A 8. Makes vitamin A 9. Stores vitamins K, D, B12, & iron 10. Stores vitamins K, D, B12, & iron

Regulation of Small Intestine

1. Mechanical and chemical stimulation from chyme stimulates goblet cells to secrete mucus 2. Distention (stretching) of intestinal wall stimulates parasympathetic reflexes that stimulate secretions from the small intestine a. Cholecystokinin b. Secretin 3. Movements: Peristalsis and Segmentation ( mixes which is important for contact digestion)

Chemica Digestion and Abosorption of Proteins

1. Mouth: No chemical digestion occurs only mechanical. 2. Stomach: Pepsin hydrolyzes protein to smaller polypeptides 3. Small Intestine: Pancreatic proteases will help break up polypeptides further into oligopeptides a. Trypsin and chymotrypsin will hydrolyze some peptide bonds. b. Carboxypeptidase cleaves off one AA at a time from the carboxyl end c. Aminopeptidase removes an AA from the amino end d. Dipeptidase splits dipeptides into single AAs 4. Not an AA until reaches the brush border 5. AAs absorbed via co-transport w/ Na+ 6. Dipeptide co-transport with H+ 7. Specific carriers for transport of AAs into blood a. Facilitated diffusion into blood; Na/K pump helps

Fat hydrolysis

1. Once in smaller droplets then the pancreatic lipase has an increase in surface area 2. The pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes the 1st and 3rd fatty acids from the triglycerides 3. Result is 2 free fatty acids and one monoglyceride

How Pepsin makes more of itself

1. Parietal and chief cell secretions together make the enzyme pepsin (for protein digestion) a. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen: a zymogen b. Parietal cells secrete HCl to cleave the peptide to make pepsin c. Pepsin will help cleave peptide to make more of its active form

Small Intestine:

1. Receives secretions from pancreas and liver 2. SITE OF NEARLY ALL CHEMICAL DIGESTION AND NUTRIENT ABSORPTION 3. Transports the remaining residue to the large intestine 4. Major site of absorption: Food, Fuel and Water 5. Consists of duodenum (10"), jejenulum (6'), and ilium (9') 6. Attached to posterior abdominal wall by double layered peritoneum called mesentery 7. Volume absorbed by small intestine per day: 9,000 ml

Small Intestine Digestion:

1. Secretes mucus and water into lumen 2. No digestive enzyme secretions: Does not secrete enxymes into its lumen; Its all on the walls a. Digestion accomplished by pancreatic enzymes b. Only fat digestion completed in lumen; Bile + pancreatic enzymes c. Carbs, protein rely on contact digestion 3. Contact digestion

Intestinal Flora

1. The "good" bacteria... 2. 100000000000000 cells in human body (100 trillion) 3. 10x more microbes in colon than cells in the body! a. Mostly bacteria; Also fungi and protists 4. Mutually beneficial a. We feed them, they help us: i. Carbohydrate fermentation & absorption ii. Vit K, biotin iii. Colonization resistance iv. Immune system v. Even hormones! b. Imbalance may contribute to some digestive diseases c. Probiotics (yogurt anyone?) found to enhance metabolism of polysaccharides by gut bacteria

Lipid uptake by micelles

1. The monoglycerides, fatty acids, cholesterol, and fat-soluble vitamins (A, E, K) combine to form micelles 2. Micelles in the bile pass to the small intestine

When blood pressure climbs the barorrecptors alter activity of the cardiovascular centers to:

1. decrease cardiac output (stimulate parasympathetic, decrease sympathetic) and 2. vasodilate peripheral vessels

22. During vigorous exercise, RBCs spend 0.3 sec in an alveolar capillary, compared to 0.75 sec at rest. In alveolar capillaries, RBCs in 0.3 sec would be able to load _____% of the O2 compared to RBCs in 0.75 sec.

100

The mean temperature of blood is ____ F

100.4

8. The mean temperature of the blood is ____ degrees Fahrenheit.

100.4 F

Identify the net filtration pressure in a capillary under the following conditions: interstitial hydrostatic pressure- 2 Hg; colloid osmotic pressure (COP) of the tissue fluid, 6 mmHg; COP of the blood, 29 mmHg; blood hydrostatic pressure o. 32 mmHG.

11 mmHg

40. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is about _____ mL/min.

125

the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is about ___ ml/min

125

Hypertension, or high blood pressure is a chronic resting blood pressure higher than ___ mmHg systolic, or __ mmHg diastolic

140;90

42. Adults produce about _____ L/day of glomerular filtrate and excrete about ____ L/day of urine.

150 to 180; 1 to 2

41. You have a closed container full of air with a pressure of 760 mmHg. Oxygen makes up 21% of the air. The pressure of the air just due to oxygen is _____ mmHg.

159

18. What percent change in plasma osmolarity would make one intensely thirsty?

2 to 3

36 Several hormones promote oxygen unloading from the hemoglobin to the systemic tissues by promoting the synthesis of

2, 3 biphosphoglycerate (BPG).

What percent change in plasma osmolarity would make one intensely thirsty?

2-3

59. A sperm count lower than ____ is usually associated with infertility.

20 to 25 million sperm/ml semen

25. The venous blood coming out of your leg muscles at rest probably has about ___ as/than the arterial blood going into it.

20% to 25% less oxygen

28. deciduous teeth, permanent teeth. Infants have _____ deciduous teeth, whereas adults have _______ permanent teeth.

20; 32

23. An individual has a height of six feet and a weight of 150 pounds. This individual has a BMI of _____ and is considered _____.

20; optimal

Infants have ___ decidous teeth, while adults have ____ permanent teeth.

20;32

An individual has a height of six feet and a weight of 150 lbs. This individual has a BMI of _____ and is considered ____.

20;optimal

Suppose a vessel with a radius of 1mm had a flow of 1 mm/sec.The vessel dilated to 4 mm its flow would be ___ mm/sec.

256 mm/sec

41. 30% Bacteria constitute about _____ % of the dry weight of feces

30

46. Fats should account for about _____% of your daily caloric intake.

30

Bacteria constitute about ___ of dry weight of the feces.

30%

58. Blood plasma has an osmolality of about

300 mOsm/L.

24 The optimal temperature for sperm production is

35 degrees C.

30. The hematocrit is ____________ of the total blood volume.

37% to 52%

63. When a cell divides by meiosis, it ultimately produces ___ daughter cells.

4

48. Your resting ventilation rate is about ____ mL per minute.

4,200

15. Your frequency of breathing is 12 breaths/minute; your tidal volume is 500 mL; your vital capacity is 4,700 mL; and your dead air space is 150 mL. Your alveolar ventilation rate is ____ mL/min.

4,200.

45. Approximately ___ of the energy in a glucose molecule winds up in ATP molecules at the end of aerobic respiration.

40%

Approximately ___ of the energy in a glucose molecule winds up in ATP molecules at the end of areobic respiration.

40%

17 The minimum urine output to avoid abnormally high levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is about ____ mL/day.

400

The minimum urine output to avoid abnormally high levels of blood urea nitrogen BUN is about mL/day

400

13. The average adult must excrete at least ___ of urine per day to maintain a safe and stable concentration of urea in the blood.

400 mL

The average adult must excrete at least ___ of urine per day to maintain a stable concentration of urea in the blood.

400 ml

49. Carbohydrates and proteins yield about ____ kcal/g, while fats yield about ____ kcal/g when completely oxidized.

4; 9

33. Each hemoglobin can carry up to ____ O2 molecules that are bound to ____.

4; iron

26. Urine normally has a pH of approximately

5.5

Urine normally has pH of approximately.

5.5

29. Carbohydrates should account for about _____% of your daily caloric intake.

50

22. If magnesium chloride (MgCl2) completely ionizes in water to Mg2+ and 2 Cl-, it would require ___ of MgCl2 to make 0.5 L of a 300 mOsm/L solution.

50 millimoles

47. A normal sperm count is

50 to 120 million sperm/ml semen.

7. The optimum pH for the phosphate buffer system is about _____, while the optimum pH for the bicarbonate buffer system is about _____.

6.8; 6.1

10. Suppose a person has a tidal volume of 650 mL, an inspiratory reserve volume of 3,400 mL, an anatomic dead space of 155 mL, and a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min. What would be the value of his alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)?

6.93 L/min

49. A patient produces 80 mL of urine per hour. Her urine contains 9.0 mg of urea per milliliter, and her blood contains 0.20 mg of urea per milliliter. What is her rate of renal clearance for urea?

60 mL/min

carbohydrates should account for about ____% of your daily intake.

60%

How much circulating blood does the venous system contain?

65-70%. Almost 20% of total blood is located in bone marrow, liver, and skin

37. The pH of systemic arterial blood is normally

7.4.

10. The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the A) foramen ovale. B) interatrial septum. C) coronary sinus. D) fossa ovalis. E) ligamentum arteriosus.

A

14. The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow A) in one direction only. B) in both directions. C) in many directions. D) in opposite directions on the right and left. E) from a ventricle to an atrium.

A

15. Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus.

A

18. The coronary sulcus is a groove that A) marks the border between the atria and ventricles. B) marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles. C) marks the boundary line between the right and left atria. D) separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria. E) separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins.

A

23. Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of A) cardiac muscle cells. B) chondrocytes. C) epitheliocytes. D) fibrocytes. E) smooth muscle cells.

A

24. The right ventricle pumps blood to the A) right and left lungs. B) left ventricle. C) left atrium. D) aorta. E) right atrium.

A

27. In order to perform a CABG, a cardiac surgeon must A) open the pericardial sac. B) open the myocardium to see the AV valves. C) visualize the pulmonary valve. D) visualize the carotid arteries. E) All of the answers are correct.

A

38. The ________ deliver(s) blood to the myocardium. A) coronary arteries B) cardiac veins C) superior vena cava D) carotid arteries E) coronary sinus

A

49. The pulmonary veins carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver.

A

53. The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) circumflex artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta.

A

69. Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKG's A) P wave. B) QRS complex. C) QT interval. D) T wave. E) S-T segment.

A

8. The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as A) cardiac tamponade. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) pleural effusion. D) cardiomyopathy. E) pericarditis.

A

86. Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except one. Choose the exception. A) decreasing ejection fraction B) decreasing end systolic volume C) increasing stroke volume D) increasing ejection fraction E) increasing heart rate

A

92. Cardiac output is increased by A) sympathetic stimulation. B) increased end systolic volume. C) decreased end diastolic volume. D) decreased venous return. E) inhibiting the atrial reflex.

A

97. A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume. A) 85 ml B) 3.1 ml C) 5000 ml D) 165 ml E) not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic volume

A

Artery is to ________ as vein is to ________. A) efferent; afferent B) afferent; efferent C) toward; away D) afferent; away E) efferent; away

A

Excess fluid in the ________ causes cardiac tamponade. A) pericardial cavity B) visceral pericardium C) apex of heart D) left ventricle E) both atria

A

The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day. A) 8,000 B) 15,000 C) 20,000 D) 50,000 E) 100,000

A

You would expect to find the thickest tunica media in a

A large Artery

Chemical digestion:

A series of hydrolysis reactions that break dietary macromolecules into their monomers

38. Which of the following nutrients is most likely to circulate through skeletal muscle before it ever circulates through the liver?

A triglyceride

61. The cell that migrates from the outside to the inside of the blood-testis barrier is

A type B spermatogonium

A woman has a normal pregnancy, but the second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) or erythroblastosistalis. The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood the mother was ost likely type ____ and both children are most likely ____.

A, Rh negative; B, Rh positive

It would be impossible for a type O baby to have a/an ___ father.

AB

The universal recipient is type

AB positive

55. Your blood type is AB, Rh and you are willing to give blood. In spite of a national shortage of blood, you were turned down by your local blood bank. The reason for being turned down is that your blood is a rare type and can only be given to

AB, Rh positive recipients

42. Blood types

ABO, RH+, RH - A B AB or O

30. Dehydration results in increased blood and ECF osmolarity, which causes osmolarity receptors to stimulate the formation of ____ by the hypothalamus that causes ____ in the DCT and CD.

ADH; increased water reabsorption

Dehydration results in increased blood and ECF osmolarity.... formation of ____ by the hypothalamus that causes ____....

ADH;Increased water reabsorption

Brunner's glands

AKA duodenal glands Role: Secrete bicarbonate mucus because the acidic chime of the stomach needs to be counterbalanced

In response to high blood pressure, this hormone increases the secretion of Na+ and H2O in urine

ANP

In response to high blood pressure, this hormone increases the secretion of Na+ and H2O in urine.

ANP

18. Shivering warms the body because it increases the rate of

ATP hydrolysis

Hydrogen ions diffuse from the intermembrane space of a mitochondrion into the mitochondrial matrix by way of?

ATP synthase

53. Hydrogen ions diffuse from the intermembrane space of a mitochondrion into the mitochondrial matrix by way of

ATP synthase.

the inner membrane of mitochondria or mitochondrial cristae contains the protein called ____, which harness electrical energy to produce ATP by ____.

ATP synthase; Chemiosmosis

44. The inner membrane of mitochondria or mitochondrial cristae contains the protein called _____, which harnesses electrical energy to produce ATP by _____.

ATP synthase; chemiosmosis

The large intestine

Absorbs water an forms and stored feces 1. Doesn't digest or absorb nutrients 2. Secretes mucus and absorbs water and electrolytes 3. Contains important intestinal flora which synthesize vitamins (K)

Which of the following reduces heart rate?

Acetylcholine

If a person's urine has an unusually high concentration of ammonium CL, we could suspect that the person has

Acidosis

54. A spermatozoon secretes enzymes from its ___ to penetrate the egg.

Acrosome

After about 120 days and 700 miles, red blood cells become fragile due to the deteoration of the preipheral protein called ____/ The cell fragments are phagocitized by ___ in the spleen and liver

Actin; macrophages

32. The kidney adds a hydroxyl group to calcidiol, converting it to what?

Active form of Vitamin D

Sodium ions enter epithelilal cells from the glomerular filtrate by symport and andiport,.... this can be explained becasue Na+ is

Actively transported by the Na+ - K+ pump into the extracellular fluid.

____ is an autoimmune disease in which antibodies damage the capillaries of the kidneys.

Acute glomerulonephritis.

11. Leptin is produced by _____ and inhibits the synthesis of _____.

Adipocytes; neuropeptide Y

32. Hyperkalemia (increased K+) will stimulate the _____ to release _____.

Adrenal cortex; aldosterone

41. The _____ feeds into the glomerulus and the _____ drains the glomerulus.

Afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole

Lymphatic (lymphoid) tissues

Aggregations of lymphocytes in the connective tissue of mucous membranes and various organs

30. Which molecule would you expect to have the most difficulty crossing the glomerular filtration membrane?

Albumin

28. What would be the benefit of giving intravenous albumin to a patient who has experienced fluid loss and low blood volume?

Albumin increases colloid osmotic pressure

What would be the benefit of giving intravenous albumin to a patient who has experienced fluid loss and low blood volume?

Albumin increases colloid osmotic pressure.

46. Kidney damage can cause ___, the excretion of protein in the urine.

Albuminuria

56. This hormone binds to principal cells in the DCT to reabsorb Na+ and secrete K+.

Aldosterone

8. nutrients are absorbed by blood capillaries of the villus

All of the following nutrients are absorbed by blood capillaries of the villus except cholesterol

Crypt of Lieberkühn

Also called intestinal crypt Mucous and absorptive cells At base, stem cells i. cycle cells on villus every 3-6 days ii. shed 100 million intestinal cells per minute

40. salivary amylase, pancreatic amylase, pepsin, trypsin, dipeptidase

Amylase is an enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of starch into sugars. Amylase is present in the saliva of humans and some other mammals, where it begins the chemical process of digestion. pancreatic amylase-Any of a group of enzymes that are present in saliva, pancreatic juice, and parts of plants and catalyze the hydrolysis of starch to sugar to produce carbohydrate derivatives. Pepsin- Pepsin is an enzyme whose zymogen is released by the chief cells in the stomach and that degrades food proteins into peptides. It was discovered in 1836 by Theodor Schwann who also coined its name from the Greek word pepsis, meaning digestion. Trypsin-Trypsin (EC 3.4.21.4) is a serine protease from the PA clan superfamily, found in the digestive system of many vertebrates, where it hydrolyses proteins.[2][3] Trypsin is produced in the pancreas as the inactive proenzyme trypsinogen. Trypsin cleaves peptide chains mainly at the carboxyl side of the amino acids lysine or arginine, except when either is followed by proline. It is used for numerous biotechnological processes. The process is commonly referred to as trypsin proteolysis or trypsinisation, and proteins that have been digested/treated with trypsin are said to have been trypsinized. Dipeptidase-An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of dipeptides into their constituent amino acids.

