EKG

The client is in ventricular fibrillation. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. 1. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation. 2. Prepare to administer the antidysrhythmic adenosine IVP. 3. Prepare to defibrillate the client. 4. Bring the crash cart to the bedside. 5. Prepare to administer the antidysrhythmic amiodarone IVP.

1, 3, 4, 5 (. Ventricular fibrillation indicates the client does not have a heartbeat. Therefore, CPR should be instituted. CHAPTER 3 CARDIAC DISORDERS 97 2. Adenosine, an antidysrhythmic, is the drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia, not for ventricular fibrillation. 3. Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation. 4. The crash cart has the defibrillator and is used when performing advanced cardiopulmonary resuscitation. 5. Amiodarone is an antidysrhythmic that is used in ventricular dysrhythmias.)

Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with coronary artery disease? Select all that apply. 1. Instruct the client to stop smoking. 2. Encourage the client to exercise three (3) days a week. 3. Teach about coronary vasodilators. 4. Prepare the client for a carotid endarterectomy. 5. Eat foods high in monosaturated fats.

1,2,3 (Exercising helps develop collateral circulation and decrease anxiety; it also helps clients to lose weight. Clients with coronary artery disease are usually prescribed nitroglycerin, which is the treatment of choice for angina.The client should eat polyunsaturated fats, not monosaturated fats, to help decrease atherosclerosis.)

The nurse is caring for a client following exploratory laparotomy. Blood pressure is discernable at 32 mm Hg systolic. Although activity is seen on the electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse is unable to obtain a pulse. Which priority action(s) should the nurse initiate? (Select all that apply.) 1. Begin cardiopulmonary Recitation (CPR) 2. Provide Defibrillation 3. Administer Epi 4. Provide Synchronized cardioversion

1,2,3 (This client is experiencing pulseless electrical activity (PEA). The most common causes of PEA are hypovolemia and hypoxia. The nurse must perform a pulse assessment in order to identify PEA. Similar to asystole, PEA is treated by CPR, defibrillation, and epinephrine however cardioversion is contraindicated.)

The client has just had a pericardiocentesis. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour. 2. Assess the client's heart and lung sounds. 3. Record the amount of fluid removed as output. 4. Evaluate the client's cardiac rhythm. 5. Keep the client in the supine position.

1,2,3,4 (The nurse should monitor the vital signs for any client who has just undergone surgery. A pericardiocentesis involves entering the pericardial sac. Assessing heart and lung sounds allows assessment for cardiac failure. The pericardial fluid is documented as output. Evaluating the client's cardiac rhythm allows the nurse to assess for cardiac failure, which is a complication of pericardiocentesis. The client should be in the semi-Fowler's position, not in a flat position, which increases the workload of the heart.)

The client comes to the emergency department saying, "I am having a heart attack." Which question is most pertinent when assessing the client? 1. "Can you describe your chest pain?" 2. "What were you doing when the pain started?" 3. "Did you have a high-fat meal today?" 4. "Does the pain get worse when you lie down?"

1. "Can you describe your chest pain?" (The chest pain for an MI usually is described as an elephant sitting on the chest or a belt squeezing the substernal midchest, often radiating to the jaw or left arm.0

The client is admitted for surgical repair of an 8-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which sign/symptom would make the nurse suspect the client has an expanding AAA? 1. Complaints of low back pain. 2. Weakened radial pulses. 3. Decreased urine output. 4. Increased abdominal girth.

1. Complaints of low back pain (1. Low back pain is present because of the pressure of the aneurysm on the lumbar nerves; this is a serious symptom, usually indicating that the aneurysm is expanding rapidly and about to rupture. f any pulses were affected, it would be the pedal pulses, not the radial pulses. 3. Decreased urine output would not indi- cate an expanding AAA, but decreased urine output may occur when the AAA ruptures, causing hypovolemia. 4. The abdominal girth would not increase for an expanding AAA, but it might in- crease with a ruptured AAA. TEST-TAKING HINT: If the test taker knows the anatomical position of the abdominal aorta and understands the term "expanding," it may lead the test taker to select low back pain as the correct answer.)

Which medical client problem should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client diagnosed with cardiomyopathy? 1. Heart failure. 2. Activity intolerance. 3. Powerlessness. 4. Anticipatory grieving.

1. Heart failure (Medical client problems indicate the nurse and the physician must collaborate to care for the client; the client must have medications for heart failure. The nurse can instruct the client to pace activities and can teach about rest versus activity without a health care provider order.)

The client has chronic atrial fibrillation. Which discharge teaching should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Instruct the client to use a soft-bristle toothbrush. 2. Discuss the importance of getting a monthly partial thromboplastin time (PTT). 3. Teach the client about signs of pacemaker malfunction. 4. Explain to the client the procedure for synchronized cardioversion.

1. Instruct the client to use a soft-bristle toothbrush. (A client with chronic atrial fibrillation will be taking an anticoagulant to help prevent clot formation. Therefore, the client is at risk for bleeding and should be instructed to use a soft-bristle toothbrush. 2. The client will need a regularly scheduled INR to determine the therapeutic level for the anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin); PTT levels are monitored for heparin. 3. A client with symptomatic sinus bradycardia, not a client with atrial fibrillation, may need a pacemaker.)

The nurse is told in report the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur? 1. Second intercostal space, right sternal notch. 2. Erb's point. 3. Second intercostal space, left sternal notch. 4. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border.

1. Second intercostal space, right sternal notch. (A_PETM)

A client on telemetry begins to have unstable supra-ventricular tachycardia. The nurse observes that the client is alert and able to follow commands. Based on the assessment findings, what will be a priority intervention? 1. The Client Should be instructed to deep breathe and cough forcefully every one to three seconds. 2. The client should be instructed to drink a full glass of clear fluids 3. The nurse should increase the infusion rate to improve hydration status 4. The client should be instructed to breathe regularly and deeply

1. The Client Should be instructed to deep breathe and cough forcefully every one to three seconds. (Coughing forcefully every one to three seconds may help terminate supra ventricular tachycardia through stimulation of the vagus nerve, which supplies parasympathetic motor fibers to the myocardium. The maneuver is used to slow the heart rate. One method of vagal maneuver technique includes coughing forcefully and sustained. Forceful coughing may be easier to perform if the client is able to perform the technique. Forceful coughing is one of several methods of vagal maneuver. Other methods include bearing down (the Valsalva maneuver), cold stimulus, gagging, and carotid massage. Drinking clear fluids, increasing an intravenous infusion rate, and deep breathing are not effective to terminate supra ventricular tachycardia.)

The client is admitted to the medical unit to rule out carditis. Which question should the nurse ask the client during the admission interview to support this diagnosis? 1. "Have you had a sore throat in the last month?" 2. "Did you have rheumatic fever as a child?" 3. "Do you have a family history of carditis?" 4. "What over-the-counter (OTC) medications do you take?"

2. "Did you have rheumatic fever as a child?" (1. A sore throat in the last month would not support the diagnosis of carditis. 2. Rheumatic fever, a systemic inflamma- tory disease caused by an abnormal im- mune response to pharyngeal infection by group A beta-hemolytic strepto- cocci, causes carditis in about 50% of people who develop it. 3. Carditis is not a genetic or congenital disease process. 4. This is an appropriate question to ask any client, but OTC medications do not cause carditis.)

A nurse is caring for a client on telemetry interprets the EKG as having a bundle branch block based on the following characteristics: 1. A narrow QRS segment 2. A wide QRS segment 3. An inverted PR interval 4. A spiked RP interval

2. A wide QRS segment (Bundle branch block occurs when an impulse is blocked as it travels through the bundle branches. Electrical impulses travel down the right and left bundle branches at the same speed. A block in one of the branches causes the electrical impulse to travel to the ventricle via an alternate route. The ventricle still contracts; however, it will take longer and the impulse will be slower. One ventricle contracts a fraction of a second slower than the other ventricle. Blocks can be either right or left. A bundle branch block does not cause a narrow QRS segment, an inverted PR interval, or a spiked PR interval.)

The client is in complete heart block. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Prepare to insert a pacemaker. 2. Administer atropine, an antidysrhythmic. 3. Obtain a STAT electrocardiogram (ECG). 4. Notify the health-care provider.