11. All of the following are autoimmune diseases except

Anaphylaxis

Internal Urethral

Anterior opening in urinary bladder that leads into urethra

10. Capping and antigen endocytosis are early steps in the action of:

Antigen presenting cells

Renal Papilla

Apex of renal pyramid

26. The interlobar artery penetrates each renal column and gives off the _____ artery that runs at the boundary between the cortex and medulla.

Arcuate

Lymphatic Trunks

Are formed by the union of the largest collecting vessels and drain fairly large areas of the body. The major trunks are the paired lumbar, bronchomediastinal, subclavian, and jugular trunks, and the single intestinal trunk.

Sinusoids

Are like fenestrated capillaries but they have gaps between adjacent endothelial cells and thin or absent basal lamina.

Arterioles

Are the smallest arterial branches, have little to no tunica externa and only 1-2 smooth muscle cell layers deep in the tunica media.

Trigone

Area bounded by urethral openings and internal urethral orifice

53. In response to high blood pressure, this hormone increases the secretion of Na+ and H2O in urine.

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

which one of the following hormones reduces blood pressure?

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

11. Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the A) aortic valve. B) pulmonary valve. C) mitral valve. D) tricuspid valve. E) bicuspid valve.

B

29. When the left ventricle contracts, the distance from the apex to the base A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged.

B

30. When the left ventricle contracts, the diameter of the ventricular chamber A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same.

B

33. As blood leaves the right ventricle it passes through the ________ and then into the pulmonary trunk. A) pulmonary veins B) conus arteriosus C) aorta D) inferior vena cava E) superior vena cava

B

35. There are ________ pulmonary veins. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 12

B

37. When the semilunar valves close, the AV valves then A) close. B) open. C) make the third heart sound. D) contract. E) prolapse.

B

48. The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver.

B

52. The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries. A) pulmonary B) coronary C) circumflex D) carotid E) subclavian

B

54. The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) interventricular artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta.

B

59. If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked, A) the ventricles will beat faster. B) the ventricles will beat more slowly. C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged. D) cardiac output will increase. E) the atria will contract more forcefully.

B

64. Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following, except the A) heart rate. B) stroke volume. C) condition of the conducting system. D) effects of drugs and poisons. E) duration of the ventricular action potential.

B

66. Pacemaker cells in the SA node A) have a well-defined resting potential. B) can spontaneously depolarize. C) also contract with the rest of the cells in the heart wall. D) are special neurons that convey signals from the brain to the heart. E) All of the answers are correct.

B

70. The first heart sound is heard when the A) AV valves open. B) AV valves close. C) semilunar valves close. D) atria contract. E) blood enters the aorta.

B

71. The first heart sound ("lub") A) is associated with atrial systole. B) is associated with closing of the mitral valve. C) is associated with opening of the mitral valve. D) is associated with closing of the aortic valve. E) is associated with opening of the aortic valve.

B

75. The systolic part (both atrial and ventricular) of a cardiac cycle lasts on average A) 3 seconds. B) 370 msec. C) 5 seconds. D) 100 msec. E) 800 msec.

B

81. Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output, except A) increased venous return. B) increased parasympathetic stimulation. C) increased sympathetic stimulation. D) increased heart rate. E) increased force of contraction.

B

93. Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase? A) alpha-one receptor B) beta-one receptor C) muscarinic receptor D) beta-two receptor E) preganglionic

B

94. Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will A) increase heart rate. B) decrease heart rate. C) increase contractility. D) increase cardiac output. E) decrease the end-systolic volume.

B

The adult heart is roughly the size of A) the liver. B) a man's clenched fist. C) the gallbladder. D) the hand of a 10-year-old. E) the brain.

B

A new born baby is type B, Rh positive. The RBCs will have the ____ antigen(s) and the plasma will have ____ antibdy(ies).

B and Rh; neither A or Rh antibodies

An individual has type B, Rh positive blood. The individual has the _____ antigen(s) and antibody(ies)

B and Rh;A

The formed elements most directly responsible for humoral immunity are

B lymphocytes

52. The coenzymes of aerobic respiration are synthesized from

B vitamins.

51. Because of the ___, very little albumin escapes from the blood during glomerular filtration.

Basement membrane of the glomerulus

The ____ arteries give rise to the arterial circle of Willis

Basilar and internal carotid

Bile Composition:

Bile is a yellow-green liquid that hepatic cells secrete; Bile gets its color from heme breakdown after picked up from liver Contains water, bile salts, bile pigments, cholesterol, and electrolytes; Bile pigment bilirubin is from breakdown of heme (hemoglobin) Only bile salts involved in digestion Stored in gall bladder Bile salts emulsify fats and make them easier to digest and absorb

3. Of the following components of bile only _____ has/have a digestive function.

Bile salts

18. Bile gets its yellow, green color mainly from

Bilirubin

47. What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?

Bilirubin

67. ____ is a bile pigment found by the breakdown of hemoglobin from expired erythrocytes.

Biliverdin

_____ is a bile pigment formed by the breakdown of hemoglobin from expired erythrocytes.

Biliverdin

Macrophages in the spleen and liver will phagocytize ruptured RBCs and decompose heme into ____ and ____

Biliverdin: Iron

24. Macrophages in the spleen and liver will phagocytize ruptured RBCs and decompose heme into ____ and _____.

Biliverdin; iron

Peritubular Capillaries

Blood from the efferent arterole flows into this capillary bed

3 components of circulatory pressure

Blood pressure, Capillary hydrostatic pressure and venous pressure.

Afferent Arterole

Blood vessel that delivers blood to glomerulus

Efferent Arterole

Blood vessel that drains blood from glomerulus

The human body has only one ___ but has two of each of the rest of these vessels.

Brachiocephalic artery.

57. Secretions from the ____ lubricate the head of the penis and neutralize acidity from residual urine in the urethra.

Bulbourethral glands

16. Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus.

C

19. In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea called the A) pleural space. B) pericardial space. C) mediastinum. D) cardiac notch. E) ventral cavity.

C

20. The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to A) papillary muscles. B) trabeculae carneae. C) chordae tendineae. D) interatrial septa. E) coronary sulci.

C

22. The visceral pericardium is the same as the A) mediastinum. B) parietal pericardium. C) epicardium. D) myocardium. E) endocardium.

C

28. When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n) A) coronary spasm. B) myocardial infarction. C) coronary thrombosis. D) angina pectoris. E) pulmonary embolism.

C

32. Blood flowing into the heart from the venae cavae flows next through the ________ valve. A) mitral B) bicuspid C) tricuspid D) pulmonary semilunar E) aortic semilunar

C

34. Coronary veins empty into the A) left atrium. B) left ventricle. C) right atrium. D) right ventricle. E) conus arteriosus.

C

40. Blood is supplied to the left atrium by the A) brachiocephalic artery. B) right coronary artery. C) left coronary artery. D) phrenic arteries. E) pulmonary arteries.

C

42. All of the following vitamins except ___ are fat-soluble.

C

43. The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium. A) semicaval B) semilunar C) bicuspid D) tricuspid E) pulmonic

C

45. Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics, except that it A) has a thicker wall. B) is round in cross section. C) pumps a greater volume. D) works harder. E) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts.

C

46. Which of the following are involved in the pulmonary circuit? A) superior vena cava, right atrium, left ventricle B) right ventricle, pulmonary veins, aorta C) right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium D) inferior vena cava, right atrium, aorta E) left ventricle, pulmonary veins, right atrium

C

51. Blood is supplied to the myocardium by A) the coronary sinus. B) contact with blood in the pumping chambers. C) the coronary arteries. D) arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries. E) arteries that branch off the subclavian arteries.

C

55. The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the A) superior vena cava. B) inferior vena cava. C) coronary sinus. D) coronary sulcus. E) aorta.

C

56. Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing. A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) P-R interval E) R-T interval

C

57. As a result of the long refractory period in the cardiac action potential, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit A) tonus. B) treppe. C) tetany. D) recruitment. E) fatigue.

C

60. The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from A) depolarization of the SA node. B) depolarization of the AV node. C) depolarization of the atria. D) repolarization of the atria. E) depolarization of the ventricles.

C

67. Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute. A) 20-40 B) 40-60 C) 80-100 D) 100-140 E) 140-180

C

68. ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate. A) Tachycardia; bradycardia B) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy C) Bradycardia; tachycardia D) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia E) Angina; infarction

C

7. Which of the following descriptions matches the term near the left fifth intercostal space? A) pericardial cavity B) visceral pericardium C) apex of heart D) aorta E) right atrium

C

76. At a heart rate of 60 beats/minute, a cardiac cycle lasts A) 60 seconds. B) 60 milliseconds. C) 1 second. D) 370 milliseconds. E) 630 milliseconds.

C

77. During ventricular systole, the A) atria are contracting. B) blood is entering the ventricles. C) AV valves are closed. D) pressure in the ventricles remains constant. E) pressure in the aorta remains constant.

C

80. The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the A) end-diastolic volume. B) end-systolic volume. C) stroke volume. D) cardiac output. E) cardiac reserve.

C

82. "An increase in end-diastolic volume increases the stroke volume" is a way of stating A) Robin's law of the heart. B) Finch's law of the heart. C) Starling's law of the heart. D) Sparrow's law of the heart. E) Hawking's law of the heart.

C

84. The heart is innervated by ________ nerves. A) parasympathetic B) sympathetic C) both parasympathetic and sympathetic D) neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic E) somatomotor

C

88. Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the A) pons. B) thalamus. C) medulla oblongata. D) hypothalamus. E) higher centers.

C

91. Which of these would cause stroke volume to increase? A) when venous return is decreased B) when ventricular contraction is reduced C) when diastolic blood pressure is decreased D) decrease in heart rate E) All of the answers are correct.

C

98. Calculate cardiac output if the heart rate is 125 beats/minute, the end-diastolic volume is 130 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 40 ml. A) 21,250 ml / min B) 16,250 ml / min C) 11,250 ml / min D) 195 ml / min E) 200 ml / min

C

99. Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml. A) 0.75 ml / min B) 750 ml / min C) 7500 ml / min D) 175 ml / min E) 25 ml / min

C

Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because A) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own. B) neural stimulation is lacking. C) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes. D) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension. E) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels.

C

The heart beats approximately ________ times each day. A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 100,000 D) 1,000,000 E) 10,000,000

C

23. You have a chamber that contains an equal volume of atmospheric air and an equal volume of water. You would expect _____ in the air to reach equilibrium with the water the fastest.

CO2

49. Compared to inspired air, CO2 is higher in alveolar air, O2 is lower in alveolar air, water is higher in alveolar air, and nitrogen is lower in alveolar air. This can be explained because

CO2 moves into the alveoli, O2 moves out of the alveoli, and H2O is added all along the respiratory tract. (*2nd to largest *)

Chemoreceptors in medulla oblongata monitor?

CSF and aid in the control of respiratory function and hellp regulate blood flow to the brain.

3. Which of the following ions serves as a cofactor in blood clotting?

Ca2+

60. Which of the following is not a macronutrient?

Calcium

The absorption of ___ depends on the presence of vitamin D.

Calcium

The fast-rising phase of the SA node agtion potential is due to

Calcium influx

11. In spirometric measurements, the difference between a volume and a capacity is

Capacity is determined by adding two or more respiratory volumes.

Vasa Recta

Capillary loops that extend from the efferent arterole and run along the loop of Henle (nephron loop) of juxtamedullary nephrons

Glomerulus

Capillary network within the renal corpuscle

16. The recommended daily allowance is higher for ___ than for any of these other nutrients.

Carbohydrates

You have been exercising strenuously and have decided to sit down and rest. In response to exercising, the Baroreceptors stimulate the ____ center and inhibit the --- center

Cardioinhibitory; vasomotor

3 areas where baroreceptors are involved with cardiovascular regulation

Carotid sinuses, aortic sinuses, and atrial baroreceptors

Ureters

Carries urine from renal pelvis to urinary bladder

Arteries

Carry blood away from the heart, thick muscular walls make arteries elastic and contractile. elasticity allows for passive changes in the size of the vessel's diameter as blood pressure varies.

1. Müllerian-inhibiting factor

Causes regression of the paramesonephric ducts.

Pharynx

Cavity posterior to the mouth; Connects to the esophagus Three regions: Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, Laryngopharynx

20. Suppressor T cells are associated with:

Cell-mediated immunity

Supressor T cells are associated with

Cell-mediated immunity.

Reticular cells

Cells that seal off the cortex of the thymus from the medulla and surround blood vessles and lymphocyte clusters in the cortex. They form a blood-thymus barrier that isolates developing lymphocytes from blood-borne antigens

Phases involved in Digestion:

Cephalic phase, Gastric phase, Intestinal phase

50. In keeping with ___, the warming of air as it is inhaled is one factor that inflates the lungs.

Charles' law

Mastication:

Chewing; Breaks food into pieces small enough to be swallowed and exposes more surface to the action of digestive enzymes; First step in mechanical digestion

Internal Urethral Sphincter

Circular smooth muscle that involuntarily controls passage of urine from the urinary bladder to the urethra

6. When bicarbonate ions are produced in an erythrocyte, they diffuse into the blood plasma. To compensate for this, ___ diffuses from the plasma into the RBC.

Cl-

25. The male penis is homologous with the _____ of the female.

Clitoris

21. Which of the following is not an organ of the urinary system?

Collecting duct

39. Which of these is not part of a nephron?

Collecting duct

32. The ___ consist of mucous membranes supported by the turbinate bones.

Conchae

Renal Pyramids

Cone-shaped structures located within the renal medulla

Pharynx:

Connect mouth with esophagus

58. Which of the following is not a dietary source of cholesterol?

Corn oil

Which one of the following is not a dietary source of cholesterol?

Corn oil

60. The renal parenchyma contains an outer renal _____ that extends inward to form renal _____.

Cortex; columns

Renal Capsule

Covers the outer surface of kidney

12. Which of the following blood components is not a protein?

Creatinine

58. Which of the following is not a paranasal sinus?

Cricoid

44. In gametogenesis, the genetic composition of each chromosome is changed by the process of

Crossing-over.

Minor Calyces

Cup-like structure that is located in renal sinus that receives urine from openings of papillary ducts

20. One effect of hypoxia is.

Cyanosis.

17. The earlike extension of the atrium is the A) ventricle. B) coronary sinus. C) coronary sulcus. D) auricle. E) atricle.

D

21. Contractions of the papillary muscles A) close the atrioventricular valves. B) close the semilunar valves. C) eject blood from the ventricles. D) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles.

D

25. The left ventricle pumps blood to the A) lungs. B) right ventricle. C) right atrium. D) aorta. E) pulmonary circuit.

D

41. The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents backward flow into the A) aorta. B) pulmonary trunk. C) pulmonary veins. D) right ventricle. E) left atrium.

D

62. Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the A) P wave. B) T wave. C) S wave. D) QRS complex. E) PR complex.

D

63. The T wave on an ECG tracing represents A) atrial depolarization. B) atrial repolarization. C) ventricular depolarization. D) ventricular repolarization. E) ventricular contraction.

D

72. Considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric ventricular contraction occur during ventricular systole? A) The ventricle needs to pressurize the blood to close the aortic valve. B) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure so the ventricle cannot eject blood. C) The bicuspid valve needs time to shut before the ventricle can eject blood. D) Aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve. E) The ventricle is still filling with blood and therefore cannot eject blood during this time.

D

73. The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the A) atrial systole. B) early diastolic filling phase. C) late diastolic filling phase. D) systolic ejection phase. E) dicrotic phase.

D

79. An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to A) increase in heart rate. B) decrease in heart rate. C) decrease in blood pressure. D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure. E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure.