2. Administer atropine, an antidysrhythmic. (1. A pacemaker will have to be inserted, but it is not the first intervention. 2. Atropine will decrease vagal stimula- tion and increase the heart rate. Therefore, it is the first intervention. 3. A STAT ECG may be done, but the telemetry reading shows complete heart block, which is a life-threatening dysrhythmia and must be treated. 4. The HCP will need to be notified but not prior to administering a medication. The test taker must assume the nurse has the order to administer medication. Many telemetry departments have standing protocols. TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker must select the intervention that should be implemented first and will directly affect the dysrhythmia. Medication is the first intervention, and then pacemaker insertion. The test taker should not eliminate an option because the test taker thinks there is not an order by a health-care provider)

Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve? 1. Pulmonary embolus. 2. Cerebrovascular accident. 3. Hemoptysis. 4. Deep vein thrombosis.

2. Cerebrovascular accident. (Pulmonary embolus would occur with an embolization of vegetative lesions from the tricuspid valve on the right side of the heart. 2. Bacteria enter the bloodstream from invasive procedures, and sterile platelet-fibrin vegetation forms on heart valves. The mitral valve is on the left side of the heart and, if the vegetation breaks off, it will go through the left ventricle into the systemic circulation and may lodge in the brain, kidneys, or peripheral tissues. 3. Coughing up blood (hemoptysis) occurs when the vegetation breaks off the tricuspid valve in the right side of the heart and enters the pulmonary artery. 4. Deep vein thrombosis is a complication of immobility, not of a vegetative embolus from the left side of the heart.)

Which client would be most likely to develop an abdominal aortic aneurysm? 1. A 45-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis. 2. An 80-year-old female with congestive heart failure. 3. A 69-year-old male with peripheral vascular disease. 4. A 30-year-old male with a genetic predisposition to AAA.

3. A 69-year-old male with peripheral vascular disease. (The most common cause of AAA is atherosclerosis (which is the cause of peripheral vascular disease); it occurs in men four (4) times more often than women and primarily in Caucasians.If the test taker knew that AAA and peripheral vascular disease both occur with atherosclerosis, it might possibly lead to the selection of option "3" as the correct answer.)

The client is exhibiting ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Administer lidocaine, an antidysrhythmic, IVP. 2. Prepare to defibrillate the client. 3. Assess the client's apical pulse and blood pressure. 4. Start basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

3. Assess the client's apical pulse and blood pressure. (The nurse must assess the apical pulse and blood pressure to determine if the client is in cardiac arrest and then treat as ventricular fibrillation. If the client's heart is beating, the nurse would then administer lidocaine)

The client has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD). Which discharge instructions should the nurse teach the client? 1. Do not lift or carry more than 23 kg. 2. Have someone drive the car for the rest of your life. 3. Carry the cell phone on the opposite side of the ICD. 4. Avoid using the microwave oven in the home.

3. Carry the cell phone on the opposite side of the ICD. (1. 2. 3. 4. Clients should not lift more than 5 to10 pounds because it puts a strain on the heart; 23 kg is more than 50 pounds.There may be driving restrictions, but the client should be able to drive independently. Cell phones may interfere with the functioning of the ICD if they are placed too close to it.Microwave ovens should not cause problems with the ICD.)

Which intervention should the nurse implement with the client diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy? 1. Keep the client in the supine position with the legs elevated. 2. Discuss a heart transplant, which is the definitive treatment. 3. Prepare the client for coronary artery bypass graft. 4. Teach the client to take a calcium channel blocker in the morning.

3. Prepare the client for coronary artery bypass graft. (Most clients with dilated cardiomyopathy prefer to sit up with their legs in the dependent position. This position causes pooling of blood in the periphery and reduces preload. 2. Without a heart transplant, this client will end up in end-stage heart failure. A transplant is the only treatment for a client with dilated cardiomyopathy. 4. Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in clients with dilated cardiomyopathy because they interfere with the contractility of the heart.)

A nurse is caring for a client who becomes diaphoretic. Blood pressure is 68/36 mm Hg and the electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals supraventricular tachycardia. After administration of adenosine and performing a Valsalva maneuver, the client continues to be symptomatic and complains of severe palpitations. The nurse's priority is to: 1.Give Epi 1 mg IV immediately and repeat in 3 minutes 2. Give Carvediol 25mg orally and repeat in 12 hours 3. Prepare the client for synchronized Cardio-version 4. Have the client Cough Deeply fr five minutes

3. Prepare the client for synchronized Cardioversion

The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first? 1. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in one (1) minute. 2. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate. 3. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3. 4. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm.

3. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3 (Three (3) unifocal PVCs in one (1) minute is not life threatening. An audible S3 indicates the client is developing left-sided heart failure and needs to be assessed immediately.)

The client who is one (1) day postoperative coronary artery bypass surgery is exhibiting sinus tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Assess the apical heart rate for one (1) full minute. 2. Notify the client's cardiac surgeon. 3. Prepare the client for synchronized cardioversion. 4. Determine if the client is having pain.

4. Determine if the client is having pain. (1. The telemetry reading is accurate, and there is no need for the nurse to assess the client's heart rate. 2. There is no reason to notify the surgeon for a client exhibiting sinus tachycardia. 3. Synchronized cardioversion is prescribed for clients in acute atrial fibrillation or ventricular fibrillation with a pulse. 4. Sinus tachycardia means the sinoatrial node is the pacemaker, but the rate is greater than 100 because of pain, anxiety, or fever. The nurse must determine the cause and treat appropriately. There is no specific medication for sinus tachycardia.

The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. Which are the most common signs/symptoms the nurse would expect to find when assessing the client? 1. Pulsus paradoxus. 2. Complaints of fatigue and arthralgias. 3. Petechiae and splinter hemorrhages. 4. Increased chest pain with inspiration.

4. Increased chest pain with inspiration. (Pulsus paradoxus is the hallmark of cardiac tamponade; a paradoxical pulse is markedly decreased in amplitude during inspiration. 2. Fatigue and arthralgias are nonspecific signs/symptoms that usually occur with myocarditis. 3. Petechiae on the trunk, conjunctiva, and mucous membranes and hemorrhagic streaks under the fingernails or toenails occur with endocarditis. 4. Chest pain is the most common symptom of pericarditis, usually has an abrupt onset, and is aggravated by respiratory movements (deep inspiration, coughing), changes in body position, and swallowing.)

17. A patient is brought to the ED and determined to be experiencing symptomatic sinus bradycardia. The nurse caring for this patient is aware the medication of choice for treatment of this dysrhythmia is the administration of atropine. What guidelines will the nurse follow when administering atropine? A) Administer atropine 0.5 mg as an IV bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum of 3.0 mg. B) Administer atropine as a continuous infusion until symptoms resolve. C) Administer atropine as a continuous infusion to a maximum of 30 mg in 24 hours. D) Administer atropine 1.0 mg sublingually.

A) Administer atropine 0.5 mg as an IV bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum of 3.0 mg.

The nurse and the other members of the team are caring for a patient who converted to ventricular fibrillation (VF). The patient was defibrillated unsuccessfully and the patient remains in VF. According to national standards, the nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication? A) Epinephrine 1 mg IV push B) Lidocaine 100 mg IV push C) Amiodarone 300 mg IV push D) Sodium bicarbonate 1 amp IV push

A) Epinephrine 1 mg IV push (Epinephrine should be administered as soon as possible after the first unsuccessful defibrillation and then every 3 to 5 minutes. Antiarrhythmic medications such as amiodarone and licocaine are given if ventricular dysrhythmia persists.)

A patient is undergoing preoperative teaching before his cardiac surgery and the nurse is aware that a temporary pacemaker will be placed later that day. What is the nurses responsibility in the care of the patients pacemaker? A) Monitoring for pacemaker malfunction or battery failure B) Determining when it is appropriate to remove the pacemaker C) Making necessary changes to the pacemaker settings D) Selecting alternatives to future pacemaker use

A) Monitoring for pacemaker malfunction or battery failure (Monitoring for pacemaker malfunctioning and battery failure is a nursing responsibility. The other listed actions are physician responsibilities.)