D

95. If the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end-systolic volume? A) increase B) fluctuate rapidly C) remain the same D) decrease E) reduced to zero

D

96. End-systolic volume is defined as the: A) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle B) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle C) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial systole D) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction E) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate

D

A heart rate of 45 bpm and an absence of P waves from the electrocardiogram would suggest

Damage to the SA node

59. If your chest expands, you would predict the intrapulmonary pressure to _____ because of ____ law.

Decrease; Boyle's

51 Which one of the following would not stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone?

Decreased Ca2+

60. When you opened a can of carbonated soda, bubbles of carbon dioxide form. When you opened the can, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the air above the soda _____, the resulting bubbles are explained by _____ Law. Decreased; Henry's

Decreased; Henry's

5. As altitude increases the partial pressure of O2 _____ and the partial pressure of CO2 ______.

Decreases; decreases

Renal Fascia

Dense irregular connective tissue that covers the adipose capsule and attaches the kidney to the abdominal wall

Urinary bladder

Detrusor muscle is the main muscle for this structure

40. Which of the following diseases is most likely to produce metabolic acidosis?

Diabetes mellitus

36 This tubule has a simple cuboidal epithelium nearly devoid of microvilli.

Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

35. Short-term inhibition of thirst is caused by ___, and long-term inhibition of thirst is caused by_______.

Distension of stomach and small intestine; decreased osmolarity of the blood

39. diverticulitis, appendicitis, peritonitis, gastritis

Diverticulitis is small, bulging sacs or pouches of the inner lining of the intestine (diverticulosis) that become inflamed or infected. Most often, these pouches are in the large intestine (colon) Appendicitis is swelling (inflammation) of the appendix. The appendix is a small pouch attached to the beginning of your large intestine. Peritonitis is an inflammation (irritation) of the peritoneum, the thin tissue that lines the inner wall of the abdomen and covers most of the abdominal organs. Gastritis occurs when the lining of the stomach becomes inflamed or swollen. Gastritis can last for only a short time (acute gastritis), or linger for months to years (chronic gastritis).

12. Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell. A) ionic currents B) action potentials C) the force of contraction D) electrical signals E) All of the answers are correct.

E

13. Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is not one of them? A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size. B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus. C) Cardiac muscle cells branch. D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs. E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules.

E

26. The right atrium receives blood from the A) coronary sinus. B) superior vena cava. C) inferior vena cava. D) systemic circuit. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

31. Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show which of the following? A) switch to anaerobic metabolism B) release of enzymes into the circulation C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation D) release of CK-MB into the circulation E) All of the answers are correct.

E

36. Rupture of the papillary muscles in the left ventricle may result in A) mitral regurgitation. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) bicuspid regurgitation. D) bicuspid prolapse. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

39. The connective tissue fibers of the myocardium A) add strength and prevent overexpansion of the heart. B) help distribute the forces of contraction. C) provide elasticity to help return the heart to its normal size. D) provide physical support for cardiac muscle. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

42. The bicuspid or mitral valve is located A) in the opening of the aorta. B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk. C) where the venae cavae join the right atrium. D) between the right atrium and right ventricle. E) between the left atrium and left ventricle.

E

44. The function of an atrium is to A) collect blood. B) pump blood to the lungs. C) pump blood into the systemic circuit. D) pump blood to the ventricle. E) collect blood then pump it to the ventricle.

E

47. The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________ . A) deoxygenated; left atrium B) oxygenated; right lung C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava D) deoxygenated; right atrium E) oxygenated; left atrium

E

50. The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) right ventricle. D) left ventricle. E) interatrial septum.

E

58. If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the A) heart rate will increase. B) heart rate will decrease. C) cells will depolarize. D) cells will hyperpolarize. E) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize.

E

61. If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected? A) The P-R interval will be shorter. B) The QRS duration will be longer. C) There will be much bigger P waves. D) The ventricles will stop beating. E) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes.

E

65. During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the ventricles are A) depolarizing. B) repolarizing. C) contracting. D) relaxing. E) both repolarizing and relaxing.

E

74. A heart murmur might be caused by A) aortic valve insufficiency. B) mitral valve insufficiency. C) pulmonic valve insufficiency. D) swirling of blood in the ventricle. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

78. With each ventricular systole, A) blood pressure remains steady. B) the ventricles fill with blood. C) blood pressure decreases. D) cardiac output decreases. E) blood pressure increases.

E

83. Which of the following would increase heart rate? A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node B) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers C) increased levels of epinephrine D) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential E) All of the answers are correct.

E

85. Stroke volume depends on A) end diastolic volume. B) the contractility of the ventricle. C) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta. D) venous return of blood to the heart. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

87. Drugs known as calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine can be used to A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction. B) decrease blood pressure. C) dilate the coronary arteries. D) produce a negative inotropic effect. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

89. The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons. A) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false. B) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true. C) Both parts of the statement are true. D) Both parts of the statement are false. E) Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate.

E

9. The interventricular sulci and coronary sulcus A) contain fat. B) contain arteries. C) contain veins. D) are grooves on the surface of the heart. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

90. Which of these is true about the atrial reflex? A) also called Bainbridge reflex B) triggered by atrial mechanoreceptors C) triggered by increasing venous return D) depends on sympathetic innervation E) All of the answers are correct.

E

12. By constricting the ___, angiotensin II maintains the blood pressure in the glomerulus even when systemic blood pressure drops.

Efferent arteriole

59. The glomerulus has the highest blood hydrostatic pressure of any capillary bed in the body because it is drained by the ____ arteriole, which has ____ diameter than the arteriole feeding the glomerulus.

Efferent; a smaller

56. Expiration is normally a passive process resulting from the ___ of the thoracic cage.

Elasticity

34. Which of the following hormonal changes contributes to male climacteric?

Elevated secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone

62. Which of these would not cause atelectasis?

Emphysema

Pancreatic juice is Regulated by:

Endocrine and nervous systems Secretin (hormone): stimulates bicarbonate release from pancreas (duct cell) Cholecystokinin (CCK) (released from wall of small intestine): stimulate enzyme release from pancreas

9. A differential WBC count revealed an elevated ___________ count. These are all symptoms of Leukemia, a bacterial infection, a parasitic infection, seasonal allergies, a viral infection.

Eosinophil

You are looking at differential WBC counts for two patients. One patient has a parasitic infection while the other has a viral infection. The patient with the parasitic infection would have a high ___ differential count, while the patient with a viral infection would have a high ____ differential count.

Eosinophil; Monocyte

6. You are looking at differential WBC counts for two patients. One patient has parasitic infection while the other has a viral infection. The patient with the parasitic infection would have a high _____ differential count, while the patient with the viral infection would have a high ____ differential count.

Eosinophil; monocyte

How does the body protect itself from all this acid?

Epithelium of stomach has a high cell turnover rate and the thick bicarbonate mucus covers epithelium. Mucus and cell turnover, then bicarbonate in small intestine

35. The viscosity of blood is due more to _____________ than to any other factor.

Erythrocytes

The viscosity of blood is due to more ___ than to any other factor?

Erythrocytes

59. Hematocrit is the percent volume of _____ and averages about ____ Percent.

Erythrocytes; 45

54. The kidneys secrete the hormone _____, which stimulates RBC production.

Erythropoietin

_____ is secreted in response to hypoxia and produces a negative feedback loop that raises the oxygen concentration of the blood.

Erythropoietin

An antiport system on the brush borders of the kidney tubules

Exchanges H+ for Na+

Renal Columns

Extensions of renal cortex found in between renal pyramids

2. In the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle, __ inhibits

FSH and LH secretion progesterone

12. Which of these is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

Fever

4. Blood serum is essentially the same as blood plasma, except that plasma contains ________ and serum does not.

Fibrinogen

These plasma proteins are made in the liver and form a major component of blood clots.

Fibrinogen

Mouth

First part of the alimentary canal; Mechanical breakdown of food; begins chemical digestion of carbohydrates Functions to receive food and begin mechanical and chemical digestion Masrication and Enzymes

Duodenum:

First portion of the small intestine; C-shaped

Swallowing Reflex

Food forced into pharynx by the tongue Sensory receptors sense food, which triggers swallowing reflex (medulla and pons) Peristalsis transports food through the esophagus to the stomach

Intestinal and mesenteric lymph nodes

Found in the mesenteris, adjacent to the appendix and intestines. Monitor lymph from the digestive tract.

Macrophages

Found within the lymph nodes, they are phagocytes that destroy bacteria, cancer cells, and other foreign matter in the lymphatic stream.

Liver Lobule

Functional unit of liver

The liver

Functions in metabolic activities, storage of nutrients, filtration of blood, and chemical digestion Performs over 500 jobs, and makes over 1000 essential enzymes!! Divided into left and right lobes, which consist of lobules containing hepatic cells radiating from a central vein

62. Each of the following lists some of the intermediates of glycolysis and aerobic respiration. Which one lists them in correct metabolic order?

G6P, PGAL, pyruvic acid, acetyl-CoA, citric acid

Each of the following lists some of the intermediates of glycolysis and aerobic respiration. which one lists them in the correct metabolic order?

G6P; PGAL, pyruvic acid, acetyl-CoA, citric acid

Rh0GAM (rhogam) is an antibody given to Rh- women who give birth to a Rh+ child. Rhogam is what type of plasma protein?

Gamma (γ) globulin

26. Which one of these plasma proteins is not made in the liver?

Gamma-globulin

Antibodies belong to a class of plasma proteins called

Gamma-globulins

Stimulate the stomach:

Gastrin, Histamine, Intestinal gastrin, and Parasympathetic stimulation

Urine Formation and Flow

Glomerulus----> Capsular space---> Proximal convoluted tubule---> descending loop----> ascending loop---> distal convoluted tubule---> Collecting duct----> papillary duct------> renal papilla-----> minor calyce----> major calyce----> renal pelvis-----> urethra-----> external urethral orifice

21. According to one hypothesis, the satiety center has neurons called _____ that rapidly absorb glucose after a meal and send inhibitory signals to the feeding center.

Glucostats

31 _____________ is not found in plasma.

Glycogen

Which of these is not found in the blood?

Glycogen

7. Which of these is least characteristic of the postabsorptive state?

Glycogenesis

57. About four hours after a meal, which one of the following will be stimulated?

Glycogenolysis

Which of the following cells are not found in the gastric glands?

Goblet cells

28. An antiport system on the brush borders of the kidney tubules exchanges

H+ for Na+.

The main chemical stimulus for cerebral autoregulation is changes in

H+ or CO2

14. Substantial amounts of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) are filtered out of the blood by the glomerulus, but urine is usually bicarbonate free. Bicarbonate ions combine with ____ ions in the glomerular filtrate to form ____, which diffuses into the epithelial cells.

H+; CO215.

13. If you could trace the hydrogen ions removed from the blood and excreted in the urine, most of them would be part of the ___ of the urine.

H2O

If you could trace the hydrogen ions removed from the blood and excreted in the urine, most of them would be part of the ____ of the urine

H2O

34. Which one of the below would be characterized as a strong acid?

HCl

Lung circulation

Has 300 million alveoli and each one is individually wrapped with a capillary network.

Unlike the small intestine, the large intestine shows pouches called ___ along its length.

Haustra

These Cells recognize an Ag-MHCP complex, secrete interlukins, attract macrophages and stimulate T and B cell mitosis and maturation.

Helper T cells

7. Specialized cells called _____ produce all the formed elements.

Hemocytoblasts

32. ___________ is a protein not commonly found in plasma.

Hemoglobin

* When a mixture of gases is in contact with a liquid, the amount of each gas that dissolves in the liquid is proportional to its partial pressure, according to

Henry's law

Which of the following agents opposes coagulation?

Heparin

1. Basophils aid in the mobility and action of leukocytes by releasing an anticoagulant called _____ and a vasodilator called ____.

Heparin; histamine

The stomach, deuodenum, pancreas, liver, and gall bladder are all supplied by the ___ arteries.

Hepatic

56. Glucose and amino acids are absorbed into the _____ and fats are absorbed into the _____.

Hepatic portal system; lymphatic system

20. Which one of the following vessels would have the highest concentration of glucose?

Hepatic portal vein

Hepatic Triads Three structures found in corners of liver lobule:

Hepatic portal vein Hepatic Artery • Hepatic portal v. and hepatic a. mix together; Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood → drain into central vein → Hepatic Vein → Inferior vena cava Bile duct: • collects bile from bile canaliculi; Collecting bile, product of hepatocytes

Sinusoids

Hepatocytes remove nutrients from blood as the plasma leaks out between endothelial cells

61. The esophagus pierces through the diaphragm at the ____, and its submucosa contains ____ glands that secrete mucus.

Hiatus; esophageal

The esophagus pierces through the diaphragm at the ___, and its submucosa contains ___ glands that secrete mucus.

Hiatus; esopheageal

57. When you inhale, your lungs expand easily because they have.

High compliance.

Blood had aff of the following functions except?

Hormone production

3. Increase of blood flow to the skin or body part is called: _______.

Hyper-enemia

In sunburn, the redness of the skin results from

Hyperemia

62. Which of the following conditions is likely to produce the highest daily output of sodium in the urine?

Hypertension

46. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to suffocation?

Hypocalcaemia

The heart rate is increased by

Hypocalcemia

You are working outside on a hot day, sweating profusely, and drinking large quantities of water. You may be subjecting yourself to

Hypotonic hydration.

How can circulatory shock be fatal?

If circulatory shock persists, then irreversible damage to the heart and brain occur. Precapillary sphincters and arterioles vasodilate can cause a fatal decline in BP

19. Salivary glands produce ___, which inhibits bacterial growth.

IgA

15. Most circulating antibodies and the only ones that cross the placenta are

IgG

21. The first time a person is exposed to an antigen, the plasma cells produce _____ upon later exposures they produce_____

IgG; IgM

7. The largest antibodies are in the ___ class.

IgM

The first time you are exposed to a particular antigen, your plasma cells produce mainly ____ antibodies

IgM

Atrial Systole begins

Immediately after the P wave

IgD

Immunoglobulin. Less than 3%. Found only as a receptor on B cell membrane, Doesn't allow antigens to get into the body, Not secreted, stays attached to B cell

Where are fenestrated capillaries found?

In the hypothalamus, pituitary, pineal and thyroid glands.

You have all seen movies of people stranded in the ocean abroad lifeboats. The people are surrounded by water yet they cannot drink the seawater. The seawater would

Increase the blood osmolarity, and the tissues would become more dehydrated.

37. You measured your resting breathing frequency at 12 breaths per minute with a tidal volume of 500 mL per breath. You exercised by riding a bicycle and peddled as fast as you could for 20 minutes. You then stopped and measured your breathing frequency and tidal volume again. You would predict that your breathing frequency would _____ and your tidal volume would _____.

Increase; increase

46. In diabetes mellitus, acidosis can cause _____ depth and rate of breathing, which is called _____.

Increased; Kussmaul respiration

41. Aldosterone has which of the following effects?

Increases Na+ reabsorption and reduces K+ reabsorption

23. Complement C3a proteins stimulate mast cells and basophils to promote _____, and complement C3b proteins trigger stimulation of proteins called _____

Inflammation; Membrane attack complex

33 Many diuretic drugs, such as furosemide (Lasix), produce osmotic diuresis by

Inhibiting Na+ reabsorption.

Tunica mucosa:

Inner most layer; Epithelium attached to connective tissue, protects underlying tissues; Secretion and absorption

11. Water lost through the breath and cutaneous transpiration is called ____ water loss and averages about ____ mL/day.

Insensible; 700

65. An increase in blood glucose will stimulate the release of _____ and most of any excess glucose will be stored as _____.

Insulin; fat

5. Glycogenesis is stimulated by ______, and glycogenolysis is stimulated by _____.

Insulin; glucagon and EP

31. The arcuate arteries travel at the junction of the medulla and cortex and give rise to ______ arteries, which pass outward into the cortex.

Interlobular

The largest Vein that drains the neck and the head is the __ vein

Internal jugular

The enterogastric reflex regulates the ___ phase of gastric activity.

Intestinal

Chylomicron Formation

Intestinal cells absorb (passive diffusion) lipids from micelles, resynthesize triglycerides, and package triglycerides, cholesterol and phospholipids into protein-coated chylomicrons

31. Lingual lipase and lysozymes are produced by ___ salivary glands.

Intrinsic

21. Vitamin B12 which is needed for red blood cell production, requires _____ for its absorption.

Intrinsic factor

45. Inhaled foreign objects tend to lodge more in the right bronchus because it.

Is wider and more vertical than the left.

Stomach:

J-shaped muscular organ that receives and mixes food with digestive juices, and propels food to small intestine

8. The concentration gradient is maintained in the renal medulla by _____ nephrons, which make up ____% of the nephrons.

Juxtamedullary; 15

12. Which of the following cations is most concentrated in the intracellular fluid?

K+

31. The volume of water in a cell is governed mainly by the amount of ___ in the cytoplasm.

K+

3. When fats are incompletely oxidized, they yield ___, which may cause acidosis.

Ketones

4. You found a high level of albumin in the urine. This was most likely caused by

Kidney trauma or infection.

The highest percentage of cholesterol is found in

LDL's

40. An individual who has atherosclerosis would have a high ____ ratio.

LDL: HDL

12. The highest percentage of cholesterol is found in

LDLs.

Chylomicrons are taken up by the _____ of a _____.

Lacteal; villus

26. Special lymphatic vessels that absorb dietary lipids that can't be absorbed into the capillaries.

Lacteals

30. The two major dietary disaccharides are _____, and ultimately all carbohydrate digestion generates _____.

Lactose and sucrose; glucose

Lamina propria, muscularis mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa (Lp+MmS=MeS)

Natural killer (NK) cells

Large, granular, cytotoxic lymphocytes that circulate in the blood. NK cells are important in innate immunity to viruses and other intracellular pathogens and also kill certain tumor cells. They are the cytotoxic cells in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC).

2. Eicosanoids and bile salts are made from which of the following nutrients?

Lipids

34. Lactic acid formed in RBCs and in fast twitch muscle fibers leaves the cells, enters the bloodstream to the _____ and is oxidized to _____.

Liver; pyruvic acid

Adipose Capsule

Located between renal fascia and renal capsule

Layers of the stomach:

Longitudinal muscle, Circular muscle, and Oblique muscle

Tunica submucosa:

Loose connective tissue, houses blood an lymph vessels and nerves; Nourishment; Controls the actions of the tunica mucosa per the submucosa plexus

30. One of the major processes that transforms a spermatid into a spermatozoon is

Loss of excess cytoplasm.

The renal vein has a larger diameter than the renal artery with the renal vein havingg a larger ____ but smaller___.

Lumen; tunica media

23. Which hormone stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone?

Luteinizing hormone

What are Peyer's patches, and where are they located?

Lymphatic follicles of the ileum

25. The function of an antigen-presenting cell depends on the presence of ___ on its plasma membrane. s

MHC protein

5. Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells respond to ____ proteins, while helper T (TH) cells respond to _____ proteins.

MHC-1; MHC-2

Cytotoxic T (T0) cells responded to ____ proteins, while helper T (TH) cells respond to ___ proteins

MHC-I; MHC-II

The main antigen-presenting cells in the body are

Macrophages

Important Liver Functions:

Main role in digestion: Production of bile help in the digestion of lipids Metabolic activities: Synthesis, breakdown, or conversion of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins; Detoxification (eg. ammonia urea) Stores: Glycogen, vitamins A, D, B12, iron, and copper Filters the blood, removing damaged RBCs, foreign substances, toxins Secretes bile for digestion

These are "identification tags" that label every cell of your body as belonging to you.

Major histocompatability complex proteins.

36. Our need for all of the following except ___ is met partly by our own intestinal bacteria.

Manganese

Our need for all of the following except ___ is met partly by our own intestinal bacteria.

Manganese

57. The gastrocolic reflex triggers ___ in response to filling of the stomach.

Mass movements

35. The narrow air passages which cause turbulence are called ____ and are lined by ____.

Meatuses; ciliated pseudostratified columnar

Digestion:

Mechanical and chemical breakdown of food so that nutrients can be absorbed by cells Consists of the alimentary canal, leading from the mouth to the anus, and accessory organs whose secretions aid the process of digestion

Mouth:

Mechanical breakdown of food; begins chemical digestion of carbohydrates

52. The inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the ____, while the apneustic and pneumotaxic centers are located in the _____.

Medulla oblongata; pons

10. Which of the following cells is far larger than all the others?

Megakaroblasts

19. Thrombopoietin causes which cells to differentiate?

Megakaryocytes

7. Mitochondria are found in the ___ of a spermatozoon.

Midpiece

Small Intestine:

Mixes food with bile and pancreatic juice. Final anzymatic breakdown of food molecules; main site of nutrient absorption

Continuous capillaries

Most abundant capillaries located in all tissues except cartilage and epithelia. they are specialized continuous with restricted permeability responsible for the blood brain barrier

Gastric glands generally contain four types of cells:

Mucous cells, chief cell, Parietal cells, and Enderoendocribe cells (G cells)

Esophagus

Muscular tube that leads to the stomach; Has esophageal sphincters; Powerful peristalsis!

An individual is feeling severe chest pain, which radiates to the neck, jaw, shoulder, and left arm. The individual is showing symptoms of

Myocardial infarction.

56. An increase in the blood plasma concentration of _____ may lead to water retention, hypertension, and edema.

Na+

Electrolytes

Na+, K+, Cl -, etc...

34. The _____ houses the pharyngeal tonsils and receives the auditory tubes, while the ____ houses the palatine and lingual tonsils.

Nasopharynx; oropharynx

The mother is Rh-, has Rh antibodies, and is carrying an Rh+ fetus. The movement of the Rh antibodies across the placenta causes ____ immunity. Rh- mothers should be given RhoGAM after every fetal event where the fetus is Rh+. Injecting the mother with RhoGAM causes ____ immunity.

Natural passive; artificial passive

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes are

Neurtrophils

50 The most common leukocyte is the ____, while the least common leukocyte is the ______.

Neutrophil; basophil

The most common leukocyte is the ____, while the least common leukocyte is the ______.

Neutrophil; basophil

28. ___________ employ a "respiratory burst" to produce bactericidal chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and hypochlorite (HClO).

Neutrophils

Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by ____ in a process called ____.

Neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization

Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Fructose?

No, Facilitated diffusion

Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Fats?

No, Passive diffusion

Peyer's patches

Nodes of lymphocytes to fight pathogens Looks like lil anthills

14. Penile cancer has been linked to human papilloma cancer. What other conditions is this cancer related to?

Non-retractable foreskins.

How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart?

None

6. Uric acid is formed by the catabolism of _____, while creatinine is formed by the catabolism of _____.

Nucleic acids; creatine phosphate

An ER patient has been in an automobile accident. He is unconscious and his medical history is unkonwn, but he is found to have blood type B+. He needs blood and the only following types are available. Which would be safest to administer?

O -

Carbon Monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas that occurs in cigarette smoke, engine exhaust, and fumes form furnaces and space heaters. Carbon monoxide competes with ____ for the same binding site located on the

O ; iron in heme

The universal donor is type

O, Rh negative

54. The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is O, Rh-Negative

O, Rh-Negative

* Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas that occurs in cigarette smoke, engine exhaust, and fumes from furnaces and space heaters. Carbon monoxide competes with _____ for the same binding site located on the _____.

O2; iron in heme

60. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas that occurs in cigarette smoke, engine exhaust, and fumes from furnaces and space heaters. Carbon monoxide competes with ____ for the same binding site located on the _____.

O2; iron in heme

Diarrhea

Often due to infections/irritants; leads to malabsorption or increased motility

One mechanism of antibody action is ____, which makes bacteria easier to phagocytize.

Opsonization

Tunica Serosa:

Outermost layer; Visceral peritoneum, protects underlying tissues, secretes serous fluid for movement

Renal Cortex

Outermost region of the kidney, contains renal corpuscles

2. Persons with androgen-insensitivity syndrome have all of the following except

Ovaries, vagina and uterus.

64. Carbon monoxide binds 210 times as tightly as _____ to the _____ of hemoglobin.

Oxygen; iron on heme

63. Hemoglobin bound to at least one molecule of O2 is called _____; hemoglobin bound to no O2 is called _____, and hemoglobin bound to CO2 is called _____.

Oxyhemoglobin; deoxyhemoglobin; carbaminohemoglobin

26. Which of the following has the strongest stimulatory effect on pulmonary ventilation?

PCO2 of the blood

24. The ______________ tonsils are the largest, and their surgical removal (tonsillectomy) used to be one of the most common surgical procedures performed in children.

Palatine

Pancreatic juice enzymes include:

Pancreatic amylase: digests carbs Pancreatic lipase: digests lipids Trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase: digests proteins Nucleases: digests nucleic acids

10. Trace urine from the collecting duct of the nephron to the ureter.

Papillary duct → minor calyx → major calyx → renal pelvis

A Chemical digestion consists of the conversion of proteins into peptides by

Pepsin

Esophagus:

Peristalsis pushes food down to stomach

27. Starting in the abdominal cavity and progressing dorsally, you would have to cut through the ___, in this order, to expose the kidney.

Peritoneum, renal fascia, adipose capsule, and renal capsule

9. Which of the following correctly traces the route of air flow in the respiratory tract?

Pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchiole

24. Particles stuck in mucus are moved out of the bronchioles, bronchi, and trachea to the _____ by _____.

Pharynx; movement of cilia

66. When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by

Plasmin

52. ____ are formed elements of the blood that are not and never were true cells.

Platelets

28. Special cells called _____ wrap _____ around the glomeruli to form negatively charged filtration slits.

Podocytes; pedicles

44. Which of the following could result from an overly zealous program of exercise?

Polycythemia

14. Antibody molecules consist of anywhere from 4-20+ _______ chains, depending on which class of antibody is considered.

Polypeptide

Some tumors of the adrenal cortex secrete excess aldosterone and may cause paralysis........

Posassium;decreased

39. Some tumors of the adrenal cortex secrete excess aldosterone and may cause paralysis. You would expect decreased levels of ____ causing ____ levels of nervous system activity.

Potassium; decreased

Hepatocytes:

Produce bile; drains into bile ducts and used for digestion of fats

Pancreas:

Produces and secretes pancreatic juice, containing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions into small intestine

Liver:

Produces bile, which emulsifies fat

Thrombopoietin is a hormone produced by the liver and kidneys that stimulates ___ to be committed to form ____

Proerythroblasts; hemocytoblasts

1. In a woman who is neither pregnant nor nursing, milk secretion is inhibited by

Prolactin-inhibiting factor

45. Contractions of the female reproductive tract may be stimulated by ___ in the semen.

Prostaglandins

39. Men have only one ___ but have two of all the rest of these.

Prostate gland.

The most common nutrient in the blood is ____; the most common electrolyte is ____ ; and the most nitrogenous waste is _____.

Protein; Na; urea

The coronary artery receives blood from the ____, and the coronary sinus empties blood into the _____.

Pulmonary Vein; right atrium

In the cardiovascular system the ____ circut carries blood to and from the lungs, which is served by the ____ side of the heart.

Pulmonary; right

Which one of the following parts of the conduction system directly stimulates the ventricles

Purjinje fibers

Order:

Pyloric sphincter → Duodenum → Pancreatic duct → Hepatopancreatic sphincter

Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the ___ of the electrocardiogram.

R wave

Hepatic "plates"

Radially arranged Blood filtered as it flows from portal vein and hepatic artery toward central vein in center Nutrients, toxins, bile pigments, drugs, bacteria & debris filtered

50. When the renal tubules secrete hydrogen ions into the tubular fluid, they ___ at the same time.

Reabsorb sodium

When the renal tubules secrete hydrogen ions into the tubular fluid, they ___ at the same time

Reabsorb sodium

Renal Pelvis

Recieves urine from the major calyces

In an adult blood cell formation occurs in the

Redbone marrow and lymphoid tissues

Spongy Urethra

Region of male urethra that passes through penis

Prostatic Urethra

Region of male urethra that passes through the prostate gland

Membranous Urethra

Region of male urethra that passes through urogenital diapragm

Renal Medulla

Region of the kidney deep to the cortex; contains collecting duct

Rectum:

Regulates the elimination of feces

Pyloric sphincter:

Regulates the entrance of chime into the duodenum of the small intestine

Regulation of secretion:

Release controlled by cholecystokinin (CCK) in response to chime CCK is released by cells of small intestine wall; targets gallbladder to release bile

Blood Flow Through the Kidneys

Renal Aretey---> Segmental Arteries-------> Interlobar Arteries --------> Arcuate Arteries -------> Interlobular Arteries---------> Afferent Arteriole------> Glomerular Capillaries------> Efferent Arterioles -------> Peritubular Capillaries-------> Interlobular Veins------> Arcuate Veins-----> Interlobar Veins----> Renal Vein

46. __________ is more likely to cause anemia than any of the other factors below.

Renal disease

19. The first step leading to angiotensin II production is the secretion of ___ by the kidneys.

Renin

9. The physiological buffer system that works the fastest is the _____ system, and the physiological buffer system that buffers the greatest quantity of acid or base is the _____ system.

Respiratory; urinary

17. An excess of this vitamin can cause anorexia, hair loss, and birth defects.

Retinol (A)

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) contains the enzyme ____ that stimulates host cells to produce DNA from Viral ____.

Reverse transcriptive; RNA

47. Which of the following would provide the lowest quantity of minerals for a given weight of food?

Rice and white flour

Pancreatic juice made by acinar cells

Rich in enzymes that digests proteins, fats, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids Pancreatic juice aids in the digestion of macromolecules in chyme Pancreatic juice drains into pancreatic duct Empties into small intestine via hepatopancreatic sphincter

65. Half of the penis, called its ___, is internal and normally cannot be seen.

Root

27. All of the following except ___ contribute to the large surface area available for nutrient absorption in the small intestine.

Rugae

B. Saliva contains:

Salivary amylase Lingual lipase Mucus Lysozyme IgA Electrolytes

Accessory Organs:

Salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

16. Meiosis II is the process by which _____ become _____.

Secondary spermatocytes; spermatids

Duct cells

Secrete bicarbonate component of pancreatic juice Serves to neutralize acid chime in the duodendum

Enteroendocrine cells (G cells)

Secrete hormones such as histamine and gastrin

Salivary glands:

Secrete saliva which contains enzymes that initiate breakdown of carbohydrates

Salivary Glands:

Secrete saliva, a hypotonic liquid which has mucus and enzyme components; used for chemical digestion of CHO

Acinar cells

Secrete the enzyme component of pancreatic juice Makes pancreatic juice Release enzymes in response to CCK

Parietal cells

Secretes HCl Also secrete intrinsic factor, necessary for vitamin B12 absorption in the small intestine

Stomach:

Secretes acids and enzymes. Mixes food with secretions to begin enzymatic digestion of proteins

Chief cell

Secretes zymogens like pepsin (protein digestion), gastric lipase (lipid digestion) Both are not activated til the small intestine

Inhibit the Stomach:

Secretin, CCK, and Sympathetic stimulation

13. CYTOTOXIC T-cells are the only T lymphocytes that directly attack and kill other cells. List one of the ways

Secretion of Perforin (protein)

Loop of Henle

Section of renal tubule that descends into medulla

63. In a vascular spasm, the injured smooth muscles vasoconstrict and platelets release ______, which is a chemical vasoconstrictor.

Serotonin

When platelets degranulate, they release a vasoconstrictor called ______, which aids in hemostasis.

Serotonin

Contact digestion

Several enzymes act on or inside epithelial cells; Surface area of the monomer must be touching the epithelium of the small intestine; a. Disaccharidases (maltase, sucrase, lactase): Convert disaccharides to monosaccharides b. Proteases: Converts proteins into amino acids

The endocardium is lined by a ___ epithelium called the ___.

Simple Squamos; Endothelium

How's is the stomach impacted by secretin?

Slow it down; Inhibits the stomach

Acetylcholine binds to musacarinic receptors on the SA node and causing a K+ leak. This will cause the heart to

Slow its rate of contraction

1. The bronchioles have walls with _____ that are contracted by stimulation of the ____ nervous system.

Smooth muscle; parasympathetic.