A patient the nurse is caring for has a permanent pacemaker implanted with the identification code beginning with VVI. What does this indicate? A) Ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited B) Variable paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited C) Ventricular sensed, ventricular situated, implanted D) Variable sensed, variable paced, inhibited

A) Ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited (think of the mnemonicS PSI-Paced-Sensed-INHIBITED)

The nurse is caring for an adult patient who has gone into v-Fib. When assisting with defibrillating the patient, what must the nurse do? A. Maintain firm contract between paddles and patient skin B. Apply a layer of water as a conducting agent C. Call clear once before discharging the defibrillator D. Ensure the defibrillator is in sync mode.

A. Maintain firm contract between paddles and patient skin ( the nurse should check the patient and ensure know one is touching him 3 times aka clear! sync is only for cardio version. If you picked water...YIKES. Suanders states " apply firm pressure of at least 25 lb to each of the pads--just make sure your patient is going to get that shock I guess"

A patient converts from normal sinus rhythm at 80 bpm to atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response at 166 bpm. Blood pressure is 162/74 mm Hg. Respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute with normal chest expansion and clear lungs bilaterally. IV heparin and Cardizem are given. The nurse caring for the patient understands that the main goal of treatment is what? A) Decrease SA node conduction B) Control ventricular heart rate C) Improve oxygenation D) Maintain anticoagulation

B) Control ventricular heart rate ( Think fix the problem bc it will fix the issue, if you just "improved oxygenation with a o2..as soon as you took away 02 problem would still be there.- Treatment for atrial fibrillation is to terminate the rhythm or to control ventricular rate. This is a priority because it directly affects cardiac output. A rapid ventricular response reduces the time for ventricular filling, resulting in a smaller stroke volume. Control of rhythm is the initial treatment of choice, followed by anticoagulation with heparin and then Coumadin.)

A patient is scheduled for catheter ablation therapy. When describing this procedure to the patients family, the nurse should address what aspect of the treatment? A) Resetting of the hearts contractility B) Destruction of specific cardiac cells C) Correction of structural cardiac abnormalities D) Clearance of partially occluded coronary arteries

B) Destruction of specific cardiac cells (The patient first undergoes an electrophysiology study to identify and map the specific areas of the heart that's causing the arrhythmia. The ablation catheters are inserted into a vein, usually the femoral vein, and advanced to the heart where short bursts of radiofrequency waves destroy small targeted areas of heart tissue. The destroyed tissue can no longer conduct electrical impulses. Other types of energy may also be used, such as microwave, sonar, or cryo (freezing).)

The nurse caring for a patient whose sudden onset of sinus bradycardia is not responding adequately to atropine. What might be the treatment of choice for this patient? A) Implanted pacemaker B) Trancutaneous pacemaker C) ICD D) Asynchronous defibrillator

B) Trancutaneous pacemaker (least invasie..in an emergency situation like this they would not have time to implant a pace maker. )

A patient with pericarditis has just been admitted to the cardiac care unit. The nurse planning the patients care should prioritize what nursing dx? A. Anxiety related to pericarditis B. Pain related to pericarditis C. Ineffective tissue perfusion r/t pericarditis D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pericarditis

B. Pain related to pericarditis ( pain is almost certain to occur, and is an actual problem. There is no evidence that the patient has ineffective tissue perfusion or ineffective breathing pattern)

A nurse is caring for a client in the intensive care unit observes the cardiac monitor and notes a rate of 165 bpm, no P waves, and wide QRS complexes. The nurse determines the client's rhythm is: A. Premature ventricular contractions B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Atrial Tachycardia

B. Ventricular tachycardia (Ventricular tachycardia (V-Tach) is characterized by absent P waves, wide QRS complexes and a rate between 100 and 250 impulses per minute. The rhythm is usually regular. The characteristics of the client's rhythm do not indicate premature ventricular contractions, sinus tachycardia, or atrial tachycardia)

A patient is admitted to the cardiac care unit for an electrophysiology (EP) study. What goal should guide the planning and execution of the patients care? A) Ablate the area causing the dysrhythmia. B) Freeze hypersensitive cells. C) Diagnose the dysrhythmia. D) Determine the nursing plan of care.