63. The internal urethral sphincter is made up of _____ muscle and contracts in response to _____ stimulation.

Smooth; sympathetic

SGLT, an active transport pup of the small intestine, can only absorb glucose by simultaneously transporting

Sodium.

Renal Sinus

Space within kidney that is adjacent to renal medulla, contains calyces and renal pelvis

17. After about 120 days and 700 miles, red blood cells become fragile due to the deterioration of the peripheral protein called ____. The cell fragments are phagocytized by _____ in the spleen and liver.

Spectrin; macrophages

36. At what stage does a developing sperm cell begin to grow a tail?

Spermatid

53. Which of the following represents the correct order in the process of spermatogenesis?

Spermatogonium → primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatids → spermatozoa

. You are getting really concerned about taking in enough fluids. You decided to double your fluid intake from two to four liters per day. Your blood volume would _____ and your urine volume would _____.

Stay the same; increase

You are getting really concerned about taking in enough fluids. You decide to double your fluid intake from two to four liters per day. Your blood volume would ___ and your urine volume would ____.

Stay the same; increase

Gallbladder:

Store bile and introduce it into the small intestine

The _____ commonly measures about 75 ml

Stroke Volume

Renal Capsule

Structure composed of glomerulus and glomerular capsule

Alimentary Canal Structure of the wall:

Structure of wall similar throughout, vary according to specific function of that area The myenteric and submucosal nerve plexuses make up the entire nervous system, which regulates gastric motility and secretions

Glomerular Capsule

Structure that surrounds glomerulus and collects filtrate

Cane sugar is digested by

Sucrase

38. In response to dehydration, the thirst center in the hypothalamus sends ____ signals to the salivary glands to ____ saliva production.

Sympathetic; decrease

In response to dehydration, the thirst center in the hypothalamus sends ____ signals to the salivary glands to the ____ saliva production.

Sympathetic; decrease

55. The postabsorptive state is regulated mainly by the ____ nervous system and the hormone _____.

Sympathetic; glucagon

16. The kidneys are located at levels _____ vertebrae, and the _____ kidney is more inferior because of the space occupied by the liver above it.

T12 to L3; right

27. Which of the following is an androgen?

Testosterone

28. Which of the following hormones directly stimulates the development of male secondary sex characteristics?

Testosterone

4. Which of these is the site of contact digestion?

The brush border of the small intestine

lymphadenopathy

The collective term for all lymph node diseases

The most important determinant of total peripheral resistance is?

The diameter of the arterioles (the smaller, the greater the resistance)

Alderstone receptors are found on cells of

The distal convoluted tubule

The hepatic portal vein receives blood from all of the following except?

The hepatic veins

Gastric Secretions Regulated by:

The hormone gastrin - increases gastric motility and stimulates secretions Food entering small intestine - decreases gastric mobility bc the SI needs time to process i. Cholecystokinin (CCK) and Secretin released from small intestine ii. Decrease gastric mobility/secretions; Inhibit stomach productivity

3. _______ protects the lungs from damage by over-inflation.

The inflation reflex

37 The cells of the distal convoluted tubule that come in contact with the afferent arteriole are

The macula densa.

efferent lymphatic vessels

The medullary sinuses drain into one or two effernt lymphatic vessels which are wider and fewer in number than afferent vessels. They contain valves that open away from the cneter of the lymph node to convey lymph, antiodies secreted by plasma cells, and activated T cells OUT of the node

54. You were following a molecule of glucose from the artery outside the tooth to an odontoblast in the dentin.

The pathway glucose would take is apical foramen > root canal > pulp cavity

10. What will be the result if the number of Na+-K+ pumps in the distal convoluted tubule is increased?

The potassium concentration of the urine will rise.

24. If we follow the ureter into the kidney, we find that the first structure to arise from it is

The renal pelvis.

42. Fibrinogen, a clotting protein, is found not only in the blood but also in the secretion of

The seminal vesicles.

Gastric Actions

The stomach does very little absorption; Absorbs small amounts of water, salts, alcohol, and lipid-soluble drugs Mixing and emptying actions: After a meal, mixing actions turn the food into a creamy paste called chyme; The rate at which the stomach empties depends on the fluidity of the chyme and the type of food

35. The testes receive a poor oxygen supply mainly because

The testicular artery has a very low blood pressure.

Absorption:

The uptake of nutrient molecules into the epithelial cells of the digestive tract and then into the blood and lymph

The cardioinhibitory center communicates with the heart by way of

The vagus nerves.

Gastric rugae

The wrinkles on the lumen of the stomach

Lymphatics

This is the system of drainage vessels that collect interstitial fluid and returns it to the bloodstream. (AKA- Lymphatic Vessels)

59. An individual has an impacted tooth.

This tooth is most likely the third molar-Wisdom tooth

65. Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by clots in unbroken vessels. This condition is called _____ and pieces may break loose of the vessel wall and travel in the bloodstream a a(n) ____.

Thrombosis / embolus

4. The vocal cords are anchored in the ____ cartilage and are controlled by movement of _____ cartilage(s).

Thyroid; arytenoid and corniculate

Swallowing Process:

Tongue compresses food against palate to form a bolus Bolus passes into pharynx. Misdirection of bolus is prevented by tongue blocking oral cavity, soft plate blocking nasal cavity, and epiglottis blocking larynx Upper esophageal sphincter constricts and bolus passes downward. Peristalsis drives bolus down esophagus. Esophagus constricts above bolus and dilates and shortens below it. Lower esophageal sphincter relaxes to admit bolus to stomach

45. Which of the following correctly matches an iron-binding protein to its site of action?

Transferrin-bloodstream

55 The ___ pressure is the gas pressure between the parietal and visceral pleurae minus the gas pressure in the alveoli. y

Transpulmonar

1. A gram of fat has about ___ the calories of a gram of starch.

Twice

Tunica muscularis externa:

Two layers of smooth muscle, circular and longitudinal; propel food Myenteric plexus is between the inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer

Urethral Openings

Two openings in posterior urinary bladder wall

14. The left lung has _____ lobes and the right lung has _____ lobes to make room for the _____.

Two; three; heart

7. The collecting duct reabsorbs not only water but also ___, thus contributing to the osmotic gradient of the renal medulla.

Urea

The collecting duct reabsorbs not only water also ___, thus contributing to the osmotic gradient of the renal meduall

Urea

Papillary Ducts

Urine Flowing through this structure drains into a minor calyx

Major calyces

Urine flowing through this structure drains into the renal pelvis

Urethra

Urine is excreted through this opening

Nephron

Urine-forming structure of the kidney

3. Which of the following is/are female secondary sex organ(s)?

Uterus

Which of the following is not a form of nonspecific resistance?

Vaccination

Cephalic Phase:

Vagus nerve stimulate gastric secretion even before food is swallowed; i.e. the though, smell of food

The cardioinhibitory center communicates with the heart by way of the

Vagus nerves

39. To help expel abdominopelvic contents during urination, defecation, or childbirth, we often take a deep breath, hold it, and then contract the abdominal muscles. This is called the

Valsalva maneuver.

If the chordae Tendineae of an animal's heart were cut, the most likely effect would be?

Valvular prolapse

11. The capillary bed associated with nephron loop in the juxtamedullary nephron is the

Vasa recta.

48. Which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate?

Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole

27. Which one of the following is an unsaturated fat?

Vegetable oil

Renal Hilus

Vertical fissure in concave surface of kidney through which blood vessels and ureters pass

afferent lymphatic vessels

Vessels that bring lymph draining from connective tissue into a lymph node en route to the blood.

29. Which of the following is most important in keeping food out of the trachea?

Vestibular folds

30. The dilated chamber inside the ala nasi of the external protruding nose is called the _____ and is lined by _____ epithelium. The ala nasi can be seen below.

Vestibule; stratified squamous

61. The amount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration is called ______, and the amount of air left that cannot be exhaled is called ______.

Vital capacity; residual volume.

34. A deficiency of _____________ can cause pernicious anemia.

Vitamin B12

External Urethral Sphincter

Voluntary skeletal muscle in urogenital diaphragm that allows passage of urine to exterior

9. Pectin is a _____ fiber found in oats, beans, peas, carrots, brown rice, and fruits. This fiber reduces blood _____.

Water-soluble; cholestrol and LDL

9. The thin segment of the descending limb of the nephron loop is very permeable to ____, while the thick segment of the ascending nephron loop actively transports ____ into the ECF.

Water; Na+, K+, 2 Cl-

41. Of the macronutrients we consume, _____ is required in the largest daily quantity and _____ is required in the least daily quantity.

Water; protein

What is the buffy coat? White blood cells and platelets

When blood is removed for a test- whole blood is spun in a centrifuge. The buffy coat is a layer of White blood cells between plasma 55% of whole blood, and Erythrocytes 45% of whole blood WBC buffy coat less than 1% of whole blood.

29. The buffy coat does not contain erythrocytes.

White blood cell layer after whole blood is spun in a centrifuge. True the buffy coat does not contain Erythrocytes.

Gastric glands

Within the mucosa of the stomach open up as gastric pits

Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Glucose?

Yes, Co-Transport

Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Amino Acids?

Yes, Co-transport

Does Sodium help absorb this nutrient? If so, why? Galactose?

Yes, Co-transport

16. At a normal pH, the extracellular fluid has about

a 20:1 ratio of bicarbonate ions to carbonic acid.

precapillary sphincter

a band of smooth muscle tissue around the entrance of each capillary to control the diameter of the capillary lumen

Aneurysm

a bulge in the weakened wall of an artery that can pop. the most dangerous are in the brain (strokes) or aorta (bleed out in minutes). Occurs frequently in patients with arterial inflammation or infection, arteriosclerosis, and Marfans syndrome

pharyngeal tonsil

a collection of lymphatic tissue in the throat behind the uvula (on the posterior wall and roof of the nasopharynx)

65. The sense of thirst is satiated by all of the following mechanisms, but the one with the longest-lasting effect is

a drop in blood osmolarity

The sense of thirst is satiated by all of the following mechanisms, but the one with the longest lasting effect is

a drop in blood osmolarity

Hydrostatic pressure

a force exerted against its osmotic will (heart pumps blood)

orthostasis

a form of hypotension when the carotid reflex doesn't work properly

lingual tonsils,

a mass of lymphoid tissue, which covers the base of the tongue posterior to the oral cavity proper

29. The cell in spermatogenesis that undergoes meiosis I is

a primary spermatocyte.

Zymogen:

a proenzyme that is activated once a piece of it is cleaved

Your blood is type AB, Rh positive and you are willing to give blood. In spite of a national shortage of blood, you were turned away by your local blood bank. The reason for being turned away is that your blood is

a rare type and can only be given AB, Rh positive recipients.

31. Which of the following is not a spermatic duct?

a seminiferous tubule

An individual has a white blood cell count of 25,000 cells/MicroL. You could assume that the individual may have

a severe infection

Lymph

a thin coagulable fluid (similar to plasma but) containing white blood cells (lymphocytes) and chyle

Villi

a. Fingerlike extention b. Increase surface area (10x), help in mixing actions c. Each villus has a core of connective tissue containing blood vessels and a lymphatic capillary called a lacteal

edema

abnormal increase volume of interstitial fluid due to the disturbance in balance of hydrostatic pressure vs. osmotic pressure.

Absorptive cells:

absorb & transport nutrients to blood & lymph vessels (lymph vessel = lacteal)

Large Intestine:

absorbs water and electrolytes to form feces

61. The liver performs all of the following functions except

absorption of digested nutrients.

53. Pepsin is an enzyme which is most effective in the very _____ environment of the _____.

acidic; stomach

20. If a person's urine has an unusually high concentration of ammonium chloride, we would suspect that the person has

acidosis.

16. Antibodies work in a similar fashion; they bind to pathogens and expose sites to

activate the complement system

Lingual lipase

activated in stomach; not activated till low pH; Breaks down lipids

63. H+-K+ ATPase is an

active transport pump which is essential for the secretion of stomach acid

43. Sodium ions enter the epithelial cells from the glomerular filtrate by symport and antiport, yet the concentration of Na+ in the cytoplasm remains low. This can be explained because Na+ is

actively transported by the Na+-K+ pump into the extracellular fluid.44. H+, Cl-, K+, Na+, Ca2+.

shock

acute circulatory crisis marked by low BP and inadequate peripheral blood flow.

atrial reflexes

adjust flow based on pressure stimulation in right atrium

aortic reflex

adjust pressure to ensure adequate blood flow through systemic circuit

This is the outer tunic in the oral cavity, pharynx, most of the esophagus, and the rectum. It is composed of a fibrous connective tissue layer called the

adventitia

Blood pressure in the glomerulus is unusually high compared to other capillaries because the diameter of the ___ is greater than that of the ___.

afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole

Mucus

aids swallowing

In a puncture of the dural sinus there is great danger of blocking cardiac output because of a (an)

air embolism

18. Most of the wall of an alveolus consists of _____. Cells that wander the lumens of the alveoli and surrounding connective tissue are called _____. Squamous (type I)

alveolar cells; alveolar macrophages

51. lymphocytes

an agranulocytic leukocyte that normally makes up a quarter of the white blood cell count but increases in the presence of infection

A weakened vessel that bulges during systole is called

an aneurysm

Capillaries

an endothelial tube with a basal lamina

Cisterna Chyli

an enlarged pouch on the thoracic duct that serves as a storage area for lymph moving toward its point of entry into the venous system

A weak point in a blood vessel or heart wall that forms a thin walled, bulging sac that may rupture is called a(n)

aneurysm

A weak point in the blood vessel or heart wall that forms a thin-walled, bulging sac that may rupture is called and

aneurysm

4. People who have lost a lot of blood often feel intensely thirsty. This is because

angiotensin II is produced and stimulates the thirst center

People who have lost a lot of blood often feel intensely thirsty. This is because

angiotensin II is produced and stimulates the thirst center

Which of the following arteries does not occur in the lower extremity?

anterior interosseous artery

The left coronary artery divides into the

anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries

The left coronary artery divides into the

anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries.

IgA

antibody found in blood and secretions, made more than any other isotype, most abundunt in the tears, sweat, saliva and mucosa.

Capping and antigen endocytosis are early steps in the action of

antigen-presenting cells.

30. Lymphocytes similar to T-cells but called ___ recognize and destroy tumors in a nonspecific fashion without requiring prior exposure to tumor

antigens natural killer cells

16. Thrombin formation is inhibited by

antithrombin and heparin

Thrombin formation is inhibited by

antithrombin and heparin

Resistance

any force that opposes movement. For circulation to occur the pressure gradient must overcome the total peripheral resistance.

You were following a molecule of glucose from the artery outside the tooth to an odontoblast in the dentin. The pathway glucose would take is.

apical foramen; root canal; pulp cavity

The interlobular artery penetrates each renal column and gives off the ___ artery that runs at the boundary between the cortex and medulla.

arcuate

tonsils

are patches of lymphatic tissue located at the entrance to the pharynx, where they guard against ingested and inhaled pathogens.

Lymph nodes

are the most numerous lymphatic organs, numbering about 450 in a typical young adult. They serve two functions: to cleanse the lymph and to act as a site of T and B cell activation. A lymph node is an elongated or bean-shaped structure, usually less than 3 cm long, often with an indentation called the hilum on one side (

60. Aquaporins

are water channels in the collecting duct.

germinal centers

area of the lymph nodes within secondary follicles and an area where B cells proliferate, undergo somatic hypermutation and die, causing the node to swell during infection where B cells multiply and differentiate into plasma cells.

An anatomical arrangement that reduces the risk for myocardial infarctions is

arterial anatosomoses in the coronary circulation.

blood pressure

arterial pressure (range 100mm Hg to 35mm Hg)

The differences b/w arteries and veins are:

arteries have more smooth muscle and elastic fibers in the tunica media and are thicker than veins

In the action potential of a myocardial cell, the Ca2+ gates close

at the end of the voltage plateau

2. The antigen-binding sites of an antibody molecule are found

at the tips of the variable regions

The antigen-binding sites of antibody molecule are found.

at the tips of the variable regions.

To get from the subclavian artery to the brachial artery, blood must flow through the.

axillary artery

The intercostals, esophageal, pericardial, and bronchial veins all drain into the ____ vein before draining into the superior vena cava

azygos

Because of the ___,very little albumin escapes from the blood during the glomerular filtration.

basement membrane of the glomerulus.

The ______ arteries give rise to the arterial circle (circle of Willis).

basilar and internal carotid

Fetal circulation

because in the womb its respiratory and nutrients come from mom.

Venous valves

because the blood pressure in venules and medium size veins is low they contain valves to prevent backflow to the capillary beds. Valves point to the direction of blood flow and are really an extension of the tunica interna.

Salivary amylase

begin starch digestion; first enzyme used in chemical digestion

19 These are "identification tags" that label every cell of your body as

belonging to you

Symptoms of circulatory shock?

below 90mm Hg systolic pressure, pale, cool clammy skin, disorientation, increase heart, weak pulse, no urine production, decrease pH

12. Most CO2 is transported in the blood as

bicarbonate ions.

The pathway of bile from the bile canaliculus to the gallbladder is

bile ductule; hepatic duct; common hepatic duct; cystic duct

Of the following components of bile, only has/have a digestive function

bile salts

62. The color of bile is due to _____; the color of feces is due to____; the color of urine is due to _____; and the color of jaundice is due to _____. -

bilirubin; urochrome; urobilinogen; bilirubin

The color of bile is due to ___; the color of feces is due to ____; the color of urine is due to____; and the color of jaundice is due to _____.

biliverdin; urobilinogen;urochrome; bilirubin

A base is any chemical that

binds H+

58. A base is any chemical that

binds H+.

The highest pressure that moves substances into a capillary is

blood colloid osmotic pressure.

tissue perfusion

blood flow through the tissues.

The highest pressure that moves substances out of a capillary is ____ pressure.

blood hydrostatic

Peripheral resistance is directly proportional to

blood viscosity

Peripheral resistance is directly proportional to

blood viscosity.

The body has only one ____ but has two of each of the rest of the vessels.

brachiocephalic artery

ductus venosus

brings oxygenated blood from MOm's umbilical vein and links up with baby's inferior vena cava bypassing the liver.

56. All of the following play a role in thermoregulation of the testes except the

bulbocavernosus muscle

Drug therapy for hypertension are?

calcium channel blockers, beta-blockers, diuretics, and vasodilators to reduce blood pressure

44. SGLT an active transport pump of the small intestine, can only absorb glucose by simultaneously transporting sodium

can only absorb glucose by simultaneously transporting sodium

Veins are called __ vessels because they can hold a large amount of blood.

capacitance

circulatory collapse

capillaries collapse due to low BP, tissues are starved, and dying tissues release abnormal chemicals

38. The bonding of CO2 to hemoglobin produces.

carbaminohemoglobin.

the recommended daily allowance is higher for ____ than for any of these other nutrients.

carbohydrates

39. In humans, NE stimulates the appetite for

carbohydrates.

44. Hydrogen ions in the blood plasma are neutralized by the formation of

carbonic acid and water.

Factors affecting tissue perfusion

cardiac output, peripheral resistance, blood pressure

35. Dextrinase

carries out the final stages in the digestion of polysaccharides

64. The human body contains carbohydrates in all of the following forms and places except

cellulose in the cell walls.

The human body contains carbohydrates in all of the following forms and places except

cellulose in the cell walls.

The interplay b/w filtration and reabsorbtion

changes as blood travels through capillary. beginning there is more filtration and towards the end more reabsorbption

7. The posterior limit of the nasal cavity is/are the

choanae

2. Which one of the following is absorbed without being digested?

cholesterol

You were getting ready to go cross country skiing in the snow. Before you leave it would be best to drink

cider

21. You were getting ready to go cross country skiing in the snow. Before you leave it would be best to drink

cider.

Plicae circularis

circular folds that increase surface area (3x); enhances mixing effect bc spirals and moves the chime down

special circulation

circulation through certain organs is controlled by different mechanisms that control the general circulation

66. Of all the NADH contributing energy to ATP synthesis, most is produced by the

citric acid cycle.

lymphatic nodules

clusters of lymphatic tissue; composed of white blood cells that are embedded within the walls of the large intestine; also known as Peyer's patches

Which of these is not part of a nephron?

collecting duct.

Thoracic Duct

collects lymph from the left side of the head and neck, the upper left quadrant of the trunk, the left arm, and the entire lower portion of the trunk and both legs; empties into the left subclavian vein

Right Lymphatic Duct

collects lymph from the right side of the head and neck, the upper right quadrant of the body, and the right arm; empties into the right subclavian vein

22. HCO3- in the tubular fluid is

combined with H+ and then forms H2O and CO2.

medium sized veins

comparable size to muscular arteries but have a thin tunica media and a few smooth muscle cells. Tunica externa is thickest layer and contains long bundles of collagen and elastic fibers

29. Pathogens are prevented from spreading from an infected area by the

complement system

5. hepatic triad

consists of a bile ductule and branches of the hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein

fenestrated capillaries

contain pores throughout the endothelial lining. Allow for rapid exchange of water, small solutes up to small peptides.

Two types of capillaries are?

continuous and fenestrated

muscular compression

contraction of surrounding muscles around veins push blood to heart

4. The loss of body heat by conduction can be enhanced by.

convection

the loss of body heat by conduction can be enhanced by

convection

Collecting Vessels

convergence of the lymphatic capillaries, same 3 tunics as veins, possess more valves than veins (one way)

The function of enterokinase is to

convert trypsinogen to trypsin

Heart circulation

coronary arteries are squeezed when heart contracts. Heart has O2 reserves until heart relaxes.

43. The erectile tissue of the penis that passes along the ventral side of the penis and encloses the penile urethra is the

corpus spongiosum.

If not for the countercurrent multiplier, the kidneys

could not produce hypertonic urine.

Which of the following blood components is not a protein

creatinine

14. The quickest physiological mechanism for achieving moderate heat loss is

cutaneous vasodilation

The catabolism reaction that breaks down glucose to pyruvic acid takes place in the

cytoplasm

35. The catabolism reaction that breaks down glucose to pyruvic acid takes place in the

cytoplasm.

atherosclerosis

damage to the endothelial lining and the formation of lipid droplets in the tunica media of arteries. More common form of arteriosclerosis. High levels of circulating cholesterol, not taken up by the tissue, contribute.

positive feedback is most important in

decompensated shock

List four ways natriuretic peptides decrease BP

decrease blood volume by increased Na excreted at kidneys, stimulate vasodilation, decrease thirst, and block release of ADH, Aldosterone, E, and NE

48. An individual is suffering from the following symptoms: muscle weakness, depressed reflexes, and irregular electrical activity of the heart. This individual most likely has

decreased K+ (hypokalemia).

An individual is suffering the following symptoms: Muscle weakness, depressed reflexes....

decreased K+ hypokalemia

Which one of the following would not stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone?

decreased Na+

21. The excitement phase of sexual response is characterized by all of the following events except

decreased blood pressure.

The excitement phase is characterized by all of the following events except

decreased blood pressure.

What causes shock?

decreased cardiac output after hemorrhage or fluid loss, damage heart, external pressure on heart, extensive peripheral vasodilation

49. Dilation of ____ causes the lacunae to fill with blood and the penis becomes erect

deep artery.

32. living parts of a tooth

dentin and cementum

The two living parts of a tooth are the

dentin and cementum

15. tooth consists of consists of a hard, yellowish tissue called ____, which is covered by a hard layer of calcium phosphate crystals called _____.

dentin; enamel

Most of a tooth consists of a hard, yellowish tissue called _____, which is covered by a hard layer of calcium phosphate crystals called _____.

dentin; enamel

27. Complement fixation enables foreign cells to be

destroyed by Cytolysis

People who stand for long peroids have pressure buildup, particularly in their superficial vessels, which may result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by

destructions of valves in the wall of a vein

Constant region

determines mechanism of action

mean arterial pressure (MAP)

diastolic pressure + pulse pressure/ 3

some water soluble materials can cross the capillary in the kidney, small intestine, and many endocrine glands and either cross slowly or not at all in other areas of the body. These water-soluble materials most likely cross by

diffusing through fenestrations

28. The liver performs all of the following functions except secretion of

digestive enzymes, or absorption of digested nutirents

Pancreatic amylase:

digests carbs (starch)

Pancreatic lipase:

digests lipids

Trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase:

digests proteins

arteriovenous anastomoses

direct connections between arterioles and venules that bypass a capillary bed.

In hemostasis, Thromboplastin

dissolves the clot after the tissue has healed.

hemorrhoids

distended veins near anus due to tremendous force put on the abdominal muscles to defecate or deliver a child.

Cardiac muscle metabolism is different from skeletal muscle metabolism because cardiac muscle

does not rely on anerobic respiration

21. You are sitting at the computer doing quite normal breathing, or eupnoea. The nuclei responsible for the eupnoea is the

dorsal respiratory group (DRG).

Exercise and the cardiovascular system

dramatic rise of cardiac output from rest to exercise in trained athletes vs. couch potatoes. Heart and blood vessels are better conditioned if exercised regularly.

treatments of hypotension

drug therapies that stimulate heart rate and increase cardiac contractions through beta receptors on heart

Treatments of hypertension

drug therapy, lifestyle changes, quit smoking, exercise, lower salt intake

51. Vasectomy, a procedure for surgical sterilization of the male, entails removal of part of the

ductus deferens.

An individual has mitral valve prolapse, which generates a gurgling sound called a heart murmur. The murmur would be associated with the ___ heart sound and occurs when the ___.

dupp; ventricles relax

53. Gasping, labored breathing or "craving for air" is called

dyspnea.

20. Most of the water entering the digestive tract

each day comes from gastrointestinal secretions

47. The primary purpose of the erectile tissues of the respiratory tract is to allow

each nasal fossa to be periodically rehumidified

43. Blockage of the lymphatic vessels draining a region of the body is most likely to cause

edema.

37. The excitement phase of the male sexual response is stimulated by

efferent parasympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord.

64. The orgasm-emission phase of the male sexual response is stimulated by

efferent sympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord.

8. Secretions from the seminal vesicles empty into the

ejaculatory duct.

48. Heat exhaustion results from extreme ____ loss in the sweat

electrolyte

10. The peristaltic propulsion of sperm along the ductus deferens is called

emission.

11. Lecithin a phospholipid, prepares fat for enzymatic digestion by breaking it up into

emulsification droplets

Which of the following enzymes does not digest any nutrients?

enteorkinase

All of the following are enzumes except

enterokinase

Which of these is not a component of the pancreatic juice?

enterokinase

51. Squamous cell carcinoma is a form of lung cancer that begins in the

epithelium of the bronchi.

24. In a state of nitrogen balance nitrogen intake and output are

equal

25. The formed elements in the blood that have one nucleus are the ______, while the formed elements that have no nucleus are the _____.

erythrocytes and platelets

The kidneys secrete the hormone ____, which stimulates RBC production.

erythropoietin

The most common cause of hupoatremia is

excess water intake

33. The most common cause of hyponatremia is

excess water intake.

15. The bicarbonate buffer system would not work very well in the human body if not for the action of the respiratory system, which

expels CO2 produced by the buffer system.

Heat exhaustion results from

extreme electrolyte loss in the sweat.

local vasodilators

factors that promote dialation at the precapillary sphincters. These factors dilate capillaries in response to increase CO2, increase lactic acid, increase temperature, or an inflammatory response (histamine)

10. All of the following people could be expected to exhibit positive nitrogen balance except a person dying in a

famine

33. lacteals absorb

fat

54. During periods of fasting, fat is said to have a protein-sparing effect because the body does not oxidize its proteins unless it has consumed its

fat reserves.

2. A blood clot is comprised of blood cells, platelets and a sticky protein called:

fibrin

Pathogens are prevented from spreading from an infected area by.

fibrin

These plasma proteins are made in the liver and form a major component of blood clots

fibrinogen

36. Platelets and endothelial cells secrete a mitotic stimulant called platelet derived growth factor (PDGF). PDGF stimulates the mitosis of

fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells

Platelets and endo thelial cells secrete a mitotic stimulant called platelet-derived growth factor (PGDF) PGDF stimulates the mitosis of

fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells.

Flow of Lymph

flows upward through the body traveling from the extremities (feet and hands) and upward through the body toward the neck. As it travels through the body, lymph passes through lymph nodes where it is filtered. At the base of the neck, the lymph enters the subclavian veins and once again becomes plasma in the bloodstream.

Lymph

fluid

Two forms of arteriosclerosis

focal calcification and atherosclerosis

15. The energy for sperm motility comes from

fructose.

43. The pathway of bile from the bile canaliculus to the

gallbladder bile ductile > hepatic duct > common hepatic duct > cystic duct (Billy hates combing ducks)

Which one of these plasma proteins is not made in the liver

gamma (γ) globulin

49. All of the following glands secrete only mucus except

gastric glands

Most of the water entering the digestive tract each day comes from

gastrointestinal secretions

TBG, Transcortin, Transferrin, and Ceruloplasmin are all examples of.

globulins.

22. Insulin has all of the following effects in the absorptive state except that it does not stimulate

gluconeogenesis

8. The conversion of amino acids to glucose is called

gluconeogenesis.

45. Urine normally contains all of the following except

glucose.

urine normally contains all of the following except

glucose.

which of these is least characteristic of postabsorptive state?

glycogenesis

49. The ABO blood group is determined by ______ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.

glycolipids

11 The first hormone to trigger the changes of puberty is

gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

focal calcification

gradual degeneration of smooth muscle tissue in the tunica media and the subsequent deposition of calcium salts. Typicall involves arteries of the limbs and genital organs. Can be a complication of diabetes mellitus

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes are all derived from

granulocyte-macrophage colony-forming units.

The extension of the peritoneum that loosely covers the small intestine like an apron is the _____, while the extension of the peritoneum that anchors much of the large intestine is the _____.

greater omentum; mesocolon

Tetralogy of fallot

group of 4 heart and circulatory defects 1. pulmonary trunk narrows 2. interventricular septum incomplete 3. aorta orginates where interventricular septum normally ends 4. right ventricle enlarged, both ventricle thick

62. Gingivitis is a(n) ___ and is the leading cause of ___ in adults.

gum inflammation; tooth loss

Gingivitis is a(n) ___ and is leading cause of ___ in adults.

gum inflammation; tooth loss

The pancreas

has the exocrine function of secreting pancreatic juice which aids digestion

Pancreatic Ducts:

have acinar and duct cells

Vasomotor centers

have two populations of neurons 1)large group involved with widespread vasoconstriction and 2) a small group involved with vasodilation of arterioles to the skeletal muscles and brain

62. The genetic sex of a child is determined by t

he sperm.

Which of the following cells are destroyed by the AIDS virus.

helper T Cells

These cells recognize an AG-MCHP complex, secrete interleukins, attract macrophages, and stimulate Tand B cell mitosis and matuation.

helper T Cells.

37. Thromboprotein is a hormone produced by the liver and kidneys that stimulates ____ to be committed to form ____.

hemocytoblasts; megakaryoblasts

Any form of anemia that results from an excessive rate of erythrocyte destruction is classified as

hemolytic anemia

What causes circulatory shock?

hemorrhaging, dehydration, 3rd degree burns

Which of the following agents opposes coagulation?

heparin

Basophils aidin the mobility and action of leukocytes by releasing an anticoagulant called _____ and a vasodialator called _____.

heparin; histamine

glucose and amino acids are absorbed into the ____ and fats are absorbed into the ____.

hepatic portal system; lymphatic system

Which one of the following vessels would have the highest concentration of glucose?

hepatic portal vein

1. The release of bile into the duodenum is controlled by the

hepatopancreatic sphincter

52. An individual has the following symptoms: multiple fractures of bones and multiple bouts with renal calculi (kidney stones) over just a few years. The individual showed an imbalance in one of the blood plasma electrolytes. You would expect the individual to have

high Ca2+ (hypercalcemia).

Which of these is least likely to result from severe chronic anemia?

high blood pressure

hypertension

high blood pressure (BP> 150/90). It increases the workload of the heart. Prone to aneurysms, heart attacks, and strokes.

Foramen ovale

hole b/w the atria and closes soon after birth in response to increase blood pressure in left atrium.