C) Diagnose the dysrhythmia. ( A patient may undergo an EP study in which electrodes are placed inside the heart to obtain an intracardiac ECG. This is used not only to diagnose the dysrhythmia but also to determine the most effective treatment plan. However, because an EP study is invasive, it is performed in the hospital and may require that the patient be admitted.)

An adult patient with third-degree AV block is admitted to the cardiac care unit and placed on continuous cardiac monitoring. What rhythm characteristic will the ECG most likely show? A) PP interval and RR interval are irregular. B) PP interval is equal to RR interval. C) Fewer QRS complexes than P waves D) PR interval is constant.

C) Fewer QRS complexes than P waves (The impulses from the SA node and AV node are being blocked..the ventricles aren't getting the signals to squeeze like they should..so fewer of them will make it through)

During a patients care conference, the team is discussing whether the patients is a candidate for cardiac conduction surgery. What would be the most important criterion for a patient to have this surgery? A.) Angina pectoris not responsive to treatment B.) Decreased Activity Tolerance related to decreased cardiac output C. Atrial and Ventricular tachycardias not responsive to other treatments D. V-fib not responsive to other treatments

C. Atrial and Ventricular tachycardias not responsive to other treatments

During a patient care conference, the team is discussing whether the patient is a candidate for cardiac conduction surgery. What would be the most important criterion for a patient to have this surgery? A. Angina pectoris not responsive to other treatments B. Activity intolerance retaliated to decreased cardiac output C. Atrial and ventricular tachycardia not responsive to other treatment D. Ventricular fibrillation is not responsive to other treatments.

C. Atrial and ventricular tachycardia not responsive to other treatment (Think about it-In A Fib the SA node lost control. And the cardiac output is still decreased. We still want to shock pt and reset SA node? Obviously we shock for V-fib. Cardiac conduction surgery is considered in patients who do not respond to medications and anti tachycardia pacing. Angina, reduced activity tolerance, and ventricular fibrillation are not criteria.)

An ECG has been ordered for a newly admitted patient. What should the nurse do prior to placement? a. Clean the area with provide- iodine solution b. Ensure that the area for electrode placement is dry c. Apply tincture of benzoin to the electrodes sites and wait for it to become tacky d. Gently abrade the skin rubbing the electrode sits with dry gauze pads

D. Gently abrade the skin rubbing the electrode sits with dry gauze pads (an ECG is obtained by slightly abrading the skin with a clean dry gauze pad. The abrading of the skin will enhance signal transmission. Disinfecting the skin is unnecessary)

A patient is admitted to the unit with cardiogenic shock from a heart attack. After receiving health care provider orders, which intervention medications will the nurse anticipate preparing? Select all that apply. a. Dopamine b. Digoxin c. Diphenhydramine d. Daunorubicin e. Dexamethasone

a, b (In cardiogenic shock, the heart fails to pump effectively enough to supply the body's needs. Cardiogenic shock can be caused from a heart attack or myocardial infarction. In cardiogenic shock, the heart fails to pump effectively enough to supply the body's needs. Cardiogenic shock can be caused from a heart attack or myocardial infarction. The goal of treatment would be to restore heart function as well as blood pressure quickly. Medication interventions used to treat cardiogenic shock may include dopamine and digoxin. Both are positive inotropic meds that cause the heart to generate more forceful beats. Dopamine improves heart contractility and the choice for hypotensive patients. Digoxin "digs" for a deeper contraction and is a cardiac glycoside. a. This answer is correct because dopamine improves heart contractility and the choice for hypotensive patients in cardiogenic shock. The goal of treatment of cardiogenic shock would be to restore heart function as well as blood pressure quickly. b. This answer is correct because digoxin "digs" for a deeper contraction and is a cardiac glycoside. The goal of treatment of cardiogenic shock would be to restore heart function as well as blood pressure quickly. c. This answer is not correct because diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and is used in the treatment of anaphylactic shock only after epinephrine. d.This answer is not correct because daunorubicin is an anthracycline used to treat cancer. It helps slow or stop the cancer cell growth. The adverse effect of this medication is heart damage. It is definitely not used as treatment for cardiogenic shock. e. This answer is not correct because although dexamethasone is a steroid and useful in relieving swelling, pain, redness, etc. It is not a priority treatment used in cardiogenic shock.)