58. Blood has all of the following functions except

hormone production

NE & E

hormones that increases cardiac output and increases vasoconstriction

22. The formed elements most directly responsible for

humoral immunity are B lymphocyte

Histamine, bradykinin, and leukotrienes all stimulate.

huperemia

59. The limiting pH is a value below which

hydrogen ions cannot be secreted into the tubular fluid.

Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to?

hypertension

25. Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to

hypertension.

49. Atrial natriuretic factor is secreted in response to

hypertension.

19. A deficiency of potassium ions in the blood is called

hypokalemia.

32. High levels of testosterone will inhibit the

hypothalamus.

33. Glucostats are cells located in the

hypothalamus.

36. You are working outside on a hot day, sweating profusely, and drinking large quantities of water. You may be subjecting yourself to

hypotonic hydration.

2. Hemorrhaging, vomiting, and diarrhea can all result in

hypovolemia.

Excessive Fluid loss by sweating or hemmorhage is most likely to cause ___ shock

hypovolemic

43. An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except increased

hypoxemia.

8. Carbon monoxide poisoning causes

hypoxemic hypoxia.

The first time you are exposed to a particular antigen, your plasma cells produce mainly ____ antibodies.

igM

Cardiovascular response to hemorrhage is?

immediate task is to maintain adequate blood pressure and peripheral blood flow. Long term task is to restore blood volume.

Atrial systole begins

immediately after the P wave.

lymphatic (lymphoid) organs

important for deployment of lymphocytes, specific white blood cells that are the key functionaries or "soldiers" made up of: Bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes and vessels, and spleen

64. Chylomicrons are produced

in the epithelial cells of the small intestine, as lipids are absorbed

Where are muscular arteries found?

in the external carotid arteries, brachial arteries, and femoral arteries.

10. Peyer's patches located

in the lymphatic follicles of the ileum **

20. Sterility refers to the

inability to fertilize an egg.

Large veins

include the inferior and superior venae cavae and their tributaries. All three tunicas are present

cardiovascular centers (CV)

includes cardioacceleratory and cardioinhibitory centers that are part of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation and regulation of the heart

Hypocalcemia will cause the heart rate to _____ and hyperkalemia wiill cause the heart rate to ___.

increase; decrease

63. Acidosis causes depressed central nervous system activity including confusion, disorientation, and coma. This is because the excess H+ causes

increased K+ (hyperkalemia).

14. Edema is least likely to result from

increased blood osmolarity.

The medullary ischemic reflex results in

increased circulation to the brain

17. The Valsalva maneuver

increases pressure in the abdominal cavity

42. Antidiuretic hormone

increases water reabsorption but not sodium reabsorption.

Antidiuretic hormone

increases water reabsorption, but not sodium reabsorption

Hypercapria has the effect of

increasing the heart rate

21. The total WBC count is normally 5,000 to 10,000 WBC/uL. A count below this range is called_______________. Leukopenia A count above 10,000 WBC/uL, called_______________, usually indicates infection, allergy, or other diseases but can also occur in response to dehydration or emotional disturbances. Danger because too many immature WBC therefore do not know how to attack foreign objects.

indicative of an infection, or inflammation going on in the body. (Leukopenia below) Leukocytosis

lymphadenitis

inflammation of lymph nodes

Compliment C3A proteins stimulate mast cells and basophils to promote ______, and complement C3b proteins trigger stimulation of proteins called _____.

inflammation; membrane attack complex

IgA

inhibit bacterial growth

5. Viagra prolongs erection by

inhibiting degradation of cGMP.

57. In hemostasis, thromboplastin dissolves the clot after

initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation

50. Cytochromes and iron-sulfur centers are found in the

inner mitochondrial membrane

Tunica interna

inner most layer of the vessel. The endothelial lining faces the lumen followed by an under layer of connective tissue with elastic fibers.

sphygomomanometer

instrument to measure blood pressure

Which of these is not a component of the pancreatic juice?

insulin

23 The majority of water in your body is in the

intracellular fluid (ICF).

25. To excrete one liter of sweat, the majority of water will come from the

intracellular fluid.

thymus

is a member of the endocrine, lymphatic, and immune systems. It houses developing lymphocytes and secretes hormones that regulate their later activity

capillary exchange

is dependent on diffusion, filtration, and reabsorption. Hydrostatic pressure pushes materials out of capillaries and into tissues. Osmotic pressures pushes solutions back into capillaries

spleen

is the body's largest lymphatic organ, measuring up to 12 cm long and weighing up to 160 g. It is located in the left hypochondriac region, just inferior to the diaphragm and posterolateral to the stomach. It is protected by ribs 10 through 12.

Because the human heart is myogenic

it will beat even if all nerves to it are severed.

39. If all the molecules of hemoglobin contained in RBCs were free in the plasma,

it would significantly increase blood osmolarity

respiratory pump

just by breathing you assist blood flow into the inferior vena cava by adjusting thoracic cavity pressures.

55. The afferent and efferent arterioles come in contact with the DCT just outside the glomerular capsule. This complex is called the

juxtaglomerular apparatus.

The afferent and efferent arteiroles come in contact with the DCT just outside the glomerular capsule. This complex is called the

juxtaglomerular apparatus.

The afferent and efferent arterioles come in contact with the DCT just outside the glomerular capsule. This complex is called the.

juxtaglomerular cells

Lysozyme

kills bacteria

26. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are absorbed into

lacteals

6. Next to water, the most abundant substance in cow's milk is

lactose

Next to water, the most abundant substance in cow's milk is

lactose

According to the principle of ___, blood near the middle of an artery flows faster than blood near its walls, just as water flows faster in the middle of a river than it does near the shore

laminar flow

NK Cells

large granular lymphocytes; attack foreign cells, normal cells infected with viruses, and cancer cells.

The mitral, or bicuspid valve, opens when the pressure in the left ventricle is _____; and the mitral valve closes when the pressure in the left ventricle is ____.

less than the pressure in the left atrium; greater than the pressure in the left atrium.

Blood moves into the aorta when the pressure in the aorta is ____ causing the aortic valve to ___.

less than the pressure in the left ventricle; open

13. An individual has a white blood cell count of 25,000 cells/μL you could assume that the individual may have

leukocythemia or a severe infection

15. A deficiency of circulating leukocytes is called

leukopenia

Eicosanoids and bile salts are made from which of the following nutrients?

lipids

51. The synthesis and storage of triglycerides is called .

lipogenesis

The synthesis and storage of triglycerides is called

lipogenesis

Bacteria, destroying macrophages are found in sinusoids of

liver

Examples of sinusoids are:

liver, spleen, bone marrow, and endocrine organs

brain circulation

local demands and pressure changes in brain yet blood flow to brain remains constant. Safeguards blood brain barrier, and 4 major arteries w/anastomoses.

Inguinal lymph nodes

located in the groin (inguinal) area of the lower abdomen; one of the three major group exceptions

Cervical lymph nodes

located in the neck; drain the head and neck

palatine tonsils

located on the left and right sides of the throat in the area that is visible through the mouth

Peyer patches

located on the walls of the ileum; work with the immune system to protect against the entry of pathogens through the digestive system

Axillary lymph nodes

located under the arms in the armpits; one of the three major group exceptions

Hypotension

low blood pressure

lymphatic system

lymph and lymphatics increase exchange between tissues and capillaries. Material can go through capillaries to lymphatics and filter through a lymphoid organ and go back into the blood stream via the vena cava

Popliteal lymph nodes

lymph nodes in the back of the knee and receive lymph from the leg proper

Thoracic lymph nodes

lymph nodes in the thoracic cavity, in the mediastinum, and receive lymph from the mediastinum, lungs, and airway

lymphatics

lymph vessels

B lymphocytes (B cells)

lymphocyte that arises and matures in the red bone marrow in adults and is found primarily in the spleen, lymph nodes, red bone marrow, and Peyer's patches of the intestines and which secretes antibodies

T lymphocytes (T cells)

lymphocyte that matures in the thymus and acts directly against endogenous antigens in cell-mediated immune responses

1.The white blood cells that are important in producing antibodies are the:

lymphocytes

40. The paranasal sinus closest to the upper teeth is the .

maxillary sinus

44. The hilum of the lung is on its

mediastinal surface.

68. Anticoagulation

medicine that prevents or retards the clotting of blood- Heprain

muscular arteries

medium sized arteries distribute blood to the body's skeletal muscles and internal organs. Have more smooth muscle tissue in the tunica media than elastic arteries.

IgE

membrane protein on basophils and mast cells allergy reactions

A short vessel, which links to capillaries, and does not have a continuous tunica media but rather individual muscle cells spaced at short distances apart is a(n)

metarteriole.

Tunica media

middle layer that contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue. It is usually the thickest layer of the blood vessel.

8. Women may retain water at certain times of the month because estrogen

mimics aldosterone.

diastolic pressure

minimum pressure at the end of ventricle diastole

Patent foramen ovalis and ductus arteriosus

mixing of blood sends some deoxygenated blood to systemic circulation (blue baby).

Alimentary Canal consists of:

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

Peristalsis:

movement of the Alimentary Canal

Goblet cells:

mucus

19. Most of the carbohydrates in the body are found as

muscle glycogen

Most carbohydrates in the body are found as

muscle glycogen

The major vessels that control relative amounts of blood directed to the various tissues are

muscular arteries

The major vessels that control the relative amounts of blood directed to the various tissues are

muscular arteries

7. tunica mucosa contains smooth muscle called the ____, which is stimulated by the ____ plexus.

muscularis mucosae; submucosal

The tunica mucosa contains smooth muscle called the _____, which is stimulated by the ____ plexus.

muscularis mucosae; submucosal

arterial blood pressure

must be high enough to to overcome the peripheral resistance. It is not stable because it fluctuates b/w ventricle systole and ventricle diastole

5. Which of the following cells is in a different lineage than the rest?

myeloblast

28. Vibrissae are

nasal guard hairs

The net filtration pressure of a blood capillary is the difference between

net hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure

Control of vasoconstriction

neurons release norepinephrine(NE)-adrenergic neurons which lead to constriction

Bacterial infection is especially likely to elevate the ____ count.

neutrophil

18. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes are:

neutrophils

These highly mobile WBC's spend most of their lives wandering in the connective tissues killing bacteria by phagocytes and respiratory bursts.

neutrophils

Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phgocytosis by ___ in a process called ____.

neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization

In the hemoglobin molecule, the ferrous ion is bound to

nigrogen atoms

In the state of nitrogen balance

nitrogen intake and output are equal

The tongue has a ___ epithelium and the site of the taste buds called ___.

nonkeratinized stratified squamos; papillae

24. The surface of the tongue is covered with ____ stratified squamous epithelium and has bumps called ______ site of taste buds.

nonkeratinized; lingual papillae

Abdominal lymph nodes

occur in posterior abdoinopelvic wall. monitor lymph from the uniary and reproductive systems.

Vasodilation

occurs when arteries relax

recall of fluids

occurs when blood pressure drops due to volume changes(hemorrhage and dehydration). Hemorrhage decreased BP, decreases CHP, decreases NFP and increases reabsorption

circulatory shock

occurs with fluid loss of greater or equal to 30% total blood volume

60. The ileocecal valves

open in response to food in the stomach

Ventricular septal defects

openings in interventricular septum increase BP to pulmonary circulation and therefore develop pulmonary hypertension and pulmonary edema

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) and Brain Natriueretic Peptide (BNP)

opposite of Angiotensin II, respond to increase stretching during diastole. Decreased BP, decreases blood volume by increased Na excreted by kidneys, increase H20 loss, decrease thirst

Water enters the blood capillaries by means of

osmosis

The collecting ducts of the kidney have intercalated cells which can

override the limiting pH and secrete more H+ into the urine

The largest tonsils, which are the ones most commonly removed in a tonsillectomy are the ____ tonsils.

palatine

Trace urine from the collecting duct of the nephron to the ureter.

papillary duct-minor calyx-major calyx- renal pelvis

In the gastric pits, ____ cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor and _____ cells secrete pepsinogen

parietal; cheif

The heart is enclosed in a double-walled sac called the pericardium. The outer wall is called the _____ pericardium and consists of

parietal; fibrous and serous layers.

The heart is encloused in a double-walled sac called the pericardium. The outer wall is called the _____ pericardium and consists of

parietal; fibrous and serous layers.

14. Mumps are most often caused by a viral infection of the

parotid

systolic pressure

peak pressure during ventricle contraction

The internal ridges in the atria are called ____, while the internal ridges in the ventricles are called ____.

pectinate muscles; trabeculae carneae

29. The rate of renal clearance of penicillin is greater than the glomerular filtration rate. This suggests that

penicillin is removed from the blood by tubular secretion

Cytotoxic T Cells can destroy cancer cells by means of a secretion called

perforin

When lymphocytes called natural killer (NK) cells are "on the lookout" for abnormal cells such as cancerous cells or cells infected with viruses, the NK cells release ______, which makes holes in the cell membranes of abnormal cells.

perforins

48. The parasympathetic division cause all of the following events except

peristalsis of the ductus deferens.

Inflammation of the greater or lesser omentum, mesentery, or mesocolon is called

peritonitis

Hepatic sinusoids lined with Kupffer cells

phagocytic cells responsible for cleaning up debris, bacteria, and old erythrocytes

The pH of the intracellular fluid is buffered mainly by

phosphates

38. The glomerular filtrate most resembles

plasma.

transposition of the great vessels

plumbing is switched b/w aorta and pulmonary artery

42. Transpulmonary pressure is greater than zero during expiration and in .

pneumothorax

tonsillar crypts

portion of tonsils that trap and destroy bacteria and particulate matter.

31. The basal metabolic rate should be measured when a person is in the

postabsorptive state.

Venous pressure

pressure in the venous system (18mm Hg)

33. When all sexually reproducing species of animals are considered, the one characteristic that most defines a female is

production of the larger gamete.

17. The three regions of the male urethra are the

prostatic, membranous, and penile.

mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue

protects upper respiratory and digestive tracts against attacks of foreign matter entering those cavities

43. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) have the highest proportion of

protein to lipid.

27. The pH of the intracellular fluid is buffered mainly by

protein.

61. The most common nutrient in the blood is ____; the most common electrolyte is ____; and the most common nitrogenous waste is _____.

protein; Na+; urea

48. pancreatic juice contains enzymes that digest starch,

proteins, fats, nucleic acids.

Pepsin digests ___ to ___.

proteins; peptides

15. At a comfortable room temperature, the body loses the most heat by

radiation

At a comfortable room temperature, the body looses the most heat by

radiation

47. Increasing the K+ concentration of the extracellular fluid (ECF) will

raise cell membrane potentials and make cells more excitable.

Increading the K+ concentration of the ECF will

raise cell membrane potentials and make cells more excitable.

54. The collecting ducts of the kidney have intercalated cells which can

reabsorb K+ from the urine.

Variable region

recognizes specific antigenic determinant Same for B cell and all daughter cells Gives antibody uniqueness

Erythropoitin(EPO)

released by kidneys in response to decreased BP or decreased O2 levels in kidneys. Stimulates RBC production

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

released by pituitary gland in response to decrease blood volume and increase solute concentration in plasma

25. When the triglycerides have been removed from a chylomicron, the empty chylomicron remnant is

removed from the blood and degraded by the liver.

3. The glomerular capsule and glomerulus make up

renal corpuscle

50. A low glomerular filtration rate (GFR) will cause the juxtaglomerular cells to release _____, which will _____.

renin; increase blood pressure

Blood flow equals the pressure difference (P) between two points divided by

resistance

55. You are trying to hold your breath as long as you can, but after about two minutes you have to breathe. At this point you are in

respiratory acidosis

6. A lung disease that interferes with pulmonary gas exchange can be expected to lead to

respiratory acidosis

You are trying to hold your breath as long as you can, but after about two minutes you have to breathe, at this point you are in

respiratory acidosis

alung disease that interferes with pulmonary gas exchange can be expected to lead to

respiratory acidosis

Chemoreceptor reflexes

respond to increase CO2, decrease pH, decrease O2, stimulate cardioacceleratory center, inhibit cardioinhibitory centers, vasomotor centers, and stimulate respiratory centers

barorecptor reflexes

responses to pressure changes to adjust cardiovascular activity through cardiac output and vascular resistence to maintain normal arterial pressure

The lymphatic system helps maintain fluid balance by

returning fluid from the interstitial compartment to the blood stream.

5. The lymphatic system helps maintain fluid balance by

returning fluid from the interstitial compartment to the bloodstream.

pulse

rhythmic pressure oscillation for each heart beat

All of the following enzymes digest proteins except

ribonuclease.

which of the following would provide the lowest quantity of minerals for a given weight of food?

rice and white flour

During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles

rises rapidly.

varicose veins

sagging swollen veins that result from venous blood pooling against the venous valve. Venous walls become distorted with age, lack of exercise, increase blood volumes (preg.) or a career of sitting or standing for extended periods

diffuse lymphatic tissue

scattered reticular tissue elements and associated lymphocytes; found in about every organ but especially in mucous membrane lining the respiratory and digestive tracts

47. Glucose gets from the tubular fluid into the cytoplasm of the proximal convoluted tubule cells by means of

secondary active transport.

57. The kidneys do not

secrete hormones that stimulate thirst.

Endocrine cells:

secretin and cholecystokinin (CCK)

All of the following are enzymes except

secretin.

Angiotensin II

secretion stimulated in response increase renin (kidneys) in blood.

chemoreceptors

sensitive to changes in CO2, pH in blood, O2 and CSF. Located in carotid bodies and aortic bodies

baroreceptors

sensitive to stretch stimulus in the walls of expandable organs

When platelets degranulate, they release a vasoconstrictor called ___, which aids in hemostasis.

serotonin

58. The enterogastric reflex

serves to inhibit gastric motility when there is chyme in the small intestine

ductus arteriosus

short muscular vessel b/w the aortic and pulmonary trunks designed to shunt blood flow to systemic circulation and bypass the lungs. After birth becomes the ligamentum arteriosum

38. The cremaster muscle is a

skeletal muscle that draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm.

vasa vasorum

small arteries and veins in the walls of small arteries and veins that supply smooth muscle cells and fibroblast of the tunica media and tunica externa

Which of the following veins does not occur in the upper extremity?

small saphenous vein

Venules

small veins

The thick segment of ascending limb of the nephron loop is peremeable to

sodium potassium and chloride ions but not water.

62. The thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop is permeable to

sodium, potassium, and chloride ions but not water.

16. glucose can be absorbed from the chime

solvent drag

52. In the process of spermiogenesis _____ become _____.

spermatids; spermatozoa.

41. Semen contains all of the following secretions except

spermatogonia.

18. The final cellular transformation in the production of spermatozoa is called

spermiogenesis.

22. The _____ is especially involved in breaking up old erythrocytes and disposing of the cellular remains.

spleen

Control of vasodialition

starts with ACh released which leads to NO release which then dilates smooth muscle around arterioles of skeletal muscles and brain

13. A major structural component of plasma membranes and myelin that is also the precursor of

steroid hormones, bile acids, and vitamin D is Cholesterol

Angiotensin II does what?

stimulates ADH release, stimulates Aldosterone production which leads to increase Na absorption, increase H20 by osmosis in kidneys, stimulates thirst, stimulates increase cardiac output, has 4-8x greater effect on BP than NE

The kidneys secrete the enzyme renin, which

stimulates the formation of angiotensin 1, which ultimately increases blood pressure.

The kidneys secrete the enzyme renin

stimulates the formation of angiotensin I, which ultimately increases blood pressure.

The ___ commonly measures about 75 mL.

stroke volume

18. The ____ ____ converge to form the Right lymphatic and thoracic ducts which drain into the subclavian veins. These ducts drain into the______ Lymphatic Trunks;

subclavian veins

immunoglobulin

substance produced by the body that inactivates or destroys another substance that is introduced into the body; antibody

gamma globulins

substances containing antibodies; they provide passive immunity in some people against certain infectious diseases

13. Surface tension at the surface of the water and air in alveoli resists inspiration. To decrease this surface tension, the great (type II) alveolar cells release

surfactant.

60. The germinal epithelium of the testis consists of germ cells and

sustentacular cells.

The postabsorptive state is regulated mainly by the ____ nervous system and the hormone ____.

sympathetic; glucagon

A mean arterial pressure (MAP) below 60 mmHg can cause _____, and a MAP above 160 mmHg can cause _____.

syncope; cerebral edema

pulse pressure

systolic minus diastolic pressure

53. blood formation

takes place in the red bone marrow.

fainting

temporary loss of consiousness because you can't get enough blood to your brain.

43. The smallest passageways in the lung to have ciliated epithelia are .

terminal bronchioles

Microvilli

the "brush border,"; On the surface of every epithelial cell Increase surface area 20x...so Pilcae circularis (3x) x Villi (10x) x Microvilli (20x) = 600x total

The conduction of electrical signals is fastest in

the Purkinje fibers.

17. Testis-determining factor is found in or on

the Y chromosome.

Baroreceoptors are located in

the aorta and carotid sinuses

Where are elastic arteries found?

the aorta and pulmonary trunks, major arterial branches such as pulmonary, common carotid, subclavian, and iliac arteries

The anterior and posterior communicating arteries are found in.

the arterial circle, or the circle of Willis

atrioventricular septal defect

the atria and ventricles are incompletely separated. Common defect with trisomy 21

9. The forcible expulsion of semen in ejaculation results from spasmodic contractions of

the bulbocavernosus muscle.

3. An erectile tissue present in the penis but absent in

the clitoris is the corpus spongiosum

4. Antibodies work in a similar fashion; they bind to pathogens and expose sites to activate

the complement system

Antibodies work in a similar fashion; they bind to pathogens and expose sites to activate

the complement system.

The electrical synchrony of the ventricular myocardium results from

the desmosomes of the intercalated discs.

Net filtration pressure (NFP)

the difference b/w the net hydrostatic pressure and the net osmotic pressure

57. Aldosterone receptors are found on cells of

the distal convoluted tubule.

To get from the testis to the epididymis, sperm must pass through

the efferent ductules.

One way of stating the Frank-Starling law of the heart is that stroke volume is proportional to

the end-diastolic volume

At the end of ventricular contraction, the amount of blood remaining in the ventricle is

the end-systolic volume.

55. Until ejaculation, sperm are stored mainly in

the epididymis.

Chylomicrons are produced in

the epithelial cells of the small intestine, as lipids are absorbed

Immediately lateral to the eyebrow, you can palpate the pulse o

the facial artery

Lymphatic Capillaries

the first of the lymphatic vessels which are microscopic and penetrate nearly every tissue of the body. They are closed at one end; it consists of a sac of endothelial cells that loosely overlap each other like shingles and are tethered to surrounding tissue by protein filaments that prevent the sac from collapsing

All of the following glands secrete only mucus, except

the gastric glands.

20. The total amount of fluid entering the capsular spaces of all the nephrons in a given time is called

the glomerular filtration rate.

19. The lower respiratory tract begins at

the glottis.

The electrocardiogram exhibits a nodal rythm

the heart is beating at a slow rate set by the AV node.

40. The lacunae of the corpora cavernosa receive blood directly from

the helicine arteries.

The release of bile into the duodenum is controlled by

the hepatopancreatic sphincter

16. The difference between the amount of air you normally inhale with each breath and the amount you can inhale with maximum effort is

the inspiratory reserve volume.

Lymphatic System

the interconnected system of spaces and vessels between body tissues and organs by which lymph circulates throughout the body

18. Immediately after the arcuate artery, blood flows into

the interlobular arteries

Immediately after the arcuate artery, blood flows into

the interlobular arteries.

Blood solutes can pass through the walls of continuous capillaries by passing through the endothelial cell or

the intracellular clefts

Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a hormone that is secreted by

the kidneys

Which of the following vessels are in the coronary sulcus?

the marginal artery and circumflex artery.

2. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves carry signals from the peripheral chemoreceptors to

the medulla oblongata

The cardiac center, which modifies the hear rate, is located in

the medulla oblongata

The small intestine is suspended from the dorsal body wall by

the mesentery

Churning:

the only mechanical digestion in the stomach

Which of the following is not a branch of the external carotid artery?

the opthalmic artery

tunica externa

the outermost layer that forms a connective tissue sheath around the vessel

46. The heat exchanger that prevents afferent blood from overheating the testes is

the pampiniform plexus.

A simple squamos epithelium is found in

the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule and thing sedment of the nephron loop.

38. The tooth is anchored to alveolar bone by

the periodontal ligament

58. The penis of a male embryo develops from

the phallus.

The three regions of the male urethra are

the porstatic, membranous, and penile

3. When the hypothalamic osmoreceptors detect a rise in blood osmolarity

the posterior pituitary releases ADH.

What will be the result if the number of Na+-K+ pumps in the distal convoluted tubule is increased?

the potassium concentration of the urine will rise.

13. The foreskin of the penis is called

the prepuce.

Circulatory pressure

the pressure difference b/w the base of the ascending aorta and the entrance to the right atrium. The force is needed to push blood through the arterioles into the capillaries

The most important force in venous flow is

the pressure gradient generated by the heart.

Capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP)

the pressure in the capillary beds (35-18 mm Hg)

parenchyma

the primary tissue of higher plants composed of thin-walled cells that remain capable of cell division even when mature

Leukopoiesis is

the production of white blood cells.

34. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by

the proximal convoluted tubule.

The coronary arteries arise from

the proximal end of the aorta.

Blood normally leaves the right ventricle through

the pulmonary semilunar valve.

The average resting cardiac cycle takes about 0.8 seconds, including 0.1 sec for atrial systole, 0.3 sec for ventricular systole, and 0.4 sec for

the quiescent period

33. Myeloid hemopoiesis in adults happens in

the red bone marrow

35. The kidney is connected to the parietal peritoneum by

the renal fascia.

50. Most of the semen consists of the secretion from

the seminal vesicles.

The layer of uterine mucosa that is shed in menstruation is called

the stratum functionalis

The amount of blood (ml) coming from one ventricle in one heart beat is called

the stroke volume

Most blood from the brain flows down the internal jugular veins and then into

the subclavian veins

All of the following are supplied by the celiac trunk except for

the superior mesenteric artery

T Cells become immunocompetent during their stay in

the thymus

T cells become immunocompentent during their stay in

the thymus

53. In diabetes mellitus, glycosuria occurs because the concentration of glucose in the glomerular filtrate exceeds

the transport maximum of the proximal tubule.

22. The smooth muscle layer in the wall of the scrotum is called

the tunica dartos.

64. The trigone is a triangular region of

the urinary bladder.

61. Because of the carbonic anhydrase on the brush borders of the kidney tubules,

the urine is normally free of bicarbonate ions.

Because of the carbonic anhydrase on the brush borders of the kidney tubules,

the urine is normally free of bicarbonate ions.

The blood vessels of the renal medulla that run alongside the nephron loops are

the vasa efferentia.

5. The blood vessels of the renal medulla that run alongside the nephron loops are

the vasa recta

The blood vessels of the renal medulla that run along side the nephron loops are.

the vasa recta.

The two internal carotid arteries unite on the base of the brain to form

the willis artery

37. Proteins are important for all of the following physiological roles except

thermal insulation.

Arteriosclerosis

thickening and toughening of the artery walls. Can lead to coronary artery disease (CAD) or strokes

An individual has an impacted tooth. This tooth is most likely the.

third molar.

12. tunica muscularis externa of the stomach contains

three layers of smooth muscle

23. The enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin is

thrombin

9. When a clot is no longer needed, it is dissolved by

thromboplastin

In autoregulation, all of the following chemicals tend to increase blood flow except

thromboxane A2

6. To get from the testis to the epididymis, sperm must pass

through the efferent ductules.

When the ventricles contract, the papillary muscles also contract, which

tightens the chordae tendinae preventing the AV valves from prolapsing.

19. The most important role of meiosis in sexual reproduction is

to prevent the chromosome number from doubling in each generation.

65. The falciform ligament attaches the liver

to the abdominal wall

45. The fluid that forms the cerebrospinal, synovial, peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial fluids as well as vitreous and aqueous humors, bile, and fluids of the digestive, urinary, and respiratory tracts are part of the

transcellular fluid.

Proteins, like albumin, move across a capillary by

transcytosis

17. Before a B lymphocyte can secrete antibodies it must

transform into Plasma cells

Erythrocytes transport oxygen and serve to

transport carbon dioxide (Co2)

You are following the pathway of blood from the superior vena cava to the aorta. What is the correct order of valves through which the blood will pass?

tricuspid, pulmonary, bicuspid, aotic

The outer wall of an artery or vein is called the __ and in the large arteries and veins contains the ___

tunica externa; vasa vasourm

Layers of the Alimentary Canal Wall:

tunica mucosa, tunica submucosa, tunica muscularis, tunica serosa

4. The saclike extension of the peritoneum that covers the anterior and lateral surface of the testes is called

tunica vaginalis.

This tissue layer consists of a thick layer of loose connective tissue containing blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, a nerve plexus, and in some places, glands that secrete lubricating mucus into the lumen.

tunich submucosa

a gram of fat has about ____ the calories of a gram of starch.

twice

collateral

two arteries that fuse and empty into an arteriole

12. A type B spermatogonium gives rise to

two secondary spermatocytes.

27. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by

type II alveolar cells

The major deep veins of the forearm are the ___ on the medial side and the __ on the later side, respectively.

ulnar; radial

23. the most abundant nitrogenous waste of the blood is

urea.

32. The most significant product of the ornithine cycle is

urea.

26. Hypospadias is a birth defect that results from

urethral opening on the side of the penis.

This structure closes off the nasopharynx when you swallow.

uvula

vasomotor tone

vasoconstrictor activity is continuous to keep arterioles partially constricted

Anaphylactic shock can be caused by a hypersensitive allergic reaction, which individuals can have to such things as a bee sting or penicillin. These individuals have massive release of histamine, which causes __ of blood vessels and __ in the arterial blood pressure

vasodialation; a decrease

valves are found in

veins and lymphatic vessels

Blood flow is directly proportional to

vessel radius.

Blood flow will decrease if

viscosity increases.

Which of the following is most important in keeping food out of the trachea

vocal folds

elastic arteries

walls of arteries are more resilient with a high concentration of elastic fibers and fewer smooth muscle cells. Can tolerate dramatic pressure changes in the cardiac cycle

elastic rebound

when diastole begins, blood pressure drops, and the arteries recoil to their original dimensions.

Capillary beds

where exchange between the blood and interstitial fluid takes place

white pulp

which consists of lymphocytes and macrophages aggregated like sleeves along small branches of the splenic artery.

red pulp

which consists of sinuses gorged with concentrated erythrocytes;

the heart rate tends to be higher in

women than in men

36. Pepsin is produced from a

zymogen called Pepsinogen

63. Which of the following is a ketone body?

β-hydroxybutyric acid

48. types of anemia

• Iron-deficiency anemia. This is the most common type of anemia. It occurs when your body can't make enough hemoglobin. This type of anemia is especially common among women of childbearing age. Menstruation and pregnancy increase a woman's need for iron (pregnancy in fact doubles it), and this lack of iron leads to anemia. • Pernicious anemia. This is also called Vitamin B-12 anemia. Pernicious anemia is caused by your intestines' inability to absorb enough Vitamin B-12, a vitamin your body requires to make red blood cells. A diet lacking in B-12 and other important vitamins and minerals can also lead to anemia. • Aplastic anemia. Aplastic anemia is when your body cannot make enough red blood cells. This type of anemia can be caused by the destruction of bone marrow by factors outside of your body, such as exposure to chemical agents, medical treatments or physical factors. Arsenic, X-rays, and chemotherapy are all examples of this type of exposure. Sometimes, the cause of aplastic anemia is unknown, although autoimmune disease is believed to be a cause as well. • Sickle Cell anemia. This is a hereditary condition that is characterized by red blood cells taking on a crescent (sickle) shape. These abnormal sickle cells break down faster than normal red blood cells, resulting in a chronic shortage of red blood cells in your body. This type of anemia is more common in people of African, Arabic and Mediterranean descent. • Trauma related anemia. This occurs when your body loses a large amount of red blood cells at one time, such as when you are injured in a car accident. The anemia is caused by the body's inability to transfer oxygen or nutrients to its organs without the red blood cells. Once the cause of the loss of red blood cells is found and stopped, treatment can begin.


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